ILLINOIS POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
January 5, 2006
IN THE MATTER OF: )
)
UIC CORRECTIONS, USEPA ) R06-5
AMENDMENTS January 1, 2005 through ) (Identical-in-Substance
June 30, 2005) ) Rulemaking - Land)
RCRA SUBTITLE D UPDATE, USEPA ) R06-6
AMENDMENTS (January 1, 2005 through ) (Identical-in-Substance
June 30, 2005 and August 1, 2005) ) Rulemaking - Land)
RCRA SUBTITLE C UPDATE, USEPA ) R06-7
AMENDMENTS (January 1, 2005 through ) (Identical-in-Substance
June 30, 2005 and August 1, 2005) ) Rulemaking - Land)
) (Consolidated)
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Adopted Rule
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.
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Final Order
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.
ORDER OF THE BOARD (by G.T. Girard):
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SUMMARY OF TODAY’S ACTION
The Board today adopts final identical-in-substance rules in three consolidated dockets.
The rulemaking updates the Illinois underground injection control, municipal solid waste
landfill, and hazardous waste regulations to incorporate revisions to the federal regulations. The
federal amendments that prompted this action were made by the United States Environmental
Protection Agency (USEPA) during the period of January 1, 2005 through June 30, 2005. This
proceeding amends 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 725, 728, and 738. These amendments also
make a series of non-substantive corrections and stylistic revisions to segments of the text that
are not otherwise affected by the covered federal amendments, principally to the text of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 723 and 738.
This order and the related opinion adopt identical-in-substance amendments in three
distinct program areas:
1. Under Sections 7.2 and 13(c) of the Environmental Protection Act (Act) (415
ILCS 5/7.2 and 13(c) (2004)), the Board adopts amendments to the Illinois
regulations that are “identical in substance” to underground injection control
(UIC) regulations that the USEPA adopted to implement Section 1421 of the
federal Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) (42 U.S.C. § 300h (2003)). The
federal UIC regulations are found at 40 C.F.R. 144 through 148.
2. Under Sections 7.2 and 22.40(a) of the Act (415 ILCS 5/7.2 and 22.4(a) (2004))
the Board adopts regulations that are “identical in substance” to municipal solid
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waste landfill (MSWLF) regulations adopted by the USEPA. These USEPA rules
implement Subtitle D of the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of
1976 (RCRA Subtitle C) (42 U.S.C. §§ 6941
et seq
. (2003)). The federal RCRA
Subtitle D MSWLF regulations are found at 40 C.F.R. 258.
3. Under Sections 7.2 and 22.4(a) of the Act (415 ILCS 5/7.2 and 22.4(a) (2004))
the Board adopts regulations that are “identical in substance” to hazardous waste
regulations adopted by the USEPA. These USEPA rules implement Subtitle C of
the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA Subtitle C)
(42 U.S.C. §§ 6921
et seq
. (2003)). The federal RCRA Subtitle C hazardous
waste management regulations are found at 40 C.F.R. 260 through 266, 268, 270,
271, 273, and 279.
Sections 13(c), 22.40(a), and 22.4(a) also provide that Title VII of the Act and Section 5
of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 ILCS 100/5-35 and 5-40 (1998)) do not apply to the
Board’s adoption of identical-in-substance regulations.
This order is supported by an opinion that the Board also adopts today. The Board will
file the adopted amendments with the Office of the Secretary of State 30 days after the date of
this order, after which they will be published in the
Illinois Register
. This delay is specifically to
allow USEPA time to review and comment on the adopted amendments before they are filed and
become effective.
The Clerk is directed to cause the filing of the following adopted amendments with the
Office of the Secretary of State for their publication in the
Illinois Register
:
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER b: PERMITS
PART 703
RCRA PERMIT PROGRAM
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
703.100 Scope and Relation to Other Parts
703.101 Purpose
703.110 References
SUBPART B: PROHIBITIONS
Section
703.120 Prohibitions in General
703.121 RCRA Permits
703.122 Specific Inclusions in Permit Program
703.123 Specific Exclusions from Permit Program
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703.124 Discharges of Hazardous Waste
703.125 Reapplications
703.126 Initial Applications
703.127 Federal Permits (Repealed)
SUBPART C: AUTHORIZATION BY RULE AND INTERIM STATUS
Section
703.140 Purpose and Scope
703.141 Permits by Rule
703.150 Application by Existing HWM Facilities and Interim Status Qualifications
703.151 Application by New HWM Facilities
703.152 Amended Part A Application
703.153 Qualifying for Interim Status
703.154 Prohibitions During Interim Status
703.155 Changes During Interim Status
703.156 Interim Status Standards
703.157 Grounds for Termination of Interim Status
703.158 Permits for Less Than an Entire Facility
703.159 Closure by Removal
703.160 Procedures for Closure Determination
703.161 Enforceable Document for Post-Closure Care
SUBPART D: APPLICATIONS
Section
703.180 Applications in General
703.181 Contents of Part A
703.182 Contents of Part B
703.183 General Information
703.184 Facility Location Information
703.185 Groundwater Protection Information
703.186 Exposure Information
703.187 Solid Waste Management Units
703.188 Other Information
703.191 Public Participation: Pre-Application Public Notice and Meeting
703.192 Public Participation: Public Notice of Application
703.193 Public Participation: Information Repository
703.200 Specific Part B Application Information
703.201 Containers
703.202 Tank Systems
703.203 Surface Impoundments
703.204 Waste Piles
703.205 Incinerators that Burn Hazardous Waste
703.206 Land Treatment
703.207 Landfills
703.208 Boilers and Industrial Furnaces Burning Hazardous Waste
703.209 Miscellaneous Units
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703.210 Process Vents
703.211 Equipment
703.212 Drip Pads
703.213 Air Emission Controls for Tanks, Surface Impoundments, and Containers
703.214 Post-Closure Care Permits
SUBPART E: SHORT TERM AND PHASED PERMITS
Section
703.220 Emergency Permits
703.221 Alternative Compliance with the Federal NESHAPS
703.222 Incinerator Conditions Prior to Trial Burn
703.223 Incinerator Conditions During Trial Burn
703.224 Incinerator Conditions After Trial Burn
703.225 Trial Burns for Existing Incinerators
703.230 Land Treatment Demonstration
703.231 Research, Development and Demonstration Permits
703.232 Permits for Boilers and Industrial Furnaces Burning Hazardous Waste
703.234 Remedial Action Plans
SUBPART F: PERMIT CONDITIONS OR DENIAL
Section
703.240 Permit Denial
703.241 Establishing Permit Conditions
703.242 Noncompliance Pursuant to Emergency Permit
703.243 Monitoring
703.244 Notice of Planned Changes (Repealed)
703.245 Twenty-four Hour Reporting
703.246 Reporting Requirements
703.247 Anticipated Noncompliance
703.248 Information Repository
SUBPART G: CHANGES TO PERMITS
Section
703.260 Transfer
703.270 Modification
703.271 Causes for Modification
703.272 Causes for Modification or Reissuance
703.273 Facility Siting
703.280 Permit Modification at the Request of the Permittee
703.281 Class 1 Modifications
703.282 Class 2 Modifications
703.283 Class 3 Modifications
SUBPART H: REMEDIAL ACTION PLANS
Section
703.300 Special Regulatory Format
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703.301 General Information
703.302 Applying for a RAP
703.303 Getting a RAP Approved
703.304 How a RAP May Be Modified, Revoked and Reissued, or Terminated
703.305 Operating Under A RAP
703.306 Obtaining a RAP for an Off-Site Location
SUBPART I: INTEGRATION WITH MAXIMUM ACHIEVABLE CONTROL
TECHNOLOGY (MACT) STANDARDS
Section
703.320 Options for Incinerators and Cement and Lightweight Aggregate Kilns to
Minimize Emissions from Startup, Shutdown, and Malfunction Events
703.Appendix A Classification of Permit Modifications
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 7.2 and 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/7.2, 22.4, and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R82-19 at 7 Ill. Reg. 14289, effective October 12, 1983; amended in
R83-24 at 8 Ill. Reg. 206, effective December 27, 1983; amended in R84-9 at 9 Ill. Reg. 11899,
effective July 24, 1985; amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg. 1110, effective January 2, 1986;
amended in R85-23 at 10 Ill. Reg. 13284, effective July 28, 1986; amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill.
Reg. 14093, effective August 12, 1986; amended in R86-19 at 10 Ill. Reg. 20702, effective
December 2, 1986; amended in R86-28 at 11 Ill. Reg. 6121, effective March 24, 1987; amended
in R86-46 at 11 Ill. Reg. 13543, effective August 4, 1987; amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg.
19383, effective November 12, 1987; amended in R87-26 at 12 Ill. Reg. 2584, effective January
15, 1988; amended in R87-39 at 12 Ill. Reg. 13069, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R88-16
at 13 Ill. Reg. 447, effective December 27, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18477,
effective November 13, 1989; amended in R89-9 at 14 Ill. Reg. 6278, effective April 16, 1990;
amended in R90-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 14492, effective August 22, 1990; amended in R90-11 at 15 Ill.
Reg. 9616, effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-1 at 15 Ill. Reg. 14554, effective September
30, 1991; amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9767, effective June 9, 1992; amended in R92-10 at
17 Ill. Reg. 5774, effective March 26, 1993; amended in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20794, effective
November 22, 1993; amended in R93-16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6898, effective April 26, 1994; amended
in R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12392, effective July 29, 1994; amended in R94-5 at 18 Ill. Reg. 18316,
effective December 20, 1994; amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9920, effective June 27, 1995;
amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 11225, effective August 1, 1996; amended in R96-10/R97-
3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 553, effective December 16, 1997; amended in R98-12 at 22 Ill. Reg.
7632, effective April 15, 1998; amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 17930, effective
September 28, 1998; amended in R98-21/R99-2/R99-7 at 23 Ill. Reg. 2153, effective January 19,
1999; amended in R99-15 at 23 Ill. Reg. 9381, effective July 26, 1999; amended in R00-13 at 24
Ill. Reg. 9765, effective June 20, 2000; amended in R01-21/R01-23 at 25 Ill. Reg. 9313,
effective July 9, 2001; amended in R02-1/R02-12/R02-17 at 26 Ill. Reg. 6539, effective April 22,
2002; amended in R03-7 at 27 Ill. Reg. 3496, effective February 14, 2003; amended in R03-18 at
27 Ill. Reg. 12683, effective July 17, 2003; amended in R05-8 at 29 Ill. Reg. 5966, effective
April 13,
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2005; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________.
SUBPART C: AUTHORIZATION BY RULE AND INTERIM STATUS
Section 703.140 Purpose and Scope
a) The Sections of this Subpart C are divided into the following two groups:
1) Section 703.141
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,
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(
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Permits by Rule
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)
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; and
2) Sections 703.151 through 703.158, relating to interim status;
b) The interim status rules correspond to
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subpart G of
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40 CFR 270
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, Subpart G
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,
which relates to interim status. Other portions of the federal rules may be found
in Subpart B of this Part. The intent is to group the interim status rules so they
can be more easily ignored by those to whom they do not apply, and so they can
be conveniently repealed after the interim status period.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.141 Permits by Rule
Notwithstanding any other provision of this Part or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 705, the following must be
deemed to have a RCRA permit if the conditions listed are met:
a) Ocean disposal barges or vessels. The owner or operator of a barge or other
vessel that accepts hazardous waste for ocean disposal, if the owner or operator
does the following:
1) It has a permit for ocean dumping issued
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by USEPA
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under 40 CFR 220
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,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
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;
2) It complies with the conditions of that permit; and
3) It complies with the following hazardous waste regulations
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, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
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:
A)
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40 CFR 264.11,
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35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.111 (USEPA
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Identification
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number
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Number)
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;
B)
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40 CFR 264.71,
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35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.171 (
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Use of
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manifest
system
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Manifest System)
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;
C)
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40 CFR 264.72,
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35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.172 (
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Manifest
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discrepancies
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Discrepancies)
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;
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D)
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40 CFR 264.73(a) and (b)(1),
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35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.173(a) and
(b)(1) (
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Operating
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record
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Record)
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;
E)
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40 CFR 264.75,
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35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.175 (
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Biennial
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report
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Report)
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; and
F)
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40 CFR 264.76,
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35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.176, (
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Unmanifested
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waste
report;
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Waste Report).
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b) Injection wells. The owner or operator of an underground injection well
disposing of hazardous waste, if the owner or operator fulfills the following
conditions:
1) It has a permit for underground injection issued under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
704; and
2) It complies with the conditions of that permit and the requirements of
Subpart F of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704 (requirements for wells managing
hazardous waste); and
3) For UIC permits issued after November 8, 1984, the following:
A) It complies with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.201; and
B) Where the UIC well is the only unit at the facility that requires a
RCRA permit, it complies with Section 703.187.
c) Publicly owned treatment works (POTW). The owner or operator of a POTW
that accepts for treatment hazardous waste, if the owner or operator fulfills the
following conditions:
1) It has an NPDES permit;
2) It complies with the conditions of that permit;
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and
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3) It complies with the following regulations:
A) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.111
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,
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(
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Identification
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number
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Number)
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;
B) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.171
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,
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(
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Use of
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manifest system
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Manifest
System)
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;
C) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.172
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,
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(
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Manifest
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discrepencies
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Discrepancies
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;
D) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.173(a) and (b)(1)
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,
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(
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Operating
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record
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Record)
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;
E) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.175
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,
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(
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Annual
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report
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Report)
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;
F) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.176
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,
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(
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Unmanifested
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waste report
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Waste
Report)
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; and
G) For NPDES permits issued after November 8, 1984, 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.201
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(Corrective Action for Solid Waste Management
Units)
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; and
4) If the waste meets all federal, it complies with State and local pretreatment
requirements that would be applicable to the waste if it were being
discharged into the POTW through a sewer, pipe, or similar conveyance.
BOARD NOTE: Illinois pretreatment requirements are codified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 307 and 310.
BOARD NOTE: See 40 CFR 270.60
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(2002)
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(2005)
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.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.153 Qualifying for Interim Status
a) Any person who owns or operates an existing HWM facility or a facility in
existence on the effective date of statutory or regulatory amendments that render
the facility subject to the requirement to have a RCRA permit must have interim
status and must be treated as having been issued a permit to the extent he or she
has
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fulfilled the following requirements
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:
1)
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Complied
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The owner or operator has complied
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with the requirements of
Section 3010(a) of the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
(42 USC 6930(a)) pertaining to notification of hazardous waste activity;
BOARD NOTE: Some existing facilities may not be required to file a
notification under Section 3010(a) of the federal Resource Conservation
and Recovery Act (42 USC 6930(a)). These facilities may qualify for
interim status by meeting subsection (a)(2).
2)
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Complied
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The owner or operator has complied
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with the requirements of
Sections 703.150 and 703.152 governing submission of Part A
applications
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;
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.
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b) Failure to qualify for interim status. If the Agency has reason to believe upon
examination of a Part A application that
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it
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the Part A application
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fails to meet the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.123 or 703.181, it must notify the owner
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or operator in writing of the apparent deficiency. Such notice must specify the
grounds for the Agency’s belief that the application is deficient. The owner or
operator must have 30 days from receipt to respond to such a notification and to
explain or cure the alleged deficiency in its Part A application. If, after such
notification and opportunity for response, the Agency determines that the
application is deficient it may take appropriate enforcement action.
c) Subsection (a)
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of this Section
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must not apply to any facility that has been
previously denied a RCRA permit or if authority to operate the facility under the
federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (42 USC 6901 et seq.) has been
previously terminated.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.70
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(2002)
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(2005)
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.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.155 Changes During Interim Status
a) Except as provided in subsection (b)
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,
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of this Section
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,
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the owner or operator of an
interim status facility may make the following changes at the facility:
1) Treatment, storage, or disposal of new hazardous wastes not previously
identified in Part A of the permit application (and, in the case of newly
listed or identified wastes, addition of the units being used to treat, store,
or dispose of the hazardous wastes on the date of the listing or
identification) if the owner or operator submits a revised Part A permit
application prior to such treatment, storage, or disposal;
2) Increases in the design capacity of processes used at the facility if the
owner or operator submits a revised Part A permit application prior to
such a change (along with a justification explaining the need for the
change) and the Agency approves the change because either of the
following conditions exist:
A) There is a lack of available treatment, storage, or disposal capacity
at other hazardous waste management facilities; or
B) The change is necessary to comply with a federal, State, or local
requirement, including 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, 728, or 729;
3) Changes in the processes for the treatment, storage, or disposal of
hazardous waste may be made at a facility or addition of processes if the
owner or operator submits a revised Part A permit application prior to
such a change (along with a justification explaining the need for change)
and the Agency approves the change because either of the following
conditions exist:
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A) The change is necessary to prevent a threat to human health or the
environment because of an emergency situation; or
B) The change is necessary to comply with a federal, State, or local
requirement, including 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, 728, or 729;
4) Changes in the ownership or operational control of a facility if the new
owner or operator submits a revised Part A permit application no later
than 90 days prior to the scheduled change. When a transfer of ownership
or operational control of a facility occurs, the old owner or operator must
comply with the requirements of Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725
(financial requirements), until the new owner or operator has
demonstrated to the Agency that it is complying with the requirements of
that Subpart. The new owner or operator must demonstrate compliance
with the financial assurance requirements within six months after the date
of the change in the ownership or operational control of the facility. Upon
demonstration to the Agency by the new owner or operator of compliance
with the financial assurance requirements, the Agency must notify the old
owner or operator in writing that the old owner or operator no longer
needs to comply with Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 as of the date of
demonstration. All other interim status duties are transferred effective
immediately upon the date of the change of ownership or operational
control of the facility;
5) Changes made in accordance with an interim status corrective action order
issued by: USEPA under Section 3008(h) of the federal Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act (42 USC 6901 et seq.) or other federal
authority; a court pursuant to a judicial action brought USEPA; a court
pursuant to the Environmental Protection Act; or the Board. Changes
under this subsection (a)(5) are limited to the treatment, storage, or
disposal of solid waste from releases that originate within the boundary of
the facility;
6) Addition of newly regulated units for the treatment, storage, or disposal of
hazardous waste if the owner or operator submits a revised Part A permit
application on or before the date on which the unit becomes subject to the
new requirements.
b) Except as specifically allowed under this subsection (b), changes listed under
subsection (a) of this Section must not be made if they amount to reconstruction
of the HWM facility. Reconstruction occurs when the capital investment in the
changes to the facility exceeds
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fifty
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50
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percent of the capital cost of a comparable
entirely new HWM facility. If all other requirements are met, the following
changes may be made even if they amount to a reconstruction:
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1) Changes made solely for the purpose of complying with requirements of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.293 for tanks and ancillary equipment.
2) If necessary to comply with federal, State or local requirements, including
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, 728, or 729, changes to an existing unit, changes
solely involving tanks or containers, or addition of replacement surface
impoundments that satisfy the statutory standards of Section 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.139.
3) Changes that are necessary to allow an owner or operator to continue
handling newly listed or identified hazardous wastes that have been
treated, stored or disposed of at the facility prior to the effective date of
the rule establishing the new listing or identification.
4) Changes during closure of a facility or of a unit within a facility made in
accordance with an approved closure plan.
5) Changes necessary to comply with an interim status corrective action
order issued by: USEPA under Section 3008(h) of the federal Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act (42 USC 6930(a)) or other federal
authority; a court pursuant to a judicial action brought by USEPA; a court
pursuant to the Environmental Protection Act; or the Board. Changes
under this subsection (b)(5) are limited to the treatment, storage, or
disposal of solid waste from releases that originate within the boundary of
the facility.
6) Changes to treat or store, in tanks, containers, or containment buildings,
hazardous wastes subject to land disposal restrictions imposed in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728, provided that such changes are made solely for the
purpose of complying with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.
7) Addition of newly regulated units under subsection (a)(6) of this Section.
8) Changes necessary to comply with the federal Clean Air Act (CAA)
Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) emissions standards
of
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subpart EEE of
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40 CFR 63
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,
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Subpart EEE--
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(
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National Emission
Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants
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From
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from
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Hazardous Waste
Combustors
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), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
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.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.72
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(2002)
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(2005)
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. The federal CAA MACT
standards are directly implemented in Illinois pursuant to Section 39.5 of the Environmental
Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/39.5].
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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SUBPART D: APPLICATIONS
Section 703.185 Groundwater Protection Information
The following additional information regarding protection of groundwater is required from an
owner or operator of a hazardous waste facility containing a regulated unit, except as provided in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.190(b):
a) A summary of the groundwater monitoring data obtained during the interim status
period under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.190 through 725.194, where applicable;
b) Identification of the uppermost aquifer and aquifers hydraulically interconnected
beneath the facility property, including groundwater flow direction and rate, and
the basis for such identification (i.e., the information obtained from hydrogeologic
investigations of the facility area);
c) On the topographic map required under Section 703.183(s), a delineation of the
waste management area, the property boundary, the proposed “point of
compliance” as defined under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.195, the proposed location
of groundwater monitoring wells as required under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.197
and, to the extent possible, the information required in subsection (b) of this
Section;
d) A description of any plume of contamination that has entered the groundwater
from a regulated unit at the time that the application is submitted that does the
following:
1) It delineates the extent of the plume on the topographic map required
under Section 703.183(s);
2) It identifies the concentration of each Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724
constituent throughout the plume or identifies the maximum
concentrations of each Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 constituent in
the plume;
e) Detailed plans and an engineering report describing the proposed groundwater
monitoring program to be implemented to meet the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.197;
f) If the presence of hazardous constituents has not been detected in the groundwater
at the time of permit application, the owner or operator must submit sufficient
information, supporting data and analyses to establish a detection monitoring
program that meets the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.198. This
submission must address the following items as specified under that Section:
1) A proposed list of indicator parameters, waste constituents or reaction
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products that can provide a reliable indication of the presence of
hazardous constituents in the groundwater;
2) A proposed groundwater monitoring system;
3) Background values for each proposed monitoring parameter or
constituent, or procedures to calculate such values; and
4) A description of proposed sampling, analysis, and statistical comparison
procedures to be utilized in evaluating groundwater monitoring data;
g) If the presence of hazardous constituents has been detected in the groundwater at
the point of compliance at the time of permit application, the owner or operator
must submit sufficient information, supporting data and analyses to establish a
compliance monitoring program that meets the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.199. Except as provided in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.198(h)(5), the owner or
operator must also submit an engineering feasibility plan for a corrective action
program necessary to meet the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.200, unless
the owner or operator obtains written authorization in advance from the Agency
to submit a proposed permit schedule for submittal of such a plan. To
demonstrate compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.199, the owner or operator
must address the following items:
1) A description of the wastes previously handled at the facility;
2) A characterization of the contaminated groundwater, including
concentrations of hazardous constituents;
3) A list of hazardous constituents for which compliance monitoring will be
undertaken in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.197 and 724.199;
4) Proposed concentration limits for each hazardous constituent, based on the
criteria set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.194(a), including a justification
for establishing any alternate concentration limits;
5) Detailed plans and an engineering report describing the proposed
groundwater monitoring system, in accordance with the requirements of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.197; and
6) A description of proposed sampling, analysis, and statistical comparison
procedures to be utilized in evaluating groundwater monitoring data;
h) If hazardous constituents have been measured in the groundwater that exceed the
concentration limits established under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.194, Table 1, or if
groundwater monitoring conducted at the time of permit application under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.190 through 725.194 at the waste boundary indicates the
14
presence of hazardous constituents from the facility in groundwater over
background concentrations, the owner or operator must submit sufficient
information, supporting data, and analyses to establish a corrective action
program that meets the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.200. However, an
owner or operator is not required to submit information to establish a corrective
action program if it demonstrates to the Agency that alternate concentration limits
will protect human health and the environment after considering the criteria listed
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.194(b). An owner or operator who is not required to
establish a corrective action program for this reason must instead submit
sufficient information to establish a compliance monitoring program that meets
the requirements of subsection (f) and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.199.
S
To
demonstrate compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.200, the owner or operator
must address, at a minimum, the following items:
S
U
1) To demonstrate compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.200, the owner or
operator must address, at a minimum, the following items:
S
1
SU
A
U
) A characterization of the contaminated groundwater, including
concentrations of hazardous constituents;
S
2
SU
B
U
) The concentration limit for each hazardous constituent found in the
groundwater, as set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.194;
S
3
SU
C
U
) Detailed plans and an engineering report describing the corrective
action to be taken; and
S
4
SU
D
U
) A description of how the groundwater monitoring program will
assess the adequacy of the corrective action.
S
5
SU
2
U
) The permit may contain a schedule for submittal of the information
required in subsections
S
(h)(3)
SU
(h)(1)(C)
U
and
S
(h)(4)
S
U
(h)(1)(D)
U
of this
Section, provided the owner or operator obtains written authorization from
the Agency prior to submittal of the complete permit application.
BOARD NOTE:
S
See
SU
Derived from
U
40 CFR 270.14(c)
S
(2002)
S
U
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.204 Waste Piles
For a facility that stores or treats hazardous waste in waste piles, except as otherwise provided in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.101, the Part B application must include the following:
a) A list of hazardous wastes placed or to be placed in each waste pile;
b) If an exemption is sought to 35 Ill.
S
Adm
SU
Adm.
U
Code 724.351 and Subpart F of 35
15
Ill. Adm. Code 724, as provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.350(c) or
724.190(b)(2), an explanation of how the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.350(c) will be complied with or detailed plans and an engineering report
describing how the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.190(b)(2) will be met;
c) Detailed plans and an engineering report describing how the pile is designed and
is or will be constructed, operated and maintained to meet the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.119, 724.351, 724.352, and 724.353, addressing the following
items:
1) Liner, leak detection, and removal system.
A) The liner system (except for an existing portion of a waste pile), if
the waste pile must meet the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.351(a). If an exemption from the requirement for a liner is
sought, as provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.351(b), the owner or
operator must submit a copy of the Board order granting an
adjusted standard pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.351(b);
B) The double liner and leak (leachate) detection, collection and
removal system, if the waste pile must meet the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.351(c). If an exemption from the requirements
for double liners and a leak detection, collection, and removal
system or alternative design is sought as provided by 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.351(d), (e), or (f), submit appropriate information;
C) If the leak detection system is located in a saturated zone, submit
detailed plans and an engineering report explaining the leak
detection system design and operation, and the location of the
saturated zone in relation to the leak detection system;
D) The CQA plan, if required under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.119;
E) Proposed action leakage rate, with rationale, if required under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.352, and response action plan, if required
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.353;
2) Control of run-on;
3) Control of run-off;
4) Management of collection and holding units associated with run-on and
run-off control systems; and
5) Control of wind dispersal of particulate matter, where applicable;
16
d) A description of how each waste pile, including the double liner system, leachate
collection and removal system, leak detection system, cover system, and
appurtenances for control of run-on and run-off, will be inspected in order to meet
the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.354(a), (b), and (c). This information
must be included in the inspection plan submitted under Section 703.183(e)
S
.
SU
;
U
e) If the treatment is carried out on or in the pile, details about the process and
equipment used, and the nature and quality of the residuals;
f) If ignitable or reactive wastes are to be placed in a waste pile, an explanation of
how the
U
the applicant will comply with
U
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.356
S
will be complied with
S
;
g) If incompatible wastes, or incompatible wastes and materials, will be placed in a
waste pile, an explanation of how
U
the applicant will comply with
U
35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.357
S
will be complied with
S
;
h) A description of how hazardous waste residues and contaminated materials will
be removed from the waste pile at closure, as required under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.358(a). For any waste not to be removed from the waste pile upon closure,
the owner or operator must submit detailed plans and an engineering report
describing how
U
the applicant will comply with
U
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.410(a) and
(b)
S
will be complied with
S
. This information must be included in the closure plan
and, where applicable, the post-closure plan submitted under Section 703.183(m);
and
i) A waste management plan for hazardous waste numbers F020, F021, F022, F023,
F026, and F027 describing how the surface impoundment is or will be designed,
constructed, operated, and maintained to meet the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.359. This submission must address the following items as specified in
that Section:
1) The volume, physical, and chemical characteristics of the wastes,
including their potential to migrate through soil or to volatilize or escape
into the atmosphere;
2) The attenuative properties of underlying and surrounding soils or other
materials;
3) The mobilizing properties of other materials co-disposed with these
wastes; and
4) The effectiveness of additional treatment, design, or monitoring
techniques.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.18
S
(2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
17
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.205 Incinerators that Burn Hazardous Waste
For a facility that incinerates hazardous waste, except as 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.440 and
subsection (e) of this Section provide otherwise, the applicant must fulfill the requirements of
subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section in completing the Part B application.
a) When seeking exemption under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.440(b) or (c) (ignitable,
corrosive, or reactive wastes only),
U
the applicant must fulfill
U
the following
requirements:
1) Documentation that the waste is listed as a hazardous waste in Subpart D
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 solely because it is ignitable (Hazard Code I),
corrosive (Hazard Code C), or both;
2) Documentation that the waste is listed as a hazardous waste in Subpart D
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 solely because it is reactive (Hazard Code R) for
characteristics other than those listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(4)
and (a)(5) and will not be burned when other hazardous wastes are present
in the combustion zone;
3) Documentation that the waste is a hazardous waste solely because it
possesses the characteristic of ignitability or corrosivity, or both, as
determined by the tests for characteristics of hazardous wastes under
Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721; or
4) Documentation that the waste is a hazardous waste solely because it
possesses the reactivity characteristics listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.123(a)(1) through (a)(3) or (a)(6) through (a)(8), and that it will not be
burned when other hazardous wastes are present in the combustion zone.
b) Submit a trial burn plan or the results of a trial burn, including all required
determinations, in accordance with Section 703.222 et seq.
c) In lieu of a trial burn, the applicant may submit the following information:
1) An analysis of each waste or mixture of wastes to be burned including the
following:
A) Heat value of the waste in the form and composition in which it
will be burned;
B) Viscosity (if applicable) or description of physical form of the
waste;
18
C) An identification of any hazardous organic constituents listed in
Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 that are present in the waste
to be burned, except that the applicant need not analyze for
constituents listed in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 that
would reasonably not be expected to be found in the waste. The
constituents excluded from analysis must be identified and the
basis for their exclusion stated. The waste analysis must rely on
U
appropriate
U
analytical techniques
S
specified in “Test Methods for
the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference at 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111, or their equivalent
S
;
D) An approximate quantification of the hazardous constituents
identified in the waste, within the precision produced by the
U
appropriate
U
analytical methods
S
specified in “Test Methods for the
Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference at 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111
S
; and
E) A quantification of those hazardous constituents in the waste that
may be designated as POHCs based on data submitted from other
trial or operational burns that demonstrate compliance with the
performance standard in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.443;
2) A detailed engineering description of the incinerator, including the
following:
A) Manufacturer’s name and model number of incinerator;
B) Type of incinerator;
C) Linear dimension of incinerator unit including cross sectional area
of combustion chamber;
D) Description of auxiliary fuel system (type/feed);
E) Capacity of prime mover;
F) Description of automatic waste feed cutoff systems;
G) Stack gas monitoring and pollution control monitoring system;
H) Nozzle and burner design;
I) Construction materials; and
19
J) Location and description of temperature, pressure and flow
indicating devices and control devices;
3) A description and analysis of the waste to be burned compared with the
waste for which data from operational or trial burns are provided to
support the contention that a trial burn is not needed. The data should
include those items listed in subsection (c)(1) of this Section. This
analysis should specify the POHCs that the applicant has identified in the
waste for which a permit is sought, and any differences from the POHCs
in the waste for which burn data are provided;
4) The design and operating conditions of the incinerator unit to be used,
compared with that for which comparative burn data are available;
5) A description of the results submitted from any previously conducted trial
burns, including the following:
A) Sampling and analysis techniques used to calculate performance
standards in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.443;
B) Methods and results of monitoring temperatures, waste feed rates,
carbon monoxide, and an appropriate indicator of combustion gas
velocity (including a statement concerning the precision and
accuracy of this measurement); and
C) The certification and results required by subsection (b) of this
Section;
6) The expected incinerator operation information to demonstrate compliance
with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.443 and 724.445, including the following:
A) Expected carbon monoxide (CO) level in the stack exhaust gas;
B) Waste feed rate;
C) Combustion zone temperature;
D) Indication of combustion gas velocity;
E) Expected stack gas volume, flow rate, and temperature;
F) Computed residence time for waste in the combustion zone;
G) Expected hydrochloric acid removal efficiency;
20
H) Expected fugitive emissions and their control procedures; and
I) Proposed waste feed cut-off limits based on the identified
significant operating parameters;
7) The Agency may, pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 705.122, request such
additional information as may be necessary for the Agency to determine
whether the incinerator meets the requirements of Subpart O of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724 and what conditions are required by that Subpart and
Section 39(d) of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/39(d)];
and
8) Waste analysis data, including that submitted in subsection (c)(1) of this
Section, sufficient to allow the Agency to specify as permit Principal
Organic Hazardous Constituents (permit POHCs) those constituents for
which destruction and removal efficiencies will be required.
d) The Agency must approve a permit application without a trial burn if it finds the
following:
1) The wastes are sufficiently similar; and
2) The incinerator units are sufficiently similar, and the data from other trial
burns are adequate to specify (under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.445) operating
conditions that will ensure that the performance standards in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.443 will be met by the incinerator.
e) When an owner or operator demonstrates compliance with the air emission
standards and limitations of the federal National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) in
U
subpart EEE of
U
40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
SU
(National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Hazardous
Waste Combustors)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(b)
U
(i.e., by conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting
a Notification of Compliance under 40 CFR 63.1207(j) and 63.1210(b)
documenting compliance with all applicable requirements of
U
subpart EEE of
U
40
CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
S
), the requirements of this Section do not apply, except those
provisions that the Agency determines are necessary to ensure compliance with
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.445(a) and (c) if the owner or operator elects to comply
with Section 703.320(a)(1)(A) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from
startup, shutdown, and malfunction events. Nevertheless, the Agency may apply
the provisions of this Section, on a case-by-case basis, for purposes of
information collection in accordance with Sections 703.188 and 703.241(b)(2).
BOARD NOTE: Operating conditions used to determine effective treatment of
hazardous waste remain effective after the owner or operator demonstrates
compliance with the standards of
U
subpart EEE of
U
40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
S
.
21
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.19
S
(2002), as amended at 67 Fed. Reg. 77687
(December 19, 2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.208 Boilers and Industrial Furnaces Burning Hazardous Waste
When the owner or operator of a cement or lightweight aggregate kiln demonstrates compliance
with the air emission standards and limitations of the federal National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) in
U
subpart EEE of
U
40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
SU
(National
Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Hazardous Waste Combustors)
U
,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(b)
U
(i.e., by conducting a
comprehensive performance test and submitting a Notification of Compliance under 40 CFR
63.1207(j) and 63.1210(b) documenting compliance with all applicable requirements of
U
subpart
EEE of
U
40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
S
), the requirements of this Section do not apply, except those
provisions that the Agency determines are necessary to ensure compliance with 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.202(e)(1) and (e)(2)(C) if the owner or operator elects to comply with Section
703.310(a)(1)(A) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from startup, shutdown, and
malfunction events. Nevertheless, the Agency may apply the provisions of this Section, on a
case-by-case basis, for purposes of information collection in accordance with Sections 703.188
and 703.241(a)(2).
a) Trial burns.
1) General. Except as provided below, an owner or operator that is subject to
the standards to control organic emissions provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.204, standards to control particulate matter provided by 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.205, standards to control metals emissions provided by 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.206, or standards to control hydrogen chloride (HCl) or
chlorine gas emissions provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.207 must
conduct a trial burn to demonstrate conformance with those standards and
must submit a trial burn plan or the results of a trial burn, including all
required determinations, in accordance with Section 703.232.
A) Under subsections (a)(2) through (a)(5) of this Section and 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.204 through 726.207, the Agency may waive a
trial burn to demonstrate conformance with a particular emission
standard; and
B) The owner or operator may submit data in lieu of a trial burn, as
prescribed in subsection (a)(6) of this Section.
2) Waiver of trial burn of DRE (destruction removal efficiency).
A) Boilers operated under special operating requirements. When
22
seeking to be permitted under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204(a)(4) and
726.210, which automatically waive the DRE trial burn, the owner
or operator of a boiler must submit documentation that the boiler
operates under the special operating requirements provided by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.210.
B) Boilers and industrial furnaces burning low risk waste. When
seeking to be permitted under the provisions for low risk waste
provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204(a)(5) and 726.209(a),
which waive the DRE trial burn, the owner or operator must
submit the following:
i) Documentation that the device is operated in conformance
with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.209(a)(1).
ii) Results of analyses of each waste to be burned,
documenting the concentrations of nonmetal compounds
listed in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, except for
those constituents that would reasonably not be expected to
be in the waste. The constituents excluded from analysis
must be identified and the basis for their exclusion
explained. The analysis must rely on
U
appropriate
U
analytical
techniques
S
specified in Test Methods for the Evaluation of
Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
.
iii) Documentation of hazardous waste firing rates and
calculations of reasonable, worst-case emission rates of
each constituent identified in subsection (a)(2)(B)(ii) of this
Section using procedures provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.209(a)(2)(B).
iv) Results of emissions dispersion modeling for emissions
identified in subsection (a)(2)(B)(iii) of this Section using
modeling procedures prescribed by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.206(h). The Agency must review the emission
modeling conducted by the applicant to determine
conformance with these procedures. The Agency must
either approve the modeling or determine that alternate or
supplementary modeling is appropriate.
v) Documentation that the maximum annual average ground
level concentration of each constituent identified in
subsection (a)(2)(B)(ii) of this Section quantified in
conformance with subsection (a)(2)(B)(iv) of this Section
does not exceed the allowable ambient level established in
23
Appendix D or E to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726. The acceptable
ambient concentration for emitted constituents for which a
specific reference air concentration has not been
established in Appendix D to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726 or
risk-specific doses has not been established in Appendix E
to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726 is 0.1 micrograms per cubic
meter, as noted in the footnote to Appendix D to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.
3) Waiver of trial burn for metals. When seeking to be permitted under the
Tier I (or adjusted Tier I) metals feed rate screening limits provided by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.206(b) and (e) that control metals emissions without
requiring a trial burn, the owner or operator must submit the following:
A) Documentation of the feed rate of hazardous waste, other fuels,
and industrial furnace feed stocks;
B) Documentation of the concentration of each metal controlled by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.206(b) or (c) in the hazardous waste, other
fuels and industrial furnace feedstocks, and calculations of the total
feed rate of each metal;
C) Documentation of how the applicant will ensure that the Tier I feed
rate screening limits provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.206(b) or
(e) will not be exceeded during the averaging period provided by
that subsection;
D) Documentation to support the determination of the TESH (terrain-
adjusted effective stack height), good engineering practice stack
height, terrain type, and land use, as provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.206(b)(3) through
U
(b)
U
(5);
E) Documentation of compliance with the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.206(b)(6), if applicable, for facilities with multiple
stacks;
F) Documentation that the facility does not fail the criteria provided
by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.206(b)(7) for eligibility to comply with
the screening limits; and
G) Proposed sampling and metals analysis plan for the hazardous
waste, other fuels, and industrial furnace feed stocks.
4) Waiver of trial burn for PM (particulate matter). When seeking to be
permitted under the low risk waste provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.209(b), which waives the particulate standard (and trial burn to
24
demonstrate conformance with the particulate standard), applicants must
submit documentation supporting conformance with subsections (a)(2)(B)
and (a)(3) of this Section.
5) Waiver of trial burn for HCl and chlorine gas. When seeking to be
permitted under the Tier I (or adjusted Tier I) feed rate screening limits for
total chlorine and chloride provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.207(b)(1)
and (e) that control emissions of HCl and chlorine gas without requiring a
trial burn, the owner or operator must submit the following:
A) Documentation of the feed rate of hazardous waste, other fuels,
and industrial furnace feed stocks;
B) Documentation of the levels of total chlorine and chloride in the
hazardous waste, other fuels and industrial furnace feedstocks, and
calculations of the total feed rate of total chlorine and chloride;
C) Documentation of how the applicant will ensure that the Tier I (or
adjusted Tier I) feed rate screening limits provided by 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.207(b)(1) or (e) will not be exceeded during the
averaging period provided by that subsection;
D) Documentation to support the determination of the TESH, good
engineering practice stack height, terrain type and land use as
provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.207(b)(3);
E) Documentation of compliance with the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.207(b)(4), if applicable, for facilities with multiple
stacks;
F) Documentation that the facility does not fail the criteria provided
by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.207(b)(3) for eligibility to comply with
the screening limits; and
G) Proposed sampling and analysis plan for total chlorine and
chloride for the hazardous waste, other fuels, and industrial
furnace feedstocks.
6) Data in lieu of trial burn. The owner or operator may seek an exemption
from the trial burn requirements to demonstrate conformance with Section
703.232 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 through 726.207 by providing the
information required by Section 703.232 from previous compliance testing
of the device in conformance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.203 or from
compliance testing or trial or operational burns of similar boilers or
industrial furnaces burning similar hazardous wastes under similar
conditions. If data from a similar device is used to support a trial burn
25
waiver, the design and operating information required by Section 703.232
must be provided for both the similar device and the device to which the
data is to be applied, and a comparison of the design and operating
information must be provided. The Agency must approve a permit
application without a trial burn if the Agency finds that the hazardous
wastes are sufficiently similar, the devices are sufficiently similar, the
operating conditions are sufficiently similar, and the data from other
compliance tests, trial burns, or operational burns are adequate to specify
(under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.102) operating conditions that will ensure
conformance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.102(c). In addition, the
following information must be submitted:
A) For a waiver from any trial burn, the following:
i) A description and analysis of the hazardous waste to be
burned compared with the hazardous waste for which data
from compliance testing or operational or trial burns are
provided to support the contention that a trial burn is not
needed;
ii) The design and operating conditions of the boiler or
industrial furnace to be used, compared with that for which
comparative burn data are available; and
iii) Such supplemental information as the Agency finds
necessary to achieve the purposes of this subsection (a).
B) For a waiver of the DRE trial burn, the basis for selection of
POHCs (principal organic hazardous constituents) used in the
other trial or operational burns that demonstrate compliance with
the DRE performance standard in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204(a).
This analysis should specify the constituents in Appendix H to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721 that the applicant has identified in the
hazardous waste for which a permit is sought and any differences
from the POHCs in the hazardous waste for which burn data are
provided.
b) Alternative HC limit for industrial furnaces with organic matter in raw materials.
An owner or operator of industrial furnaces requesting an alternative HC limit
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204(f) must submit the following information at a
minimum:
1) Documentation that the furnace is designed and operated to minimize HC
emissions from fuels and raw materials;
2) Documentation of the proposed baseline flue gas HC (and CO)
26
concentration, including data on HC (and CO) levels during tests when the
facility produced normal products under normal operating conditions from
normal raw materials while burning normal fuels and when not burning
hazardous waste;
3) Test burn protocol to confirm the baseline HC (and CO) level including
information on the type and flow rate of all feedstreams, point of
introduction of all feedstreams, total organic carbon content (or other
appropriate measure of organic content) of all nonfuel feedstreams, and
operating conditions that affect combustion of fuels and destruction of
hydrocarbon emissions from nonfuel sources;
4) Trial burn plan to do the following:
A) To demonstrate when burning hazardous waste that flue gas HC
(and CO) concentrations do not exceed the baseline HC (and CO)
level; and
B) To identify, in conformance with Section 703.232(d), the types and
concentrations of organic compounds listed in Appendix H to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721 that are emitted when burning hazardous
waste;
5) Implementation plan to monitor over time changes in the operation of the
facility that could reduce the baseline HC level and procedures to
periodically confirm the baseline HC level; and
6) Such other information as the Agency finds necessary to achieve the
purposes of this subsection (b).
c) Alternative metals implementation approach. When seeking to be permitted
under an alternative metals implementation approach under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.206(f), the owner or operator must submit documentation specifying how the
approach ensures compliance with the metals emissions standards of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.106(c) or (d) and how the approach can be effectively implemented and
monitored. Further, the owner or operator must provide such other information
that the Agency finds necessary to achieve the purposes of this subsection (c).
d) Automatic waste feed cutoff system. An owner or operator must submit
information describing the automatic waste feed cutoff system, including any pre-
alarm systems that may be used.
e) Direct transfer. An owner or operator that uses direct transfer operations to feed
hazardous waste from transport vehicles (containers, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.211) directly to the boiler or industrial furnace must submit information
supporting conformance with the standards for direct transfer provided by 35 Ill.
27
Adm. Code 726.211.
f) Residues. An owner or operator that claims that its residues are excluded from
regulation under the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.212 must submit
information adequate to demonstrate conformance with those provisions.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.22
S
(2002), as amended at 67 Fed. Reg. 77687
(December 19, 2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.210 Process Vents
Except as otherwise provided in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.101, the owner or operator of a facility
that has process vents to which Subpart AA of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 applies must provide the
following additional information:
a) For facilities that cannot install a closed-vent system and control device to comply
with Subpart AA of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 on the effective date on which the
facility becomes subject to that Subpart or Subpart AA of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725,
an implementation schedule, as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.933(a)(2).
b) Documentation of compliance with the process vent standards in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.932, including the following:
1) Information and data identifying all affected process vents, annual
throughput and operating hours of each affected unit, estimated emission
rates for the affected vent and for the overall facility (i.e., the total
emissions for all affected vents at the facility), and the approximate
location within the facility of each affected unit (e.g., identify the
hazardous waste management units on a facility plot plan);
2) Information and data supporting estimates of vent emissions and emission
reduction achieved by add-on control devices based on engineering
calculations or source tests. For the purpose of determining compliance,
estimates of vent emissions and emission reductions must be made using
operating parameter values (e.g., temperatures, flow rates, or
concentrations) that represent the conditions that exist when the waste
management unit is operating at the highest load or capacity level
reasonably expected to occur; and
3) Information and data used to determine whether or not a process vent is
subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.932.
c) Where an owner or operator applies for permission to use a control device other
than a thermal vapor incinerator, catalytic vapor incinerator, flare, boiler, process
28
heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption system to comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.932, and chooses to use test data to determine the organic removal efficiency
or the total organic compound concentration achieved by the control device, a
performance test plan as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.935(b)(3).
d) Documentation of compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.933, including the
following:
1) A list of all information references and sources used in preparing the
documentation.
2) Records, including the dates of each compliance test required by 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.933(k).
3) A design analysis, specifications, drawings, schematics, piping, and
instrumentation diagrams based on the appropriate sections of
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“
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APTI
Course 415
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: Control of Gaseous Emissions
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,
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”
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USEPA publication number
EPA-450/2-81-005,
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incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(a)
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, or other engineering texts approved by the Agency
that present basic control device design information. The design analysis
must address the vent stream characteristics and control device parameters
as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.935(b)(4)(C).
4) A statement signed and dated by the owner or operator certifying that the
operating parameters used in the design analysis reasonably represent the
conditions that exist when the hazardous waste management unit is or
would be operating at the highest load or capacity level reasonably
expected to occur.
5) A statement signed and dated by the owner or operator certifying that the
control device is designed to operate at an efficiency of 95 weight percent
or greater, unless the total organic emission limits of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.932(a) for affected process vents at the facility can be attained by a
control device involving vapor recovery at an efficiency less than 95
weight percent.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.24
S
(2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.211 Equipment
Except as otherwise provided in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.101, the owner or operator of a facility
that has equipment to which Subpart BB of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 applies must provide the
following additional information:
29
a) For each piece of equipment to which Subpart BB of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724
applies, the following:
1) Equipment identification number and hazardous waste management unit
identification;
2) Approximate locations within the facility (e.g., identify the hazardous
waste management unit on a facility plot plan);
3) Type of equipment (e.g., a pump or pipeline valve);
4) Percent by weight total organics in the hazardous wastestream at the
equipment;
5) Hazardous waste state at the equipment (e.g., gas/vapor or liquid); and
6) Method of compliance with the standard (e.g., “monthly leak detection
and repair” or “equipped with dual mechanical seals”).
b) For facilities that cannot install a closed-vent system and control device to comply
with Subpart BB of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 on the effective date that facility
becomes subject to this Subpart or Subpart BB of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724, an
implementation schedule as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.933(a)(2).
c) Where an owner or operator applies for permission to use a control device other
than a thermal vapor incinerator, catalytic vapor incinerator, flare, boiler, process
heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption system and chooses to use test data to
determine the organic removal efficiency or the total organic compound
concentration achieved by the control device, a performance test plan as specified
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.935(b)(3).
d) Documentation that demonstrates compliance with the equipment standards in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.952 or 724.959. This documentation must contain the records
required under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.964. The Agency must request further
documentation if necessary to demonstrate compliance. Documentation to
demonstrate compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.960 must include the
following information:
1) A list of all information references and sources used in preparing the
documentation;
2) Records, including the dates of each compliance test required by 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.933(j);
3) A design analysis, specifications, drawings, schematics, and piping and
instrumentation diagrams based on the appropriate sections of
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“
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APTI
30
Course 415
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: Control of Gaseous Emissions
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,
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”
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USEPA publication number
EPA-450/2-81-005,
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incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
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720.111
SU
720.111(a)
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, or other engineering texts approved by the Agency
that present basic control device design information. The design analysis
must address the vent stream characteristics and control device
parameters
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,
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as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.935(b)(4)(C);
4) A statement signed and dated by the owner or operator certifying that the
operating parameters used in the design analysis reasonably represent the
conditions that exist when the hazardous waste management unit is or
would be operating at the highest load or capacity level reasonably
expected to occur; and
5) A statement signed and dated by the owner or operator certifying that the
control device is designed to operate at an efficiency of 95 weight percent
or greater.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.25
U
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.213 Air Emission Controls for Tanks, Surface Impoundments, and Containers
Except as otherwise provided in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.101, the owner or operator of a tank, a
surface impoundment, or a container that uses air emission controls in accordance with the
requirements of Subpart CC of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 must provide the following additional
information:
a) Documentation for each floating roof cover installed on a tank subject to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.984(d)(1) or (d)(2) that includes information prepared by the
owner or operator or provided by the cover manufacturer or vendor describing the
cover design, and certification by the owner or operator that the cover meets the
applicable design specifications, as listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.991(e)(1) or
(f)(1).
b) Identification of each container area subject to the requirements of Subpart CC of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and certification by the owner or operator that the
requirements of this Subpart D are met.
c) Documentation for each enclosure used to control air pollutant emissions from
containers in accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.984(d)(5) or 724.986(e)(1)(ii) that includes records for the most recent set of
calculations and measurements performed by the owner or operator to verify that
the enclosure meets the criteria of a permanent total enclosure, as specified in
“Procedure T—Criteria for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total
Enclosure”
S
under
SU
in appendix B to
U
40 CFR 52.741
S
, appendix B
S
U
(VOM
31
Measurement Techniques for Capture Efficiency)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(b)
U
.
d) Documentation for each floating membrane cover installed on a surface
impoundment in accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.985(c) that includes information prepared by the owner or operator or
provided by the cover manufacturer or vendor describing the cover design, and
certification by the owner or operator that the cover meets the specifications listed
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.985(c)(1).
e) Documentation for each closed-vent system and control device installed in
accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.987 that includes
design and performance information, as specified in Section 703.124(c) and (d).
f) An emission monitoring plan for both Method 21
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(Determination of Volatile
Organic Compound Leaks)
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in
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appendix A to
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40 CFR 60
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, appendix A
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(Test
Methods)
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, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
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720.111
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720.111(b)
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,
and control device monitoring methods. This plan must include the following
information: monitoring points, monitoring methods for control devices,
monitoring frequency, procedures for documenting
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exceedances
SU
exceedences
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, and
procedures for mitigating noncompliances.
g) When an owner or operator of a facility subject to Subpart CC of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 725 cannot comply with Subpart CC of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 by the date
of permit issuance, the schedule of implementation required under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 725.982.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.27(a)
S
(2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART E: SHORT TERM AND PHASED PERMITS
Section 703.221 Alternative Compliance with the Federal NESHAPS
When an owner or operator demonstrates compliance with the air emission standards and
limitations of the federal National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs)
in
U
subpart EEE of
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40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
SU
(National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air
Pollutants from Hazardous Waste Combustors)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(b)
U
(i.e., by conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting a
Notification of Compliance under 40 CFR 63.1207(j) and 63.1210(b) documenting compliance
with all applicable requirements of
S
subpart EEE
S
to 40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
S
), the requirements
of Sections 703.221 through 703.225 do not apply, except those provisions that the Agency
determines are necessary to ensure compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.445(a) and (c) if the
owner or operator elects to comply with Section 703.310(a)(1)(A) to minimize emissions of
toxic compounds from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events. Nevertheless, the Agency
32
may apply the provisions of Sections 703.221 through 703.225, on a case-by-case basis, for
purposes of information collection in accordance with Sections 703.188 and 703.241(a)(2).
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.62 preamble
S
(2002), as amended at 67 Fed. Reg.
77687 (December 19, 2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.223 Incinerator Conditions During Trial Burn
For the purposes of determining feasibility of compliance with the performance standards of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.443 and of determining adequate operating conditions under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.445, the Agency must establish conditions in the permit to a new hazardous waste
incinerator to be effective during the trial burn.
a) Applicants must propose a trial burn plan, prepared under subsection (b) of this
Section with Part B of the permit application;
b) The trial burn plan must include the following information:
1) An analysis of each waste or mixture of wastes to be burned that includes
the following:
A) Heat value of the waste in the form and composition in which it
will be burned;
B) Viscosity (if applicable), or description of physical form of the
waste;
C) An identification of any hazardous organic constituents listed in
Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, that are present in the waste
to be burned, except that the applicant need not analyze for
constituents listed in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 that
would reasonably not be expected to be found in the waste. The
constituents excluded from analysis must be identified, and the
basis for their exclusion stated. The waste analysis must rely on
U
appropriate
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analytical techniques
S
specified in “Test Methods for
the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference at 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111 and Section 703.110, or their equivalent
S
;
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and
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D) An approximate quantification of the hazardous constituents
identified in the waste, within the precision produced by the
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appropriate
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analytical methods
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specified in “Test Methods for the
Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
33
Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference at 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111 and Section 703.110, or their equivalent
S
;
2) A detailed engineering description of the incinerator for which the permit
is sought including the following:
A) Manufacturer’s name and model number of incinerator (if
available);
B) Type of incinerator;
C) Linear dimensions of the incinerator unit including the cross
sectional area of combustion chamber;
D) Description of the auxiliary fuel system (type/feed);
E) Capacity of prime mover;
F) Description of automatic waste feed cut-off systems;
G) Stack gas monitoring and pollution control equipment;
H) Nozzle and burner design;
I) Construction materials;
J) Location and description of temperature-, pressure-, and flow-
indicating and control devices;
3) A detailed description of sampling and monitoring procedures, including
sampling and monitoring locations in the system, the equipment to be
used, sampling and monitoring frequency, and planned analytical
procedures for sample analysis;
4) A detailed test schedule for each waste for which the trial burn is planned
including dates, duration, quantity of waste to be burned, and other factors
relevant to the Agency’s decision under subsection (e) of this Section;
5) A detailed test protocol, including, for each waste identified, the ranges of
temperature, waste feed rate, combustion gas velocity, use of auxiliary
fuel, and any other relevant parameters that will be varied to affect the
destruction and removal efficiency of the incinerator;
6) A description of, and planned operating conditions for, any emission
control equipment that will be used;
34
7) Procedures for rapidly stopping waste feed, shutting down the incinerator,
and controlling emissions in the event of an equipment malfunction;
8) Such other information as the Agency reasonably finds necessary to
determine whether to approve the trial burn plan in light of the purposes of
this subsection (b) and the criteria in subsection (e) of this Section. Such
information must be requested by the Agency pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 705.123;
c) The Agency, in reviewing the trial burn plan, must evaluate the sufficiency of the
information provided and must require the applicant, pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 705.123, to supplement this information, if necessary, to achieve the
purposes of this Section;
d) Based on the waste analysis data in the trial burn plan, the Agency must specify
as trial Principal Organic Hazardous Constituents (POHCs), those constituents for
which destruction and removal efficiencies must be calculated during the trial
burn. These trial POHCs must be specified by the Agency based on its estimate
of the difficulty of incineration of the constituents identified in the waste analysis,
their concentration or mass in the waste feed, and, for wastes listed in Subpart D
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, the hazardous waste organic constituent of constituents
identified in Appendix G or H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 as the basis for listing;
e) The Agency must approve a trial burn plan if it finds the following:
1) That the trial burn is likely to determine whether the incinerator
performance standard required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.443 can be met;
2) That the trial burn itself will not present an imminent hazard to human
health or the environment;
3) That the trial burn will help the Agency to determine operating
requirements to be specified under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.445; and
4) That the information sought in subsections (e)(1) and (e)(3) of this Section
cannot reasonably be developed through other means;
f) The Agency must send a notice to all persons on the facility mailing list, as set
forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 705.161(a), and to the appropriate units of State and
local government, as set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 705.163(a)(5), announcing the
scheduled commencement and completion dates for the trial burn. The applicant
may not commence the trial burn until after the Agency has issued such notice.
1) This notice must be mailed within a reasonable time period before the
scheduled trial burn. An additional notice is not required if the trial burn
is delayed due to circumstances beyond the control of the facility or the
35
Agency.
2) This notice must contain the following:
A) The name and telephone number of the applicant’s contact person;
B) The name and telephone number of the Agency regional office
appropriate for the facility;
C) The location where the approved trial burn plan and any
supporting documents can be reviewed and copied; and
D) An expected time period for commencement and completion of the
trial burn;
g) During each approved trial burn (or as soon after the burn as is practicable), the
applicant must make the following determinations:
1) A quantitative analysis of the trial POHCs, in the waste feed to the
incinerator;
2) A quantitative analysis of the exhaust gas for the concentration and mass
emissions of the trial POHCs, molecular oxygen, and hydrogen chloride
(HCl);
3) A quantitative analysis of the scrubber water (if any), ash residues, and
other residues, for the purpose of estimating the fate of the trial POHCs;
4) A computation of destruction and removal efficiency (DRE), in
accordance with the DRE formula specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.443(a);
5) If the HCl (hydrogen chloride) emission rate exceeds 1.8 kilograms of
HCl per hour (4 pounds per hour), a computation of HCl removal
efficiency, in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.443(b);
6) A computation of particulate emissions, in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.443(c);
7) An identification of sources of fugitive emissions and their means of
control;
8) A measurement of average, maximum and minimum temperatures, and
combustion gas velocity;
9) A continuous measurement of carbon monoxide (CO) in the exhaust gas;
36
10) Such other information as the Agency specifies as necessary to ensure that
the trial burn will determine compliance with the performance standards in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.443 and to establish the operating conditions
required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.445 as necessary to meet that
performance standard;
h) The applicant must submit to the Agency a certification that the trial burn has
been carried out in accordance with the approved trial burn plan, and must submit
the results of all the determinations required in subsection (g) of this Section.
This submission must be made within 90 days after completion of the trial burn,
or later, if approved by the Agency;
i) All data collected during any trial burn must be submitted to the Agency
following the completion of the trial burn;
j) All submissions required by this Section must be certified on behalf of the
applicant by the signature of a person authorized to sign a permit application or a
report under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.126;
k) Based on the results of the trial burn, the Agency must set the operating
requirements in the final permit according to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.445. The
permit modification must proceed as a minor modification according to Section
703.280.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.62(b)
S
(2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.232 Permits for Boilers and Industrial Furnaces Burning Hazardous Waste
When the owner or operator of a cement or lightweight aggregate kiln demonstrates compliance
with the air emission standards and limitations of the federal National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) in
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subpart EEE of
U
40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
SU
(National
Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Hazardous Waste Combustors)
U
,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(b)
U
(i.e., by conducting a
comprehensive performance test and submitting a Notification of Compliance under 40 CFR
63.1207(j) and 63.1210(b) documenting compliance with all applicable requirements of
U
subpart
EEE of
U
40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
S
), the requirements of this Section do not apply, except those
provisions that the Agency determines are necessary to ensure compliance with 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.202(e)(1) and (e)(2)(C) if the owner or operator elects to comply with Section
703.310(a)(1)(A) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from startup, shutdown, and
malfunction events. Nevertheless, the Agency may apply the provisions of this Section, on a
case-by-case basis, for purposes of information collection in accordance with Sections 703.188
and 703.241(a)(2).
37
a) General. The owner or operator of a new boiler or industrial furnace (one not
operating under the interim status standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.203) is
subject to subsections (b) through (f) of this Section. A boiler or industrial
furnace operating under the interim status standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.203
is subject to subsection (g) of this Section.
b) Permit operating periods for a new boiler or industrial furnace. A permit for a
new boiler or industrial furnace must specify appropriate conditions for the
following operating periods:
1) Pretrial burn period. For the period beginning with initial introduction of
hazardous waste and ending with initiation of the trial burn, and only for
the minimum time required to bring the boiler or industrial furnace to a
point of operation readiness to conduct a trial burn, not to exceed 720
hours operating time when burning hazardous waste, the Agency must
establish permit conditions in the pretrial burn period, including but not
limited to allowable hazardous waste feed rates and operating conditions.
The Agency must extend the duration of this operational period once, for
up to 720 additional hours, at the request of the applicant when good cause
is shown. The permit must be modified to reflect the extension according
to Sections 703.280 through 703.283.
A) Applicants must submit a statement, with Part B of the permit
application, that suggests the conditions necessary to operate in
compliance with the standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204
through 726.207 during this period. This statement should include,
at a minimum, restrictions on the applicable operating
requirements identified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.202 (e).
B) The Agency must review this statement and any other relevant
information submitted with Part B of the permit application and
specify requirements for this period sufficient to meet the
performance standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 through
726.207 based on the Agency’s engineering judgment.
2) Trial burn period. For the duration of the trial burn, the Agency must
establish conditions in the permit for the purposes of determining
feasibility of compliance with the performance standards of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.204 through 726.207 and determining adequate operating
conditions under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.202(e). Applicants must propose
a trial burn plan, prepared under subsection (c) of this Section, to be
submitted with Part B of the permit application.
3) Post-trial burn period.
A) For the period immediately following completion of the trial burn,
38
and only for the minimum period sufficient to allow sample
analysis, data computation and submission of the trial burn results
by the applicant, and review of the trial burn results and
modification of the facility permit by the Agency to reflect the trial
burn results, the Agency must establish the operating requirements
most likely to ensure compliance with the performance standards
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 through 726.207 based on the
Agency’s engineering judgment.
B) Applicants must submit a statement, with Part B of the application,
that identifies the conditions necessary to operate during this
period in compliance with the performance standards of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.204 through 726.207. This statement should
include, at a minimum, restrictions on the operating requirements
provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.202 (e).
C) The Agency must review this statement and any other relevant
information submitted with Part B of the permit application and
specify requirements of this period sufficient to meet the
performance standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 through
726.207 based on the Agency’s engineering judgment.
4) Final permit period. For the final period of operation the Agency must
develop operating requirements in conformance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.202(e) that reflect conditions in the trial burn plan and are likely to
ensure compliance with the performance standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.204 through 726.207. Based on the trial burn results, the Agency
must make any necessary modifications to the operating requirements to
ensure compliance with the performance standards. The permit
modification must proceed according to Sections 703.280 through
703.283.
c) Requirements for trial burn plans. The trial burn plan must include the following
information. The Agency, in reviewing the trial burn plan, must evaluate the
sufficiency of the information provided and may require the applicant to
supplement this information, if necessary, to achieve the purposes of this
subsection (c).
1) An analysis of each feed stream, including hazardous waste, other fuels,
and industrial furnace feed stocks, as fired, that includes the following:
A) Heating value, levels of antimony, arsenic, barium, beryllium,
cadmium, chromium, lead, mercury, silver, thallium, total chlorine
and chloride, and ash; and
B) Viscosity or description of the physical form of the feed stream.
39
2) An analysis of each hazardous waste, as fired, including the following:
A) An identification of any hazardous organic constituents listed in
Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 that are present in the feed
stream, except that the applicant need not analyze for constituents
listed in Appendix H that would reasonably not be expected to be
found in the hazardous waste. The constituents excluded from
analysis must be identified and the basis for this exclusion
explained. The analysis must be conducted in accordance with
U
appropriate
U
analytical techniques
S
specified in “Test Methods for
the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference at 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111 and Section 703.110, or their equivalent
S
;
B) An approximate quantification of the hazardous constituents
identified in the hazardous waste, within the precision produced by
the
U
appropriate
U
analytical methods
S
specified in “Test Methods for
the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference at 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111 and Section 703.110, or other equivalent
S
;
and
C) A description of blending procedures, if applicable, prior to firing
the hazardous waste, including a detailed analysis of the hazardous
waste prior to blending, an analysis of the material with which the
hazardous waste is blended, and blending ratios.
3) A detailed engineering description of the boiler or industrial furnace,
including the following:
A) Manufacturer’s name and model number of the boiler or industrial
furnace;
B) Type of boiler or industrial furnace;
C) Maximum design capacity in appropriate units;
D) Description of the feed system for the hazardous waste and, as
appropriate, other fuels and industrial furnace feedstocks;
E) Capacity of hazardous waste feed system;
F) Description of automatic hazardous waste feed cutoff systems;
G) Description of any pollution control system; and
40
H) Description of stack gas monitoring and any pollution control
monitoring systems.
4) A detailed description of sampling and monitoring procedures, including
sampling and monitoring locations in the system, the equipment to be
used, sampling and monitoring frequency, and sample analysis.
5) A detailed test schedule for each hazardous waste for which the trial burn
is planned, including dates, duration, quantity of hazardous waste to be
burned, and other factors relevant to the Agency’s decision under
subsection (b)(2) of this Section.
6) A detailed test protocol, including, for each hazardous waste identified,
the ranges of hazardous waste feed rate, and, as appropriate, the feed rates
of other fuels and industrial furnace feedstocks, and any other relevant
parameters that may affect the ability of the boiler or industrial furnace to
meet the performance standards in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 through
726.207.
7) A description of and planned operating conditions for any emission
control equipment that will be used.
8) Procedures for rapidly stopping the hazardous waste feed and controlling
emissions in the event of an equipment malfunction.
9) Such other information as the Agency finds necessary to determine
whether to approve the trial burn plan in light of the purposes of this
subsection (c) and the criteria in subsection (b)(2) of this Section.
d) Trial burn procedures.
1) A trial burn must be conducted to demonstrate conformance with the
standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.104 through 726.107.
2) The Agency must approve a trial burn plan if the Agency finds as follows:
A) That the trial burn is likely to determine whether the boiler or
industrial furnace can meet the performance standards of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.104 through 726.107;
B) That the trial burn itself will not present an imminent hazard to
human health and the environment;
C) That the trial burn will help the Agency to determine operating
requirements to be specified under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.102(e);
41
and
D) That the information sought in the trial burn cannot reasonably be
developed through other means.
3) The Agency must send a notice to all persons on the facility mailing list,
as set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 705.161(a), and to the appropriate units
of State and local government, as set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
705.163(a)(5), announcing the scheduled commencement and completion
dates for the trial burn. The applicant may not commence the trial burn
until after the Agency has issued such notice.
A) This notice must be mailed within a reasonable time period before
the trial burn. An additional notice is not required if the trial burn
is delayed due to circumstances beyond the control of the facility
or the Agency.
B) This notice must contain the following:
i) The name and telephone number of applicant’s contact
person;
ii) The name and telephone number of the Agency regional
office appropriate for the facility;
iii) The location where the approved trial burn plan and any
supporting documents can be reviewed and copied; and
iv) An expected time period for commencement and
completion of the trial burn.
4) The applicant must submit to the Agency a certification that the trial burn
has been carried out in accordance with the approved trial burn plan, and
submit the results of all the determinations required in subsection (c) of
this Section. The Agency must, in the trial burn plan, require that the
submission be made within 90 days after completion of the trial burn, or
later if the Agency determines that a later date is acceptable.
5) All data collected during any trial burn must be submitted to the Agency
following completion of the trial burn.
6) All submissions required by this subsection (d) must be certified on behalf
of the applicant by the signature of a person authorized to sign a permit
application or a report under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.126.
e) Special procedures for DRE trial burns. When a DRE trial burn is required under
42
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.104, the Agency must specify (based on the hazardous
waste analysis data and other information in the trial burn plan) as trial Principal
Organic Hazardous Constituents (POHCs) those compounds for which
destruction and removal efficiencies must be calculated during the trial burn.
These trial POHCs will be specified by the Agency based on information
including the Agency’s estimate of the difficulty of destroying the constituents
identified in the hazardous waste analysis, their concentrations or mass in the
hazardous waste feed, and, for hazardous waste containing or derived from wastes
listed in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, the hazardous waste organic
constituents identified in Appendix G to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 as the basis for
listing.
f) Determinations based on trial burn. During each approved trial burn (or as soon
after the burn as is practicable), the applicant must make the following
determinations:
1) A quantitative analysis of the levels of antimony, arsenic, barium,
beryllium, cadmium, chromium, lead, mercury, thallium, silver, and
chlorine/chloride in the feed streams (hazardous waste, other fuels, and
industrial furnace feedstocks);
2) When a DRE trial burn is required under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204(a),
the following determinations:
A) A quantitative analysis of the trial POHCs in the hazardous waste
feed;
B) A quantitative analysis of the stack gas for the concentration and
mass emissions of the trial POHCs; and
C) A computation of destruction and removal efficiency (DRE), in
accordance with the DRE formula specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.204(a);
3) When a trial burn for chlorinated dioxins and furans is required under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.204(e), a quantitative analysis of the stack gas for the
concentration and mass emission rate of the 2,3,7,8-chlorinated tetra-
through octa-congeners of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and furans, and a
computation showing conformance with the emission standard;
4) When a trial burn for PM, metals, or HCl and chlorine gas is required
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.205, 726.206(c) or (d), or 726.207(b)(2) or
(c), a quantitative analysis of the stack gas for the concentrations and mass
emissions of PM, metals, or HCl and chlorine gas, and computations
showing conformance with the applicable emission performance
standards;
43
5) When a trial burn for DRE, metals, and HCl and chlorine gas is required
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204(a), 726.206(c) or (d), or 726.207(b)(2)
or (c), a quantitative analysis of the scrubber water (if any), ash residues,
other residues, and products for the purpose of estimating the fate of the
trial POHCs, metals, and chlorine and chloride;
6) An identification of sources of fugitive emissions and their means of
control;
7) A continuous measurement of carbon monoxide (CO), oxygen, and, where
required, hydrocarbons (HC) in the stack gas; and
8) Such other information as the Agency specifies as necessary to ensure that
the trial burn will determine compliance with the performance standards
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 through 726.207 and to establish the operating
conditions required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 through 726.207 and of
determining adequate operating conditions under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.203, and to establish the operating conditions required by 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.202(e) as necessary to meet those performance standards.
g) Interim status boilers and industrial furnaces. For the purpose of determining
feasibility of compliance with the performance standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.204 through 726.207 and of determining adequate operating conditions under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.203, an applicant that owns or operates an existing boiler
or industrial furnace which is operated under the interim status standards of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.203 must either prepare and submit a trial burn plan and perform
a trial burn in accordance with the requirements of this Section or submit other
information as specified in Section 703.208(a)(6). The Agency must announce its
intention to approve of the trial burn plan in accordance with the timing and
distribution requirements of subsection (d)(3) of this Section. The contents of the
notice must include all of the following information: the name and telephone
number of a contact person at the facility; the name and telephone number of the
Agency regional office appropriate for the facility; the location where the trial
burn plan and any supporting documents can be reviewed and copied; and a
schedule of the activities that are required prior to permit issuance, including the
anticipated time schedule for Agency approval of the plan, and the time periods
during which the trial burn would be conducted. Applicants that submit a trial
burn plan and receive approval before submission of the Part B permit application
must complete the trial burn and submit the results specified in subsection (f) of
this Section with the Part B permit application. If completion of this process
conflicts with the date set for submission of the Part B application, the applicant
must contact the Agency to establish a later date for submission of the Part B
application or the trial burn results. If the applicant submits a trial burn plan with
Part B of the permit application, the trial burn must be conducted and the results
submitted within a time period prior to permit issuance to be specified by the
44
Agency.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.66
S
(2002), as amended at 67 Fed. Reg. 77687
(December 19, 2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART H: REMEDIAL ACTION PLANS
Section 703.300 Special Regulatory Format
USEPA wrote the federal counterpart to this Subpart H,
U
subpart H of
U
40 CFR 270
S
, Subpart H
S
, in a
special format to make it easier to understand the regulatory requirements. The Board has adapted
the substance of the corresponding federal regulations in this Subpart H to use a more conventional
regulatory format, rather than the question-and-answer format used by USEPA.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.79
S
(2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.305 Operating Under a RAP
a) The records an owner or operator must maintain concerning its RAP. An owner or
operator is required to keep records of the following:
1) All data used to complete RAP applications and any supplemental
information that an owner or operator submits for a period of at least three
years from the date the application is signed; and
2) Any operating or other records the Agency requires an owner or operator to
maintain as a condition of the RAP.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (a) is derived from 40 CFR 270.210 (2002).
b) How time periods in the requirements in Subpart H of this Part and the RAP are
computed.
1) Any time period scheduled to begin on the occurrence of an act or event
must begin on the day after the act or event. (For example, if a RAP
specifies that the owner or operator must close a staging pile within 180
days after the operating term for that staging pile expires, and the operating
term expires on June 1, then June 2 counts as day one of the 180 days, and
the owner or operator would have to complete closure by November 28.)
2) Any time period scheduled to begin before the occurrence of an act or event
must be computed so that the period ends on the day before the act or event.
45
(For example, if an owner or operator is transferring ownership or
operational control of its site, and the owner or operator wishes to transfer
its RAP, the new owner or operator must submit a revised RAP application
no later than 90 days before the scheduled change. Therefore, if an owner
or operator plans to change ownership on January 1, the new owner or
operator must submit the revised RAP application no later than October 3,
so that the 90th day would be December 31.)
3) If the final day of any time period falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the
time period must be extended to the next working day. (For example, if an
owner or operator wishes to appeal the Agency’s decision to modify its
RAP, then an owner or operator must petition the Board within 35 days after
the Agency has issued the final RAP decision. If the 35th day falls on
Sunday, then the owner or operator may submit its appeal by the Monday
after. If the 35th day falls on July 4th, then the owner or operator may
submit its appeal by July 5th.)
4) Whenever a party or interested person has the right to or is required to act
within a prescribed period after the service of notice or other paper upon
him by mail, four days may not be added to the prescribed term. (For
example, if an owner or operator wishes to appeal the Agency’s decision to
modify its RAP, then the owner or operator must petition the Board within
35 days after the Agency has issued the final RAP decision.)
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (b) is derived from 40 CFR 270.215 (2002). Federal
subsections (c) and (d) provide that a RAP is effective 30 days after the Agency
notice of approval. The Board has used 35 days to be consistent with the 35 days
within which a permit appeal must be filed under Section 40(a)(1) of the Act [415
ILCS 5/40(a)(1)]. Further, federal subsection (d) provides three days for
completion of service by mail. The addition of four days (see procedural rule 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 101.144(c)) to be consistent with 40 CFR 270.215(d) would exceed the
35 days allowed under Section 40(a)(1) of the Act [415 ILCS 5/40(a)(1)].
c) How an owner or operator may transfer its RAP to a new owner or operator.
1) If an owner or operator wishes to transfer its RAP to a new owner or
operator, the owner or operator must follow the requirements specified in its
RAP for RAP modification to identify the new owner or operator, and
incorporate any other necessary requirements. These modifications do not
constitute “significant” modifications for purposes of Section 703.304(a).
The new owner or operator must submit a revised RAP application no later
than 90 days before the scheduled change along with a written agreement
containing a specific date for transfer of RAP responsibility between the
owner or operator and the new permittees.
2) When a transfer of ownership or operational control occurs, the old owner
46
or operator must comply with the applicable requirements in Subpart H of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 (Financial Requirements) until the new owner or
operator has demonstrated that it is complying with the requirements in that
Subpart. The new owner or operator must demonstrate compliance with
Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 within six months after the date of the
change in ownership or operational control of the facility or remediation
waste management site. When the new owner or operator demonstrates
compliance with Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 to the Agency, the
Agency must notify the former owner or operator that it no longer needs to
comply with Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 as of the date of
demonstration.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (c) is derived from 40 CFR 270.220 (2002).
d) What the Agency must report about noncompliance with RAPs. The Agency must
report noncompliance with RAPs according to the provisions of 40 CFR 270.5
U
(Noncompliance and Program Reporting by the Director)
U
, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(b)
U
.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (d) is derived from 40 CFR 270.225
S
(2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.306 Obtaining a RAP for an Off-Site Location
An owner or operator may perform remediation waste management activities under a RAP at a
location removed from the area where the remediation wastes originated.
a) An owner or operator may request a RAP for remediation waste management
activities at a location removed from the area where the remediation wastes
originated if the owner or operator believes such a location would be more
protective than the contaminated area or areas in close proximity.
b) If the Agency determines that an alternative location, removed from the area where
the remediation waste originated, is more protective than managing remediation
waste at the area of contamination or areas in close proximity, then the Agency
must approve a RAP for this alternative location.
c) An owner or operator must request the RAP, and the Agency must approve or deny
the RAP, according to the procedures and requirements in this Subpart H.
d) A RAP for an alternative location must also meet the following requirements, which
the Agency must include in the RAP for such locations:
1) The RAP for the alternative location must be issued to the person
responsible for the cleanup from which the remediation wastes originated;
47
2) The RAP is subject to the expanded public participation requirements in
Sections 703.191, 703.192, and 703.193;
3) The RAP is subject to the public notice requirements in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
705.163;
4) The site permitted in the RAP may not be located within 61 meters or 200
feet of a fault that has had displacement in the Holocene time. (The owner
or operator must demonstrate compliance with this standard through the
requirements in Section 703.183(k).) (See the definitions of terms in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.118(a).)
BOARD NOTE: Sites in Illinois are assumed to be in compliance with the
requirement of subsection (d)(4) of this Section, since they are not listed in
U
appendix VI to
U
40 CFR 264
S
, Appendix VI
SU
(Political Jurisdictions in Which
Compliance with§ 264.18(a) Must Be Demonstrated)
U
.
e) These alternative locations are remediation waste management sites, and retain the
following benefits of remediation waste management sites:
1) Exclusion from facility-wide corrective action under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.201; and
2) Application of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.101(j) in lieu of Subparts B, C, and D
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.230
S
(2002)
SU
(2005)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART I: INTEGRATION WITH MAXIMUM ACHIEVABLE CONTROL
TECHNOLOGY (MACT) STANDARDS
Section 703.320 Options for Incinerators and Cement and Lightweight Aggregate Kilns to
Minimize Emissions from Startup, Shutdown, and Malfunction Events
a) Facilities with existing permits.
1) Revisions to permit conditions after documenting compliance with
MACT. The owner or operator of a RCRA-permitted incinerator, cement
kiln, or lightweight aggregate kiln, when requesting removal of permit
conditions that are no longer applicable according to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.440(b) and 726.200(b), may request that the Agency address permit
conditions that minimize emissions from startup, shutdown, and
malfunction events under any of the following options:
48
A) Retain relevant permit conditions. Under this option, the Agency
must do the following:
i) Retain permit conditions that address releases during
startup, shutdown, and malfunction events, including
releases from emergency safety vents, as these events are
defined in the facility’s startup, shutdown, and malfunction
plan required under 40 CFR 63.1206(c)(2)
U
(When and How
Must You Comply with the Standards and Operating
Requirements?)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(b)
U
; and
ii) Limit applicability of those permit conditions only to when
the facility is operating under its startup, shutdown, and
malfunction plan.
B) Revise relevant permit conditions. Under this option, the Agency
must do the following:
i) Identify a subset of relevant existing permit requirements,
or develop alternative permit requirements, that ensure
emissions of toxic compounds are minimized from startup,
shutdown, and malfunction events, including releases from
emergency safety vents, based on review of information
including the source’s startup, shutdown, and malfunction
plan, design, and operating history; and
ii) Retain or add these permit requirements to the permit to
apply only when the facility is operating under its startup,
shutdown, and malfunction plan.
iii) The owner or operator must comply with subsection (a)(3)
of this Section.
BOARD NOTE: The Board found it necessary to deviate from the
structure of corresponding 40 CFR 270.235(a)(1)(ii) in this
subsection (a)(1)(B) in order to comport with Illinois
S
Adminisrative
SU
Administrative
U
Code codification requirements.
The substance of 40 CFR 270.235(a)(1)(ii)(A), (a)(1)(ii)(A)(
1
),
and (a)(1)(ii)(A)(
2
) appear as subsections (a)(1)(B), (a)(1)(B)(i),
and (a)(1)(B)(ii). The substance of 40 CFR 270.235(a)(1)(ii)(B)
has been codified as subsection (a)(3) of this Section. Subsection
(a)(1)(B)(iii) of this Section was added to direct attention to
subsection (a)(3).
49
C) Remove permit conditions. Under this option the following are
required:
i) The owner or operator must document that the startup,
shutdown, and malfunction plan required under 40 CFR
63.1206(c)(2)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111,
S
has been approved by the Administrator
under 40 CFR 63.1206(c)(2)(ii)(B)
S
, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
; and
ii) The Agency must remove permit conditions that are no
longer applicable according to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.440(b) and 726.200(b).
2) Addressing permit conditions upon permit reissuance. The owner or
operator of an incinerator, cement kiln, or lightweight aggregate kiln that
has conducted a comprehensive performance test and submitted to the
Agency a Notification of Compliance documenting compliance with the
standards of
U
subpart EEE of
U
40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
SU
(National Emission
Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Hazardous Waste
Combustors)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
§
S
U
720.111(b)
U
, may request in the application to reissue the permit for the
combustion unit that the Agency control emissions from startup,
shutdown, and malfunction events under any of the following options:
A) RCRA option A. Under this option, the Agency must do the
following:
i) Include, in the permit, conditions that ensure compliance
with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.445(a) and (c) or 726.202(e)(1)
and (e)(2)(C) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds
from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events, including
releases from emergency safety vents; and
ii) Specify that these permit requirements apply only when the
facility is operating under its startup, shutdown, and
malfunction plan; or
BOARD NOTE: The Board found it necessary to deviate from the
structure of corresponding 40 CFR 270.235(a)(2)(i) in this
subsection (a)(2)(A) in order to comport with Illinois
S
Adminisrative
SU
Administrative
U
Code codification requirements.
The substance of 40 CFR 270.235(a)(2)(i)(A), (a)(2)(i)(A)(
1
), and
(a)(2)(i)(A)(
2
) appear as subsections (a)(2)(A), (a)(2)(A)(i), and
(a)(2)(A)(ii).
50
B) RCRA option B. Under this option, the Agency must
U
do the
following
U
:
i) Include, in the permit, conditions that ensure emissions of
toxic compounds are minimized from startup, shutdown,
and malfunction events, including releases from emergency
safety vents, based on review of information including the
source’s startup, shutdown, and malfunction plan, design,
and operating history; and
ii) Specify that these permit requirements apply only when the
facility is operating under its startup, shutdown, and
malfunction plan.
iii) The owner or operator must comply with subsection (a)(3)
of this Section.
BOARD NOTE: The Board found it necessary to deviate from the
structure of corresponding 40 CFR 270.235(a)(2)(ii) in this
subsection (a)(2)(B) in order to comport with Illinois
S
Adminisrative
SU
Administrative
U
Code codification requirements.
The substance of 40 CFR 270.235(a)(2)(ii)(A), (a)(2)(ii)(A)(
1
),
and (a)(2)(ii)(A)(
2
) appear as subsections (a)(2)(B), (a)(2)(B)(i),
and (a)(2)(B)(ii). The substance of 40 CFR 270.235(a)(2)(ii)(B)
has been codified as subsection (a)(3) of this Section. Subsection
(a)(2)(B)(iii) of this Section was added to direct attention to
subsection (a)(3).
C) CAA option. Under this option the following are required:
i) The owner or operator must document that the startup,
shutdown, and malfunction plan required under 40 CFR
63.1206(c)(2)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111,
S
has been approved by the Agency under 40
CFR 63.1206(c)(2)(ii)(B)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
; and
ii) The Agency must omit from the permit conditions that are
not applicable under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.440(b) and
726.200(b).
3) Changes that may significantly increase emissions.
A) The owner or operator must notify the Agency in writing of
changes to the startup, shutdown, and malfunction plan or changes
to the design of the source that may significantly increase
51
emissions of toxic compounds from startup, shutdown, or
malfunction events, including releases from emergency safety
vents. The owner or operator must notify the Agency of such
changes within five days of making such changes. The owner or
operator must identify in the notification recommended revisions
to permit conditions necessary as a result of the changes to ensure
that emissions of toxic compounds are minimized during these
events.
B) The Agency may revise permit conditions as a result of these
changes to ensure that emissions of toxic compounds are
minimized during startup, shutdown, or malfunction events,
including releases from emergency safety vents in either of the
following ways:
i) Upon permit renewal; or
S
;
S
ii) If warranted, by modifying the permit under
S
§§ 270.41(a)
or 270.42
SU
Section 703.270 or 703.280 though 703.283
U
.
BOARD NOTE: The substance of 40 CFR 270.235(a)(1)(ii)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(B)
has been codified as this subsection (a)(3).
b) Interim status facilities.
1) Interim status operations. In compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.440
and 726.200(b), the owner or operator of an incinerator, cement kiln, or
lightweight aggregate kiln that is operating under the interim status
standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 or 726 may control emissions of toxic
compounds during startup, shutdown, and malfunction events under either
of the following options after conducting a comprehensive performance
test and submitting to the Agency a Notification of Compliance
documenting compliance with the standards of
U
subpart EEE of
U
40 CFR 63
S
,
subpart EEE, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
:
A) RCRA option. Under this option, the owner or operator must
continue to comply with the interim status emission standards and
operating requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 or 726 relevant to
control of emissions from startup, shutdown, and malfunction
events. Those standards and requirements apply only during
startup, shutdown, and malfunction events; or
B) CAA option. Under this option, the owner or operator is exempt
from the interim status standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 or 726
relevant to control of emissions of toxic compounds during startup,
shutdown, and malfunction events upon submission of written
52
notification and documentation to the Agency that the startup,
shutdown, and malfunction plan required under 40 CFR
63.1206(c)(2)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111,
S
has been approved by the Agency under 40 CFR
63.1206(c)(2)(ii)(B)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111
S
.
2) Operations under a subsequent RCRA permit. When an owner or operator
of an incinerator, cement kiln, or lightweight aggregate kiln that is
operating under the interim status standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 or
726 submits a RCRA permit application, the owner or operator may
request that the Agency control emissions from startup, shutdown, and
malfunction events under any of the options provided by subsection
(a)(2)(A), (a)(2)(B), or (a)(2)(C) of this Section.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.235
S
(2002)
SU
(2005)
U
. Operating conditions used to
determine effective treatment of hazardous waste remain effective after the owner or operator
demonstrates compliance with the standards of
U
subpart EEE of
U
40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
S
.
(Source: Added at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 703.Appendix A Classification of Permit Modifications
Class Modifications
A. General Permit Provisions
1 1. Administrative and informational changes.
1 2. Correction of typographical errors.
1 3. Equipment replacement or upgrading with functionally equivalent
components (e.g., pipes, valves, pumps, conveyors, controls).
4. Changes in the frequency of or procedures for monitoring, reporting,
sampling, or maintenance activities by the permittee:
1 a. To provide for more frequent monitoring, reporting, or
maintenance.
2 b. Other changes.
5. Schedule of compliance:
1* a. Changes in interim compliance dates, with prior approval of the
Agency.
53
3 b. Extension of final compliance date.
1* 6. Changes in expiration date of permit to allow earlier permit termination,
with prior approval of the Agency.
1* 7. Changes in ownership or operational control of a facility, provided the
procedures of Section 703.260(b) are followed.
1* 8. Changes to remove permit conditions that are no longer applicable (i.e.,
because the standards upon which they are based are no longer
applicable to the facility).
B. General Facility Standards
1. Changes to waste sampling or analysis methods:
1 a. To conform with Agency guidance or Board regulations.
1* b. To incorporate changes associated with F039 (multi-source
leachate) sampling or analysis methods.
1* c. To incorporate changes associated with underlying hazardous
constituents in ignitable or corrosive wastes.
2 d. Other changes.
2. Changes to analytical quality assurance or quality control plan:
1 a. To conform with agency guidance or regulations.
2 b. Other changes.
1 3. Changes in procedures for maintaining the operating record.
2 4. Changes in frequency or content of inspection schedules.
5. Changes in the training plan:
2 a. That affect the type or decrease the amount of training given to
employees.
1 b. Other changes.
6. Contingency plan:
54
2 a. Changes in emergency procedures (i.e., spill or release response
procedures).
1 b. Replacement with functionally equivalent equipment, upgrade,
or relocate emergency equipment listed.
2 c. Removal of equipment from emergency equipment list.
1 d. Changes in name, address, or phone number of coordinators or
other persons or agencies identified in the plan.
Note: When a permit modification (such as introduction of a new unit)
requires a change in facility plans or other general facility standards,
that change must be reviewed under the same procedures as the permit
modification.
7. CQA plan:
1 a. Changes that the CQA officer certifies in the operating record
will provide equivalent or better certainty that the unit
components meet the design specifications.
2 b. Other changes.
Note: When a permit modification (such as introduction of a new unit)
requires a change in facility plans or other general facility standards,
that change must be reviewed under the same procedures as a permit
modification.
C. Groundwater Protection
1. Changes to wells:
2 a. Changes in the number, location, depth, or design of upgradient
or downgradient wells of permitted groundwater monitoring
system.
1 b. Replacement of an existing well that has been damaged or
rendered inoperable, without change to location, design, or
depth of the well.
1* 2. Changes in groundwater sampling or analysis procedures or monitoring
schedule, with prior approval of the Agency.
55
1* 3. Changes in statistical procedure for determining whether a statistically
significant change in groundwater quality between upgradient and
downgradient wells has occurred, with prior approval of the Agency.
2* 4. Changes in point of compliance.
5. Changes in indicator parameters, hazardous constituents, or
concentration limits (including ACLs (Alternate Concentration
Limits)):
3 a. As specified in the groundwater protection standard.
2 b. As specified in the detection monitoring program.
2 6. Changes to a detection monitoring program as required by 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.198(j), unless otherwise specified in this Appendix.
7. Compliance monitoring program:
3 a. Addition of compliance monitoring program as required by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.198(h)(4) and 724.199.
2 b. Changes to a compliance monitoring program as required by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.199(k), unless otherwise specified in this
Appendix.
8. Corrective action program:
3 a. Addition of a corrective action program as required by 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.199(i)(2) and 724.200.
2 b. Changes to a corrective action program as required by 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.200(h), unless otherwise specified in this
Appendix.
D. Closure
1. Changes to the closure plan:
1* a. Changes in estimate of maximum extent of operations or
maximum inventory of waste on-site at any time during the
active life of the facility, with prior approval of the Agency.
1* b. Changes in the closure schedule for any unit, changes in the
final closure schedule for the facility or extension of the closure
period, with prior approval of the Agency.
56
1* c. Changes in the expected year of final closure, where other
permit conditions are not changed, with prior approval of the
Agency.
1* d. Changes in procedures for decontamination of facility
equipment or structures, with prior approval of the Agency.
2 e. Changes in approved closure plan resulting from unexpected
events occurring during partial or final closure, unless otherwise
specified in this Appendix.
2 f. Extension of the closure period to allow a landfill, surface
impoundment, or land treatment unit to receive non-hazardous
wastes after final receipt of hazardous wastes under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.213(d) or (e).
3 2. Creation of a new landfill unit as part of closure.
3. Addition of the following new units to be used temporarily for closure
activities:
3 a. Surface impoundments.
3 b. Incinerators.
3 c. Waste piles that do not comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.350(c).
2 d. Waste piles that comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.350(c).
2 e. Tanks or containers (other than specified in paragraph D(3)(f)
below).
1* f. Tanks used for neutralization, dewatering, phase separation, or
component separation, with prior approval of the Agency.
2 g. Staging piles.
E. Post-Closure
1 1. Changes in name, address, or phone number of contact in post-closure
plan.
2 2. Extension of post-closure care period.
57
3 3. Reduction in the post-closure care period.
1 4. Changes to the expected year of final closure, where other permit
conditions are not changed.
2 5. Changes in post-closure plan necessitated by events occurring during
the active life of the facility, including partial and final closure.
F. Containers
1. Modification or addition of container units:
3 a. Resulting in greater than 25 percent increase in the facility’s
container storage capacity, except as provided in F(1)(c) and
F(4)(a).
2 b. Resulting in up to 25 percent increase in the facility’s container
storage capacity, except as provided in F(1)(c) and F(4)(a).
1 c. Modification or addition of container units or treatment
processes necessary to treat wastes that are restricted from land
disposal to meet some or all of the applicable treatment
standards, with prior approval of the Agency. This modification
may also involve the addition of new waste codes or narrative
description of wastes. It is not applicable to dioxin-containing
wastes (F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, F027, and F028).
2. Modification of container units without an increased capacity or
alteration of the system:
2 a. Modification of a container unit without increasing the capacity
of the unit.
1 b. Addition of a roof to a container unit without alteration of the
containment system.
3. Storage of different wastes in containers, except as provided in F(4):
3 a. That require additional or different management practices from
those authorized in the permit.
2 b. That do not require additional or different management practices
from those authorized in the permit.
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be
used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
58
4. Storage or treatment of different wastes in containers:
2 a. That require addition of units or change in treatment process or
management standards, provided that the wastes are restricted
from land disposal and are to be treated to meet some or all of
the applicable treatment standards. It is not applicable to
dioxin-containing wastes (F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, F027,
and F028).
1* b. That do not require the addition of units or a change in the
treatment process or management standards, and provided that
the units have previously received wastes of the same type (e.g.,
incinerator scrubber water). This modification is not applicable
to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, F021, F022, F023, F026,
F027, and F028).
G. Tanks
1.
3 a. Modification or addition of tank units resulting in greater than
25 percent increase in the facility’s tank capacity, except as
provided in paragraphs G(1)(c), G(1)(d), and G(1)(e).
2 b. Modification or addition of tank units resulting in up to 25
percent increase in the facility’s tank capacity, except as
provided in paragraphs G(1)(d) and G(1)(e).
2 c. Addition of a new tank that will operate for more than 90 days
using any of the following physical or chemical treatment
technologies: neutralization, dewatering, phase separation, or
component separation.
1* d. After prior approval of the Agency, addition of a new tank that
will operate for up to 90 days using any of the following
physical or chemical treatment technologies: neutralization,
dewatering, phase separation, or component separation.
1* e. Modification or addition of tank units or treatment processes
that are necessary to treat wastes that are restricted from land
disposal to meet some or all of the applicable treatment
standards, with prior approval of the Agency. This modification
may also involve the addition of new waste codes. It is not
applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, F021, F022,
F023, F026, F027, and F028).
59
2 2. Modification of a tank unit or secondary containment system without
increasing the capacity of the unit.
1 3. Replacement of a tank with a tank that meets the same design standards
and has a capacity within
±
10 percent of the replaced tank provided:
a. The capacity difference is no more than 1500 gallons,
b. The facility’s permitted tank capacity is not increased, and
c. The replacement tank meets the same conditions in the permit.
2 4. Modification of a tank management practice.
5. Management of different wastes in tanks:
3 a. That require additional or different management practices, tank
design, different fire protection specifications or significantly
different tank treatment process from that authorized in the
permit, except as provided in paragraph G(5)(c).
2 b. That do not require additional or different management practices
or tank design, different fire protection specification, or
significantly different tank treatment process than authorized in
the permit, except as provided in paragraph G(5)(d).
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be
used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
1* c. That require addition of units or change in treatment processes
or management standards, provided that the wastes are restricted
from land disposal and are to be treated to meet some or all of
the applicable treatment standards. The modification is not
applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, F021, F022,
F023, F026, F027, and F028).
1 d. That do not require the addition of units or a change in the
treatment process or management standards, and provided that
the units have previously received wastes of the same type (e.g.,
incinerator scrubber water). This modification is not applicable
to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, F021, F022, F023, F026,
F027, and F028).
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be
used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
60
H. Surface Impoundments
3 1. Modification or addition of surface impoundment units that result in
increasing the facility’s surface impoundment storage or treatment
capacity.
3 2. Replacement of a surface impoundment unit.
2 3. Modification of a surface impoundment unit without increasing the
facility’s surface impoundment storage or treatment capacity and
without modifying the unit’s liner, leak detection system, or leachate
collection system.
2 4. Modification of a surface impoundment management practice.
5. Treatment, storage, or disposal of different wastes in surface
impoundments:
3 a. That require additional or different management practices or
different design of the liner or leak detection system than
authorized in the permit.
2 b. That do not require additional or different management practices
or different design of the liner or leak detection system than
authorized in the permit.
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be
used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
1 c. That are wastes restricted from land disposal that meet the
applicable treatment standards. This modification is not
applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, F021, F022,
F023, F026, F027, and F028).
1 d. That are residues from wastewater treatment or incineration,
provided the disposal occurs in a unit that meets the minimum
technological requirements stated in 40 CFR 268.5(h)(2)
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(Procedures for Case-by-Case Extensions to an Effective Date)
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,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
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728.105
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720.111(b)
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, and provided further that the surface impoundment
has previously received wastes of the same type (for example,
incinerator scrubber water). This modification is not applicable
to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, F021, F022, F023, F026,
F027, and F028).
61
1* 6. Modifications of unconstructed units to comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.321(c), 724.322, 724.323, and 724.326(d).
7. Changes in response action plan:
3 a. Increase in action leakage rate.
3 b. Change in a specific response reducing its frequency or
effectiveness.
2 c. Other changes.
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be
used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
I. Enclosed Waste Piles. For all waste piles, except those complying with 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.350(c), modifications are treated the same as for a landfill.
The following modifications are applicable only to waste piles complying with
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.350(c).
1. Modification or addition of waste pile units:
3 a. Resulting in greater than 25 percent increase in the facility’s
waste pile storage or treatment capacity.
2 b. Resulting in up to 25 percent increase in the facility’s waste pile
storage or treatment capacity.
2 2. Modification of waste pile unit without increasing the capacity of the
unit.
1 3. Replacement of a waste pile unit with another waste pile unit of the
same design and capacity and meeting all waste pile conditions in the
permit.
2 4. Modification of a waste pile management practice.
5. Storage or treatment of different wastes in waste piles:
3 a. That require additional or different management practices or
different design of the unit.
2 b. That do not require additional or different management practices
or different design of the unit.
62
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be
used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
2 6. Conversion of an enclosed waste pile to a containment building unit.
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be used
for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
J. Landfills and Unenclosed Waste Piles
3 1. Modification or addition of landfill units that result in increasing the
facility’s disposal capacity.
3 2. Replacement of a landfill.
3 3. Addition or modification of a liner, leachate collection system, leachate
detection system, runoff control, or final cover system.
2 4. Modification of a landfill unit without changing a liner, leachate
collection system, leachate detection system, runoff control, or final
cover system.
2 5. Modification of a landfill management practice.
6. Landfill different wastes:
3 a. That require additional or different management practices,
different design of the liner, leachate collection system, or
leachate detection system.
2 b. That do not require additional or different management
practices, different design of the liner, leachate collection
system, or leachate detection system.
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be
used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
1 c. That are wastes restricted from land disposal that meet the
applicable treatment standards. This modification is not
applicable to dioxin-containing wastes (F020, F021, F022,
F023, F026, F027, and F028).
63
1 d. That are residues from wastewater treatment or incineration,
provided the disposal occurs in a landfill unit that meets the
minimum technological requirements stated in 40 CFR
268.5(h)(2)
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(Procedures for Case-by-Case Extensions to an
Effective Date)
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, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
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728.105
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720.111(b)
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, and provided further that the landfill has
previously received wastes of the same type (for example,
incinerator ash). This modification is not applicable to dioxin-
containing wastes (F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, F027, and
F028).
1* 7. Modification of unconstructed units to comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.351(c), 724.352, 724.353, 724.354(c), 724.401(c), 724.402,
724.403(c), and 724.404.
8. Changes in response action plan:
3 a. Increase in action leakage rate.
3 b. Change in a specific response reducing its frequency or
effectiveness.
2 c. Other changes.
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be
used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
K. Land Treatment
3 1. Lateral expansion of or other modification of a land treatment unit to
increase area extent.
2 2. Modification of runon control system.
3 3. Modify runoff control system.
2 4. Other modification of land treatment unit component specifications or
standards required in permit.
5. Management of different wastes in land treatment units:
3 a. That require a change in permit operating conditions or unit
design specifications.
2 b. That do not require a change in permit operating conditions or
unit design specifications.
64
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be
used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
6. Modification of a land treatment unit management practice to:
3 a. Increase rate or change method of waste application.
1 b. Decrease rate of waste application.
2 7. Modification of a land treatment unit management practice to change
measures of pH or moisture content or to enhance microbial or
chemical reactions.
3 8. Modification of a land treatment unit management practice to grow
food chain crops, to add to or replace existing permitted crops with
different food chain crops or to modify operating plans for distribution
of animal feeds resulting from such crops.
3 9. Modification of operating practice due to detection of releases from the
land treatment unit pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.378(g)(2).
3 10. Changes in the unsaturated zone monitoring system that result in a
change to the location, depth, or number of sampling points or which
replace unsaturated zone monitoring devices or components of devices
with devices or components that have specifications different from
permit requirements.
2 11. Changes in the unsaturated zone monitoring system that do not result in
a change to the location, depth, or number of sampling points or which
replace unsaturated zone monitoring devices or components of devices
with devices or components having specifications different from permit
requirements.
2 12. Changes in background values for hazardous constituents in soil and
soil-pore liquid.
2 13. Changes in sampling, analysis, or statistical procedure.
2 14. Changes in land treatment demonstration program prior to or during the
demonstration.
1* 15. Changes in any condition specified in the permit for a land treatment
unit to reflect results of the land treatment demonstration, provided
performance standards are met, and the Agency’s prior approval has
been received.
65
1* 16. Changes to allow a second land treatment demonstration to be
conducted when the results of the first demonstration have not shown
the conditions under which the wastes can be treated completely,
provided the conditions for the second demonstration are substantially
the same as the conditions for the first demonstration and have received
the prior approval of the Agency.
3 17. Changes to allow a second land treatment demonstration to be
conducted when the results of the first demonstration have not shown
the conditions under which the wastes can be treated completely, where
the conditions for the second demonstration are not substantially the
same as the conditions for the first demonstration.
2 18. Changes in vegetative cover requirements for closure.
L. Incinerators, Boilers and Industrial Furnaces
3 1. Changes to increase by more than 25 percent any of the following limits
authorized in the permit: A thermal feed rate limit, a feedstream feed
rate limit, a chlorine/chloride feed rate limit, a metal feed rate limit, or
an ash feed rate limit. The Agency must require a new trial burn to
substantiate compliance with the regulatory performance standards
unless this demonstration can be made through other means.
2 2. Changes to increase by up to 25 percent any of the following limits
authorized in the permit: A thermal feed rate limit, a feedstream feed
rate limit, a chlorine/chloride feed rate limit, a metal feed rate limit, or
an ash feed rate limit. The Agency must require a new trial burn to
substantiate compliance with the regulatory performance standards
unless this demonstration can be made through other means.
3 3. Modification of an incinerator, boiler, or industrial furnace unit by
changing the internal size or geometry of the primary or secondary
combustion units; by adding a primary or secondary combustion unit;
by substantially changing the design of any component used to remove
HCl/Cl
B
2
B
, metals, or particulate from the combustion gases; or by
changing other features of the incinerator, boiler, or industrial furnace
that could affect its capability to meet the regulatory performance
standards. The Agency must require a new trial burn to substantiate
compliance with the regulatory performance standards, unless this
demonstration can be made through other means.
66
2 4. Modification of an incinerator, boiler, or industrial furnace unit in a
manner that will not likely affect the capability of the unit to meet the
regulatory performance standards but which will change the operating
conditions or monitoring requirements specified in the permit. The
Agency may require a new trial burn to demonstrate compliance with
the regulatory performance standards.
5. Operating requirements:
3 a. Modification of the limits specified in the permit for minimum
or maximum combustion gas temperature, minimum combustion
gas residence time, oxygen concentration in the secondary
combustion chamber, flue gas carbon monoxide or hydrocarbon
concentration, maximum temperature at the inlet to the PM
emission control system, or operating parameters for the air
pollution control system. The Agency must require a new trial
burn to substantiate compliance with the regulatory performance
standards unless this demonstration can be made through other
means.
3 b. Modification of any stack gas emission limits specified in the
permit, or modification of any conditions in the permit
concerning emergency shutdown or automatic waste feed cutoff
procedures or controls.
2 c. Modification of any other operating condition or any inspection
or recordkeeping requirement specified in the permit.
6. Burning different wastes:
3 a. If the waste contains a POHC that is more difficult to burn than
authorized by the permit or if burning of the waste requires
compliance with different regulatory performance standards
than specified in the permit, the Agency must require a new trial
burn to substantiate compliance with the regulatory performance
standards, unless this demonstration can be made through other
means.
2 b. If the waste does not contain a POHC that is more difficult to
burn than authorized by the permit and if burning of the waste
does not require compliance with different regulatory
performance standards than specified in the permit.
Note: See Section 703.280(g) for modification procedures to be
used for the management of newly listed or identified wastes.
67
7. Shakedown and trial burn:
2 a. Modification of the trial burn plan or any of the permit
conditions applicable during the shakedown period for
determining operational readiness after construction, the trial
burn period or the period immediately following the trial burn.
1* b. Authorization of up to an additional 720 hours of waste burning
during the shakedown period for determining operational
readiness after construction, with the prior approval of the
Agency.
1* c. Changes in the operating requirements set in the permit for
conducting a trial burn, provided the change is minor and has
received the prior approval of the Agency.
1* d. Changes in the ranges of the operating requirements set in the
permit to reflect the results of the trial burn, provided the change
is minor and has received the prior approval of the Agency.
1 8. Substitution of an alternative type of non-hazardous waste fuel that is
not specified in the permit.
1* 9. Technology changes needed to meet standards under federal
U
subpart
EEE of
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40 CFR 63 (
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subpart EEE--
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National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants
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From
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from
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Hazardous Waste Combustors)
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,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
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, provided
the procedures of Section 703.280(j) are followed.
M. Containment Buildings
1. Modification or addition of containment building units:
3 a. Resulting in greater than 25 percent increase in the facility’s
containment building storage or treatment capacity.
2 b. Resulting in up to 25 percent increase in the facility’s
containment building storage or treatment capacity.
2 2. Modification of a containment building unit or secondary containment
system without increasing the capacity of the unit.
3. Replacement of a containment building with a containment building
that meets the same design standards provided:
1 a. The unit capacity is not increased.
68
1 b. The replacement containment building meets the same
conditions in the permit.
2 4. Modification of a containment building management practice.
5. Storage or treatment of different wastes in containment buildings:
3 a. That require additional or different management practices.
2 b. That do not require additional or different management
practices.
N. Corrective Action
3 1. Approval of a corrective action management unit pursuant to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.652.
2 2. Approval of a temporary unit or time extension pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.653.
2 3. Approval of a staging pile or staging pile operating term extension
pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.654.
Note: * indicates modifications requiring prior Agency approval.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from
U
appendix I to
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40 CFR 270.42
S
, Appendix I (2002)
SU
(2005)
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.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 720
HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM: GENERAL
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
720.101 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
720.102 Availability of Information; Confidentiality of Information
720.103 Use of Number and Gender
69
SUBPART B: DEFINITIONS AND REFERENCES
Section
720.110 Definitions
720.111 References
SUBPART C: RULEMAKING PETITIONS AND OTHER PROCEDURES
Section
720.120 Rulemaking
720.121 Alternative Equivalent Testing Methods
720.122 Waste Delisting
720.123 Petitions for Regulation as Universal Waste
720.130 Procedures for Solid Waste Determinations
720.131 Solid Waste Determinations
720.132 Boiler Determinations
720.133 Procedures for Determinations
720.140 Additional Regulation of Certain Hazardous Waste Recycling Activities on a
Case-by-Case Basis
720.141 Procedures for Case-by-Case Regulation of Hazardous Waste Recycling
Activities
720.Appendix A Overview of
S
40 CFR,
SU
Federal RCRA
U
Subtitle C
U
(Hazardous Waste)
U
Regulations
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 7.2, 13, and 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/7.2, 13, 22.4, and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R81-22 at 5 Ill. Reg. 9781, effective May 17, 1982; amended and
codified in R81-22 at 6 Ill. Reg. 4828, effective May 17, 1982; amended in R82-19 at 7 Ill. Reg.
14015, effective October 12, 1983; amended in R84-9 at 9 Ill. Reg. 11819, effective July 24,
1985; amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg. 968, effective January 2, 1986; amended in R86-1 at 10
Ill. Reg. 13998, effective August 12, 1986; amended in R86-19 at 10 Ill. Reg. 20630, effective
December 2, 1986; amended in R86-28 at 11 Ill. Reg. 6017, effective March 24, 1987; amended
in R86-46 at 11 Ill. Reg. 13435, effective August 4, 1987; amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg.
19280, effective November 12, 1987; amended in R87-26 at 12 Ill. Reg. 2450, effective January
15, 1988; amended in R87-39 at 12 Ill. Reg. 12999, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R88-16
at 13 Ill. Reg. 362, effective December 27, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18278,
effective November 13, 1989; amended in R89-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 3075, effective February 20,
1990; amended in R89-9 at 14 Ill. Reg. 6225, effective April 16, 1990; amended in R90-10 at 14
Ill. Reg. 16450, effective September 25, 1990; amended in R90-17 at 15 Ill. Reg. 7934, effective
May 9, 1991; amended in R90-11 at 15 Ill. Reg. 9323, effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-
1 at 15 Ill. Reg. 14446, effective September 30, 1991; amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9489,
effective June 9, 1992; amended in R92-1 at 16 Ill. Reg. 17636, effective November 6, 1992;
amended in R92-10 at 17 Ill. Reg. 5625, effective March 26, 1993; amended in R93-4 at 17 Ill.
Reg. 20545, effective November 22, 1993; amended in R93-16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6720, effective
April 26, 1994; amended in R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12160, effective July 29, 1994; amended in
R94-17 at 18 Ill. Reg. 17480, effective November 23, 1994; amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg.
70
9508, effective June 27, 1995; amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 10929, effective August 1,
1996; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 256, effective December 16, 1997;
amended in R98-12 at 22 Ill. Reg. 7590, effective April 15, 1998; amended in R97-21/R98-
3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 17496, effective September 28, 1998; amended in R98-21/R99-2/R99-7 at
23 Ill. Reg. 1704, effective January 19, 1999; amended in R99-15 at 23 Ill. Reg. 9094, effective
July 26, 1999; amended in R00-5 at 24 Ill. Reg. 1063, effective January 6, 2000; amended in
R00-13 at 24 Ill. Reg. 9443, effective June 20, 2000; amended in R01-3 at 25 Ill. Reg. 1266,
effective January 11, 2001; amended in R01-21/R01-23 at 25 Ill. Reg. 9168, effective July 9,
2001; amended in R02-1/R02-12/R02-17 at 26 Ill. Reg. 6550, effective April 22, 2002; amended
in R03-7 at 27 Ill. Reg. 3712, effective February 14, 2003; amended in R03-18 at 27 Ill. Reg.
12713, effective July 17, 2003; amended in R05-8 at 29 Ill. Reg. 5974, effective April 13, 2005;
amended in R05-2 at 29 Ill. Reg. 6290, effective April 22, 2005; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7
at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART B: DEFINITIONS AND REFERENCES
Section 720.110 Definitions
When used in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 726, 728, 733, and 739 only, the following terms have
the meanings given below:
“Aboveground tank” means a device meeting the definition of tank that is situated in
such a way that the entire surface area of the tank is completely above the plane of
the adjacent surrounding surface and the entire surface area of the tank (including the
tank bottom) is able to be visually inspected.
“Active life” of a facility means the period from the initial receipt of hazardous waste
at the facility until the Agency receives certification of final closure.
“Active portion” means that portion of a facility where treatment, storage, or disposal
operations are being or have been conducted after May 19, 1980, and which is not a
closed portion. (See also “closed portion” and “inactive portion.”)
“Administrator” means the Administrator of the United States Environmental
Protection Agency or the Administrator’s designee.
“Agency” means the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.
“Ancillary equipment” means any device, including, but not limited to, such devices
as piping, fittings, flanges, valves, and pumps, that is used to distribute, meter, or
control the flow of hazardous waste from its point of generation to storage or
treatment tanks, between hazardous waste storage and treatment tanks to a point of
disposal onsite, or to a point of shipment for disposal off-site.
“Aquifer” means a geologic formation, group of formations, or part of a formation
capable of yielding a significant amount of groundwater to wells or springs.
71
“Authorized representative” means the person responsible for the overall operation
of a facility or an operational unit (i.e., part of a facility), e.g., the plant manager,
superintendent, or person of equivalent responsibility.
“Battery” means a device that consists of one or more electrically connected
electrochemical cells which is designed to receive, store, and deliver electric energy.
An electrochemical cell is a system consisting of an anode, cathode, and an
electrolyte, plus such connections (electrical and mechanical) as may be needed to
allow the cell to deliver or receive electrical energy. The term battery also includes
an intact, unbroken battery from which the electrolyte has been removed.
“Board” means the Illinois Pollution Control Board.
“Boiler” means an enclosed device using controlled flame combustion and having
the following characteristics:
Boiler physical characteristics.
The unit must have physical provisions for recovering and exporting
thermal energy in the form of steam, heated fluids, or heated gases;
and the unit’s combustion chamber and primary energy recovery
sections must be of integral design. To be of integral design, the
combustion chamber and the primary energy recovery sections (such
as waterwalls and superheaters) must be physically formed into one
manufactured or assembled unit. A unit in which the combustion
chamber and the primary energy recovery sections are joined only by
ducts or connections carrying flue gas is not integrally designed;
however, secondary energy recovery equipment (such as
economizers or air preheaters) need not be physically formed into the
same unit as the combustion chamber and the primary energy
recovery section. The following units are not precluded from being
boilers solely because they are not of integral design: process heaters
(units that transfer energy directly to a process stream) and fluidized
bed combustion units; and
While in operation, the unit must maintain a thermal energy recovery
efficiency of at least 60 percent, calculated in terms of the recovered
energy compared with the thermal value of the fuel; and
The unit must export and utilize at least 75 percent of the recovered
energy, calculated on an annual basis. In this calculation, no credit
may be given for recovered heat used internally in the same unit.
(Examples of internal use are the preheating of fuel or combustion
air, and the driving of induced or forced draft fans or feedwater
pumps.); or
72
Boiler by designation. The unit is one that the Board has determined, on a
case-by-case basis, to be a boiler, after considering the standards in Section
720.132.
“Carbon regeneration unit” means any enclosed thermal treatment device used to
regenerate spent activated carbon.
“Certification” means a statement of professional opinion based upon knowledge and
belief.
“Closed portion” means that portion of a facility that an owner or operator has closed
in accordance with the approved facility closure plan and all applicable closure
requirements. (See also “active portion” and “inactive portion.”)
“Component” means either the tank or ancillary equipment of a tank system.
“Confined aquifer” means an aquifer bounded above and below by impermeable
beds or by beds of distinctly lower permeability than that of the aquifer itself; an
aquifer containing confined groundwater.
“Container” means any portable device in which a material is stored, transported,
treated, disposed of, or otherwise handled.
“Containment building” means a hazardous waste management unit that is used to
store or treat hazardous waste under the provisions of Subpart DD of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724 and Subpart DD of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
“Contingency plan” means a document setting out an organized, planned and
coordinated course of action to be followed in case of a fire, explosion, or release of
hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents that could threaten human health or
the environment.
“Corrosion expert” means a person who, by reason of knowledge of the physical
sciences and the principles of engineering and mathematics, acquired by a
professional education and related practical experience, is qualified to engage in the
practice of corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal
tanks. Such a person must be certified as being qualified by the National Association
of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) or be a registered professional engineer who has
certification or licensing that includes education and experience in corrosion control
on buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks.
“Designated facility” means
S
a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal
facility,
SU
either of the following entities:
S
Of
SU
A hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility that has been
73
designated on the manifest by the generator, pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.120, of
U
which any of the following is true:
The facility has received a RCRA permit (or interim status) pursuant
to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705;
The facility has received a RCRA permit from USEPA pursuant to 40
CFR 124 and 270
S
(2002)
SU
(2005)
U
;
The facility has received a RCRA permit from a state authorized by
USEPA pursuant to 40 CFR 271
S
(2002)
SU
(2005)
U
; or
The facility is regulated under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.106(c)(2) or
Subpart F of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 266;
S
and
S
U
or
S
The facility has been designated on the manifest by the generator pursuant
to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.120.
U
Effective September 5, 2006, a generator site designated by the hazardous
waste generator on the manifest to receive back its own waste as a return
shipment from a designated hazardous waste treatment, storage, or
disposal facility that has rejected the waste in accordance with 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.172(f) or 725.172(f).
If a waste is destined to a facility in a state other than Illinois that has been
authorized by USEPA pursuant to 40 CFR 271, but which has not yet obtained
authorization to regulate that waste as hazardous, then the designated facility must be
a facility allowed by the receiving state to accept such waste.
“Destination facility” means a facility that treats, disposes of, or recycles a particular
category of universal waste, except those management activities described in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 733.113(a) and (c) and 733.133(a) and (c). A facility at which a
particular category of universal waste is only accumulated is not a destination facility
for the purposes of managing that category of universal waste.
“Dike” means an embankment or ridge of either natural or manmade materials used
to prevent the movement of liquids, sludges, solids, or other materials.
“Dioxins and furans” or “D/F” means tetra, penta-, hexa-, hepta-, and octa-
chlorinated dibenzo dioxins and furans.
“Director” means the Director of the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.
“Discharge” or “hazardous waste discharge” means the accidental or intentional
spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, or dumping of hazardous
waste into or on any land or water.
74
“Disposal” means the discharge, deposit, injection, dumping, spilling, leaking, or
placing of any solid waste or hazardous waste into or on any land or water so that
such solid waste or hazardous waste or any constituent thereof may enter the
environment or be emitted into the air or discharged into any waters, including
groundwaters.
“Disposal facility” means a facility or part of a facility at which hazardous waste is
intentionally placed into or on any land or water and at which waste will remain after
closure. The term disposal facility does not include a corrective action management
unit (CAMU) into which remediation wastes are placed.
“Drip pad” means an engineered structure consisting of a curbed, free-draining base,
constructed of non-earthen materials and designed to convey preservative kick-back
or drippage from treated wood, precipitation and surface water runon to an
associated collection system at wood preserving plants.
“Elementary neutralization unit” means a device of which the following is true:
It is used for neutralizing wastes that are hazardous only because they exhibit
the corrosivity characteristic defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.122 or which
are listed in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 only for this reason; and
It meets the definition of tank, tank system, container, transport vehicle, or
vessel in this Section.
“EPA hazardous waste number” or “USEPA hazardous waste number” means the
number assigned by USEPA to each hazardous waste listed in Subpart D of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721 and to each characteristic identified in Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.
“EPA identification number” or “USEPA identification number” means the number
assigned by USEPA pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722 through 725 to each
generator; transporter; and treatment, storage, or disposal facility.
“EPA region” or “USEPA region” means the states and territories found in any one
of the following ten regions:
Region I: Maine, Vermont, New Hampshire, Massachusetts, Connecticut,
and Rhode Island
U
.
U
Region II: New York, New Jersey, Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the
U.S. Virgin Islands
U
.
U
Region III: Pennsylvania, Delaware, Maryland, West Virginia, Virginia, and
the District of Columbia
U
.
U
75
Region IV: Kentucky, Tennessee, North Carolina, Mississippi, Alabama,
Georgia, South Carolina, and Florida
U
.
U
Region V: Minnesota, Wisconsin, Illinois, Michigan, Indiana, and Ohio
U
.
U
Region VI: New Mexico, Oklahoma, Arkansas, Louisiana, and Texas
U
.
U
Region VII: Nebraska, Kansas, Missouri, and Iowa
U
.
U
Region VIII: Montana, Wyoming, North Dakota, South Dakota, Utah, and
Colorado
U
.
U
Region IX: California, Nevada, Arizona, Hawaii, Guam, American Samoa,
and Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands
U
.
U
Region X: Washington, Oregon, Idaho, and Alaska
U
.
U
“Equivalent method” means any testing or analytical method approved by the Board
pursuant to Section 720.120.
“Existing hazardous waste management (HWM) facility” or “existing facility”
means a facility that was in operation or for which construction commenced on or
before November 19, 1980. A facility had commenced construction if the owner or
operator had obtained the federal, State, and local approvals or permits necessary to
begin physical construction and either of the following had occurred:
A continuous on-site, physical construction program had begun; or
The owner or operator had entered into contractual obligations that could not
be canceled or modified without substantial loss for physical construction of
the facility to be completed within a reasonable time.
“Existing portion” means that land surface area of an existing waste management
unit, included in the original Part A permit application, on which wastes have been
placed prior to the issuance of a permit.
“Existing tank system” or “existing component” means a tank system or component
that is used for the storage or treatment of hazardous waste and which was in
operation, or for which installation was commenced, on or prior to July 14, 1986.
Installation will be considered to have commenced if the owner or operator has
obtained all federal, State, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical
construction of the site or installation of the tank system and if either of the following
is true:
A continuous on-site physical construction or installation program has begun;
76
or
The owner or operator has entered into contractual obligations that cannot be
canceled or modified without substantial loss for physical construction of the
site or installation of the tank system to be completed within a reasonable
time.
“Explosives or munitions emergency” means a situation involving the suspected
or detected presence of unexploded ordnance (UXO), damaged or deteriorated
explosives or munitions, an improvised explosive device (IED), other potentially
explosive material or device, or other potentially harmful military chemical
munitions or device, that creates an actual or potential imminent threat to human
health, including safety, or the environment, including property, as determined by
an explosives or munitions emergency response specialist. Such situations may
require immediate and expeditious action by an explosives or munitions
emergency response specialist to control, mitigate, or eliminate the threat.
“Explosives or munitions emergency response” means all immediate response
activities by an explosives and munitions emergency response specialist to
control, mitigate, or eliminate the actual or potential threat encountered during an
explosives or munitions emergency. An explosives or munitions emergency
response may include in-place render-safe procedures, treatment, or destruction of
the explosives or munitions or transporting those items to another location to be
rendered safe, treated, or destroyed. Any reasonable delay in the completion of
an explosives or munitions emergency response caused by a necessary,
unforeseen, or uncontrollable circumstance will not terminate the explosives or
munitions emergency. Explosives and munitions emergency responses can occur
on either public or private lands and are not limited to responses at RCRA
facilities.
“Explosives or munitions emergency response specialist” means an individual
trained in chemical or conventional munitions or explosives handling,
transportation, render-safe procedures, or destruction techniques. Explosives or
munitions emergency response specialists include United States Department of
Defense (USDOD) emergency explosive ordnance disposal (EOD), technical
escort unit (TEU), and USDOD-certified civilian or contractor personnel and
other federal, State, or local government or civilian personnel who are similarly
trained in explosives or munitions emergency responses.
“Facility” means the following:
All contiguous land and structures, other appurtenances, and improvements
on the land used for treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste. A
facility may consist of several treatment, storage, or disposal operational
units (e.g., one or more landfills, surface impoundments, or combinations of
them).
77
For the purpose of implementing corrective action under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.201, all contiguous property under the control of the owner or operator
seeking a permit under Subtitle C of RCRA. This definition also applies to
facilities implementing corrective action under RCRA section 3008(h).
Notwithstanding the immediately-preceding paragraph of this definition, a
remediation waste management site is not a facility that is subject to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.201, but a facility that is subject to corrective action
requirements if the site is located within such a facility.
“Federal agency” means any department, agency, or other instrumentality of the
federal government, any independent agency or establishment of the federal
government, including any government corporation and the Government Printing
Office.
“Federal, State, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical
construction” means permits and approvals required under federal, State, or local
hazardous waste control statutes, regulations, or ordinances.
“Final closure” means the closure of all hazardous waste management units at the
facility in accordance with all applicable closure requirements so that hazardous
waste management activities under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725 are no longer
conducted at the facility unless subject to the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.134.
“Food-chain crops” means tobacco, crops grown for human consumption, and crops
grown for feed for animals whose products are consumed by humans.
“Freeboard” means the vertical distance between the top of a tank or surface
impoundment dike and the surface of the waste contained therein.
“Free liquids” means liquids that readily separate from the solid portion of a waste
under ambient temperature and pressure.
“Generator” means any person, by site, whose act or process produces hazardous
waste identified or listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 or whose act first causes a
hazardous waste to become subject to regulation.
“Groundwater” means water below the land surface in a zone of saturation.
“Hazardous waste” means a hazardous waste as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.103.
“Hazardous waste constituent” means a constituent that caused the hazardous waste
to be listed in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, or a constituent listed in 35 Ill.
78
Adm. Code 721.124.
“Hazardous waste management unit” is a contiguous area of land on or in which
hazardous waste is placed, or the largest area in which there is significant likelihood
of mixing hazardous waste constituents in the same area. Examples of hazardous
waste management units include a surface impoundment, a waste pile, a land
treatment area, a landfill cell, an incinerator, a tank and its associated piping and
underlying containment system, and a container storage area. A container alone does
not constitute a unit; the unit includes containers, and the land or pad upon which
they are placed.
“Inactive portion” means that portion of a facility that is not operated after November
19, 1980. (See also “active portion” and “closed portion.”)
“Incinerator” means any enclosed device of which the following is true:
The facility uses controlled flame combustion, and both of the following are
true of the facility:
The facility does not meet the criteria for classification as a boiler,
sludge dryer, or carbon regeneration unit, nor
The facility is not listed as an industrial furnace; or
The facility meets the definition of infrared incinerator or plasma arc
incinerator.
“Incompatible waste” means a hazardous waste that is unsuitable for the following:
Placement in a particular device or facility because it may cause corrosion or
decay of containment materials (e.g., container inner liners or tank walls); or
Commingling with another waste or material under uncontrolled conditions
because the commingling might produce heat or pressure, fire, or explosion,
violent reaction, toxic dusts, mists, fumes or gases, or flammable fumes or
gases.
(See Appendix E to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 for examples.)
“Industrial furnace” means any of the following enclosed devices that are integral
components of manufacturing processes and that use thermal treatment to
accomplish recovery of materials or energy:
Cement kilns;
Lime kilns;
79
Aggregate kilns;
Phosphate kilns;
Coke ovens;
Blast furnaces;
Smelting, melting and refining furnaces (including pyrometallurgical devices
such as cupolas, reverberator furnaces, sintering machines, roasters, and
foundry furnaces);
Titanium dioxide chloride process oxidation reactors;
Methane reforming furnaces;
Pulping liquor recovery furnaces;
Combustion devices used in the recovery of sulfur values from spent sulfuric
acid;
Halogen acid furnaces (HAFs) for the production of acid from halogenated
hazardous waste generated by chemical production facilities where the
furnace is located on the site of a chemical production facility, the acid
product has a halogen acid content of at least three percent, the acid product
is used in a manufacturing process, and, except for hazardous waste burned
as fuel, hazardous waste fed to the furnace has a minimum halogen content of
20 percent, as generated; and
Any other such device as the Agency determines to be an industrial furnace
on the basis of one or more of the following factors:
The design and use of the device primarily to accomplish recovery of
material products;
The use of the device to burn or reduce raw materials to make a
material product;
The use of the device to burn or reduce secondary materials as
effective substitutes for raw materials, in processes using raw
materials as principal feedstocks;
The use of the device to burn or reduce secondary materials as
ingredients in an industrial process to make a material product;
80
The use of the device in common industrial practice to produce a
material product; and
Other relevant factors.
“Individual generation site” means the contiguous site at or on which one or more
hazardous wastes are generated. An individual generation site, such as a large
manufacturing plant, may have one or more sources of hazardous waste but is
considered a single or individual generation site if the site or property is contiguous.
“Infrared incinerator” means any enclosed device that uses electric powered
resistance heaters as a source of radiant heat followed by an afterburner using
controlled flame combustion and which is not listed as an industrial furnace.
“Inground tank” means a device meeting the definition of tank whereby a portion of
the tank wall is situated to any degree within the ground, thereby preventing visual
inspection of that external surface area of the tank that is in the ground.
“In operation” refers to a facility that is treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous
waste.
“Injection well” means a well into which fluids are being injected. (See also
“underground injection.”)
“Inner liner” means a continuous layer of material placed inside a tank or container
that protects the construction materials of the tank or container from the contained
waste or reagents used to treat the waste.
“Installation inspector” means a person who, by reason of knowledge of the physical
sciences and the principles of engineering, acquired by a professional education and
related practical experience, is qualified to supervise the installation of tank systems.
“International shipment” means the transportation of hazardous waste into or out of
the jurisdiction of the United States.
“Lamp” or “universal waste lamp” means the bulb or tube portion of an electric
lighting device. A lamp is specifically designed to produce radiant energy, most
often in the ultraviolet, visible, or infrared regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Examples of common universal waste lamps include, but are not limited to,
fluorescent, high intensity discharge, neon, mercury vapor, high-pressure sodium,
and metal halide lamps.
“Land treatment facility” means a facility or part of a facility at which hazardous
waste is applied onto or incorporated into the soil surface; such facilities are disposal
facilities if the waste will remain after closure.
81
“Landfill” means a disposal facility or part of a facility where hazardous waste is
placed in or on land and which is not a pile, a land treatment facility, a surface
impoundment, an underground injection well, a salt dome formation, a salt bed
formation, an underground mine, a cave, or a corrective action management unit
(CAMU).
“Landfill cell” means a discrete volume of a hazardous waste landfill that uses a liner
to provide isolation of wastes from adjacent cells or wastes. Examples of landfill
cells are trenches and pits.
“LDS” means leak detection system.
“Leachate” means any liquid, including any suspended components in the liquid, that
has percolated through or drained from hazardous waste.
“Liner” means a continuous layer of natural or manmade materials beneath or on the
sides of a surface impoundment, landfill, or landfill cell that restricts the downward
or lateral escape of hazardous waste, hazardous waste constituents, or leachate.
“Leak-detection system” means a system capable of detecting the failure of either the
primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of a release of hazardous
waste or accumulated liquid in the secondary containment structure. Such a system
must employ operational controls (e.g., daily visual inspections for releases into the
secondary containment system of aboveground tanks) or consist of an interstitial
monitoring device designed to detect continuously and automatically the failure of
the primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of a release of
hazardous waste into the secondary containment structure.
“Management” or “hazardous waste management” means the systematic control of
the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, processing, treatment,
recovery, and disposal of hazardous waste.
“Manifest” means the shipping document
U
USEPA Form 8700-22 (including, if
necessary, USEPA Form 8700-22A)
U
originated and signed by the generator
U
or
offeror
U
that contains the information required by Subpart B of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722
U
and the applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722 through 725
U
.
“Manifest document number” means
U
, until September 5, 2006,
U
the USEPA twelve
digit identification number assigned to the generator plus a unique five-digit
document number assigned to the manifest by the generator for recording and
reporting purposes.
U
“Manifest tracking number” means, effective September 5, 2006, the
alphanumeric identification number (i.e., a unique three letter suffix preceded by
nine numerical digits) that is pre-printed in Item 4 of the manifest by a registered
source.
U
82
“Mercury-containing equipment” means mercury switches and mercury relays,
and scientific instruments and instructional equipment containing mercury added
during their manufacture.
BOARD NOTE: The definition of “mercury-containing equipment” was added
pursuant to Sections 3.283, 3.284, and 22.23b of the Act [415 ILCS 5/3.283,
3.284, and 22.23b]
S
,
S
(
S
See
S
U
see
U
P.A. 93-964, effective August 20, 2004).
“Mercury relay” means a product or device, containing mercury added during its
manufacture, that opens or closes electrical contacts to effect the operation of
other devices in the same or another electrical circuit. Mercury relay includes,
but is not limited to, mercury displacement relays, mercury wetted reed relays,
and mercury contact relays.
[415 ILCS 5/3.283]
BOARD NOTE: The definition of “mercury relay” was added pursuant to
Section 3.283 of the Act [415 ILCS 5/
S
.283
SU
3.283
U
]
S
,
S
(
S
See
S
U
see
U
P.A. 93-964, effective
August 20, 2004).
“Mercury switch” means a product or device, containing mercury added during
its manufacture, that opens or closes an electrical circuit or gas valve, including,
but not limited to, mercury float switches actuated by rising or falling liquid
levels, mercury tilt switches actuated by a change in the switch position, mercury
pressure switches actuated by a change in pressure, mercury temperature
switches actuated by a change in temperature, and mercury flame sensors.
[415
ILCS 5/3.284]
BOARD NOTE: The definition of “mercury switch” was added pursuant to
Section 3.284 of the Act [415 ILCS 5/
S
.284
SU
3.284
U
]
S
,
S
(
S
See
S
U
see
U
P.A. 93-964, effective
August 20, 2004).
“Military munitions” means all ammunition products and components produced
or used by or for the United States Department of Defense or the United States
Armed Services for national defense and security, including military munitions
under the control of the United States Department of Defense (USDOD), the
United States Coast Guard, the United States Department of Energy (USDOE),
and National Guard personnel. The term military munitions includes: confined
gaseous, liquid, and solid propellants, explosives, pyrotechnics, chemical and riot
control agents, smokes, and incendiaries used by USDOD components, including
bulk explosives and chemical warfare agents, chemical munitions, rockets, guided
and ballistic missiles, bombs, warheads, mortar rounds, artillery ammunition,
small arms ammunition, grenades, mines, torpedoes, depth charges, cluster
munitions and dispensers, demolition charges, and devices and components of
these items and devices. Military munitions do not include wholly inert items,
improvised explosive devices, and nuclear weapons, nuclear devices, and nuclear
components of these items and devices. However, the term does include non-
nuclear components of nuclear devices, managed under USDOE’s nuclear
weapons program after all sanitization operations required under the Atomic
Energy Act of 1954 (42 USC 2014 et seq.), as amended, have been completed.
83
“Mining overburden returned to the mine site” means any material overlying an
economic mineral deposit that is removed to gain access to that deposit and is then
used for reclamation of a surface mine.
“Miscellaneous unit” means a hazardous waste management unit where hazardous
waste is treated, stored, or disposed of and that is not a container; tank; surface
impoundment; pile; land treatment unit; landfill; incinerator; boiler; industrial
furnace; underground injection well with appropriate technical standards under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 730; containment building; corrective action management unit
(CAMU); unit eligible for a research, development, and demonstration permit under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.231; or staging pile.
“Movement” means hazardous waste that is transported to a facility in an individual
vehicle.
“New hazardous waste management facility” or “new facility” means a facility that
began operation, or for which construction commenced after November 19, 1980.
(See also “Existing hazardous waste management facility.”)
“New tank system” or “new tank component” means a tank system or component
that will be used for the storage or treatment of hazardous waste and for which
installation commenced after July 14, 1986; except, however, for purposes of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.293(g)(2) and 725.293(g)(2), a new tank system is one for which
construction commenced after July 14, 1986. (See also “existing tank system.”)
“Onground tank” means a device meeting the definition of tank that is situated in
such a way that the bottom of the tank is on the same level as the adjacent
surrounding surfaces so that the external tank bottom cannot be visually inspected.
“On-site” means the same or geographically contiguous property that may be divided
by public or private right-of-way, provided the entrance and exit between the
properties is at a crossroads intersection and access is by crossing as opposed to
going along the right-of-way. Noncontiguous properties owned by the same person
but connected by a right-of-way that the owner controls and to which the public does
not have access is also considered on-site property.
“Open burning” means the combustion of any material without the following
characteristics:
Control of combustion air to maintain adequate temperature for efficient
combustion;
Containment of the combustion reaction in an enclosed device to provide
sufficient residence time and mixing for complete combustion; and
84
Control of emission of the gaseous combustion products.
(See also “incineration” and “thermal treatment.”)
“Operator” means the person responsible for the overall operation of a facility.
“Owner” means the person that owns a facility or part of a facility.
“Partial closure” means the closure of a hazardous waste management unit in
accordance with the applicable closure requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725
at a facility that contains other active hazardous waste management units. For
example, partial closure may include the closure of a tank (including its associated
piping and underlying containment systems), landfill cell, surface impoundment,
waste pile, or other hazardous waste management unit, while other units of the same
facility continue to operate.
“Person” means an individual, trust, firm, joint stock company, federal agency,
corporation (including a government corporation), partnership, association, state,
municipality, commission, political subdivision of a state, or any interstate body.
“Personnel” or “facility personnel” means all persons who work at or oversee the
operations of a hazardous waste facility and whose actions or failure to act may
result in noncompliance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725.
“Pesticide” means any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing,
destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest or intended for use as a plant regulator,
defoliant, or desiccant, other than any article that fulfills one of the following
descriptions:
It is a new animal drug under section 201(v) of the Federal Food, Drug and
Cosmetic Act (FFDCA; 21 USC 321(v)), incorporated by reference in
Section
S
720.111
SU
720.111(c)
U
;
It is an animal drug that has been determined by regulation of the federal
Secretary of Health and Human Services pursuant to FFDCA section 512 (21
USC 360b), incorporated by reference in Section
S
720.111
SU
720.111(c)
U
, to be
an exempted new animal drug; or
It is an animal feed under FFDCA section 201(w) (21 USC 321(w)),
incorporated by reference in Section
S
720.111
SU
720.111(c)
U
, that bears or
contains any substances described in either of the two preceding paragraphs
of this definition.
BOARD NOTE: The second exception of corresponding 40 CFR 260.10
reads as follows: “Is an animal drug that has been determined by regulation
of the Secretary of Health and Human Services not to be a new animal
drug.” This is very similar to the language of section 2(u) of the Federal
85
Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA; 7 USC 136(u)). The
three exceptions, taken together, appear intended not to include as pesticide
any material within the scope of federal Food and Drug Administration
regulation. The Board codified this provision with the intent of retaining the
same meaning as its federal counterpart while adding the definiteness
required under Illinois law.
“Pile” means any noncontainerized accumulation of solid, non-flowing hazardous
waste that is used for treatment or storage, and that is not a containment building.
“Plasma arc incinerator” means any enclosed device that uses a high intensity
electrical discharge or arc as a source of heat followed by an afterburner using
controlled flame combustion and which is not listed as an industrial furnace.
“Point source” means any discernible, confined, and discrete conveyance, including,
but not limited to, any pipe, ditch, channel, tunnel, conduit, well, discrete fissure,
container, rolling stock, concentrated animal feeding operation, or vessel or other
floating craft from which pollutants are or may be discharged. This term does not
include return flows from irrigated agriculture.
“Publicly owned treatment works” or “POTW” is as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
310.110.
“Qualified groundwater scientist” means a scientist or engineer who has received a
baccalaureate or postgraduate degree in the natural sciences or engineering, and has
sufficient training and experience in groundwater hydrology and related fields, as
demonstrated by state registration, professional certifications, or completion of
accredited university courses that enable the individual to make sound professional
judgments regarding groundwater monitoring and contaminant rate and transport.
BOARD NOTE: State registration includes, but is not limited to, registration as a
professional engineer with the Department of Professional Regulation, pursuant to
225 ILCS 325 and 68 Ill. Adm. Code 1380. Professional certification includes, but is
not limited to, certification under the certified groundwater professional program of
the National Ground Water Association.
“RCRA” means the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as amended by the Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, as amended (42 USC 6901 et seq.).
“Regional Administrator” means the Regional Administrator for the USEPA Region
in which the facility is located or the Regional Administrator’s designee.
“Remediation waste” means all solid and hazardous wastes, and all media (including
groundwater, surface water, soils, and sediments) and debris that are managed for
implementing cleanup.
“Remediation waste management site” means a facility where an owner or operator
86
is or will be treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous remediation wastes. A
remediation waste management site is not a facility that is subject to corrective
action under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.201, but a remediation waste management site
is subject to corrective action requirements if the site is located in such a facility.
“Replacement unit” means a landfill, surface impoundment, or waste pile unit from
which all or substantially all of the waste is removed, and which is subsequently
reused to treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste. Replacement unit does not
include a unit from which waste is removed during closure, if the subsequent reuse
solely involves the disposal of waste from that unit and other closing units or
corrective action areas at the facility, in accordance with a closure or corrective
action plan approved by USEPA or the Agency.
“Representative sample” means a sample of a universe or whole (e.g., waste pile,
lagoon, groundwater) that can be expected to exhibit the average properties of the
universe or whole.
“Runoff” means any rainwater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over land from
any part of a facility.
“Runon” means any rainwater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over land onto
any part of a facility.
“Saturated zone” or “zone of saturation” means that part of the earth’s crust in which
all voids are filled with water.
“SIC
S
Code
SU
code
U
” means
U
“
U
Standard Industrial Classification
S
Code
S
U
code,”
U
as
S
defined
S
U
assigned to a site by the United States Department of Transportation, Federal
Highway Administration, based on the particular activities that occur on the site,
as set forth
U
in
U
its publication “
U
Standard Industrial Classification Manual,
U
”
U
incorporated by reference in Section
S
720.111
SU
720.111(a)
U
.
“Sludge” means any solid, semi-solid, or liquid waste generated from a municipal,
commercial, or industrial wastewater treatment plant, water supply treatment plant,
or air pollution control facility, exclusive of the treated effluent from a wastewater
treatment plant.
“Sludge dryer” means any enclosed thermal treatment device that is used to
dehydrate sludge and which has a total thermal input, excluding the heating value of
the sludge itself, of
S
2500
SU
2,500
U
Btu/lb or less of sludge treated on a wet-weight basis.
“Small quantity generator” means a generator that generates less than
S
1000
SU
1,000
U
kg
of hazardous waste in a calendar month.
“Solid waste” means a solid waste as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.102.
87
“Sorbent” means a material that is used to soak up free liquids by either adsorption or
absorption, or both. “Sorb” means to either adsorb or absorb, or both.
“Staging pile” means an accumulation of solid, non-flowing “remediation waste”
(as defined in this Section) that is not a containment building and that is used only
during remedial operations for temporary storage at a facility. Staging piles must be
designated by the Agency according to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.654.
“State” means any of the several states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth
of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth
of the Northern Mariana Islands.
“Storage” means the holding of hazardous waste for a temporary period, at the end of
which the hazardous waste is treated, disposed of, or stored elsewhere.
“Sump” means any pit or reservoir that meets the definition of tank and those troughs
or trenches connected to it that serve to collect hazardous waste for transport to
hazardous waste storage, treatment, or disposal facilities; except that, as used in the
landfill, surface impoundment, and waste pile rules, sump means any lined pit or
reservoir that serves to collect liquids drained from a leachate collection and removal
system or leak detection system for subsequent removal from the system.
“Surface impoundment” or “impoundment” means a facility or part of a facility that
is a natural topographic depression, manmade excavation, or diked area formed
primarily of earthen materials (although it may be lined with manmade materials)
that is designed to hold an accumulation of liquid wastes or wastes containing free
liquids and which is not an injection well. Examples of surface impoundments are
holding, storage, settling and aeration pits, ponds, and lagoons.
“Tank” means a stationary device, designed to contain an accumulation of hazardous
waste that is constructed primarily of nonearthen materials (e.g., wood, concrete,
steel, plastic) that provide structural support.
“Tank system” means a hazardous waste storage or treatment tank and its associated
ancillary equipment and containment system.
“TEQ” means toxicity equivalence, the international method of relating the
toxicity of various dioxin and furan congeners to the toxicity of 2,3,7,8-tetra-
chlorodibenzo-p-dioxin.
“Thermal treatment” means the treatment of hazardous waste in a device that uses
elevated temperatures as the primary means to change the chemical, physical, or
biological character or composition of the hazardous waste. Examples of thermal
treatment processes are incineration, molten salt, pyrolysis, calcination, wet air
oxidation, and microwave discharge. (See also “incinerator” and “open burning.”)
88
“Thermostat” means a temperature control device that contains metallic mercury in
an ampule attached to a bimetal sensing element and mercury-containing ampules
that have been removed from such a temperature control device in compliance with
the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.113(c)(2) or 733.133(c)(2).
“Totally enclosed treatment facility” means a facility for the treatment of hazardous
waste that is directly connected to an industrial production process and which is
constructed and operated in a manner that prevents the release of any hazardous
waste or any constituent thereof into the environment during treatment. An example
is a pipe in which waste acid is neutralized.
“Transfer facility” means any transportation related facility, including loading docks,
parking areas, storage areas, and other similar areas where shipments of hazardous
waste are held during the normal course of transportation.
“Transport vehicle” means a motor vehicle or rail car used for the transportation of
cargo by any mode. Each cargo-carrying body (trailer, railroad freight car, etc.) is a
separate transport vehicle.
“Transportation” means the movement of hazardous waste by air, rail, highway, or
water.
“Transporter” means a person engaged in the off-site transportation of hazardous
waste by air, rail, highway, or water.
“Treatability study” means the following:
A study in which a hazardous waste is subjected to a treatment process to
determine the following:
Whether the waste is amenable to the treatment process;
What pretreatment (if any) is required;
The optimal process conditions needed to achieve the desired
treatment;
The efficiency of a treatment process for a specific waste or wastes;
and
The characteristics and volumes of residuals from a particular
treatment process;
Also included in this definition for the purpose of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.104(e) and (f) exemptions are liner compatibility, corrosion and other
89
material compatibility studies, and toxicological and health effects studies. A
treatability study is not a means to commercially treat or dispose of
hazardous waste.
“Treatment” means any method, technique, or process, including neutralization,
designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of
any hazardous waste so as to neutralize the waste, recover energy or material
resources from the waste, or render the waste non-hazardous or less hazardous; safer
to transport, store, or dispose of; or amenable for recovery, amenable for storage, or
reduced in volume.
“Treatment zone” means a soil area of the unsaturated zone of a land treatment unit
within which hazardous constituents are degraded, transformed, or immobilized.
“Underground injection” means the subsurface emplacement of fluids through a
bored, drilled, or driven well or through a dug well, where the depth of the dug well
is greater than the largest surface dimension. (See also “injection well.”)
“Underground tank” means a device meeting the definition of tank whose entire
surface area is totally below the surface of and covered by the ground.
“Unfit-for-use tank system” means a tank system that has been determined, through
an integrity assessment or other inspection, to be no longer capable of storing or
treating hazardous waste without posing a threat of release of hazardous waste to the
environment.
“United States” means the 50 states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of
Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the
Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
“Universal waste” means any of the following hazardous wastes that are managed
under the universal waste requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733:
Batteries, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.102;
Pesticides, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.103;
Thermostats, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.104;
Lamps, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.105; and
Mercury-containing equipment, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.106.
BOARD NOTE: Mercury-containing equipment was added pursuant to
Sections 3.283, 3.284, and 22.23b of the Act [415 ILCS 5/
S
.283
SU
3.283
U
,
3.284, and 22.23b] (
S
See
SU
see
U
P.A. 93-964, effective August 20, 2004).
90
“Universal waste handler” means either of the following:
A generator (as defined in this Section) of universal waste; or
The owner or operator of a facility, including all contiguous property, that
receives universal waste from other universal waste handlers, accumulates
the universal waste, and sends that universal waste to another universal waste
handler, to a destination facility, or to a foreign destination.
“Universal waste handler” does not mean either of the following:
A person that treats (except under the provisions of Section
733.113(a) or (c) or 733.133(a) or (c)), disposes of, or recycles
universal waste; or
A person engaged in the off-site transportation of universal waste by
air, rail, highway, or water, including a universal waste transfer
facility.
“Universal waste transporter” means a person engaged in the off-site transportation
of universal waste by air, rail, highway, or water.
“Unsaturated zone” or “zone of aeration” means the zone between the land surface
and the water table.
“Uppermost aquifer” means the geologic formation nearest the natural ground
surface that is an aquifer, as well as lower aquifers that are hydraulically
interconnected with this aquifer within the facility’s property boundary.
“USDOT” or “Department of Transportation” means the United States Department
of Transportation.
“Used oil” means any oil that has been refined from crude oil, or any synthetic oil,
that has been used and as a result of such use is contaminated by physical or
chemical impurities.
“USEPA” or “EPA” or “U.S. EPA” means the United States Environmental
Protection Agency.
“Vessel” includes every description of watercraft used or capable of being used as a
means of transportation on the water.
“Wastewater treatment unit” means a device of which the following is true:
It is part of a wastewater treatment facility that has an NPDES permit
91
pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 309 or a pretreatment permit or authorization
to discharge pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 310;
S
and
S
It receives and treats or stores an influent wastewater that is a hazardous
waste as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103, or generates and accumulates
a wastewater treatment sludge that is a hazardous waste as defined in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.103, or treats or stores a wastewater treatment sludge that is
a hazardous waste as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103; and
It meets the definition of tank or tank system in this Section.
“Water (bulk shipment)” means the bulk transportation of hazardous waste that is
loaded or carried on board a vessel without containers or labels.
“Well” means any shaft or pit dug or bored into the earth, generally of a cylindrical
form, and often walled with bricks or tubing to prevent the earth from caving in.
“Well injection” (See “underground injection.”)
“Zone of engineering control” means an area under the control of the owner or
operator that, upon detection of a hazardous waste release, can be readily cleaned up
prior to the release of hazardous waste or hazardous constituents to groundwater or
surface water.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 720.111 References
The following documents are incorporated by reference for the purposes of this Part and 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703 through 705, 721 through 726, 728, 730, 733, 738, and 739:
a) Non-Regulatory Government Publications and Publications of Recognized
Organizations and Associations:
ACI. Available from the American Concrete Institute, Box 19150,
Redford Station, Detroit, Michigan 48219:
ACI 318-83: “Building Code Requirements for Reinforced
Concrete,” adopted September 1983
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.673 and 725.543
U
.
ANSI. Available from the American National Standards Institute, 1430
Broadway, New York, New York 10018, 212-354-3300:
S
ANSI B31.3 and B31.4.
S
See ASME/ANSI B31.3 and B31.4
U
and
supplements below in this subsection (a) under ASME
U
.
92
API. Available from the American Petroleum Institute, 1220 L Street,
N.W., Washington, D.C. 20005, 202-682-8000:
“Cathodic Protection of Underground Petroleum Storage Tanks
and Piping Systems,” API Recommended Practice 1632, Second
Edition, December 1987
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.292,
724.295, 725.292, and 725.295
U
.
“Evaporative Loss from External Floating-Roof Tanks,” API
S
Publication
SU
publication
U
2517, Third Edition, February 1989
U
,
USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.984
U
.
“Guide for Inspection of Refinery Equipment,
U
”
U
Chapter XIII,
U
“
U
Atmospheric and Low Pressure Storage Tanks,” 4th Edition,
1981, reaffirmed December 1987
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.291, 724.293, 725.291, and 725.292
U
.
“Installation of Underground Petroleum Storage Systems,” API
Recommended Practice 1615, Fourth Edition, November 1987
U
,
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.292
U
.
ASME. Available from the American Society of Mechanical Engineers,
345 East 47th Street, New York, NY 10017, 212-705-7722:
“Chemical Plant and Petroleum Refinery Piping,” ASME/ANSI
B31.3-1987, as supplemented by B31.3a-1988 and B31.3b-1988
U
,
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.292 and 725.292
U
. Also
available from ANSI.
“Liquid Transportation Systems for Hydrocarbons, Liquid
Petroleum Gas, Anhydrous Ammonia, and Alcohols,”
ASME/ANSI B31.4-1986, as supplemented by B31.4a-1987
U
,
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.292 and 725.292
U
. Also
available from ANSI.
ASTM. Available from American Society for Testing and Materials, 100
Barr Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959, 610-832-9585:
ASTM C 94-90,
U
“
U
Standard Specification for Ready-Mixed
Concrete,
U
”
U
approved March 30, 1990
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.673 and 725.543
U
.
ASTM D 88-87,
U
“
U
Standard Test Method for Saybolt Viscosity,
U
”
U
U
approved
U
April 24, 1981, reapproved January 1987
U
, referenced in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.200
U
.
93
ASTM D 93-85,
U
“
U
Standard Test Methods for Flash Point by
Pensky-Martens Closed Tester,
U
”
U
approved October 25, 1985
U
,
USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121
U
.
ASTM D 140-70,
U
“
U
Standard Practice for Sampling Bituminous
Materials,
U
”
U
approved 1970
U
, referenced in Appendix A to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721
U
.
ASTM D 346-75,
U
“
U
Standard Practice for Collection and
Preparation of Coke Samples for Laboratory Analysis,
U
”
U
approved
1975
U
, referenced in Appendix A to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
U
.
ASTM D 420–69,
U
“
U
Guide to Site Characterization for Engineering,
Design, and Construction Purposes,
U
”
U
approved 1969
U
, referenced in
Appendix A to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
U
.
ASTM D 1452–65,
U
“
U
Standard Practice for Soil Investigation and
Sampling by Auger Borings,
U
”
U
approved 1965
U
, referenced in
Appendix A to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
U
.
ASTM D 1946-90,
U
“
U
Standard Practice for Analysis of Reformed
Gas by Gas Chromatography,
U
”
U
approved March 30, 1990
U
, USEPA-
approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.933 and 725.933
U
.
ASTM D 2161-87,
U
“
U
Standard Practice for Conversion of
Kinematic Viscosity to Saybolt Universal or to Saybolt Furol
Viscosity,
U
”
U
March 27, 1987
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.200
U
.
ASTM D 2234-76,
U
“
U
Standard Practice for Collection of a Gross
Sample of Coal,
U
”
U
approved 1976
U
, referenced in Appendix A to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721
U
.
ASTM D 2267-88,
U
“
U
Standard Test Method for Aromatics in Light
Naphthas and Aviation Gasolines by Gas Chromatography,
U
”
U
approved November 17, 1988
U
, USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.963
U
.
ASTM D 2382-88,
U
“
U
Standard Test Method for Heat of Combustion
of Hydrocarbon Fuels by Bomb Calorimeter (High Precision
Method),
U
”
U
approved October 31, 1988
U
, USEPA-approved for 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.933 and 725.933
U
.
ASTM D 2879-92,
U
“
U
Standard Test Method for Vapor Pressure-
Temperature Relationship and Initial Decomposition Temperature
94
of Liquids by Isoteniscope,
U
”
U
approved 1992
U
, USEPA-approved for
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.984, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.963 and 725.963
U
.
ASTM D 3828-87,
U
“
U
Standard Test Methods for Flash Point of
Liquids by Setaflash Closed Tester,
U
”
U
approved December 14,
1988
U
, USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121(a)
U
.
ASTM E 168-88,
U
“
U
Standard Practices for General Techniques of
Infrared Quantitative Analysis,
U
”
U
approved May 27, 1988
U
, USEPA-
approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.963
U
.
ASTM E 169-87,
U
“
U
Standard Practices for General Techniques of
Ultraviolet-Visible Quantitative Analysis,
U
”
U
approved February 1,
1987
U
, USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.963
U
.
ASTM E 260-85,
U
“
U
Standard Practice for Packed Column Gas
Chromatography,
U
”
U
approved June 28, 1985
U
, USEPA-approved for
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.963
U
.
ASTM Method G 21-70 (1984a),
U
“
U
Standard Practice for
Determining Resistance of Synthetic Polymer Materials to Fungi.
U
”,
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.414 and 725.414.
U
ASTM Method G 22-76 (1984b),
U
“
U
Standard Practice for
Determining Resistance of Plastics to Bacteria.
U
”, referenced in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.414 and 725.414.
U
S
MICE. Methods Information Communication Exchange Service, 703-
821-4690:
S
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA publication number SW-846, Update IIIA
(April 1998).
GPO. Available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S.
Government Printing Office, Washington, D.C. 20402, 202-512-1800:
Standard Industrial Classification Manual (1972), and 1977
Supplement, republished in 1983
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
702.110 and Section 720.110
U
.
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
SU
publication
U
number
U
EPA-530/
U
SW-
846 (Third Edition, November 1986), as amended by Updates I
(July 1992), II (September 1994), IIA (August, 1993), IIB (January
95
1995),
S
and
S
III (December 1996)
U
, IIIA (April 1998), and IIIB
(November 2004)
U
(document number 955-001-00000-1).
U
See
below in this subsection (a) under NTIS.
U
NACE. Available from the National Association of Corrosion Engineers,
1400 South Creek Dr., Houston, TX 77084, 713-492-0535:
“Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially
Buried, or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems,” NACE
Recommended Practice
S
RP-02-85
SU
RP0285-85
U
, approved March
1985
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.292, 724.295, 725.292,
and 725.295
U
.
NFPA. Available from the National Fire Protection Association,
U
1
U
Batterymarch Park, Boston, MA 02269, 617-770-3000 or 800-344-3555:
“Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code,” NFPA 30, issued
S
July 17, 1987
SU
July 18, 2003, as supplemented by TIA 03-1, issued
July 15, 2004, and corrected by Errata 30-03-01, issued August 13,
2004, USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.298 and
725.298, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.298 and 726.211
U
.
S
Also available from ANSI.
S
NTIS. Available from the U.S. Department of Commerce, National
Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA
22161, 703-605-6000 or 800-553-6847
U
(Internet address: www.ntis.gov)
U
:
U
“
U
APTI Course 415: Control of Gaseous Emissions,
U
”
U
U
December
1981, USEPA publication number 450/2-81-005, NTIS document
number
U
PB80-208895,
S
December 1981
SU
USEPA-approved for 35
Ill. Adm. Code 703.210, 703.211, 724.935, and 725.935
U
.
U
BOARD NOTE: “APTI” denotes USEPA’s “Air Pollution
Training Institute” (Internet address:
www.epa.gov/air/oaqps/eog/).
“Generic Quality Assurance Project Plan for Land Disposal
Restrictions Program,”
S
EPA/530-SW-87-011
SU
USEPA publication
number EPA-530/SW-87-011
U
, March 15, 1987
U
,
U
S
(
S
U
NTIS
U
document
number PB88-170766
S
)
SU
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.106
U
.
S
“Guideline on Air Quality Models,” Revised 1986 (document
number PB86-245-248 (Guideline) and PB88-150-958
(Supplement), also set forth at 40 CFR 51, Appendix W).
“Method
S
164,
SU
1664,
U
Revision A, n-Hexane Extractable Material
(HEM; Oil and Grease) and Silica Gel Treated n-Hexane
96
Extractable Material (SGT-HEM; Non-polar Material) by
Extraction and Gravimetry
U
,
U
”
S
(
SU
USEPA publication number EPA-
821/R-98-002, NTIS
U
document number PB99-121949
S
)
S
U
, USEPA-
approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
U
.
U
BOARD NOTE: EPA-821/R-98-002 is also available on the
Internet for free download as a PDF document from the USEPA
website at: www.epa.gov/waterscience/methods/16640514.pdf.
“Methods for Chemical Analysis of Water and Wastes,” Third
Edition, March 1983
U
, USEPA document number EPA-600/4-79-
020,
U
S
(
SU
NTIS
U
document number PB84-128677
S
)
S
U
, referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.192
U
.
U
BOARD NOTE: EPA-600/4-79-002 is also available on the
Internet as a viewable/printable HTML document from the USEPA
website at: www.epa.gov/clariton/clhtml/pubtitleORD.html as
document 600479002.
S
“Methods Manual for Compliance with BIF Regulations,”
December 1990 (document number PB91-120-006).
U
“Procedures Manual for Ground Water Monitoring at Solid Waste
Disposal Facilities,” August 1977, EPA-530/SW-611, NTIS
document number PB84-174820, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.192.
“Screening Procedures for Estimating the Air Quality Impact of
Stationary Sources,” October 1992,
U
USEPA
U
publication number
S
EPA-450/R-92-019
SU
EPA-454/R-92-019, NTIS document number
93-219095, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 and 726.206
U
.
U
BOARD NOTE: EPA-454/R-92-019 is also available on the
Internet for free download as a WordPerfect document from the
USEPA website at following Internet address:
www.epa.gov/scram001/guidance/guide/scrng.wpd.
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
SU
publication
U
number
U
EPA-530/
U
SW-
846 (Third Edition, November 1986
U
; Revision 6, January 2005
U
), as
amended by Updates I (July 1992), II (September 1994), IIA
(August 1993), IIB (January 1995), III (December 1996),
S
and
S
IIIA
(April 1998)
U
, and IIIB (November 2004)
U
(document number 955-
001-00000-1)
S
.
SU
, generally referenced in Appendices A and I to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.200, 726.206,
726.212, and 728.106 (in addition to the references cited below for
specific methods):
U
U
Method 0010 (September 1986) (Modified Method 5
97
Sampling Train), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 0011 (December 1996) (Sampling for Selected
Aldehyde and Ketone Emissions from Stationary Sources),
USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
and for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.
U
Method 0020 (September 1986) (Source Assessment
Sampling System), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 0023A (December 1996) (Sampling Method for
Polychlorinated Dibenzo-p-Dioxins and Polychlorinated
Dibenzofuran Emissions from Stationary Sources),
USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721,
Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726, and 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.204.
U
Method 0030 (September 1986) (Volatile Organic
Sampling Train), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 0031 (December 1996) (Sampling Method for
Volatile Organic Compounds (SMVOC)), USEPA-
approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 0040 (December 1996) (Sampling of Principal
Organic Hazardous Constituents from Combustion Sources
Using Tedlar
UP
U
®
U
P
U
Bags), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 0050 (December 1996) (Isokinetic HCl/Cl
UB
U
2
U
B
U
Emission Sampling Train), USEPA-approved for Appendix
I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726, and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.207.
U
Method 0051 (December 1996) (Midget Impinger HCl/Cl
UB
U
2
U
B
U
Emission Sampling Train), USEPA-approved for Appendix
I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726, and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.207.
U
Method 0060 (December 1996) (Determination of Metals
in Stack Emissions), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726, and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.206.
98
U
Method 0061 (December 1996) (Determination of
Hexavalent Chromium Emissions from Stationary
Sources), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721, 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.206, and Appendix I to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.
U
Method 1010A (November 2004) (Test Methods for Flash
Point by Pensky-Martens Closed Cup Tester), USEPA-
approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 1020B (November 2004) (Standard Test Methods
for Flash Point by Setaflash (Small Scale) Closed-cup
Apparatus), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 1110A (November 2004) (Corrosivity Toward
Steel), USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.122
and Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 1310B (November 2004) (Extraction Procedure
(EP) Toxicity Test Method and Structural Integrity Test),
USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
and referenced in Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.
U
Method 1311 (September 1992) (Toxicity Characteristic
Leaching Procedure), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721; for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.124,
728.107, and 728.140; and for Table T to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.
U
Method 1312 (September 1994) (Synthetic Precipitation
Leaching Procedure), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 1320 (September 1986) (Multiple Extraction
Procedure), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 1330A (September 1992) (Extraction Procedure
for Oily Wastes), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 9010C (November 2004) (Total and Amenable
Cyanide: Distillation), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.140,
99
728.144, and 728.148, referenced in Table H to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728.
U
Method 9012B (November 2004) (Total and Amenable
Cyanide (Automated Colorimetric, with Off-Line
Distillation)), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.140, 728.144,
and 728.148, referenced in Table H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.
U
Method 9040C (November 2004) (pH Electrometric
Measurement), USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.122 and Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 9045D (November 2004) (Soil and Waste pH),
USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 9060A (November 2004) (Total Organic Carbon),
USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.934, 724.963, 725.934, and
725.963.
U
Method 9070A (November 2004) (n-Hexane Extractable
Material (HEM) for Aqueous Samples), USEPA-approved
for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 9071B (April 1998) (n-Hexane Extractable
Material (HEM) for Sludge, Sediment, and Solid Samples),
USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
U
Method 9095B (November 2004) (Paint Filter Liquids
Test), USEPA-approved for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.290, 724.414,
725.290, 725.414, 725.981, and 728.132.
U
BOARD NOTE: EPA-530/SW-846 is also available on the
Internet for free download in segments in PDF format from the
USEPA website at: www.epa.gov/SW-846.
OECD. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development,
Environment Directorate, 2 rue Andre Pascal, 75775 Paris Cedex 16,
France (www.oecd.org), also OECD Washington Center, 2001 L Street,
NW, Suite 650, Washington, DC 20036-4922, 202-785-6323 or 800-456-
6323 (www.oecdwash.org):
OECD
U
“
U
Amber List of Wastes,
U
”
U
Appendix 4 to the OECD Council
100
Decision
S
C(92)39/FINAL
SU
C(92)39(Final)
U
(March 30, 1992
U
,
revised May 1993
U
)
U
(Concerning the Control of Transfrontier
Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery Operations)
U
,
S
“Decision of the Council Concerning the Control of Transfrontier
Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery
Operations.”
S
U
USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.189,
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.181.
U
U
OECD “Amber Tier,” Section IV of the annex to the OECD
Council Decision C(92)39(Final) (Concerning the Control of
Transfrontier Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery
Operations) (revised May 1993), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.181.
U
Annex to OECD Council Decision C(88)90(Final), as amended by
C(94)152/FINAL (revised July 1994), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.187.
OECD
U
“
U
Green List of Wastes,
U
”
U
Appendix 3 to the OECD Council
Decision
S
C(92)39/FINAL
SU
C(92)39(Final)
U
(March 30, 1992
U
,
revised May 1994
U
)
U
(Concerning the Control of Transfrontier
Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery Operations))
U
,
S
“Decision of the Council Concerning the Control of Transfrontier
Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery
Operations.”
S
U
USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.189,
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.181.
U
U
OECD “Green Tier,” Section III of the annex to the OECD
Council Decision C(92)39(Final) (Concerning the Control of
Transfrontier Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery
Operations) (revised May 1993), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.181.
OECD Guideline for Testing of Chemicals, “Ready
Biodegradability,” Method 301B (July 17, 1992), “CO
B
2
B
Evolution
(Modified Sturm Test)
S
.
SU
,
U
”
U
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.414.
U
OECD
U
“
U
Red List of Wastes,
U
”
U
Appendix 5 to the OECD Council
Decision
S
C(92)39/FINAL
SU
C(92)39(Final)
U
(March 30, 1992
U
,
revised revised May 1993
U
),
S
“Decision of the Council Concerning
the Control of Transfrontier Movements of Wastes Destined for
Recovery Operations.”
S
U
USEPA-approved for 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.189, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.181.
U
U
OECD “Red Tier,” Section V of the annex to the OECD Council
Decision C(92)39(Final) (Concerning the Control of Transfrontier
101
Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery Operations) (revised
May 1993), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.181.
Table 2.B of the Annex of OECD Council Decision
C(88)90(Final) (May 27, 1988), amended by C(94)152(Final) (July
28, 1994), “Decision of the Council on Transfrontier Movements
of Hazardous Wastes
U
,
U
”
U
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.181
and 722.187
U
.
STI. Available from the Steel Tank Institute, 728 Anthony Trail,
Northbrook, IL 60062, 708-498-1980:
“Standard for Dual Wall Underground Steel Storage Tanks”
(1986)
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.293
U
.
USDOD. Available from the United States Department of Defense:
“DOD Ammunition and Explosives Safety Standards” (DOD
6055.9-STD), as in effect in July 1999
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.305
U
.
U
“
U
The Motor Vehicle Inspection Report
U
”
U
(DD Form 626), as in
effect on November 8, 1995
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.303
U
.
U
“
U
Requisition Tracking Form
U
”
U
(DD Form 1348), as in effect on
November 8, 1995
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.303
U
.
U
“
U
The Signature and Tally Record
U
”
U
(DD Form 1907), as in effect on
November 8, 1995
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.303
U
.
U
“
U
Special Instructions for Motor Vehicle Drivers
U
”
U
(DD Form 836),
as in effect on November 8, 1995
U
, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.303
U
.
USEPA
U
, Office of Drinking Water
U
. Available from United States
Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Drinking Water, State
Programs Division, WH 550 E, Washington, D.C. 20460:
“Technical Assistance Document: Corrosion, Its Detection and
Control in Injection Wells,”
S
EPA 570/9-87-002
S
U
USEPA
publication number EPA-570/9-87-002
U
, August 1987
U
, referenced
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 730.165
U
.
USEPA
U
, Receptor Analysis Branch
U
. Available from Receptor Analysis
Branch, USEPA (MD-14), Research Triangle Park, NC 27711:
102
S
“Samplers and Sampling Procedures for Hazardous Waste
Streams,” EPA 600/2–80–018, January 1980.
“Screening Procedures for Estimating the Air Quality Impact of
Stationary Sources, Revised,” October 1992,
U
USEPA
U
publication
number
S
EPA-450/R-92-019
SU
EPA-454/R-92-019, USEPA-approved
for Appendix I to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726
U
.
U
BOARD NOTE: EPA-454/R-92-019 is also available for purchase
from NTIS (see above) and on the Internet for free download as a
WordPerfect document from the USEPA website at following
Internet address:
www.epa.gov/scram001/guidance/guide/scrng.wpd.
USEPA Region 6. Available from United States Environmental
Protection Agency, Region 6, Multimedia Permitting and Planning
Division, 1445 Ross Avenue, Dallas, TX 75202 (phone: 214-665-7430):
“EPA RCRA Delisting Program--Guidance Manual for the
Petitioner,” March 23, 2000
U
, referenced in Section 720.122
U
.
USGSA. Available from the United States Government Services
Administration:
Government Bill of Lading (GBL) (GSA Standard Form 1109), as
in effect on November 8, 1995
U
, referenced in Section 726.303
U
.
b) Code of Federal Regulations. Available from the Superintendent of Documents,
U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, D.C. 20401, 202-783-3238:
10 CFR 20.2006
S
(2004)
SU
(2005) (Transfer for Disposal and Manifests),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.110, 726.425, and 726.450.
U
U
Table II, column 2 in Appendix B to
U
10 CFR 20
S
, Appendix B (2004)
S
U
(2005) (Water Effluent Concentrations), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
702.110, 730.103, and 730.151.
U
U
Appendix G to 10 CFR 20 (2005) (Requirements for Transfers of Low-
Level Radioactive Waste Intended for Disposal at Licensed Land Disposal
Facilities and Manifests), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.440.
10 CFR 71
S
(2004)
SU
(2005) (Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive
Material), referenced generally in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.430.
U
U
10 CFR 71.5 (2005) (Transportation of Licensed Material), referenced in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.425.
103
U
33 CFR 153.203 (2005) (Procedure for the Notice of Discharge),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 723.130 and 739.143.
40 CFR 51.100(ii)
S
(2004)
SU
(2005) (Definitions), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.200.
U
U
Appendix W to
U
40 CFR 51
S
, Appendix W (2004)
S
U
(2005) (Guideline on Air
Quality Models), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204.
U
BOARD NOTE: Also available from NTIS (see above for contact
information) as “Guideline on Air Quality Models,” Revised 1986,
USEPA publication number EPA-450/12-78-027R, NTIS document
numbers PB86-245248 (Guideline) and PB88-150958 (Supplement).
U
Appendix B to
U
40 CFR 52.741
S
, Appendix B (2004)
SU
(2005) (VOM
Measurement Techniques for Capture Efficiency), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.213, 724.982, 724.984, 724.986, 724.989, 725.983,
725.985, 725.987, and 725.990.
U
40 CFR 60
S
(2004)
SU
(2005) (Standards of Performance for New Stationary
Sources), referenced generally in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.964, 724.980,
725.964, and 725.980.
U
U
Subpart VV of 40 CFR 60 (2005) (Standards of Performance for
Equipment Leaks of VOC in the Synthetic Organic Chemicals
Manufacturing Industry), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.989 and
725.990.
U
Appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (2005) (Test Methods), referenced generally in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.205 (in addition to the references cited below for
specific methods):
U
Method 1 (Sample and Velocity Traverses for Stationary Sources),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.205.
U
Method 2 (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity and Volumetric
Flow Rate (Type S Pitot Tube)), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.933, 724.934, 725.933, 725.934, and 726.205.
U
Method 2A (Direct Measurement of Gas Volume through Pipes
and Small Ducts), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.933,
725.933, and 726.205.
U
Method 2B (Determination of Exhaust Gas Volume Flow Rate
from Gasoline Vapor Incinerators), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.205.
104
U
Method 2C (Determination of Gas Velocity and Volumetric Flow
Rate in Small Stacks or Ducts (Standard Pitot Tube)), referenced in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.933, 725.933, and 726.205.
U
Method 2D (Measurement of Gas Volume Flow Rates in Small
Pipes and Ducts), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.933,
725.933, and 726.205.
U
Method 2E (Determination of Landfill Gas Production Flow Rate),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.205.
U
Method 2F (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity and Volumetric
Flow Rate with Three-Dimensional Probes), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.205.
U
Method 2G (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity and Volumetric
Flow Rate with Two-Dimensional Probes), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.205.
U
Method 2H (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity Taking into
Account Velocity Decay Near the Stack Wall), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.205.
U
Method 3 (Gas Analysis for the Determination of Dry Molecular
Weight), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.443 and 726.205.
U
Method 3A (Determination of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide
Concentrations in Emissions from Stationary Sources
(Instrumental Analyzer Procedure)), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.205.
U
Method 3B (Gas Analysis for the Determination of Emission Rate
Correction Factor or Excess Air), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.205.
U
Method 3C (Determination of Carbon Dioxide, Methane, Nitrogen,
and Oxygen from Stationary Sources), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.205.
U
Method 4 (Determination of Moisture Content in Stack Gases),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.205.
U
Method 5 (Determination of Particulate Matter Emissions from
Stationary Sources), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.205.
105
U
Method 5A (Determination of Particulate Matter Emissions from
the Asphalt Processing and Asphalt Roofing Industry), referenced
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.205.
U
Method 5B (Determination of Nonsulfuric Acid Particulate Matter
Emissions from Stationary Sources), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.205.
U
Method 5D (Determination of Particulate Matter Emissions from
Positive Pressure Fabric Filters), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.205.
U
Method 5E (Determination of Particulate Matter Emissions from
the Wool Fiberglass Insulation Manufacturing Industry),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.205.
U
Method 5F (Determination of Nonsulfate Particulate Matter
Emissions from Stationary Sources), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.205.
U
Method 5G (Determination of Particulate Matter Emissions from
Wood Heaters (Dilution Tunnel Sampling Location)), referenced
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.205.
U
Method 5H (Determination of Particulate Emissions from Wood
Heaters from a Stack Location), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.205.
U
Method 5I (Determination of Low Level Particulate Matter
Emissions from Stationary Sources), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.205.
U
Method 18 (Measurement of Gaseous Organic Compound
Emissions by Gas Chromatography), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.933, 724.934, 725.933, and 725.934.
U
Method 21 (Determination of Volatile Organic Compound Leaks),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.213, 724.934, 724.935,
724.963, 725.934, 725.935, 725.963, and 725.984.
U
Method 22 (Visual Determination of Fugitive Emissions from
Material Sources and Smoke Emissions from Flares), referenced in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.933, 724.1101, 725.933, and 725.1101.
U
Method 25A (Determination of Total Gaseous Organic
Concentration Using a Flame Ionization Analyzer), referenced in
106
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.934 and 725.985.
U
Method 25D (Determination of the Volatile Organic Concentration
of Waste Samples), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.982,
725.983, and 725.984.
U
Method 25E (Determination of Vapor Phase Organic
Concentration in Waste Samples), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.984.
U
Method 27 (Determination of Vapor Tightness of Gasoline
Delivery Tank Using Pressure-Vacuum Test), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.987 and 725.987.
U
40 CFR 61 (2005) (National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air
Pollutants), referenced generally in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.933, 725.964,
and 725.980.
U
Subpart V of
U
40 CFR 61
S
, Subpart V (2004)
SU
(2005) (National Emission
Standard for Equipment Leaks (Fugitive Emission Sources)), referenced in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.989 and 725.990.
U
U
Subpart FF of 40 CFR 61 (2005) (National Emission Standard for
Benzene Waste Operations), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.982 and
725.983.
U
40 CFR 63 (2005) (National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air
Pollutants for Source Categories), referenced generally in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 725.933, 725.964, and 725.980.
U
Subpart RR of 40 CFR 63 (2005) (National Emission Standards for
Individual Drain Systems), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.982,
724.984, 724.985, 725.983, 725.985, and 725.986.
U
Subpart EEE of
U
40 CFR 63
S
(2004)
SU
(2005) (National Emission Standards
for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Hazardous Waste Combustors)
(includes 40 CFR 63.1206 (When and How Must You Comply with the
Standards and Operating Requirements?)), referenced in Appendix A to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 703 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.155, 703.205, 703.208,
703.221, 703.232, 703.320, 724.440, 724.701, 724.950, 725.440, and
726.200.
U
U
Method 301 (Field Validation of Pollutant Measurement Methods from
Various Waste Media) in appendix A to 40 CFR 63 (2005) (Test
Methods), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.984.
107
U
Appendix C to 40 CFR 63 (2005) (Determination of the Fraction
Biodegraded (F
UB
U
bio
U
B
U
) in a Biological Treatment Unit), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.984.
U
Appendix D to 40 CFR 63 (2005) (Test Methods), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.984.
40 CFR
S
136 (2004)
SU
136.3 (Identification of Test Procedures) (2005),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.110, 704.150, 704.187, and 730.103.
U
S
40 CFR 142 (2004)
U
40 CFR 144.70 (2005) (Wording of the Instruments), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 704.240.
S
40 CFR 220 (2004)
40 CFR 232.2
S
(2004)
SU
(2005) (Definitions), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.104.
U
U
40 CFR 257 (2005) (Criteria for Classification of Solid Waste Disposal
Facilities and Practices), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739.181.
U
40 CFR 258 (2005) (Criteria for Municipal Solid Waste Landfills),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739.181.
S
40 CFR 260.20 (2004)
U
40 CFR 260.21 (2005) (Alternative Equivalent Testing Methods),
referenced in Section 720.121.
U
Appendix I to 40 CFR 260 (2005) (Overview of Subtitle C Regulations),
referenced in Appendix A to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.
U
Appendix III to 40 CFR 261 (2005) (Chemical Analysis Test Methods),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704.150 and 704.187.
40 CFR 262.53
S
through 262.57 and Appendix (2004)
SU
(2005) (Notification
of Intent to Export), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.153.
U
U
40 CFR 262.54 (2005) (Special Manifest Requirements), and as amended
at 70 Fed. Reg. 10776 (March 4, 2005), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.154.
U
40 CFR 262.55 (2005) (Exception Reports), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.155.
108
U
40 CFR 262.56 (2005) (Annual Reports), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.156.
U
40 CFR 262.57 (2005) (Recordkeeping), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.157.
U
Appendix to 40 CFR 262 (2005) (Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest and
Instructions (EPA Forms 8700-22 and 8700-22a and Their Instructions)),
and as amended at 70 Fed. Reg. 10776 (March 4, 2005), referenced in
Appendix A to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.986 and
725.987.
40 CFR
S
264 (2004)
SU
264.151 (2005) (Wording of the Instruments),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251.
U
U
Appendix I to 40 CFR 264 (2005) (Recordkeeping Instructions),
referenced in Appendix A to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.
U
U
Appendix IV to 40 CFR 264 (2005) (Cochran’s Approximation to the
Behrens-Fisher Students’ T-Test), referenced in Appendix D to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.
U
Appendix V to 40 CFR 264 (2005) (Examples of Potentially Incompatible
Waste), referenced in Appendix E to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.
U
Appendix VI to 40 CFR 264 (2005) (Political Jurisdictions in Which
Compliance with§ 264.18(a) Must Be Demonstrated), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.306 and 724.118.
S
40 CFR 265, Appendices I and III through V (2004)
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Appendix I to 40 CFR 265 (2005) (Recordkeeping Instructions),
referenced in Appendix A to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
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Appendix III to 40 CFR 265 (2005) (EPA Interim Primary Drinking Water
Standards), referenced in Appendix C to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
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Appendix IV to 40 CFR 265 (2005) (Tests for Significance), referenced in
Appendix D to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
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Appendix V to 40 CFR 265 (2005) (Examples of Potentially Incompatible
Waste), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.277, 725.330, 725.357,
725.382, and 725.413 and Appendix E to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
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Appendix IX to 40 CFR 266 (2005) (Methods Manual for Compliance
109
with the BIF Regulations), referenced generally in Appendix I to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.
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Section 4.0 (Procedures for Estimating the Toxicity Equivalence of
Chlorinated Dibenzo-p-Dioxin and Dibenzofuran Congeners),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.200 and 726.204.
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Section 5.0 (Hazardous Waste Combustion Air Quality Screening
Procedure), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204.
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Section 7.0 (Statistical Methodology for Bevill Residue
Determinations), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.212.
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BOARD NOTE: Also available from NTIS (see above for contact
information) as “Methods Manual for Compliance with BIF Regulations:
Burning Hazardous Waste in Boilers and Industrial Furnaces,” December
1990, USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-91-010, NTIS document
number PB91-120006.
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40 CFR 268, Appendix IX (2004)
40 CFR 270.5
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(2004)
SU
(2005) (Noncompliance and Program Reporting by
the Director), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.305.
U
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40 CFR 302 (2004)
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40 CFR 423, appendix A (2004)
40 CFR 761
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(2004)
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(2005) (Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs)
Manufacturing, Processing, Distribution in Commerce, and Use
Prohibitions), referenced generally in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.145.
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40 CFR 761.3 (2005) (Definitions), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.102 and 739.110.
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40 CFR 761.60 (2005) (Disposal Requirements), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728.142.
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40 CFR 761.65 (2005) (Storage for Disposal), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.150.
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40 CFR 761.70 (2005) (Incineration), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.142.
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Subpart B of
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49 CFR 107
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(2003)
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(2004) (Exemptions), referenced
generally in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.986 and 725.987.
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110
49 CFR 171
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(2003)
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(2004) (General Information, Regulations, and
Definitions), referenced generally in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.118, 733.138,
733.152, and 739.143.
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49 CFR 171.3 (2004) (Hazardous Waste), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.133.
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49 CFR 171.8 (2004) (Definitions and Abbreviations), referenced in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 733.118, 733.138, 733.152, 733.155, and 739.143.
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49 CFR 171.15 (2004) (Immediate Notice of Certain Hazardous Materials
Incidents), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 723.130 and 739.143.
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49 CFR 171.16 (2004) (Detailed Hazardous Materials Incident Reports),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 723.130 and 739.143.
49 CFR 172
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(2003)
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(2004) (Hazardous Materials Table, Special
Provisions, Hazardous Materials Communications, Emergency Response
Information, and Training Requirements), referenced generally in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722.131, 722.132, 724.986, 725.987, 733.114, 733.118,
733.134, 733.138, 733.152, 733.155, and 739.143.
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49 CFR 172.304 (2004) (Hazardous Materials Table, Special Provisions,
Hazardous Materials Communications, Emergency Response Information,
and Training Requirements), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.132.
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Subpart F of 49 CFR 172 (2004) (Placarding), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.133.
49 CFR 173
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(2003)
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(2004) (Shippers—General Requirements for
Shipments and Packages), referenced generally in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.130, 724.986, 724.416, 725.987, 733.118, 733.138, 733.152, and
739.143.
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49 CFR 173.2 (2004) (Hazardous Materials Classes and Index to Hazard
Class Definitions), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.152.
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49 CFR 173.12 (2004) (Exceptions for Shipments of Waste Materials),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.416, 724.986, and 725.987.
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49 CFR 173.28 (2004) (Reuse, Reconditioning, and Remanufacture of
Packagings), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.273.
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49 CFR 173.50 (2004) (Class 1--Definitions), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.124.
111
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49 CFR 173.54 (2004) (Forbidden Explosives), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.124.
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49 CFR 173.115 (2004) (Class 2, Divisions 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3--Definitions),
referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121.
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49 CFR 173.127 (2004) (Class 5, Division 5.1—Definition and
Assignment of Packaging Groups), referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.121.
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49 CFR 174 (2004) (Carriage by Rail), referenced generally in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 733.118, 733.138, 733.152, and 739.143.
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49 CFR 175 (2004) (Carriage by Aircraft), referenced generally in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 733.118, 733.138, 733.152, and 739.143.
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49 CFR 176 (2004) (Carriage by Vessel), referenced generally in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 733.118, 733.138, 733.152, and 739.143.
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49 CFR 177 (2004) (Carriage by Public Highway), referenced generally in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.118, 733.138, 733.152, and 739.143.
49 CFR 178
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(2003)
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(2004) (Specifications for Packagings), referenced
generally in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.130, 724.416, 724.986, 725.416,
725.987, 733.118, 733.138, 733.152, and 739.143.
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49 CFR 179
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(2003)
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(2004) (Specifications for Tank Cars), referenced in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.130, 724.416, 724.986, 725.416, 725.987, 733.118,
733.138, 733.152, and 739.143.
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49 CFR 180 (2004) (Continuing Qualification and Maintenance of
Packagings), referenced generally in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.986, 725.987,
733.118, 733.138, 733.152, and 739.143.
c) Federal Statutes
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:
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Section 11 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 USC 2014), as amended
through January 23, 2000, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.104 and
726.310.
Sections 201(v), 201(w), and
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360b(j)
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512(j)
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of the Federal Food, Drug,
and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA; 21 USC 321(v), 321(w), and
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512(j)
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360b(j)
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),
as amended through January 2, 2001
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, referenced in Section 720.110 and
35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.109
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.
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Section 1412 of the Department of Defense Authorization Act of 1986,
Pub. L. 99-145
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,
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(
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50 USC 1521(j)(1)
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)
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, as amended through January 23,
2000
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, referenced in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.301
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.
d) This Section incorporates no later editions or amendments.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART C: RULEMAKING PETITIONS AND OTHER PROCEDURES
Section 720.121 Alternative Equivalent Testing Methods
a) The Agency has no authority to alter the universe of regulated wastes.
Modification of testing methods that are stated in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 requires
rulemaking pursuant to Section 720.120. However, deviation from these methods
is allowed under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, as observed, for example, in the Board
Note appended to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.120(c).
b) The Agency may approve alternative equivalent testing methods for a particular
person’s use to determine whether specified waste streams are subject to these
regulations. This must be done by permit condition or letter.
U
Any petition to the
Board or request to the Agency concerning alternative equivalent testing methods
must include the information required by 40 CFR 260.21(b), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
U
c) The testing methods specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 or alternative equivalent
testing methods approved by the Agency need not be applied to identify or
distinguish waste streams that are known, admitted, or assumed to be subject to
these regulations. In this case, any method may be used, subject to the Agency’s
authority to approve the testing procedures used.
d)
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Any petition to the Board or request to the Agency concerning alternative
equivalent testing methods must include the information required by 40 CFR
260.21(b).
SU
If USEPA amends the federal regulations to allow the use of a new
testing method, USEPA has stated that it will incorporate the new method by
reference in 40 CFR 260.11 and add it to “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-
846, incorporated by reference in Section 720.111(b).
e) Alternative equivalent testing methods will not be approved if the result of the
approval would make the Illinois RCRA Subtitle C program less than
substantially equivalent to the federal.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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Section 720.122 Waste Delisting
a) Any person seeking to exclude a waste from a particular generating facility from
the lists in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 may file a petition, as specified in
subsection (n) of this Section. The Board will grant the petition if the following
occur:
1) The petitioner demonstrates that the waste produced by a particular
generating facility does not meet any of the criteria under which the waste
was listed as a hazardous or acute hazardous waste; and
2)
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If the
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The
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Board determines that there is a reasonable basis to believe that
factors (including additional constituents) other than those for which the
waste was listed could cause the waste to be a hazardous waste, that such
factors do not warrant retaining the waste as a hazardous waste. A Board
determination under the preceding sentence must be made by reliance on,
and in a manner consistent with, “EPA RCRA Delisting Program--
Guidance Manual for the Petitioner,” incorporated by reference in Section
720.111(a). A waste that is so excluded, however, still may be a
hazardous waste by operation of Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
b) Listed wastes and mixtures. A person may also petition the Board to exclude
from 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(a)(2)(B) or (a)(2)(C), a waste that is described in
these Sections and is either a waste listed in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721,
or is derived from a waste listed in that Subpart. This exclusion may only be
granted for a particular generating, storage, treatment, or disposal facility. The
petitioner must make the same demonstration as required by subsection (a) of this
Section. Where the waste is a mixture of a solid waste and one or more listed
hazardous wastes or is derived from one or more listed hazardous wastes, the
demonstration must be made with respect to the waste mixture as a whole;
analyses must be conducted for not only those constituents for which the listed
waste contained in the mixture was listed as hazardous, but also for factors
(including additional constituents) that could cause the waste mixture to be a
hazardous waste. A waste that is so excluded may still be a hazardous waste by
operation of Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
c) Ignitable, corrosive, reactive and toxicity characteristic wastes. If the waste is
listed in codes “I,” “C,” “R,” or “E” in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, the
following requirements apply:
1) The petitioner must demonstrate that the waste does not exhibit the
relevant characteristic for which the waste was listed, as defined in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.121, 721.122, 721.123, or 721.124, using any applicable
methods prescribed in those Sections. The petitioner must also show that
the waste does not exhibit any of the other characteristics, defined in those
Sections, using any applicable methods prescribed in those Sections; and
114
2) Based on a complete petition, the Board will determine, if it has a
reasonable basis to believe that factors (including additional constituents)
other than those for which the waste was listed could cause the waste to be
hazardous waste, that such factors do not warrant retaining the waste as a
hazardous waste. A Board determination under the preceding sentence
must be made by reliance on, and in a manner consistent with, “EPA
RCRA Delisting Program--Guidance Manual for the Petitioner,”
incorporated by reference in Section 720.111(a). A waste that is so
excluded, however, may still be a hazardous waste by operation of Subpart
C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
d) Toxic waste. If the waste is listed in code “T” in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721, the following requirements apply:
1) The petitioner must demonstrate that the waste fulfills the following
criteria:
A) It does not contain the constituent or constituents (as defined in
Appendix G of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721) that caused USEPA to list
the waste
S
, using the appropriate test methods prescribed in “Test
Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by
reference in Section 720.111(a)
S
; or
B) Although containing one or more of the hazardous constituents (as
defined in Appendix G of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721) that caused
USEPA to list the waste, the waste does not meet the criterion of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.111(a)(3) when considering the factors used
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.111(a)(3)(A) through (a)(3)(K) under
which the waste was listed as hazardous.
2) Based on a complete petition, the Board will determine, if it has a
reasonable basis to believe that factors (including additional constituents)
other than those for which the waste was listed could cause the waste to be
hazardous waste, that such factors do not warrant retaining the waste as a
hazardous waste.
3) The petitioner must demonstrate that the waste does not exhibit any of the
characteristics, defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121, 721.122, 721.123,
or 721.124, using any applicable methods prescribed in those Sections.
4) A waste that is so excluded, however, may still be a hazardous waste by
operation of Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
e) Acute hazardous waste. If the waste is listed with the code “H” in Subpart D of
115
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, the following requirements apply:
1) The petitioner must demonstrate that the waste does not meet the criterion
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.111(a)(2); and
2) Based on a complete petition, the Board will determine, if it has a
reasonable basis to believe that factors (including additional constituents)
other than those for which the waste was listed could cause the waste to be
hazardous waste, that such factors do not warrant retaining the waste as a
hazardous waste. A Board determination under the preceding sentence
must be made by reliance on, and in a manner consistent with, “EPA
RCRA Delisting Program--Guidance Manual for the Petitioner,”
incorporated by reference in Section 720.111(a).
3) The petitioner must demonstrate that the waste does not exhibit any of the
characteristics, defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121, 721.122, 721.123,
or 721.124, using any applicable methods prescribed in those Sections.
4) A waste that is so excluded, however, may still be a hazardous waste by
operation of Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
f) This subsection
U
(f)
U
corresponds with 40 CFR 260.22(f), which USEPA has
marked “reserved.” This statement maintains structural consistency with the
federal regulations.
g) This subsection
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(g)
U
corresponds with 40 CFR 260.22(g), which USEPA has
marked “reserved.” This statement maintains structural consistency with the
federal regulations.
h) Demonstration samples must consist of enough representative samples, but in no
case less than four samples, taken over a period of time sufficient to represent the
variability or the uniformity of the waste.
i) Each petition must include, in addition to the information required by subsection
(n) of this Section:
1) The name and address of the laboratory facility performing the sampling
or tests of the waste;
2) The names and qualifications of the persons sampling and testing the
waste;
3) The dates of sampling and testing;
4) The location of the generating facility;
116
5) A description of the manufacturing processes or other operations and feed
materials producing the waste and an assessment of whether such
processes, operations, or feed materials can or might produce a waste that
is not covered by the demonstration;
6) A description of the waste and an estimate of the average and maximum
monthly and annual quantities of waste covered by the demonstration;
7) Pertinent data on and discussion of the factors delineated in the respective
criterion for listing a hazardous waste, where the demonstration is based
on the factors in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.111(a)(3);
8) A description of the methodologies and equipment used to obtain the
representative samples;
9) A description of the sample handling and preparation techniques,
including techniques used for extraction, containerization, and
preservation of the samples;
10) A description of the tests performed (including results);
11) The names and model numbers of the instruments used in performing the
tests; and
12) The following statement signed by the generator or the generator’s
authorized representative:
I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and
am familiar with the information submitted in this demonstration
and all attached documents, and that, based on my inquiry of those
individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information,
I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate and
complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for
submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and
imprisonment.
j) After receiving a petition, the Board may request any additional information that
the Board needs to evaluate the petition.
k) An exclusion will only apply to the waste generated at the individual facility
covered by the demonstration and will not apply to waste from any other facility.
l) The Board will exclude only part of the waste for which the demonstration is
submitted if the Board determines that variability of the waste justifies a partial
exclusion.
117
BOARD NOTE: See “EPA RCRA Delisting Program--Guidance Manual for the
Petitioner,” incorporated by reference in Section 720.111(a).
m) Delisting of specific wastes from specific sources that have been adopted by
USEPA may be proposed as State regulations that are identical in substance
pursuant to Section 720.120(a).
n) Delistings that have not been adopted by USEPA may be proposed to the Board
pursuant to a petition for adjusted standard pursuant to Section 28.1 of the Act
[415 ILCS 5/28.1] and Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 104. The justification for
the adjusted standard is as specified in subsections (a) through (g) of this Section,
as applicable to the waste in question. The petition must be clearly labeled as a
RCRA delisting adjusted standard petition.
1) In accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 101.304, the petitioner must serve
copies of the petition, and any other documents filed with the Board, on
USEPA at the following addresses:
USEPA
Office of Solid Waste and Emergency Response
1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW
Washington, D.C. 20460
USEPA, Region 5
77 West Jackson Boulevard
Chicago, IL 60604
2) The Board will mail copies of all opinions and orders to USEPA at the
above addresses.
3) In conjunction with the normal updating of the RCRA regulations, the
Board will maintain, in Appendix I of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, a listing of
all adjusted standards granted by the Board.
o) The Agency may determine in a permit or a letter directed to a generator that,
based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, a waste from a particular source is not subject to
these regulations. Such a finding is evidence against the Agency in any
subsequent proceedings but will not be conclusive with reference to other persons
or the Board.
p) Any petition to delist directed to the Board or request for determination directed
to the Agency must include a showing that the waste will be generated or
managed in Illinois.
q) The Board will not grant any petition that would render the Illinois RCRA
program less stringent than if the decision were made by USEPA.
118
r) Delistings apply only within Illinois. Generators must comply with 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722 for waste that is hazardous in any state to which it is to be transported.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 720.Appendix A Overview of
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40 CFR,
SU
Federal RCRA
U
Subtitle C
U
(Hazardous
Waste)
U
Regulations
See
S
Appendix
SU
appendix
U
I to 40 CFR 260
U
(Overview of Subtitle C Regulations), incorporated by
reference in Section 720.111(c)
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
721.101 Purpose and Scope
721.102 Definition of Solid Waste
721.103 Definition of Hazardous Waste
721.104 Exclusions
721.105 Special Requirements for Hazardous Waste Generated by Small Quantity
Generators
721.106 Requirements for Recyclable Materials
721.107 Residues of Hazardous Waste in Empty Containers
721.108 PCB Wastes Regulated under TSCA
721.109 Requirements for Universal Waste
SUBPART B: CRITERIA FOR IDENTIFYING THE CHARACTERISTICS OF
HAZARDOUS WASTE AND FOR LISTING HAZARDOUS WASTES
Section
721.110 Criteria for Identifying the Characteristics of Hazardous Waste
721.111 Criteria for Listing Hazardous Waste
SUBPART C: CHARACTERISTICS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section
721.120 General
721.121 Characteristic of Ignitability
721.122 Characteristic of Corrosivity
119
721.123 Characteristic of Reactivity
721.124 Toxicity Characteristic
SUBPART D: LISTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section
721.130 General
721.131 Hazardous Wastes from Nonspecific Sources
721.132 Hazardous Waste from Specific Sources
721.133 Discarded Commercial Chemical Products, Off-Specification Species, Container
Residues, and Spill Residues Thereof
721.135 Wood Preserving Wastes
721.138 Comparable or Syngas Fuel Exclusion
721.Appendix A Representative Sampling Methods
721.Appendix B Method 1311 Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)
721.Appendix C Chemical Analysis Test Methods
Table A Analytical Characteristics of Organic Chemicals (Repealed)
Table B Analytical Characteristics of Inorganic Species (Repealed)
Table C Sample Preparation/Sample Introduction Techniques (Repealed)
721.Appendix G Basis for Listing Hazardous Wastes
721.Appendix H Hazardous Constituents
721.Appendix I Wastes Excluded by Administrative Action
Table A Wastes Excluded by USEPA
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under
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pursuant to
U
40 CFR 260.20 and 260.22
from Non-Specific Sources
Table B Wastes Excluded by USEPA
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under
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pursuant to
U
40 CFR 260.20 and 260.22
from Specific Sources
Table C Wastes Excluded by USEPA
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under
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pursuant to
U
40 CFR 260.20 and 260.22
from Commercial Chemical Products, Off-Specification Species,
Container Residues, and Soil Residues Thereof
Table D Wastes Excluded by the Board by Adjusted Standard
721.Appendix J Method of Analysis for Chlorinated Dibenzo-p-Dioxins and
Dibenzofurans (Repealed)
721.Appendix Y Table to Section 721.138
721.Appendix Z Table to Section 721.102
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 7.2 and 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/7.2, 22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R81-22 at 5 Ill. Reg. 9781, effective May 17, 1982; amended and
codified in R81-22 at 6 Ill. Reg. 4828, effective May 17, 1982; amended in R82-18 at 7 Ill. Reg.
2518, effective February 22, 1983; amended in R82-19 at 7 Ill. Reg. 13999, effective October 12,
1983; amended in R84-34, 61 at 8 Ill. Reg. 24562, effective December 11, 1984; amended in
R84-9 at 9 Ill. Reg. 11834, effective July 24, 1985; amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg. 998,
effective January 2, 1986; amended in R85-2 at 10 Ill. Reg. 8112, effective May 2, 1986;
amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill. Reg. 14002, effective August 12, 1986; amended in R86-19 at 10 Ill.
Reg. 20647, effective December 2, 1986; amended in R86-28 at 11 Ill. Reg. 6035, effective
120
March 24, 1987; amended in R86-46 at 11 Ill. Reg. 13466, effective August 4, 1987; amended in
R87-32 at 11 Ill. Reg. 16698, effective September 30, 1987; amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg.
19303, effective November 12, 1987; amended in R87-26 at 12 Ill. Reg. 2456, effective January
15, 1988; amended in R87-30 at 12 Ill. Reg. 12070, effective July 12, 1988; amended in R87-39
at 12 Ill. Reg. 13006, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R88-16 at 13 Ill. Reg. 382, effective
December 27, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18300, effective November 13, 1989;
amended in R90-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 14401, effective August 22, 1990; amended in R90-10 at 14 Ill.
Reg. 16472, effective September 25, 1990; amended in R90-17 at 15 Ill. Reg. 7950, effective
May 9, 1991; amended in R90-11 at 15 Ill. Reg. 9332, effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-
1 at 15 Ill. Reg. 14473, effective September 30, 1991; amended in R91-12 at 16 Ill. Reg. 2155,
effective January 27, 1992; amended in R91-26 at 16 Ill. Reg. 2600, effective February 3, 1992;
amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9519, effective June 9, 1992; amended in R92-1 at 16 Ill. Reg.
17666, effective November 6, 1992; amended in R92-10 at 17 Ill. Reg. 5650, effective March 26,
1993; amended in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20568, effective November 22, 1993; amended in R93-
16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6741, effective April 26, 1994; amended in R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12175,
effective July 29, 1994; amended in R94-17 at 18 Ill. Reg. 17490, effective November 23, 1994;
amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9522, effective June 27, 1995; amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill.
Reg. 10963, effective August 1, 1996; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 275,
effective December 16, 1997; amended in R98-12 at 22 Ill. Reg. 7615, effective April 15, 1998;
amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 17531, effective September 28, 1998; amended
in R98-21/R99-2/R99-7 at 23 Ill. Reg. 1718, effective January 19, 1999; amended in R99-15 at
23 Ill. Reg. 9135, effective July 26, 1999; amended in R00-13 at 24 Ill. Reg. 9481, effective June
20, 2000; amended in R01-3 at 25 Ill. Reg. 1281, effective January 11, 2001; amended in R01-
21/R01-23 at 25 Ill. Reg. 9108, effective July 9, 2001; amended in R02-1/R02-12/R02-17 at 26
Ill. Reg. 6584, effective April 22, 2002; amended in R03-18 at 27 Ill. Reg. 12760, effective July
17, 2003; amended in R04-16 at 28 Ill. Reg. 10693, effective July 19, 2004; amended in R05-8 at
29 Ill. Reg. 6003, effective April 13, 2005; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg.
________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section 721.103 Definition of Hazardous Waste
a) A solid waste, as defined in Section 721.102, is a hazardous waste if the following
is true of the waste:
1) It is not excluded from regulation as a hazardous waste under Section
721.104(b); and
2) It meets any of the following criteria:
A) It exhibits any of the characteristics of hazardous waste identified
in Subpart C of this Part. However, any mixture of a waste from
the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals
excluded under Section 721.104(b)(7) and any other solid waste
exhibiting a characteristic of hazardous waste under Subpart C of
121
this Part is a hazardous waste only if it exhibits a characteristic that
would not have been exhibited by the excluded waste alone if such
mixture had not occurred, or if the mixture continues to exhibit any
of the characteristics exhibited by the non-excluded wastes prior to
mixture. Further, for the purposes of applying the toxicity
characteristic to such mixtures, the mixture is also a hazardous
waste if it exceeds the maximum concentration for any
contaminant listed in Section 721.124 that would not have been
exceeded by the excluded waste alone if the mixture had not
occurred or if it continues to exceed the maximum concentration
for any contaminant exceeded by the nonexempt waste prior to
mixture.
B) It is listed in Subpart D of this Part and has not been excluded from
the lists in Subpart D of this Part under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120
and 720.122.
C) This subsection
U
(a)(2)(B)
U
corresponds with 40 CFR
261.3(a)(2)(iii), which USEPA removed and marked as “reserved”
at 66 Fed. Reg. 27266 (May 16, 2001). This statement maintains
structural consistency with the federal regulations.
D) It is a mixture of solid waste and one or more hazardous wastes
listed in Subpart D of this Part and has not been excluded from this
subsection (a)(2) under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120 and 720.122,
subsection (g) of this Section, or subsection (h) of this Section;
however, the following mixtures of solid wastes and hazardous
wastes listed in Subpart D of this Part are not hazardous wastes
(except by application of subsection (a)(2)(A) or (a)(2)(B) of this
Section) if the generator demonstrates that the mixture consists of
wastewater the discharge of which is subject to regulation under
either 35 Ill. Adm. Code 309 or 310 (including wastewater at
facilities that have eliminated the discharge of wastewater) and the
following is true of the waste:
i) It is one or more of the following solvents listed in Section
721.131: carbon tetrachloride, tetrachloroethylene,
trichloroethylene, provided that the maximum total weekly
usage of these solvents (other than the amounts that can be
demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater) divided
by the average weekly flow of wastewater into the
headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment or
pretreatment system does not exceed 1 part per million;
ii) It is one or more of the following spent solvents listed in
Section 721.131: methylene chloride, 1,1,1-trichloro-
122
ethane, chlorobenzene, o-dichlorobenzene, cresols, cresylic
acid, nitrobenzene, toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon
disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, spent chlorofluorocarbon
solvents, provided that the maximum total weekly usage of
these solvents (other than the amounts that can be
demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater) divided
by the average weekly flow of wastewater into the
headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment or
pretreatment system does not exceed 25 parts per million;
iii) It is one of the following wastes listed in Section 721.132,
provided that the wastes are discharged to the refinery oil
recovery sewer before primary oil/water/solids separation:
heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the petroleum
refining industry (USEPA hazardous waste no. K050),
crude oil storage tank sediment from petroleum refining
operations (USEPA hazardous waste number K169),
clarified slurry oil tank sediment or in-line filter/separation
solids from petroleum refining operations (USEPA
hazardous waste number K170), spent hydrotreating
catalyst (USEPA hazardous waste number K171), and
spent hydrorefining catalyst (USEPA hazardous waste
number K172);
iv) It is a discarded commercial chemical product or chemical
intermediate listed in Section 721.133 arising from de
minimis losses of these materials from manufacturing
operations in which these materials are used as raw
materials or are produced in the manufacturing process.
For purposes of this subsection, “de minimis” losses
include those from normal material handling operations
(e.g., spills from the unloading or transfer of materials from
bins or other containers, leaks from pipes, valves, or other
devices used to transfer materials); minor leaks of process
equipment, storage tanks, or containers; leaks from well-
maintained pump packings and seals; sample purgings;
relief device discharges; discharges from safety showers
and rinsing and cleaning of personal safety equipment; and
rinsate from empty containers or from containers that are
rendered empty by that rinsing;
v) It is wastewater resulting from laboratory operations
containing toxic (T) wastes listed in Subpart D of this Part,
provided that the annualized average flow of laboratory
wastewater does not exceed one percent of total wastewater
flow into the headworks of the facility’s wastewater
123
treatment or pretreatment system or provided that the
wastes’ combined annualized average concentration does
not exceed one part per million in the headworks of the
facility’s wastewater treatment or pretreatment facility.
Toxic (T) wastes used in laboratories that are demonstrated
not to be discharged to wastewater are not to be included in
this calculation;
vi) It is one or more of the following wastes listed in Section
721.132: wastewaters from the production of carbamates
and carbamoyl oximes (USEPA Hazardous Waste No.
K157), provided that the maximum weekly usage of
formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride, and
triethylamine (including all amounts that cannot be
demonstrated to be reacted in the process, destroyed
through treatment, or recovered, i.e., what is discharged or
volatilized) divided by the average weekly flow of process
wastewater prior to any dilutions into the headworks of the
facility’s wastewater treatment system does not exceed a
total of 5 parts per million by weight; or
vii) It is wastewater derived from the treatment of one or more
of the following wastes listed in Section 721.132: organic
waste (including heavy ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent
solvents, filtrates, and decantates) from the production of
carbamates and carbamoyl oximes (USEPA Hazardous
Waste No. K156), provided that the maximum
concentration of formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene
chloride, and triethylamine prior to any dilutions into the
headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment system
does not exceed a total of 5 milligrams per liter.
E) Rebuttable presumption for used oil. Used oil containing more
than 1,000 ppm total halogens is presumed to be a hazardous waste
because it has been mixed with halogenated hazardous waste listed
in Subpart D of this Part. Persons may rebut this presumption by
demonstrating that the used oil does not contain hazardous waste
(for example,
S
by using an analytical method from number SW-846,
incorporated by reference at 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111,
S
to show
that the used oil does not contain significant concentrations of
halogenated hazardous constituents listed in Appendix H of this
Part).
i) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to a
metalworking oil or fluid containing chlorinated paraffins if
it is processed through a tolling arrangement, as described
124
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739.124(c), to reclaim metalworking
oils or fluids. The presumption does apply to a
metalworking oil or fluid if such an oil or fluid is recycled
in any other manner, or disposed.
ii) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to a used oil
contaminated with chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) removed
from refrigeration units where the CFCs are destined for
reclamation. The rebuttable presumption does apply to a
used oil contaminated with CFCs that have been mixed
with used oil from a source other than a refrigeration unit.
b) A solid waste that is not excluded from regulation under subsection (a)(1) of this
Section becomes a hazardous waste when any of the following events occur:
1) In the case of a waste listed in Subpart D of this Part, when the waste first
meets the listing description set forth in Subpart D of this Part.
2) In the case of a mixture of solid waste and one or more listed hazardous
wastes, when a hazardous waste listed in Subpart D of this Part is first
added to the solid waste.
3) In the case of any other waste (including a waste mixture), when the waste
exhibits any of the characteristics identified in Subpart C of this Part.
c) Unless and until it meets the criteria of subsection (d) of this Section, a hazardous
waste will remain a hazardous waste.
BOARD NOTE: This subsection
U
(c)
U
corresponds with 40 CFR 261.3(c)(1). The
Board has codified 40 CFR 261.3(c)(2) at subsection (e) of this Section.
d) Any solid waste described in subsection (e) of this Section is not a hazardous
waste if it meets the following criteria:
1) In the case of any solid waste, it does not exhibit any of the characteristics
of hazardous waste identified in Subpart C of this Part. (However, wastes
that exhibit a characteristic at the point of generation may still be subject
to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728, even if they no longer
exhibit a characteristic at the point of land disposal.)
2) In the case of a waste that is a listed waste under Subpart D of this Part, a
waste that contains a waste listed under Subpart D of this Part, or a waste
that is derived from a waste listed in Subpart D of this Part, it also has
been excluded from subsection (e) of this Section under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.120 and 720.122.
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e) Specific inclusions and exclusions.
1) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e)(2), (g), or (h) of this
Section, any solid waste generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal
of a hazardous waste, including any sludge, spill residue, ash, emission
control dust, or leachate (but not including precipitation run-off), is a
hazardous waste. (However, materials that are reclaimed from solid
wastes and that are used beneficially are not solid wastes and hence are
not hazardous wastes under this provision unless the reclaimed material is
burned for energy recovery or used in a manner constituting disposal.)
2) The following solid wastes are not hazardous even though they are
generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste,
unless they exhibit one or more of the characteristics of hazardous waste:
A) Waste pickle liquor sludge generated by lime stabilization of spent
pickle liquor from the iron and steel industry (SIC Codes 331 and
332).
B) Wastes from burning any of the materials exempted from
regulation by Section 721.106(a)(3)(C) and (a)(3)(D).
C) Nonwastewater residues, such as slag, resulting from high
temperature metal recovery (HTMR) processing of K061, K062, or
F006 waste in the units identified in this subsection (e)(2) that are
disposed of in non-hazardous waste units, provided that these
residues meet the generic exclusion levels identified in the tables
in this subsection (e)(2)(C) for all constituents and the residues
exhibit no characteristics of hazardous waste. The types of units
identified are rotary kilns, flame reactors, electric furnaces, plasma
arc furnaces, slag reactors, rotary hearth furnace/electric furnace
combinations, or the following types of industrial furnaces (as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110): blast furnaces; smelting,
melting, and refining furnaces (including pyrometallurgical
devices such as cupolas, reverberator furnaces, sintering machines,
roasters, and foundry furnaces); and other furnaces designated by
the Agency pursuant to that definition.
i) Testing requirements must be incorporated in a facility’s
waste analysis plan or a generator’s self-implementing
waste analysis plan; at a minimum, composite samples of
residues must be collected and analyzed quarterly and
when the process or operation generating the waste
changes.
ii) Persons claiming this exclusion in an enforcement action
126
will have the burden of proving by clear and convincing
evidence that the material meets all of the exclusion
requirements. The generic exclusion levels are the
following:
Generic exclusion levels for K061 and K062
nonwastewater HTMR residues:
Constituent Maximum for any single
composite sample
(
S
mg/L
SU
mg/
ℓ
U
)
Antimony 0.10
Arsenic 0.50
Barium 7.6
Beryllium 0.010
Cadmium 0.050
Chromium (total) 0.33
Lead 0.15
Mercury 0.009
Nickel 1.0
Selenium 0.16
Silver 0.30
Thallium 0.020
Vanadium 1.26
Zinc 70
Generic exclusion levels for F006 nonwastewater HTMR
residues:
Constituent Maximum for any single
composite sample
(
S
mg/L
SU
mg/
ℓ
U
)
Antimony 0.10
Arsenic 0.50
Barium 7.6
Beryllium 0.010
Cadmium 0.050
Chromium (total) 0.33
Cyanide (total) (mg/kg) 1.8
Lead 0.15
Mercury 0.009
Nickel 1.0
Selenium 0.16
Silver 0.30
Thallium 0.020
Zinc 70
127
iii) A one-time notification and certification must be placed in
the facility’s files and sent to the Agency (or, for out-of-
State shipments, to the appropriate Regional Administrator
of USEPA or the state agency authorized to implement
U
federal
U
40 CFR 268 requirements) for K061, K062, or F006
HTMR residues that meet the generic exclusion levels for
all constituents, which do not exhibit any characteristics,
and which are sent to RCRA Subtitle D (municipal solid
waste landfill) units. The notification and certification that
is placed in the generator’s or treater’s files must be
updated if the process or operation generating the waste
changes or if the RCRA Subtitle D unit receiving the waste
changes. However, the generator or treater need only
notify the Agency on an annual basis if such changes
occur. Such notification and certification should be sent to
the Agency by the end of the calendar year, but no later
than December 31. The notification must include the
following information: the name and address of the
nonhazardous waste management unit receiving the waste
shipment; the USEPA hazardous waste number and
treatability group at the initial point of generation; and the
treatment standards applicable to the waste at the initial
point of generation. The certification must be signed by an
authorized representative and must state as follows:
“I certify under penalty of law that the generic
exclusion levels for all constituents have been met
without impermissible dilution and that no
characteristic of hazardous waste is exhibited. I am
aware that there are significant penalties for
submitting a false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.”
D) Biological treatment sludge from the treatment of one of the
following wastes listed in Section 721.132: organic waste
(including heavy ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents,
filtrates, and decantates) from the production of carbamates and
carbamoyl oximes (USEPA Hazardous Waste No. K156) and
wastewaters from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl
oximes (USEPA Hazardous Waste No. K157).
E) Catalyst inert support media separated from one of the following
wastes listed in Section 721.132: spent hydrotreating catalyst
(USEPA hazardous waste number K171) and spent hydrorefining
catalyst (USEPA hazardous waste number K172).
128
BOARD NOTE: This subsection
U
(e)
U
would normally correspond with 40 CFR
261.3(e), a subsection that has been deleted and marked “reserved” by USEPA.
Rather, this subsection (e) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.3(c)(2), which the Board
codified here to comport with codification requirements and to enhance clarity.
f) Notwithstanding subsections (a) through (e) of this Section and provided the
debris, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.102, does not exhibit a characteristic
identified at Subpart C of this Part, the following materials are not subject to
regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 720, 721 to 726, or 728:
1) Hazardous debris as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.102 that has been
treated using one of the required extraction or destruction technologies
specified in Table F to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728; persons claiming this
exclusion in an enforcement action will have the burden of proving by
clear and convincing evidence that the material meets all of the exclusion
requirements; or
2) Debris, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.102, that the Agency,
considering the extent of contamination, has determined is no longer
contaminated with hazardous waste.
g) Exclusion of certain wastes listed in Subpart D of this Part solely because they
exhibit a characteristic of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity.
1) A hazardous waste that is listed in Subpart D of this Part solely because it
exhibits one or more characteristics of ignitability, as defined under
Section 721.121; corrosivity, as defined under Section 721.122; or
reactivity, as defined under Section 721.123 is not a hazardous waste if the
waste no longer exhibits any characteristic of hazardous waste identified
in Subpart C of this Part.
2) The exclusion described in subsection (g)(1) of this Section also pertains
to the following:
A) Any mixture of a solid waste and a hazardous waste listed in
Subpart D of this Part solely because it exhibits the characteristics
of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity, as regulated under
subsection (a)(2)(D) of this Section; and
B) Any solid waste generated from treating, storing, or disposing of a
hazardous waste listed in Subpart D of this Part solely because it
exhibits the characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity,
as regulated under subsection (e)(1) of this Section.
3) Wastes excluded under this
S
subection
SU
subsection
U
(g) are subject to 35 Ill.
129
Adm. Code 728 (as applicable), even if they no longer exhibit a
characteristic at the point of land disposal.
h) Eligible radioactive mixed waste.
1) Hazardous waste containing radioactive waste is no longer a hazardous
waste when it meets the eligibility criteria and conditions of Subpart N of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726 (i.e., it is “eligible radioactive mixed waste”).
2) The exemption described in subsection (h)(1) of this Section also pertains
to the following:
A) Any mixture of a solid waste and an eligible radioactive mixed
waste; and
B) Any solid waste generated from treating, storing, or disposing of
an eligible radioactive mixed waste.
3) Waste exempted under this subsection (h) must meet the eligibility criteria
and specified conditions in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.325 and 726.330 (for
storage and treatment) and in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.410 and 726.415 (for
transportation and disposal). Waste that fails to satisfy these eligibility
criteria and conditions is regulated as hazardous waste.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.104 Exclusions
a) Materials that are not solid wastes. The following materials are not solid wastes
for the purpose of this Part:
1) Sewage.
A) Domestic sewage (untreated sanitary wastes that pass through a
sewer system); and
B) Any mixture of domestic sewage and other waste that passes
through a sewer system to publicly-owned treatment works for
treatment.
2) Industrial wastewater discharges that are point source discharges with
National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permits issued
by the Agency pursuant to Section 12(f) of the Environmental Protection
Act and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 309.
BOARD NOTE: This exclusion applies only to the actual point source
130
discharge. It does not exclude industrial wastewaters while they are being
collected, stored, or treated before discharge, nor does it exclude sludges
that are generated by industrial wastewater treatment.
3) Irrigation return flows.
4) Source, by-product, or special nuclear material, as defined by
U
section 11
of
U
the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 USC
S
2011 et seq.
SU
2014
U
)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
U
.
5) Materials subjected to in-situ mining techniques that are not removed from
the ground as part of the extraction process.
6) Pulping liquors (i.e., black liquors) that are reclaimed in a pulping liquor
recovery furnace and then reused in the pulping process, unless it is
accumulated speculatively, as defined in Section 721.101(c).
7) Spent sulfuric acid used to produce virgin sulfuric acid, unless it is
accumulated speculatively, as defined in Section 721.101(c).
8) Secondary materials that are reclaimed and returned to the original process
or processes in which they were generated, where they are reused in the
production process, provided that the following is true:
A) Only tank storage is involved, and the entire process through
completion of reclamation is closed by being entirely connected
with pipes or other comparable enclosed means of conveyance;
B) Reclamation does not involve controlled flame combustion (such
as occurs in boilers, industrial furnaces, or incinerators);
C) The secondary materials are never accumulated in such tanks for
over 12 months without being reclaimed; and
D) The reclaimed material is not used to produce a fuel or used to
produce products that are used in a manner constituting disposal.
9) Wood preserving wastes.
A) Spent wood preserving solutions that have been used and which
are reclaimed and reused for their original intended purpose;
B) Wastewaters from the wood preserving process that have been
reclaimed and which are reused to treat wood; and
C) Prior to reuse, the wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood
131
preserving solutions described in subsections (a)(9)(A) and
(a)(9)(B) of this Section, so long as they meet all of the following
conditions:
i) The wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood
preserving solutions are reused on-site at water-borne
plants in the production process for their original intended
purpose;
ii) Prior to reuse, the wastewaters and spent wood preserving
solutions are managed to prevent release to either land or
groundwater or both;
iii) Any unit used to manage wastewaters or spent wood
preserving solutions prior to reuse can be visually or
otherwise determined to prevent such releases;
iv) Any drip pad used to manage the wastewaters or spent
wood preserving solutions prior to reuse complies with the
standards in Subpart W of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725,
regardless of whether the plant generates a total of less than
100 kg/month of hazardous waste; and
v) Prior to operating pursuant to this exclusion, the plant
owner or operator submits a one-time notification to the
Agency stating that the plant intends to claim the exclusion,
giving the date on which the plant intends to begin
operating under the exclusion, and containing the following
language: “I have read the applicable regulation
establishing an exclusion for wood preserving wastewaters
and spent wood preserving solutions and understand it
requires me to comply at all times with the conditions set
out in the regulation.” The plant must maintain a copy of
that document in its on-site records for a period of no less
than three years from the date specified in the notice. The
exclusion applies only so long as the plant meets all of the
conditions. If the plant goes out of compliance with any
condition, it may apply to the Agency for reinstatement.
The Agency must reinstate the exclusion in writing if it
finds that the plant has returned to compliance with all
conditions and that violations are not likely to recur. If the
Agency denies an application, it must transmit to the
applicant specific, detailed statements in writing as to the
reasons it denied the application. The applicant under this
subsection (a)(9)(C)(v) may appeal the Agency’s
determination to deny the reinstatement, to grant the
132
reinstatement with conditions, or to terminate a
reinstatement before the Board pursuant to Section 40 of
the Act [415 ILCS 5/40].
10) Hazardous waste numbers K060, K087, K141, K142, K143, K144, K145,
K147, and K148, and any wastes from the coke by-products processes that
are hazardous only because they exhibit the toxicity characteristic
specified in Section 721.124, when subsequent to generation these
materials are recycled to coke ovens, to the tar recovery process as a
feedstock to produce coal tar, or are mixed with coal tar prior to the tar’s
sale or refining. This exclusion is conditioned on there being no land
disposal of the waste from the point it is generated to the point it is
recycled to coke ovens, to tar recovery, to the tar refining processes, or
prior to when it is mixed with coal.
11) Nonwastewater splash condenser dross residue from the treatment of
hazardous waste number K061 in high temperature metals recovery units,
provided it is shipped in drums (if shipped) and not land disposed before
recovery.
12) Certain oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials and recovered oil, as
follows:
A) Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials (i.e., sludges, by-
products, or spent materials) that are generated at a petroleum
refinery (standard industrial classification (SIC code 2911) and are
inserted into the petroleum refining process (SIC code 2911:
including, but not limited to, distillation, catalytic cracking,
fractionation, or thermal cracking units (i.e., cokers)), unless the
material is placed on the land, or speculatively accumulated before
being so recycled. Materials inserted into thermal cracking units
are excluded under this subsection (a)(12), provided that the coke
product also does not exhibit a characteristic of hazardous waste.
Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials may be inserted into
the same petroleum refinery where they are generated or sent
directly to another petroleum refinery and still be excluded under
this provision. Except as provided in subsection (a)(12)(B) of this
Section, oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials generated
elsewhere in the petroleum industry (i.e., from sources other than
petroleum refineries) are not excluded under this Section.
Residuals generated from processing or recycling materials
excluded under this subsection (a)(12)(A), where such materials as
generated would have otherwise met a listing under Subpart D of
this Part, are designated as USEPA hazardous waste number F037
listed wastes when disposed of or intended for disposal.
133
B) Recovered oil that is recycled in the same manner and with the
same conditions as described in subsection (a)(12)(A) of this
Section. Recovered oil is oil that has been reclaimed from
secondary materials (including wastewater) generated from normal
petroleum industry practices, including refining, exploration and
production, bulk storage, and transportation incident thereto (SIC
codes 1311, 1321, 1381, 1382, 1389, 2911, 4612, 4613, 4922,
4923, 4789, 5171, and 5172). Recovered oil does not include oil-
bearing hazardous wastes listed in Subpart D of this Part; however,
oil recovered from such wastes may be considered recovered oil.
Recovered oil does not include used oil, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 739.100.
13) Excluded scrap metal (processed scrap metal, unprocessed home scrap
metal, and unprocessed prompt scrap metal) being recycled.
14) Shredded circuit boards being recycled, provided that they meet the
following conditions:
A) The circuit boards are stored in containers sufficient to prevent a
release to the environment prior to recovery; and
B) The circuit boards are free of mercury switches, mercury relays,
nickel-cadmium batteries, and lithium batteries.
15) Condensates derived from the overhead gases from kraft mill steam
strippers that are used to comply with federal Clean Air Act regulation 40
CFR 63.446(e). The exemption applies only to combustion at the mill
generating the condensates.
16) Comparable fuels or comparable syngas fuels (i.e., comparable or syngas
fuels) that meet the requirements of Section 721.138.
17) Spent materials (as defined in Section 721.101) (other than hazardous
wastes listed in Subpart D of this Part) generated within the primary
mineral processing industry from which minerals, acids, cyanide, water, or
other values are recovered by mineral processing or by benefication,
provided that the following is true:
A) The spent material is legitimately recycled to recover minerals,
acids, cyanide, water, or other values;
B) The spent material is not accumulated speculatively;
C) Except as provided in subsection (a)(17)(D) of this Section, the
spent material is stored in tanks, containers, or buildings that meet
134
the following minimum integrity standards: a building must be an
engineered structure with a floor, walls, and a roof all of which are
made of non-earthen materials providing structural support (except
that smelter buildings may have partially earthen floors, provided
that the spent material is stored on the non-earthen portion), and
have a roof suitable for diverting rainwater away from the
foundation; a tank must be free standing, not be a surface
impoundment (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110), and be
manufactured of a material suitable for containment of its contents;
a container must be free standing and be manufactured of a
material suitable for containment of its contents. If a tank or
container contains any particulate that may be subject to wind
dispersal, the owner or operator must operate the unit in a manner
that controls fugitive dust. A tank, container, or building must be
designed, constructed, and operated to prevent significant releases
to the environment of these materials.
D) The Agency must allow by permit that solid mineral processing
spent materials only may be placed on pads, rather than in tanks,
containers, or buildings if the facility owner or operator can
demonstrate the following: the solid mineral processing secondary
materials do not contain any free liquid; the pads are designed,
constructed, and operated to prevent significant releases of the
spent material into the environment; and the pads provide the same
degree of containment afforded by the non-RCRA tanks,
containers, and buildings eligible for exclusion.
i) The Agency must also consider whether storage on pads
poses the potential for significant releases via groundwater,
surface water, and air exposure pathways. Factors to be
considered for assessing the groundwater, surface water,
and air exposure pathways must include the following: the
volume and physical and chemical properties of the spent
material, including its potential for migration off the pad;
the potential for human or environmental exposure to
hazardous constituents migrating from the pad via each
exposure pathway; and the possibility and extent of harm to
human and environmental receptors via each exposure
pathway.
ii) Pads must meet the following minimum standards: they
must be designed of non-earthen material that is compatible
with the chemical nature of the mineral processing spent
material; they must be capable of withstanding physical
stresses associated with placement and removal; they must
have runon and runoff controls; they must be operated in a
135
manner that controls fugitive dust; and they must have
integrity assurance through inspections and maintenance
programs.
iii) Before making a determination under this subsection
(a)(17)(D), the Agency must provide notice and the
opportunity for comment to all persons potentially
interested in the determination. This can be accomplished
by placing notice of this action in major local newspapers,
or broadcasting notice over local radio stations.
BOARD NOTE: See Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703
for the RCRA Subtitle C permit public notice requirements.
E) The owner or operator provides a notice to the Agency, providing
the following information: the types of materials to be recycled,
the type and location of the storage units and recycling processes,
and the annual quantities expected to be placed in non-land-based
units. This notification must be updated when there is a change in
the type of materials recycled or the location of the recycling
process.
F) For purposes of subsection (b)(7) of this Section, mineral
processing spent materials must be the result of mineral processing
and may not include any listed hazardous wastes. Listed
hazardous wastes and characteristic hazardous wastes generated by
non-mineral processing industries are not eligible for the
conditional exclusion from the definition of solid waste.
18) Petrochemical recovered oil from an associated organic chemical
manufacturing facility, where the oil is to be inserted into the petroleum
refining process (SIC code 2911) along with normal petroleum refinery
process streams, provided that both of the following conditions are true of
the oil:
A) The oil is hazardous only because it exhibits the characteristic of
ignitability (as defined in Section 721.121) or toxicity for benzene
(Section 721.124, USEPA hazardous waste code D018);
B) The oil generated by the organic chemical manufacturing facility is
not placed on the land, or speculatively accumulated before being
recycled into the petroleum refining process. An “associated
organic chemical manufacturing facility” is a facility for which all
of the following is true: its primary SIC code is 2869, but its
operations may also include SIC codes 2821, 2822, and 2865; it is
physically co-located with a petroleum refinery; and the petroleum
136
refinery to which the oil being recycled is returned also provides
hydrocarbon feedstocks to the organic chemical manufacturing
facility. “Petrochemical recovered oil” is oil that has been
reclaimed from secondary materials (i.e., sludges, by-products, or
spent materials, including wastewater) from normal organic
chemical manufacturing operations, as well as oil recovered from
organic chemical manufacturing processes.
19) Spent caustic solutions from petroleum refining liquid treating processes
used as a feedstock to produce cresylic or naphthenic acid, unless the
material is placed on the land or accumulated speculatively, as defined in
Section 721.101(c).
20) Hazardous secondary materials used to make zinc fertilizers, provided that
the following conditions are satisfied:
A) Hazardous secondary materials used to make zinc micronutrient
fertilizers must not be accumulated speculatively, as defined in
Section 721.101(c)(8).
B) A generator or intermediate handler of zinc-bearing hazardous
secondary materials that are to be incorporated into zinc fertilizers
must fulfill the following conditions:
i) It must submit a one-time notice to the Agency that
contains the name, address, and USEPA identification
number of the generator or intermediate handler facility,
that provides a brief description of the secondary material
that will be subject to the exclusion, and which identifies
when the manufacturer intends to begin managing excluded
zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials under the
conditions specified in this subsection (a)(20).
ii) It must store the excluded secondary material in tanks,
containers, or buildings that are constructed and maintained
in a way which prevents releases of the secondary materials
into the environment. At a minimum, any building used for
this purpose must be an engineered structure made of non-
earthen materials that provide structural support, and it
must have a floor, walls, and a roof that prevent wind
dispersal and contact with rainwater. A tank used for this
purpose must be structurally sound and, if outdoors, it must
have a roof or cover that prevents contact with wind and
rain. A container used for this purpose must be kept
closed, except when it is necessary to add or remove
material, and it must be in sound condition. Containers that
137
are stored outdoors must be managed within storage areas
that fulfill the conditions of subsection (a)(20)(F) of this
Section:
iii) With each off-site shipment of excluded hazardous
secondary materials, it must provide written notice to the
receiving facility that the material is subject to the
conditions of this subsection (a)(20).
iv) It must maintain records at the generator’s or intermediate
handler’s facility for no less than three years of all
shipments of excluded hazardous secondary materials. For
each shipment these records must, at a minimum, contain
the information specified in subsection (a)(20)(G) of this
Section.
C) A manufacturer of zinc fertilizers or zinc fertilizer ingredients
made from excluded hazardous secondary materials must fulfill the
following conditions:
i) It must store excluded hazardous secondary materials in
accordance with the storage requirements for generators
and intermediate handlers, as specified in subsection
(a)(20)(B)(ii) of this Section.
ii) It must submit a one-time notification to the Agency that, at
a minimum, specifies the name, address, and USEPA
identification number of the manufacturing facility and
which identifies when the manufacturer intends to begin
managing excluded zinc-bearing hazardous secondary
materials under the conditions specified in this subsection
(a)(20).
iii) It must maintain for a minimum of three years records of
all shipments of excluded hazardous secondary materials
received by the manufacturer, which must at a minimum
identify for each shipment the name and address of the
generating facility, the name of transporter, and the date on
which the materials were received, the quantity received,
and a brief description of the industrial process that
generated the material.
iv) It must submit an annual report to the Agency that
identifies the total quantities of all excluded hazardous
secondary materials that were used to manufacture zinc
fertilizers or zinc fertilizer ingredients in the previous year,
138
the name and address of each generating facility, and the
industrial processes from which the hazardous secondary
materials were generated.
D) Nothing in this Section preempts, overrides, or otherwise negates
the provision in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.111 that requires any
person who generates a solid waste to determine if that waste is a
hazardous waste.
E) Interim status and permitted storage units that have been used to
store only zinc-bearing hazardous wastes prior to the submission
of the one-time notice described in subsection (a)(20)(B)(i) of this
Section, and that afterward will be used only to store hazardous
secondary materials excluded under this subsection (a)(20), are not
subject to the closure requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and
725.
F) A container used to store excluded secondary material must fulfill
the following conditions:
i) It must have containment structures or systems sufficiently
impervious to contain leaks, spills, and accumulated
precipitation;
ii) It must provide for effective drainage and removal of leaks,
spills, and accumulated precipitation; and
iii) It must prevent run-on into the containment system.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (a)(20)(F)(i) through (a)(20)(F)(iii)
are derived from 40 CFR 261.4(a)(20)(ii)(B)(
1
) through
(a)(20)(ii)(B)(
3
). The Board added the preamble to these federal
paragraphs as subsection (a)(20)(F) to comport with Illinois
Administrative Code codification requirements.
G) Required records of shipments of excluded hazardous secondary
materials must, at a minimum, contain the following information:
i) The name of the transporter and date of the shipment;
ii) The name and address of the facility that received the
excluded material, along with documentation confirming
receipt of the shipment; and
iii) The type and quantity of excluded secondary material in
each shipment.
139
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (a)(20)(G)(i) through (a)(20)(G)(iii)
are derived from 40 CFR 261.4(a)(20)(ii)(D)(
1
) through
(a)(20)(ii)(D)(
3
). The Board added the preamble to these federal
paragraphs as subsection (a)(20)(G) to comport with Illinois
Administrative Code codification requirements.
21) Zinc fertilizers made from hazardous wastes or hazardous secondary
materials that are excluded under subsection (a)(20) of this Section,
provided that the following conditions are fulfilled:
A) The fertilizers meet the following contaminant limits:
i) For metal contaminants:
Constituent Maximum Allowable Total Concentration
in Fertilizer, per Unit (1%) of Zinc (ppm)
Arsenic 0.3
Cadmium 1.4
Chromium 0.6
Lead 2.8
Mercury 0.3
ii) For dioxin contaminants, the fertilizer must contain no
more than eight parts per trillion of dioxin, measured as
toxic equivalent (TEQ).
B) The manufacturer performs sampling and analysis of the fertilizer
product to determine compliance with the contaminant limits for
metals no less frequently than once every six months, and for
dioxins no less frequently than once every 12 months. Testing
must also be performed whenever changes occur to manufacturing
processes or ingredients that could significantly affect the amounts
of contaminants in the fertilizer product. The manufacturer may
use any reliable analytical method to demonstrate that no
constituent of concern is present in the product at concentrations
above the applicable limits. It is the responsibility of the
manufacturer to ensure that the sampling and analysis are
unbiased, precise, and representative of the products introduced
into commerce.
C) The manufacturer maintains for no less than three years records of
all sampling and analyses performed for purposes of determining
compliance with the requirements of subsection (a)(21)(B) of this
Section. Such records must at a minimum include the following:
140
i) The dates and times product samples were taken, and the
dates the samples were analyzed;
ii) The names and qualifications of the persons taking the
samples;
iii) A description of the methods and equipment used to take
the samples;
iv) The name and address of the laboratory facility at which
analyses of the samples were performed;
v) A description of the analytical methods used, including any
cleanup and sample preparation methods; and
vi) All laboratory analytical results used to determine
compliance with the contaminant limits specified in this
subsection (a)(21).
b) Solid wastes that are not hazardous wastes. The following solid wastes are not
hazardous wastes:
1) Household waste, including household waste that has been collected,
transported, stored, treated, disposed, recovered (e.g., refuse-derived fuel),
or reused. “Household waste” means any waste material (including
garbage, trash, and sanitary wastes in septic tanks) derived from
households (including single and multiple residences, hotels, and motels,
bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds,
and day-use recreation areas). A resource recovery facility managing
municipal solid waste must not be deemed to be treating, storing,
disposing of, or otherwise managing hazardous wastes for the purposes of
regulation under this Part, if the following describe the facility:
A) The facility receives and burns only the following waste:
i) Household waste (from single and multiple dwellings,
hotels, motels, and other residential sources); or
ii) Solid waste from commercial or industrial sources that
does not contain hazardous waste; and
B) The facility does not accept hazardous waste and the owner or
operator of such facility has established contractual requirements
or other appropriate notification or inspection procedures to assure
that hazardous wastes are not received at or burned in such facility.
141
BOARD NOTE: The U.S. Supreme Court determined, in City of Chicago
v. Environmental Defense Fund, Inc., 511 U.S. 328, 114 S. Ct. 1588, 128
L. Ed. 2d 302 (1994), that this exclusion and RCRA section 3001(i) (42
USC 6921(i)) do not exclude the ash from facilities covered by this
subsection (b)(1) from regulation as a hazardous waste. At 59 Fed. Reg.
29372 (June 7, 1994), USEPA granted facilities managing ash from such
facilities that is determined a hazardous waste under Subpart C of this Part
until December 7, 1994 to file a Part A permit application pursuant to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 703.181. At 60 Fed. Reg. 6666 (Feb. 3, 1995), USEPA
stated that it interpreted that the point at which ash becomes subject to
RCRA Subtitle C regulation is when that material leaves the combustion
building (including connected air pollution control equipment).
2) Solid wastes generated by any of the following that are returned to the soil
as fertilizers:
A) The growing and harvesting of agricultural crops, or
B) The raising of animals, including animal manures.
3) Mining overburden returned to the mine site.
4) Fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control
waste generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil
fuels, except as provided in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.212 for facilities that
burn or process hazardous waste.
5) Drilling fluids, produced waters, and other wastes associated with the
exploration, development, or production of crude oil, natural gas, or
geothermal energy.
6) Chromium wastes.
A) Wastes that fail the test for the toxicity characteristic (Section
721.124 and Appendix B to this Part) because chromium is present
or which are listed in Subpart D of this Part due to the presence of
chromium, that do not fail the test for the toxicity characteristic for
any other constituent or which are not listed due to the presence of
any other constituent, and that do not fail the test for any other
characteristic, if the waste generator shows the following:
i) The chromium in the waste is exclusively (or nearly
exclusively) trivalent chromium;
ii) The waste is generated from an industrial process that uses
trivalent chromium exclusively (or nearly exclusively) and
142
the process does not generate hexavalent chromium; and
iii) The waste is typically and frequently managed in non-
oxidizing environments.
B) The following are specific wastes that meet the standard in
subsection (b)(6)(A) of this Section (so long as they do not fail the
test for the toxicity characteristic for any other constituent and do
not exhibit any other characteristic):
i) Chrome (blue) trimmings generated by the following
subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry:
hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish, no beamhouse,
through-the-blue, and shearling;
ii) Chrome (blue) shavings generated by the following
subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry:
hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish, no beamhouse,
through-the-blue, and shearling;
iii) Buffing dust generated by the following subcategories of
the leather tanning and finishing industry: hair
pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish, no beamhouse,
through-the-blue;
iv) Sewer screenings generated by the following subcategories
of the leather tanning and finishing industry: hair
pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish, no beamhouse,
through-the-blue, and shearling;
v) Wastewater treatment sludges generated by the following
subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry:
hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish, no beamhouse,
through-the-blue, and shearling;
vi) Wastewater treatment sludges generated by the following
subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry:
hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, and through-the-blue;
vii) Waste scrap leather from the leather tanning industry, the
143
shoe manufacturing industry, and other leather product
manufacturing industries; and
viii) Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of
titanium dioxide pigment using chromium-bearing ores by
the chloride process.
7) Solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and
minerals (including coal, phosphate rock, and overburden from the mining
of uranium ore), except as provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.212 for
facilities that burn or process hazardous waste.
A) For purposes of this subsection (b)(7), beneficiation of ores and
minerals is restricted to the following activities: crushing;
grinding; washing; dissolution; crystallization; filtration; sorting;
sizing; drying; sintering; pelletizing; briquetting; calcining to
remove water or carbon dioxide; roasting; autoclaving or
chlorination in preparation for leaching (except where the roasting
(or autoclaving or chlorination) and leaching sequence produces a
final or intermediate product that does not undergo further
beneficiation or processing); gravity concentration; magnetic
separation; electrostatic separation; floatation; ion exchange;
solvent extraction; electrowinning; precipitation; amalgamation;
and heap, dump, vat tank, and in situ leaching.
B) For the purposes of this subsection (b)(7), solid waste from the
processing of ores and minerals includes only the following wastes
as generated:
i) Slag from primary copper processing;
ii) Slag from primary lead processing;
iii) Red and brown muds from bauxite refining;
iv) Phosphogypsum from phosphoric acid production;
v) Slag from elemental phosphorus production;
vi) Gasifier ash from coal gasification;
vii) Process wastewater from coal gasification;
viii) Calcium sulfate wastewater treatment plant sludge from
primary copper processing;
144
ix) Slag tailings from primary copper processing;
x) Fluorogypsum from hydrofluoric acid production;
xi) Process wastewater from hydrofluoric acid production;
xii) Air pollution control dust or sludge from iron blast
furnaces;
xiii) Iron blast furnace slag;
xiv) Treated residue from roasting and leaching of chrome ore;
xv) Process wastewater from primary magnesium processing
by the anhydrous process;
xvi) Process wastewater from phosphoric acid production;
xvii) Basic oxygen furnace and open hearth furnace air pollution
control dust or sludge from carbon steel production;
xviii) Basic oxygen furnace and open hearth furnace slag from
carbon steel production;
xix) Chloride processing waste solids from titanium
tetrachloride production; and
xx) Slag from primary zinc production.
C) A residue derived from co-processing mineral processing
secondary materials with normal beneficiation raw materials or
with normal mineral processing raw materials remains excluded
under this subsection (b) if the following conditions are fulfilled:
i) The owner or operator processes at least 50 percent by
weight normal beneficiation raw materials or normal
mineral processing raw materials; and
ii) The owner or operator legitimately reclaims the secondary
mineral processing materials.
8) Cement kiln dust waste, except as provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.212
for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste.
9) Solid waste that consists of discarded arsenical-treated wood or wood
products that fails the test for the toxicity characteristic for hazardous
145
waste codes D004 through D017 and which is not a hazardous waste for
any other reason if the waste is generated by persons that utilize the
arsenical-treated wood and wood products for these materials’ intended
end use.
10) Petroleum-contaminated media and debris that fail the test for the toxicity
characteristic of Section 721.124 (hazardous waste codes D018 through
D043 only) and which are subject to corrective action regulations under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 731.
11) This subsection (b)(11) corresponds with 40 CFR 261.4(b)(11), which
expired by its own terms on January 25, 1993. This statement maintains
structural parity with USEPA regulations.
12) Used chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants from totally enclosed heat transfer
equipment, including mobile air conditioning systems, mobile
refrigeration, and commercial and industrial air conditioning and
refrigeration systems, that use chlorofluorocarbons as the heat transfer
fluid in a refrigeration cycle, provided the refrigerant is reclaimed for
further use.
13) Non-terne plated used oil filters that are not mixed with wastes listed in
Subpart D of this Part, if these oil filters have been gravity hot-drained
using one of the following methods:
A) Puncturing the filter anti-drain back valve or the filter dome end
and hot-draining;
B) Hot-draining and crushing;
C) Dismantling and hot-draining; or
D) Any other equivalent hot-draining method that will remove used
oil.
14) Used oil re-refining distillation bottoms that are used as feedstock to
manufacture asphalt products.
15) Leachate or gas condensate collected from landfills where certain solid
wastes have been disposed of, under the following circumstances:
A) The following conditions must be fulfilled:
i) The solid wastes disposed of would meet one or more of
the listing descriptions for the following USEPA hazardous
waste numbers that are generated after the effective date
146
listed for the waste:
USEPA Hazardous Waste
Numbers
Listing Effective
Date
K169, K170, K171, and K172
February 8, 1999
K174 and K175
May 7, 2001
K176, K177, and K178 May 20, 2002
U
K181
U
U
August 23, 2005
U
ii) The solid wastes described in subsection (b)(15)(A)(i) of
this Section were disposed of prior to the effective date of
the listing (as set forth in that subsection);
iii) The leachate or gas condensate does not exhibit any
characteristic of hazardous waste nor is derived from any
other listed hazardous waste; and
iv) Discharge of the leachate or gas condensate, including
leachate or gas condensate transferred from the landfill to a
POTW by truck, rail, or dedicated pipe, is subject to
regulation under section 307(b) or 402 of the federal Clean
Water Act.
B) Leachate or gas condensate derived from K169, K170, K171,
S
or
S
K172
U
,
U
S
waste will no longer be exempt if it is stored or managed in
a surface impoundment prior to discharge. After November 21,
2003, leachate or gas condensate derived from
S
K176, K177, or
K178 waste will no longer be exempt if it is stored or managed in a
surface impoundment prior to discharge.
U
After February 26, 2007,
leachate or gas condensate derived from K181 waste will no longer
be exempt if it is stored or managed in a surface impoundment
prior to discharge.
U
There is one exception: if the surface
impoundment is used to temporarily store leachate or gas
condensate in response to an emergency situation (e.g., shutdown
of wastewater treatment system), provided the impoundment has a
double liner, and provided the leachate or gas condensate is
removed from the impoundment and continues to be managed in
compliance with the conditions of this subsection (b)(15)
S
of this
Section
S
after the emergency ends.
c) Hazardous wastes that are exempted from certain regulations. A hazardous waste
that is generated in a product or raw material storage tank, a product or raw
147
material transport vehicle or vessel, a product or raw material pipeline, or in a
manufacturing process unit, or an associated non-waste-treatment manufacturing
unit, is not subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 722 through
725, and 728 or to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA until it
exits the unit in which it was generated, unless the unit is a surface impoundment,
or unless the hazardous waste remains in the unit more than 90 days after the unit
ceases to be operated for manufacturing or for storage or transportation of product
or raw materials.
d) Samples.
1) Except as provided in subsection (d)(2) of this Section, a sample of solid
waste or a sample of water, soil, or air that is collected for the sole
purpose of testing to determine its characteristics or composition is not
subject to any requirements of this Part or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703,
722 through 726, and 728. The sample qualifies when it fulfills one of the
following conditions:
A) The sample is being transported to a laboratory for the purpose of
testing;
B) The sample is being transported back to the sample collector after
testing;
C) The sample is being stored by the sample collector before transport
to a laboratory for testing;
D) The sample is being stored in a laboratory before testing;
E) The sample is being stored in a laboratory for testing but before it
is returned to the sample collector; or
F) The sample is being stored temporarily in the laboratory after
testing for a specific purpose (for example, until conclusion of a
court case or enforcement action where further testing of the
sample may be necessary).
2) In order to qualify for the exemption in subsection (d)(1)(A) or (d)(1)(B)
of this Section, a sample collector shipping samples to a laboratory and a
laboratory returning samples to a sample collector must do the following:
A) Comply with U.S. Department of Transportation (USDOT), U.S.
Postal Service (USPS), or any other applicable shipping
requirements; or
B) Comply with the following requirements if the sample collector
148
determines that USDOT, USPS, or other shipping requirements do
not apply to the shipment of the sample:
i) Assure that the following information accompanies the
sample: The sample collector’s name, mailing address, and
telephone number; the laboratory’s name, mailing address,
and telephone number; the quantity of the sample; the date
of the shipment; and a description of the sample; and
ii) Package the sample so that it does not leak, spill, or
vaporize from its packaging.
3) This exemption does not apply if the laboratory determines that the waste
is hazardous but the laboratory is no longer meeting any of the conditions
stated in subsection (d)(1) of this Section.
e) Treatability study samples.
1) Except as is provided in subsection (e)(2) of this Section, a person that
generates or collects samples for the purpose of conducting treatability
studies, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, are not subject to any
requirement of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 through 723 or to the notification
requirements of section 3010 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act. Nor are such samples included in the quantity determinations of
Section 721.105 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134(d) when:
A) The sample is being collected and prepared for transportation by
the generator or sample collector;
B) The sample is being accumulated or stored by the generator or
sample collector prior to transportation to a laboratory or testing
facility; or
C) The sample is being transported to the laboratory or testing facility
for the purpose of conducting a treatability study.
2) The exemption in subsection (e)(1) of this Section is applicable to samples
of hazardous waste being collected and shipped for the purpose of
conducting treatability studies provided that the following conditions are
fulfilled:
A) The generator or sample collector uses (in “treatability studies”) no
more than 10,000 kg of media contaminated with non-acute
hazardous waste,
S
1000
SU
1,000
U
kg of non-acute hazardous waste
other than contaminated media, 1 kg of acute hazardous waste, or
S
2500
SU
2,500
U
kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous waste
149
for each process being evaluated for each generated waste stream;
B) The mass of each shipment does not exceed 10,000 kg; the 10,000
kg quantity may be all media contaminated with non-acute
hazardous waste, or may include
S
2500
SU
2,500
U
kg of media
contaminated with acute hazardous waste,
S
1000
SU
1,000
U
kg of
hazardous waste, and 1 kg of acute hazardous waste;
C) The sample must be packaged so that it does not leak, spill, or
vaporize from its packaging during shipment and the requirements
of
S
subsections
SU
subsection
U
(e)(2)(C)(i) or (e)(2)(C)(ii) of this
Section are met.
i) The transportation of each sample shipment complies with
U.S. Department of Transportation (USDOT), U.S. Postal
Service (USPS), or any other applicable shipping
requirements; or
ii) If the USDOT, USPS, or other shipping requirements do
not apply to the shipment of the sample, the following
information must accompany the sample: The name,
mailing address, and telephone number of the originator of
the sample; the name, address, and telephone number of the
facility that will perform the treatability study; the quantity
of the sample; the date of the shipment; and, a description
of the sample, including its USEPA hazardous waste
number;
D) The sample is shipped to a laboratory or testing facility that is
exempt under subsection (f) of this Section, or has an appropriate
RCRA permit or interim status;
E) The generator or sample collector maintains the following records
for a period ending three years after completion of the treatability
study:
i) Copies of the shipping documents;
ii) A copy of the contract with the facility conducting the
treatability study; and
iii) Documentation showing the following: The amount of
waste shipped under this exemption; the name, address, and
USEPA identification number of the laboratory or testing
facility that received the waste; the date the shipment was
made; and whether or not unused samples and residues
150
were returned to the generator; and
F) The generator reports the information required in subsection
(e)(2)(E)(iii) of this Section in its report under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.141.
3) The Agency may grant requests on a case-by-case basis for up to an
additional two years for treatability studies involving bioremediation. The
Agency may grant requests, on a case-by-case basis, for quantity limits in
excess of those specified in subsections (e)(2)(A), (e)(2)(B), and (f)(4) of
this Section, for up to an additional
S
5000
SU
5,000
U
kg of media contaminated
with non-acute hazardous waste, 500 kg of non-acute hazardous waste,
S
2500
SU
2,500
U
kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous waste, and 1
kg of acute hazardous waste under the circumstances set forth in either
subsection (e)(3)(A) or (e)(3)(B) of this Section, subject to the limitations
of subsection (e)(3)(C) of this Section:
A) In response to requests for authorization to ship, store, and conduct
further treatability studies on additional quantities in advance of
commencing treatability studies. Factors to be considered in
reviewing such requests include the nature of the technology, the
type of process (e.g., batch versus continuous), the size of the unit
undergoing testing (particularly in relation to scale-up
considerations), the time or quantity of material required to reach
steady-state operating conditions, or test design considerations,
such as mass balance calculations.
B) In response to requests for authorization to ship, store, and conduct
treatability studies on additional quantities after initiation or
completion of initial treatability studies when the following
occurs: There has been an equipment or mechanical failure during
the conduct of the treatability study, there is need to verify the
results of a previously-conducted treatability study, there is a need
to study and analyze alternative techniques within a previously-
evaluated treatment process, or there is a need to do further
evaluation of an ongoing treatability study to determine final
specifications for treatment.
C) The additional quantities allowed and timeframes allowed in
subsections (e)(3)(A) and (e)(3)(B) of this Section are subject to all
the provisions in subsections (e)(1) and (e)(2)(B) through (e)(2)(F)
of this Section. The generator or sample collector must apply to
the Agency and provide in writing the following information:
i) The reason why the generator or sample collector requires
additional time or quantity of sample for the treatability
151
study evaluation and the additional time or quantity
needed;
ii) Documentation accounting for all samples of hazardous
waste from the waste stream that have been sent for or
undergone treatability studies, including the date each
previous sample from the waste stream was shipped, the
quantity of each previous shipment, the laboratory or
testing facility to which it was shipped, what treatability
study processes were conducted on each sample shipped,
and the available results of each treatability study;
iii) A description of the technical modifications or change in
specifications that will be evaluated and the expected
results;
iv) If such further study is being required due to equipment or
mechanical failure, the applicant must include information
regarding the reason for the failure or breakdown and also
include what procedures or equipment improvements have
been made to protect against further breakdowns; and
v) Such other information as the Agency determines is
necessary.
4) Final Agency determinations pursuant to this subsection (e) may be
appealed to the Board.
f) Samples undergoing treatability studies at laboratories or testing facilities.
Samples undergoing treatability studies and the laboratory or testing facility
conducting such treatability studies (to the extent such facilities are not otherwise
subject to RCRA requirements) are not subject to any requirement of this Part, or
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 722 through 726, and 728 or to the notification
requirements of Section 3010 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act,
provided that the requirements of subsections (f)(1) through (f)(11) of this Section
are met. A mobile treatment unit may qualify as a testing facility subject to
subsections (f)(1) through (f)(11) of this Section. Where a group of mobile
treatment units are located at the same site, the limitations specified in
subsections (f)(1) through (f)(11) of this Section apply to the entire group of
mobile treatment units collectively as if the group were one mobile treatment unit.
1) No less than 45 days before conducting treatability studies, the facility
notifies the Agency in writing that it intends to conduct treatability studies
under this subsection (f).
2) The laboratory or testing facility conducting the treatability study has a
152
USEPA identification number.
3) No more than a total of 10,000 kg of “as received” media contaminated
with non-acute hazardous waste,
S
2500
SU
2,500
U
kg of media contaminated
with acute hazardous waste, or 250 kg of other “as received” hazardous
waste is subject to initiation of treatment in all treatability studies in any
single day. “As received” waste refers to the waste as received in the
shipment from the generator or sample collector.
4) The quantity of “as received” hazardous waste stored at the facility for the
purpose of evaluation in treatability studies does not exceed 10,000 kg, the
total of which can include 10,000 kg of media contaminated with non-
acute hazardous waste,
S
2500
SU
2,500
U
kg of media contaminated with acute
hazardous waste,
S
1000
SU
1,000
U
kg of non-acute hazardous wastes other than
contaminated media, and 1 kg of acute hazardous waste. This quantity
limitation does not include treatment materials (including non-hazardous
solid waste) added to “as received” hazardous waste.
5) No more than 90 days have elapsed since the treatability study for the
sample was completed, or no more than one year (two years for
treatability studies involving bioremediation) has elapsed since the
generator or sample collector shipped the sample to the laboratory or
testing facility, whichever date first occurs. Up to 500 kg of treated
material from a particular waste stream from treatability studies may be
archived for future evaluation up to five years from the date of initial
receipt. Quantities of materials archived are counted against the total
storage limit for the facility.
6) The treatability study does not involve the placement of hazardous waste
on the land or open burning of hazardous waste.
7) The facility maintains records for three years following completion of
each study that show compliance with the treatment rate limits and the
storage time and quantity limits. The following specific information must
be included for each treatability study conducted:
A) The name, address, and USEPA identification number of the
generator or sample collector of each waste sample;
B) The date the shipment was received;
C) The quantity of waste accepted;
D) The quantity of “as received” waste in storage each day;
E) The date the treatment study was initiated and the amount of “as
153
received” waste introduced to treatment each day;
F) The date the treatability study was concluded;
G) The date any unused sample or residues generated from the
treatability study were returned to the generator or sample
collector or, if sent to a designated facility, the name of the facility
and the USEPA identification number.
8) The facility keeps, on-site, a copy of the treatability study contract and all
shipping papers associated with the transport of treatability study samples
to and from the facility for a period ending three years from the
completion date of each treatability study.
9) The facility prepares and submits a report to the Agency by March 15 of
each year that estimates the number of studies and the amount of waste
expected to be used in treatability studies during the current year, and
includes the following information for the previous calendar year:
A) The name, address, and USEPA identification number of the
facility conducting the treatability studies;
B) The types (by process) of treatability studies conducted;
C) The names and addresses of persons for whom studies have been
conducted (including their USEPA identification numbers);
D) The total quantity of waste in storage each day;
E) The quantity and types of waste subjected to treatability studies;
F) When each treatability study was conducted; and
G) The final disposition of residues and unused sample from each
treatability study.
10) The facility determines whether any unused sample or residues generated
by the treatability study are hazardous waste under Section 721.103 and, if
so, are subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 721 through 728, unless
the residues and unused samples are returned to the sample originator
under the exemption of subsection (e) of this Section.
11) The facility notifies the Agency by letter when the facility is no longer
planning to conduct any treatability studies at the site.
g) Dredged material that is not a hazardous waste. Dredged material that is subject to
154
the requirements of a permit that has been issued under section 404 of the Federal
Water Pollution Control Act (33 USC 1344) is not a hazardous waste. For the
purposes of this subsection (g), the following definitions apply:
“Dredged material” has the
S
same
S
meaning
S
as
SU
ascribed it
U
in 40 CFR 232.2
U
(Definitions)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(b)
U
.
“Permit” means any of the following:
A permit issued by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (Army Corps)
under section 404 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33
USC 1344);
A permit issued by the Army Corps under section 103 of the Marine
Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972 (33 USC 1413);
or
In the case of Army Corps civil works projects, the administrative
equivalent of the permits referred to in the preceding two paragraphs
of this definition, as provided for in Army Corps regulations (for
example, see 33 CFR 336.1, 336.2, and 337.6).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.105 Special Requirements for Hazardous Waste Generated by Small Quantity
Generators
a) A generator is a conditionally exempt small quantity generator in a calendar
month if it generates no more than 100 kilograms of hazardous waste in that
month.
b) Except for those wastes identified in subsections (e), (f), (g), and (j) of this
Section, a conditionally exempt small quantity generator’s hazardous wastes are
not subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 722 through 726, and
728, and the notification requirements of section 3010 of Resource Conservation
and Recovery Act, provided the generator complies with the requirements of
subsections (f), (g), and (j) of this Section.
c) When making the quantity determinations of this Part and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722,
the generator must include all hazardous waste that it generates, except the
following hazardous waste:
1) Hazardous waste that is exempt from regulation under Section 721.104(c)
through (f), 721.106(a)(3), 721.107(a)(1), or 721.108;
155
2) Hazardous waste that is managed immediately upon generation only in on-
site elementary neutralization units, wastewater treatment units, or totally
enclosed treatment facilities, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110;
3) Hazardous waste that is recycled, without prior storage or accumulation,
only in an on-site process subject to regulation under Section
721.106(c)(2);
4) Hazardous waste that is used oil managed under the requirements of
Section 721.106(a)(4) and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739;
5) Hazardous waste that is spent lead-acid batteries managed under the
requirements of Subpart G of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726; and
6) Hazardous waste that is universal waste managed under Section 721.109
and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.
d) In determining the quantity of hazardous waste it generates, a generator need not
include the following:
1) Hazardous waste when it is removed from on-site storage;
2) Hazardous waste produced by on-site treatment (including reclamation) of
its hazardous waste so long as the hazardous waste that is treated was
counted once;
3) Spent materials that are generated, reclaimed, and subsequently reused on-
site, so long as such spent materials have been counted once.
e) If a generator generates acute hazardous waste in a calendar month in quantities
greater than those set forth in subsections (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this Section, all
quantities of that acute hazardous waste are subject to full regulation under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, 722 through 726, and 728, and the notification requirements
of section 3010 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act.
1) A total of one kilogram of one or more of the acute hazardous wastes
listed in Section 721.131, 721.132, or 721.133(e); or
2) A total of 100 kilograms of any residue or contaminated soil, waste, or
other debris resulting from the clean-up of a spill, into or on any land or
water, of any one or more of the acute hazardous wastes listed in Section
721.131, 721.132, or 721.133(e).
BOARD NOTE: “Full regulation” means those regulations applicable to
generators of greater than
S
1000
SU
1,000
U
kg of non-acute hazardous waste in a
calendar month.
156
f) In order for acute hazardous wastes generated by a generator of acute hazardous
wastes in quantities equal to or less than those set forth in subsection (e)(1) or
(e)(2) of this Section to be excluded from full regulation under this Section, the
generator must comply with the following requirements:
1) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.111.
2) The generator may accumulate acute hazardous waste on-site. If the
generator accumulates at any time acute hazardous wastes in quantities
greater than set forth in subsection (e)(1) or (e)(2) of this Section, all of
those accumulated wastes are subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, 722 through 726, and 728, and the applicable notification
requirements of section 3010 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act. The time period of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134(a), for accumulation
of wastes on-site, begins when the accumulated wastes exceed the
applicable exclusion limit.
3) A conditionally exempt small quantity generator may either treat or
dispose of its acute hazardous waste in an on-site facility or ensure
delivery to an off-site treatment, storage, or disposal facility, any of
which, if located in the United States, meets any of the following
conditions:
A) The facility is permitted under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702 and 703;
B) The facility has interim status under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703,
and 725;
C) The facility is authorized to manage hazardous waste by a state
with a hazardous waste management program approved by USEPA
pursuant to 40 CFR 271;
D) The facility is permitted, licensed, or registered by a state to
manage municipal solid waste and, if managed in a municipal solid
waste landfill facility, the landfill is subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
810 through 814 or
U
federal
U
40 CFR 258;
E) The facility is permitted, licensed, or registered by a state to
manage non-municipal non-hazardous waste and, if managed in a
non-municipal non-hazardous waste disposal unit, the unit is
subject to the requirements of
U
federal
U
40 CFR 257.5 through
257.30;
BOARD NOTE: The Illinois non-hazardous waste landfill
regulations, 35 Ill. Adm. Code 810 through 814, do not allow the
157
disposal of hazardous waste in a landfill regulated under those
rules. The Board intends that subsections (f)(3)(D) and (f)(3)(E)
of this Section impose a federal requirement on the hazardous
waste generator. The Board specifically does not intend that these
subsections authorize any disposal of conditionally-exempt small
quantity generator waste in a landfill not specifically permitted to
accept the particular hazardous waste.
F) The facility is one that fulfills one of the following conditions:
i) It beneficially uses or reuses or legitimately recycles or
reclaims its waste; or
ii) It treats its waste prior to beneficial use or reuse or
legitimate recycling or reclamation; or
G) For universal waste managed under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733 or
U
federal
U
40 CFR 273, the facility is a universal waste handler or
destination facility subject to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 733 or
U
federal
U
40 CFR 273.
g) In order for hazardous waste generated by a conditionally exempt small quantity
generator in quantities of less than 100 kilograms of hazardous waste during a
calendar month to be excluded from full regulation under this Section, the
generator must comply with the following requirements:
1) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.111;
2) The conditionally exempt small quantity generator may accumulate
hazardous waste on-site. If it accumulates at any time more than a total of
S
1000
SU
1,000
U
kilograms of the generator’s hazardous waste, all of those
accumulated wastes are subject to regulation under the special provisions
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722 applicable to generators of between 100 kg and
S
1000
SU
1,000
U
kg of hazardous waste in a calendar month, as well as the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 723 through 726, and 728,
and the applicable notification requirements of Section 3010 of the
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act. The time period of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722.134(d) for accumulation of wastes on-site begins for a
small quantity generator when the accumulated wastes exceed
S
1000
SU
1,000
U
kilograms;
3) A conditionally exempt small quantity generator may either treat or
dispose of its hazardous waste in an on-site facility or ensure delivery to
an off-site treatment, storage, or disposal facility, any of which, if located
in the United States, meets any of the following conditions:
158
A) The facility is permitted under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702 and 703;
B) The facility has interim status under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703,
and 725;
C) The facility is authorized to manage hazardous waste by a state
with a hazardous waste management program approved by USEPA
S
under
SU
pursuant to
U
40 CFR 271
S
(2002)
S
;
D) The facility is permitted, licensed, or registered by a state to
manage municipal solid waste and, if managed in a municipal solid
waste landfill facility, the landfill is subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
810 through 814 or
U
federal
U
40 CFR 258;
E) The facility is permitted, licensed, or registered by a state to
manage non-municipal non-hazardous waste and, if managed in a
non-municipal non-hazardous waste disposal unit, the unit is
subject to the requirements of
U
federal
U
40 CFR 257.5 through
257.30;
BOARD NOTE: The Illinois non-hazardous waste landfill
regulations, 35 Ill. Adm. Code 810 through 814, do not allow the
disposal of hazardous waste in a landfill regulated under those
rules. The Board intends that subsections (g)(3)(D) and (g)(3)(E)
of this Section impose a federal requirement on the hazardous
waste generator. The Board specifically does not intend that these
subsections authorize any disposal of conditionally-exempt small
quantity generator waste in a landfill not specifically permitted to
accept the particular hazardous waste.
F) The facility is one that fulfills the following conditions:
i) It beneficially uses or re-uses, or legitimately recycles or
reclaims the small quantity generator’s waste; or
ii) It treats its waste prior to beneficial use or re-use or
legitimate recycling or reclamation; or
G) For universal waste managed under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733 or
U
federal
U
40 CFR 273, the facility is a universal waste handler or
destination facility subject to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 733 or
U
federal
U
40 CFR 273.
h) Hazardous waste subject to the reduced requirements of this Section may be
mixed with non-hazardous waste and remain subject to these reduced
requirements even though the resultant mixture exceeds the quantity limitations
159
identified in this Section, unless the mixture meets any of the characteristics of
hazardous wastes identified in Subpart C of this Part.
i) If a small quantity generator mixes a solid waste with a hazardous waste that
exceeds a quantity exclusion level of this Section, the mixture is subject to full
regulation.
j) If a conditionally exempt small quantity generator’s hazardous wastes are mixed
with used oil, the mixture is subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739. Any material
produced from such a mixture by processing, blending, or other treatment is also
so regulated.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.107 Residues of Hazardous Waste in Empty Containers
a) Applicability of rules.
1) Any hazardous waste remaining in either an empty container or an inner
liner removed from an empty container, as defined in subsection (b)
U
of this
Section
U
, is not subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 721
through 725, or 728, or to the notification requirements of Section 3010 of
the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act.
2) Any hazardous waste in either a container that is not empty or an inner
liner that is removed from a container that is not empty, as defined in
subsection (b)
U
of this Section
U
, is subject to regulations under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, 721 through 725, and 728 and to the notification
requirements of Section 3010 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act.
b) Definition of “empty”:
1) A container or an inner liner removed from a container that has held any
hazardous waste, except a waste that is a compressed gas or that is
identified as an acute hazardous waste listed in Sections 721.131, 721.132,
or 721.133(e), is empty if the conditions of subsections (b)(1)(A) and
(b)(1)(B) of this Section exist, subject to the limitations of subsection
(b)(1)(C) of this Section:
A) All wastes have been removed that can be removed using the
practices commonly employed to remove materials from that type
of container, e.g., pouring, pumping, and aspirating, and
B) No more than 2.5 centimeters (one inch) of residue remain on the
bottom of the container or inner liner, or
160
C) Weight limits.
i) No more than three percent by weight of the total capacity
of the container remains in the container or inner liner if
the container is less than or equal to 110 gallons
U
(416 liters)
U
in size,
U
until September 5, 2006, or 119 gallons (450 liters)
in size, effective September 5, 2006;
U
or
ii) No more than 0.3 percent by weight of the total capacity of
the container remains in the container or inner liner if the
container is greater than 110 gallons
U
(416 liters)
U
in size
U
,
until September 5, 2006, or 119 gallons (450 liters) in size,
effective September 5, 2006
U
.
2) A container that has held a hazardous waste that is a compressed gas is
empty when the pressure in the container approaches ambient atmospheric
pressure.
3) A container or an inner liner removed from a container that has held an
acute hazardous waste listed in
S
Sections
SU
Section
U
721.131, 721.132, or
721.133(e) is empty if any of the following occurs:
A) The container or inner liner has been triple rinsed using a solvent
capable of removing the commercial chemical product or
manufacturing chemical intermediate;
B) The container or inner liner has been cleaned by another method
that has been shown in the scientific literature, or by tests
conducted by the generator, to achieve equivalent removal; or
C) In the case of a container, the inner liner that prevented contact of
the commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical
intermediate with the container has been removed.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.108 PCB Wastes Regulated under TSCA
Polychlorinatedbiphenyl-(PCB-)containing dielectric fluid and electric equipment containing
such fluid
S
that are authorized for use and regulated under 40 CFR 761 and which are hazardous
only because they fail the test for toxicity characteristic (hazardous waste codes D018 through
D043 only),
S
are exempt from regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 721 through 725, and
728, and from the notification requirements of Section 3010 of the Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act
S
.
SU
if the following conditions are fulfilled with regard to the fluid:
161
U
a) The fluid is authorized for use and regulated pursuant to federal 40 CFR 761; and
U
b) The fluid is hazardous only because it fails the test for toxicity characteristic
(hazardous waste codes D018 through D043 only).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART B: CRITERIA FOR IDENTIFYING THE CHARACTERISTICS OF
HAZARDOUS WASTE AND FOR LISTING HAZARDOUS WASTES
Section 721.110 Criteria for Identifying the Characteristics of Hazardous Waste
a) USEPA stated in corresponding
U
federal
U
40 CFR 261.10 that it identifies and
defines a characteristic of hazardous waste in Subpart C of this Part only upon
determining the following:
1) That a solid waste that exhibits the characteristic may do either of the
following:
A) It could cause, or significantly contribute to, an increase in
mortality or an increase in serious irreversible, or incapacitating
reversible, illness; or
B) It could pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human
health or the environment when it is improperly treated, stored,
transported, disposed of or otherwise managed; and
2) That the characteristic can be as follows:
A) It can be measured by an available standardized test method that is
reasonable within the capability of generators of solid waste or
private sector laboratories that are available to serve generators of
solid waste; or
B) It can reasonably be detected by generators of solid waste through
their knowledge of their waste.
b) Delisting procedures are contained in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.122.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.111 Criteria for Listing Hazardous Waste
a) USEPA stated in corresponding
U
federal
U
40 CFR 261.11 that it lists a solid waste
as a hazardous waste only upon determining that the solid waste meets one of the
following criteria:
162
1) The solid waste exhibits any of the characteristics of hazardous waste
identified in Subpart C of this Part; or
2) Acute hazardous waste. The solid waste has been found to be fatal to
humans in low doses or, in the absence of data on human toxicity, it has
been shown in studies to have an oral LD 50 toxicity (rat) of less than 50
mg/kg, an inhalation LC 50 toxicity (rat) of less than 2
S
mg/L
SU
mg/
ℓ
U
, or a
dermal LD 50 toxicity (rabbit) of less than 200 mg/kg or is otherwise
capable of causing or significantly contributing to an increase in serious
irreversible or incapacitating reversible, illness.
BOARD NOTE: Waste listed in accordance with these criteria are
designated Acute Hazardous Waste.
3) Toxic waste. The solid waste contains any of the toxic constituents listed
in Appendix H of this Part and, after considering the following factors,
USEPA concludes that the waste is capable of posing a substantial present
or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly
treated, stored, transported, or disposed of, or otherwise managed:
BOARD NOTE: Substances are listed in Appendix H of this Part only if
they have been shown in scientific studies to have toxic, carcinogenic,
mutagenic, or teratogenic effects on humans or other life forms.
A) The nature of the toxicity presented by the constituent;
B) The concentration of the constituent in the waste;
C) The potential of the constituent or any toxic degradation product of
the constituent to migrate from the waste into the environment
under the types of improper management considered in subsection
(a)(3)(G) of this Section;
D) The persistence of the constituent or any toxic degradation product
of the constituent;
E) The potential for the constituent or any toxic degradation product
of the constituent to degrade into nonharmful constituents and the
rate of degradation;
F) The degree to which the constituent or any degradation product of
the constituent bioaccumulates in ecosystems;
G) The plausible types of improper management to which the waste
could be subjected;
163
H) The quantities of the waste generated at individual generation sites
or on a regional or national basis;
I) The nature and severity of the human health and environmental
damage that has occurred as a result of the improper management
of the wastes containing the constituent;
J) Action taken by other governmental agencies or regulatory
programs based on the health or environmental hazard posed by
the waste or waste constituent; and
K) Such other factors as may be appropriate.
BOARD NOTE: Wastes listed in accordance with these criteria are
designated toxic wastes.
b) USEPA stated in corresponding
U
federal
U
40 CFR 261.11(b) that it may list classes
or types of solid waste as hazardous waste if USEPA has reason to believe that
individual wastes, within the class or type of waste, typically or frequently are
hazardous under the definition of hazardous waste found in Section 1004(5) of the
U
federal
U
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (42 USC 6904(5)).
c) USEPA will use the criteria for listing specified in this Section to establish the
exclusion limits referred to in Section 721.105(c).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART C: CHARACTERISTICS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section 721.121 Characteristic of Ignitability
a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of ignitability if a representative sample
of the waste has any of the following properties:
1) It is a liquid, other than an aqueous solution containing less than 24
percent alcohol by volume, and has a flash point less than 60°C (140°F),
as determined by a Pensky-Martens Closed Cup Tester, using the test
method specified in ASTM
S
D-93
SU
D 93-85 (Standard Test Methods for
Flash Point by Pensky-Martens Closed Tester)
U
,
S
incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111,
S
or a Setaflash Closed Cup Tester, using the
test method specified in ASTM
S
Standard D-3828
SU
D 3828-87, (Standard
Test Methods for Flash Point of Liquids by Setaflash Closed Tester)
U
,
U
each
U
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
U
720.111(a)
U
S
, or as
determined by an equivalent test method approved by the Board (35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.120)
S
.
164
2) It is not a liquid and is capable, under standard temperature and pressure,
of causing fire through friction, absorption of moisture, or spontaneous
chemical changes and, when ignited, burns so vigorously and persistently
that it creates a hazard.
3) It is
S
an ignitable compressed
SU
a flammable
U
gas, as defined in
U
federal
U
49
CFR
S
173.300
SU
173.115 (Class 2, Divisions 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3--Definitions)
U
,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
U
720.111(b)
U
, and
as determined by the test methods described in that regulation or
equivalent test methods approved by the Board (35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.120).
U
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR 261.21(a)(3) cites to 49 CFR
173.300 for a definition of “ignitable compressed gas.” That provision has
been removed by USDOT, and it is marked “reserved.” 49 CFR 173.115
now defines a “flammable gas” as a Division 2.1 material. The Board has
updated the Illinois provision to correspond with the current USDOT
regulations.
4) It is an oxidizer, as defined in
U
federal
U
49 CFR
S
173.151
SU
173.127 (Class 5,
Division 5.1--Definition and Assignment of Packaging Groups)
U
,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(b)
U
.
U
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR 261.21 cites to 49 CFR 173.151
for a definition of “oxidizer.” 49 CFR 173.127 classifies an oxidizer as a
Division 5.1 material. The Board has updated the Illinois provision to
correspond with the current USDOT regulations.
b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of ignitability has the USEPA
hazardous waste number of D001.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.122 Characteristic of Corrosivity
a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity if a representative sample
of the waste has either of the following properties:
1) It is aqueous and has a pH less than or equal to 2 or greater than or equal
to 12.5, as determined by a pH meter using Method
S
9040
SU
9040C (pH
Electrometric Measurement)
U
in “Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
U
USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846,
U
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(a)
U
.
165
2) It is a liquid and corrodes steel (SAE 1020) at a rate greater than 6.35 mm
(0.250 inch) per year at a test temperature of 55° C (130° F)
U
,
U
as
determined by
S
the test method specified in NACE (National Association
of Corrosion Engineers) Standard TM-01-69 as standardized in
SU
Method
1110A (Corrosivity Toward Steel) in
U
“Test Methods for the Evaluation of
Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
U
USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846,
U
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(a)
U
.
BOARD NOTE: The corrosivity characteristic determination currently
does not apply to non-liquid wastes, as discussed by USEPA at 45 Fed.
Reg. 33109, May 19, 1980 and at 55 Fed. Reg. 22549, June 1, 1990.
b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity has the USEPA
hazardous waste number of D002.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.123 Characteristic of Reactivity
a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of reactivity if a representative sample of
the waste has any of the following properties:
1) It is normally unstable and readily undergoes violent change without
detonating.
2) It reacts violently with water.
3) It forms potentially explosive mixtures with water.
4) When mixed with water, it generates toxic gases, vapors, or fumes in a
quantity sufficient to present a danger to human health or the environment.
5) It is a cyanide or sulfide bearing waste which, when exposed to pH
conditions between 2 and 12.5 can generate toxic gases, vapors, or fumes
in a quantity sufficient to present a danger to human health or the
environment.
6) It is capable of detonation or explosive reaction if it is subjected to a
strong initiating source or if heated under confinement.
7) It is readily capable of detonation or explosive decomposition or reaction
at standard temperature and pressure.
8) It is a forbidden explosive
U
,
U
as defined in
U
federal
U
49 CFR
S
173.51,
SU
173.54
(Forbidden Explosives)
U
or a
S
Class A
S
U
Division 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3
U
explosive
U
,
U
as
166
defined in 49 CFR
S
173.53
SU
173.50 (Class 1--Definitions),
U
S
or a Class B
explosive, as defined in 49 CFR 173.88,
S
U
each
U
incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(b)
U
.
U
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR 261.23 cites to 49 CFR 173.51
for a definition of “forbidden explosive,” to 49 CFR 173.53 for a
definition of “Class A explosive,” and to 49 CFR 173.88 for a definition
of “Class B explosive.” 49 CFR 173.54 now sets forth the definition of
“forbidden explosive,” and 49 CFR 173.53 explains that what were once
Class A explosives and Class B explosives are now classified as Division
1.1, Division 1.2, and Division 1.3 materials. The Board has updated the
Illinois provision to correspond with the current USDOT regulations.
b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of reactivity has the USEPA
hazardous waste number of D003.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.124 Toxicity Characteristic
a) A solid waste (except manufactured gas plant waste) exhibits the characteristic of
toxicity if, using
S
the Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP), test
S
Method 1311
U
(Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP))
U
in “Test
Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
SU
publication number EPA-530/
U
SW-846, as incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(a)
U
, the extract from a representative sample
of the waste contains any of the contaminants listed in the table in subsection (b)
of this Section at a concentration equal to or greater than the respective value
given in that table. Where the waste contains less than 0.5 percent filterable
solids, the waste itself, after filtering using the methodology outlined in Method
1311, is considered to be the extract for the purpose of this Section.
BOARD NOTE: The reference to the “EP toxicity test” in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
808.410(b)(4) is to be understood as referencing the test required by this Section.
b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of toxicity has the USEPA hazardous
waste number specified in the following table that corresponds to the toxic
contaminant causing it to be hazardous.
167
MAXIMUM CONCENTRATION OF CONTAMINANTS FOR
THE TOXICITY CHARACTERISTIC
USEPA
Hazardous
Waste No. Contaminant CAS Number Note
Regulatory
Level
(
S
mg/L
SU
mg/
ℓ
U
)
D004 Arsenic 7440-38-2 5.0
D005 Barium 7440-39-3 100.0
D018 Benzene 71-43-2 0.5
D006 Cadmium 7440-43-9 1.0
D019 Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.5
D020 Chlordane 57-74-9 0.03
D021 Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 100.0
D022 Chloroform 67-66-3 6.0
D007 Chromium 7440-47-3 5.0
D023 o-Cresol 95-48-7 2 200.0
D024 m-Cresol 108-39-4 2 200.0
D025 p-Cresol 106-44-5 2 200.0
D026 Cresol 2 200.0
D016 2,4-D 94-75-7 10.0
D027 1,4-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 7.5
D028 1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.5
D029 1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.7
D030 2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 1 0.13
D012 Endrin 72-20-8 0.02
D031 Heptachlor (and its
epoxide)
76-44-8 0.008
D032 Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 1 0.13
D033 Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.5
D034 Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 3.0
D008 Lead 7439-92-1 5.0
D013 Lindane 58-89-9 0.4
D009 Mercury 7439-97-6 0.2
D014 Methoxychlor 72-43-5 10.0
D035 Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 200.0
D036 Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 2.0
D037 Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 100.0
D038 Pyridine 110-86-1 1 5.0
D010 Selenium 7782-49-2 1.0
D011 Silver 7440-22-4 5.0
D039 Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.7
D015 Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.5
D040 Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.5
D041 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 400.0
D042 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 2.0
168
D017 2,4,5-TP (Silvex) 93-72-1 1.0
D043 Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.2
Notes to Table:
1 Quantitation limit is greater than the calculated regulatory level. The
quantitation limit therefore becomes the regulatory level.
2 If o-, m-, p-cresol concentrations cannot be differentiated, the total cresol
(D026) concentration is used. The regulatory level of total cresol is 200.0
S
mg/L
SU
mg/
ℓ
U
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART D: LISTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section 721.130 General
a) A solid waste is a hazardous waste if it is listed in this Subpart D, unless it has
been excluded from this list
S
under
SU
pursuant to
U
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120 and
720.122.
b) The basis for listing the classes or types of wastes listed in this Subpart D is
indicated by employing one or more of the following hazard codes:
1) Hazard Codes.
A) Ignitable waste (I)
B) Corrosive waste (C)
C) Reactive waste (R)
D) Toxicity Characteristic waste (E)
E) Acute hazardous waste (H)
F) Toxic waste (T)
2) Appendix G of this Part identifies the constituent that caused the
Administrator to list the waste as a toxicity characteristic waste (E) or
toxic waste (T) in Sections 721.131 and 721.132.
c) Each hazardous waste listed in this Subpart D is assigned
S
an
SU
a
U
USEPA hazardous
waste number that precedes the name of the waste. This number must be used in
complying with the
U
federal
U
notification requirements of
S
Section
SU
section
U
3010 of
169
RCRA (42 USC 6910) and certain recordkeeping and reporting requirements
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 722 through 725, and 728 and
U
federal
U
40 CFR
122.
d) The following hazardous wastes listed in Section 721.131 or 721.132 are subject
to the exclusion limits for acute hazardous wastes established in Section 721.105:
hazardous wastes numbers F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.132 Hazardous Waste from Specific Sources
U
a)
U
The following solid wastes are listed hazardous wastes from specific sources
unless they are excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120 and 720.122 and listed
in Appendix I of this Part.
USEPA
Hazardous
Waste No. Industry and Hazardous Waste
Hazard
Code
Wood Preservation Process Wastes:
K001 Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of
wastewaters from wood preserving processes that use
creosote or pentachlorophenol.
(T)
Inorganic Pigments Production Wastes:
K002 Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of
chrome yellow and orange pigments.
(T)
K003 Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of
molybdate orange pigments.
(T)
K004 Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of zinc
yellow pigments.
(T)
K005 Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of
chrome green pigments.
(T)
K006 Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of
chrome oxide green pigments (anhydrous and hydrated).
(T)
K007 Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of iron
blue pigments.
(T)
170
K008 Oven residue from the production of chrome oxide green
pigments.
(T)
Organic Chemicals Production Wastes:
K009 Distillation bottoms from the production of acetaldehyde
from ethylene.
(T)
K010 Distillation side cuts from the production of acetaldehyde
from ethylene.
(T)
K011 Bottom stream from the wastewater stripper in the
production of acrylonitrile.
(R, T)
K013 Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column in the
production of acrylonitrile.
(T)
K014 Bottoms from the acetonitrile purification column in the
production of acrylonitrile.
(T)
K015 Still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride. (T)
K016 Heavy ends or distillation residues from the production
of carbon tetrachloride.
(T)
K017 Heavy ends (still bottoms) from the purification column
in the production of epichlorohydrin.
(T)
K018 Heavy ends from the fractionation column in ethyl
chloride production.
(T)
K019 Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene dichloride in
ethylene dichloride production.
(T)
K020 Heavy ends from the distillation of vinyl chloride in
vinyl chloride monomer production.
(T)
K021 Aqueous spent antimony catalyst waste from
fluoromethanes production.
(T)
K022 Distillation bottom tars from the production of
phenol/acetone from cumene.
(T)
K023 Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic
anhydride from naphthalene.
(T)
171
K024 Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic
anhydride from naphthalene.
(T)
K093 Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic
anhydride from ortho-xylene.
(T)
K094 Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic
anhydride from ortho-xylene.
(T)
K025 Distillation bottoms from the production of nitrobenzene
by the nitration of benzene.
(T)
K026 Stripping still tails from the production of methyl ethyl
pyridines.
(T)
K027 Centrifuge and distillation residues from toluene di-
isocyanate production.
(R, T)
K028 Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator reactor in the
production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
(T)
K029 Waste from the product stream stripper in the production
of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
(T)
K095 Distillation bottoms from the production of 1,1,1-tri-
chloroethane.
(T)
K096 Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from the
production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
(T)
K030 Column bottoms or heavy ends from the combined
production of trichloroethylene and perchloroethylene.
(T)
K083 Distillation bottoms from aniline production. (T)
K103 Process residues from aniline extraction from the
production of aniline.
(T)
K104 Combined wastewater streams generated from
nitrobenzene/aniline production.
(T)
K085 Distillation or fractionation column bottoms from the
production of chlorobenzenes.
(T)
K105 Separated aqueous stream from the reactor product
washing step in the production of chlorobenzenes.
(T)
172
K107 Column bottoms from product separation from the
production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from
carboxylic acid hydrazides.
(C, T)
K108 Condensed column overheads from product separation
and condensed reactor vent gases from the production of
1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid
hydrazides.
(I, T)
K109 Spent filter cartridges from the product purification from
the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from
carboxylic acid hydrazides.
(T)
K110 Condensed column overheads from intermediate
separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine
(UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
(T)
K111 Product wastewaters from the production of di-
nitrotoluene via nitration of toluene.
(C, T)
K112 Reaction by-product water from the drying column in the
production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of di-
nitrotoluene.
(T)
K113 Condensed liquid light ends from the purification of
toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via
hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
(T)
K114 Vicinals from the purification of toluenediamine in the
production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of
dinitrotoluene.
(T)
K115 Heavy ends from the purification of toluenediamine in
the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of
dinitrotoluene.
(T)
K116 Organic condensate from the solvent recovery column in
the production of toluene diisocyanate via phosgenation
of toluenediamine.
(T)
K117 Wastewater from the reactor vent gas scrubber in the
production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of
ethene.
(T)
173
K118 Spent adsorbent solids from purification of ethylene di-
bromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via
bromination of ethene.
(T)
K136 Still bottoms from the purification of ethylene dibromide
in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination
of ethene.
(T)
K156 Organic waste (including heavy ends, still bottoms, light
ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates) from the
production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This
listing does not apply to wastes generated from the
manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.)
(T)
K157 Wastewaters (including scrubber waters, condenser
waters, washwaters, and separation waters) from the
production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This
listing does not apply to wastes generated from the
manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.)
(T)
K158 Baghouse dusts and filter/separation solids from the
production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This
listing does not apply to wastes generated from the
manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.)
(T)
K159 Organics from the treatment of thiocarbamate wastes. (T)
K161 Purification solids (including filtration, evaporation, and
centrifugation solids), bag house dust and floor
sweepings from the production of dithiocarbamate acids
and their salts. (This listing does not include K125 or
K126.)
(R, T)
K174 Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of
ethylene dichloride or vinyl chloride monomer (including
sludges that result from commingled ethylene dichloride
or vinyl chloride monomer wastewater and other
wastewater), unless the sludges meet the following
conditions: (1) the sludges are disposed of in a RCRA
Subtitle C (42 USC 6921-6939e) or non-hazardous
landfill licensed or permitted by a state or the federal
government; (2) the sludges are not otherwise placed on
the land prior to final disposal; and (3) the generator
maintains documentation demonstrating that the waste
was either disposed of in an on-site landfill or consigned
to a transporter or disposal facility that provided a
(T)
174
written commitment to dispose of the waste in an off-site
landfill. Upon a showing by the government that a
respondent in any enforcement action brought to enforce
the requirements of Subtitle C of this Part managed
wastewater treatment sludges from the production of
vinyl chloride monomer or ethylene dichloride, the
respondent must demonstrate that it meets the conditions
of the exclusion that are set forth above. In doing so, the
respondent must provide appropriate documentation that
the terms of the exclusion were met (e.g., contracts
between the generator and the landfill owner or operator,
invoices documenting delivery of waste to landfill, etc.).
K175 Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of
vinyl chloride monomer using mercuric chloride catalyst
in an acetylene-based process.
(T)
Inorganic Chemicals Production Wastes:
K071 Brine purification muds from the mercury cell process in
chlorine production, where separately prepurified brine is
not used.
(T)
K073 Chlorinated hydrocarbon waste from the purification step
of the diaphragm cell process using graphite anodes in
chlorine production.
(T)
K106 Wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury cell
process in chlorine production.
(T)
K176 Baghouse filters from the production of antimony oxide,
including filters from the production of intermediates
(e.g., antimony metal or crude antimony oxide).
(E)
K177 Slag from the production of antimony oxide that is
speculatively accumulated or disposed of, including slag
from the production of intermediates (e.g., antimony
metal or crude antimony oxide).
(T)
K178 Residues from manufacturing and manufacturing-site
storage of ferric chloride from acids formed during the
production of titanium dioxide using the chloride-
ilmenite process.
(T)
U
K181
U
U
Nonwastewaters from the production of dyes or pigments
(including nonwastewaters commingled at the point of
U
(T)
U
175
generation with nonwastewaters from other processes)
that, at the point of generation, contain mass loadings of
any of the constituents identified in subsection (c) of this
Section that are equal to or greater than the corresponding
subsection (c) levels, as determined on a calendar year
basis. These wastes will not be hazardous if the
nonwastewaters are managed in one of the following
ways:
U
1) They are disposed of in a municipal solid waste
landfill unit that is subject to the design criteria in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 811.303 through 811.309 and
811.315 through 811.317 and Subpart E of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 811 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 814.302 and
814.402;
U
2) They are disposed of in a hazardous waste landfill
unit that is subject to either 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.401 or 725.401;
U
3) They are disposed of in other municipal solid waste
landfill units that meet the design criteria in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 811.303 through 811.309 and 811.315
through 811.317 and Subpart E of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
811 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 814.302 and 814.402, 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.401, or 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.401; or
U
4) They are treated in a combustion unit that is
permitted under 415 ILCS 5/39(d), or an onsite
combustion unit that is permitted under 415 ILCS
5/39.5.
U
For the purposes of this listing, dyes or pigments
production is defined in subsection (b)(1) of this Section.
Subsection (d) of this Section describes the process for
demonstrating that a facility’s nonwastewaters are not
K181 waste. This listing does not apply to wastes that are
otherwise identified as hazardous under Sections 721.121
through 721.124 and 721.131 through 721.133 at the
point of generation. Also, the listing does not apply to
wastes generated before any annual mass loading limit is
met, as set forth in subsection (c) of this Section.
U
176
Pesticides Production Wastes:
K031 By-product salts generated in the production of MSMA
and cacodylic acid.
(T)
K032 Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of
chlordane.
(T)
K033 Wastewater and scrub water from the chlorination of
cyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane.
(T)
K034 Filter solids from the filtration of hexachlorocyclopenta-
diene in the production of chlordane.
(T)
K097 Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane
chlorinator in the production of chlordane.
(T)
K035 Wastewater treatment sludges generated in the
production of creosote.
(T)
K036 Still bottoms from toluene reclamation distillation in the
production of disulfoton.
(T)
K037 Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of di-
sulfoton.
(T)
K038 Wastewater from the washing and stripping of phorate
production.
(T)
K039 Filter cake from the filtration of diethylphosphorodithioic
acid in the production of phorate.
(T)
K040 Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of
phorate.
(T)
K041 Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of
toxaphene.
(T)
K098 Untreated process wastewater from the production of
toxaphene.
(T)
K042 Heavy ends or distillation residues from the distillation
of tetrachlorobenzene in the production of 2,4,5-T.
(T)
K043 2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the production of 2,4-D. (T)
177
K099 Untreated wastewater from the production of 2,4-D. (T)
K123 Process wastewater (including supernates, filtrates, and
washwaters) from the production of ethylenebisdi-
thiocarbamic acid and its salts.
(T)
K124 Reactor vent scrubber water from the production of
ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
(C, T)
K125 Filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids from the
production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its
salts.
(T)
K126 Baghouse dust and floor sweepings in milling and
packaging operations from the production or formulation
of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
(T)
K131 Wastewater from the reactor and spent sulfuric acid from
the acid dryer from the production of methyl bromide.
(C, T)
K132 Spent absorbent and wastewater separator solids from the
production of methyl bromide.
(T)
Explosives Production Wastes:
K044 Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing
and processing of explosives.
(R)
K045 Spent carbon from the treatment of wastewater
containing explosives.
(R)
K046 Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing,
formulation and loading of lead-based initiating
compounds.
(T)
K047 Pink/red water from TNT operations. (R)
Petroleum Refining Wastes:
K048 Dissolved air flotation (DAF) float from the petroleum
refining industry.
(T)
K049 Slop oil emulsion solids from the petroleum refining
industry.
(T)
178
K050 Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the
petroleum refining industry.
(T)
K051 API separator sludge from the petroleum refining
industry.
(T)
K052 Tank bottoms (leaded) from the petroleum refining
industry.
(T)
K169 Crude oil storage tank sediment from petroleum refining
operations.
(T)
K170 Clarified slurry oil tank sediment or in-line
filter/separation solids from petroleum refining
operations.
(T)
K171 Spent hydrotreating catalyst from petroleum refining
operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize
feeds to other catalytic reactors (this listing does not
include inert support media).
(I, T)
K172 Spent hydrorefining catalyst from petroleum refining
operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize feeds
to other catalytic reactors (this listing does not include
inert support media).
(I, T)
Iron and Steel Production Wastes:
K061 Emission control dust/sludge from the primary
production of steel in electric furnaces.
(T)
K062 Spent pickle liquor generated by steel finishing
operations of facilities within the iron and steel industry
(SIC Codes 331 and 332) (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.110).
(C, T)
Primary Aluminum Production Wastes:
K088 Spent potliners from primary aluminum reduction. (T)
Secondary Lead Production Wastes:
K069 Emission control dust/sludge from secondary lead
smelting.
(T)
BOARD NOTE: This listing is administratively stayed for sludge generated
179
from secondary acid scrubber systems. The stay will remain in effect until this
note is removed.
K100 Waste leaching solution from acid leaching of emission
control dust/sludge from secondary lead smelting.
(T)
Veterinary Pharmaceuticals Production Wastes:
K084 Wastewater treatment sludges generated during the
production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or
organo-arsenic compounds.
(T)
K101 Distillation tar residues from the distillation of aniline-
based compounds in the production of veterinary
pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic
compounds.
(T)
K102 Residue from use of activated carbon for decolorization
in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from
arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds.
(T)
Ink Formulation Wastes:
K086 Solvent washes and sludges, caustic washes and sludges,
or water washes and sludges from cleaning tubs and
equipment used in the formulation of ink from pigments,
dryers, soaps and stabilizers containing chromium and
lead.
(T)
Coke Production Wastes:
K060 Ammonia still lime sludge from coking operations. (T)
K087 Decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations. (T)
K141 Process residues from the recovery of coal tar, including,
but not limited to, collecting sump residues from the
production of coke from coal or the recovery of coke by-
products produced from coal. This listing does not
include K087 (decanter tank tar sludges from coking
operations).
(T)
K142 Tar storage tank residues from the production of coke
from coal or from the recovery of coke by-products
produced from coal.
(T)
180
K143 Process residues from the recovery of light oil, including,
but not limited to, those generated in stills, decanters, and
wash oil recovery units from the recovery of coke by-
products produced from coal.
(T)
K144 Wastewater sump residues from light oil refining,
including, but not limited to, intercepting or
contamination sump sludges from the recovery of coke
by-products produced from coal.
(T)
K145 Residues from naphthalene collection and recovery
operations from the recovery of coke by-products
produced from coal.
(T)
K147 Tar storage tank residues from coal tar refining. (T)
K148 Residues from coal tar distillation, including, but not
limited to, still bottoms.
(T)
K149
Distillation bottoms from the production of
α
- (or
methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes,
benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these
functional groups. (This waste does not include still
bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride.)
(T)
K150 Organic residuals, excluding spent carbon adsorbent,
from the spent chlorine gas and hydrochloric acid
recovery processes associated with the production of
α
-
(or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated
toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with
mixtures of these functional groups.
(T)
K151 Wastewater treatment sludges, excluding neutralization
and biological sludges, generated during the treatment of
wastewaters from the production of
α
- (or methyl-)
chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl
chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these
functional groups.
(T)
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b) Listing-specific definition: For the purposes of the K181 hazardous waste listing
in subsection (a) of this Section, “dyes or pigments production” includes
manufacture of the following product classes: dyes, pigments, and FDA-certified
colors that are in the azo, triarylmethane, perylene, and anthraquinone classes.
Azo products include azo, monoazo, diazo, triazo, polyazo, azoic, benzidine, and
pyrazolone products. Triarylmethane products include both triarylmethane and
triphenylmethane products. Wastes that are not generated at a dyes or pigments
181
manufacturing site, such as wastes from the offsite use, formulation, and
packaging of dyes or pigments, are not included in the K181 listing.
U
c) K181 listing levels. Nonwastewaters containing constituents in amounts equal to
or exceeding the following levels during any calendar year are subject to the
K181 hazardous waste listing in subsection (a) of this Section, unless the
conditions in the K181 hazardous waste listing are met:
U
Constituent
U
U
Chemical
Abstracts No.
U
U
Mass Levels
(kg/yr)
U
U
Aniline
U
U
62-53-3
U
U
9,300
U
U
o-Anisidine
U
U
90-04-0
U
U
110
U
U
4-Chloroaniline
U
U
106-47-8
U
U
4,800
U
U
p-Cresidine
U
U
120-71-8
U
U
660
U
U
2,4-Dimethylaniline
U
U
95-68-1
U
U
100
U
U
1,2-Phenylenediamine
U
U
95-54-5
U
U
710
U
U
1,3-Phenylenediamine
U
U
108-45-2
U
U
1,200
U
U
d) Procedures for demonstrating that dyes or pigments nonwastewaters are not K181
waste. The procedures described in subsections (d)(1) through (d)(3) and (d)(5)
of this Section establish when nonwastewaters from the production of dyes or
pigments would not be hazardous. (These procedures apply to wastes that are not
disposed of in landfill units or treated in combustion units, as specified in
subsection (a) of this Section). If the nonwastewaters are disposed of in landfill
units or treated in combustion units as described in subsection (a) of this Section,
then the nonwastewaters are not hazardous. In order to demonstrate that it is
meeting the landfill disposal or combustion conditions contained in the K181
waste listing description, the generator must maintain documentation as described
in subsection (d)(4) of this Section.
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1) Determination based on no K181 waste constituents. A generator that has
knowledge (e.g., knowledge of constituents in wastes based on prior
sampling and analysis data or information about raw materials used,
production processes used, and reaction and degradation products formed)
that its waste contains none of the K181 waste constituents (see subsection
(c) of this Section) can use its knowledge to determine that its waste is not
K181 waste. The generator must document the basis for all such
determinations on an annual basis and keep each annual documentation
for three years.
U
2) Determination for generated quantities of 1,000 tonnes (1,000 metric tons)
per year or less for wastes that contain K181 waste constituents. If the
total annual quantity of dyes or pigments nonwastewaters generated is
1,000 tonnes or less, the generator can use knowledge of the wastes (e.g.,
knowledge of constituents in wastes based on prior analytical data or
182
information about raw materials used, production processes used, and
reaction and degradation products formed) to conclude that annual mass
loadings for the K181 constituents are below the listing levels of
subsection (c) of this Section. To make this determination, the generator
must fulfill the following conditions:
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A) Each year, the generator must document the basis for determining
that the annual quantity of nonwastewaters expected to be
generated will be less than 1,000 tonnes;
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B) The generator must track the actual quantity of nonwastewaters
generated from January 1 through December 31 of each calendar
year. If, at any time within the year, the actual waste quantity
exceeds 1,000 tonnes, the generator must comply with the
requirements of subsection (d)(3) of this Section for the remainder
of that calendar year;
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C) The generator must keep a running total of the K181 waste
constituent mass loadings over the course of the calendar year; and
U
D) The generator must keep the following records on site for the three
most recent calendar years in which the hazardous waste
determinations were made:
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i) The quantity of dyes or pigments nonwastewaters
generated;
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ii) The relevant process information used; and
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iii) The calculations performed to determine annual total mass
loadings for each K181 waste constituent in the
nonwastewaters during the year.
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3) Determination for generated quantities greater than 1,000 tonnes per year
for wastes that contain K181 constituents. If the total annual quantity of
dyes or pigments nonwastewaters generated is greater than 1,000 tonnes,
the generator must perform each of the following steps in order to make a
determination that its waste is not K181 waste:
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A) The generator must determine which K181 waste constituents (see
subsection (c) of this Section) are reasonably expected to be
present in the wastes based on knowledge of the wastes (e.g.,
based on prior sampling and analysis data or information about
raw materials used, production processes used, and reaction and
degradation products formed);
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B) If 1,2-phenylenediamine is present in the wastes, the generator can
use either knowledge of the wastes or sampling and analysis
procedures to determine the level of this constituent in the wastes.
For determinations based on use of knowledge of the wastes, the
generator must comply with the procedures for using knowledge of
the wastes described in subsection (d)(2) of this Section and keep
the records described in subsection (d)(2)(D) of this Section. For
determinations based on sampling and analysis, the generator must
comply with the sampling and analysis and recordkeeping
requirements described in subsection (d)(3)(C) of this Section;
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C) The generator must develop a waste sampling and analysis plan (or
modify an existing plan) to collect and analyze representative
waste samples for the K181 waste constituents reasonably
expected to be present in the wastes. At a minimum, the plan must
include the following elements:
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i) A discussion of the number of samples needed to
characterize the wastes fully;
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ii) The planned sample collection method to obtain
representative waste samples;
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iii) A discussion of how the sampling plan accounts for
potential temporal and spatial variability of the wastes; and
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iv) A detailed description of the test methods to be used,
including sample preparation, clean up (if necessary), and
determinative methods;
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D) The generator must collect and analyze samples in accordance with
the waste sampling and analysis plan, and the plan must fulfill the
following requirements:
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i) The sampling and analysis must be unbiased, precise, and
representative of the wastes; and
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ii) The analytical measurements must be sufficiently sensitive,
accurate, and precise to support any claim that the
constituent mass loadings are below the listing levels of
subsection (c) of this Section;
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E) The generator must record the analytical results;
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F) The generator must record the waste quantity represented by the
sampling and analysis results;
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U
G) The genrator must calculate constituent-specific mass loadings
(product of concentrations and waste quantity);
U
H) The generator must keep a running total of the K181 waste
constituent mass loadings over the course of the calendar year;
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I) The generator must determine whether the mass of any of the
K181 waste constituents listed in subsection (c) of this Section
generated between January 1 and December 31 of any calendar
year is below the K181 waste listing levels;
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J) The generator must keep the following records on site for the three
most recent calendar years in which the hazardous waste
determinations are made:
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i) The sampling and analysis plan;
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ii) The sampling and analysis results (including quality
assurance or quality control data);
U
iii) The quantity of dyes or pigments nonwastewaters
generated; and
U
iv) The calculations performed to determine annual mass
loadings; and
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K) The generator must conduct non-hazardous waste determinations
annually to verify that the wastes remain non-hazardous.
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i) The annual testing requirements are suspended after three
consecutive successful annual demonstrations that the
wastes are non-hazardous. The generator can then use
knowledge of the wastes to support subsequent annual
determinations.
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ii) The annual testing requirements are reinstated if the
manufacturing or waste treatment processes generating the
wastes are significantly altered, resulting in an increase of
the potential for the wastes to exceed the listing levels.
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iii) If the annual testing requirements are suspended, the
generator must keep records of the process knowledge
information used to support a non-hazardous determination.
If testing is reinstated, the generator must retain a
description of the process change.
185
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4) Recordkeeping for the landfill disposal and combustion exemptions. For
the purposes of meeting the landfill disposal and combustion condition set
out in the K181 waste listing description in subsection (a) of this Section,
the generator must maintain on-site for three years documentation
demonstrating that each shipment of waste was received by a landfill unit
that is subject to or which meets the landfill design standards set out in the
listing description or that the waste was treated in combustion units, as
specified in the listing description in subsection (a) of this Section.
U
5) Waste holding and handling. During the interim period, from the point of
generation to completion of the hazardous waste determination, the
generator must store the wastes appropriately. If the wastes are
determined to be hazardous and the generator has not complied with the
hazardous waste storage requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134
during the interim period, the generator could be subject to an
enforcement action for improper hazardous waste management.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.135 Wood Preserving Wastes
a) Wastes from wood preserving processes at plants that do not resume or initiate
use of chlorophenolic preservatives will not meet the listing definition of F032
once the generator has met all of the requirements of subsections (b) and (c) of
this Section. These wastes may, however, continue to meet another hazardous
waste listing description or may exhibit one or more of the hazardous waste
characteristics.
b) Generators must either clean or replace all process equipment that may have come
into contact with chlorophenolic formulations or constituents thereof, including,
but not limited to, treatment cylinders, sumps, tanks, piping systems, drip pads,
fork lifts and trams, in a manner that minimizes or eliminates the escape of
hazardous waste or constituents, leachate, contaminated drippage or hazardous
waste decomposition products to the groundwater, surface water, or atmosphere.
1) Generators must do one of the following:
A) Prepare and follow an equipment cleaning plan and clean
equipment in accordance with this Section; or
B) Prepare and follow an equipment replacement plan and replace
equipment in accordance with this Section; or
C) Document cleaning and replacement in accordance with this
Section, carried out after termination of use of chlorophenolic
186
preservatives.
2) Cleaning requirements.
A) The generator must prepare and sign a written equipment cleaning
plan that describes the following:
i) The equipment to be cleaned;
ii) How the equipment will be cleaned;
iii) The solvent to be used in cleaning;
iv) How solvent rinses will be tested; and
v) How cleaning residues will be disposed of.
B) Equipment must be cleaned as follows:
i) Remove all visible residues from process equipment; and
ii) Rinse process equipment with an appropriate solvent until
dioxins and dibenzofurans are not detected in the final
solvent rinse.
C) Analytical requirements.
i) Rinses must be tested
S
in accordance with SW-846, Method
8290, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111
SU
by using an appropriate method
U
.
ii) “Not detected” means at or below the
U
following
U
lower
method calibration
S
limit (MCL) in Method 8290, Table 1
S
U
limit (MCL): the 2,3,7,8-TCDD-based MCL is 0.01 parts
per trillion (ppt), using a sample weight of 1000 g, an IS
spiking level of 1 ppt, and a final extraction volume of 10
to 50 μ
ℓ
. For other congeners, multiply the values by 1 for
TCDF, PeCDD, or PeCDF; by 2.5 for HxCDD, HxCDF,
HpCDD, or HpCDF; or by 5 for OCDD or OCDF
U
.
D) The generator must manage all residues from the cleaning process
as F032 waste.
3) Replacement requirements.
A) Prepare and sign a written equipment replacement plan that
187
describes the following:
i) The equipment to be replaced;
ii) How the equipment will be replaced; and
iii) How the equipment will be disposed of.
B) The generator must manage the discarded equipment as F032
waste.
4) Documentation requirements. Document that previous equipment
cleaning and replacement was performed in accordance with this Section
and ocurred after cessation of use of chlorophenolic preservatives.
c) The generator must maintain the following records documenting the cleaning and
replacement as part of the facility’s operating record:
1) The name and address of the facility;
2) Formulations previously used and the date on which their use ceased in
each process at the plant;
3) Formulations currently used in each process at the plant;
4) The equipment cleaning or replacement plan;
5) The name and address of any persons who conducted the cleaning and
replacement;
6) The dates on which cleaning and replacement were accomplished;
7) The dates of sampling and testing;
8) A description of the sample handling and preparation techniques used for
extraction, containerization, preservation and chain-of-custody of the
samples;
9) A description of the tests performed, the date the tests were performed and
the results of the tests;
10) The name and model numbers of the instruments used in performing the
tests;
11) QA/QC documentation; and
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12) The following statement signed by the generator or the generator’s
authorized representative:
I certify under penalty of law that all process equipment required
to be cleaned or replaced under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.135 was
cleaned or replaced as represented in the equipment cleaning and
replacement plan and accompanying documentation. I am aware
that there are significant penalties for providing false information,
including the possibility of fine or imprisonment.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.138 Comparable or Syngas Fuel Exclusion
Wastes that meet the following comparable or syngas fuel requirements are not solid wastes:
a) Comparable fuel specifications.
1) Physical specifications.
A) Heating value. The heating value must exceed 5,000 Btu/lb
(11,500 J/g).
B) Viscosity. The viscosity must not exceed 50 cs, as fired.
2) Constituent specifications. For the compounds listed, the constituent
specification levels and minimum required detection limits (where non-
detect is the constituent specification) are set forth in the table at
subsection (d) of this Section.
b) Synthesis gas fuel specification. Synthesis gas fuel (i.e., syngas fuel) that is
generated from hazardous waste must fulfill the following requirements:
1) It must have a minimum Btu value of 100 Btu/Scf;
2) It must contain less than 1 ppmv of total halogen;
3) It must contain less than 300 ppmv of total nitrogen other than diatomic
nitrogen (N
B
2
B
);
4) It must contain less than 200 ppmv of hydrogen sulfide; and
5) It must contain less than 1 ppmv of each hazardous constituent in the
target list of constituents listed in Appendix H of this Part.
c) Implementation. Waste that meets the comparable or syngas fuel specifications
189
provided by subsection (a) or (b) of this Section (these constituent levels must be
achieved by the comparable fuel when generated, or as a result of treatment or
blending, as provided in subsection (c)(3) or (c)(4) of this Section) is excluded
from the definition of solid waste provided that the following requirements are
met:
1) Notices. For purposes of this Section, the person claiming and qualifying
for the exclusion is called the comparable or syngas fuel generator and the
person burning the comparable or syngas fuel is called the comparable or
syngas burner. The person that generates the comparable fuel or syngas
fuel must claim and certify to the exclusion.
A) Notice to the Agency.
i) The generator must submit a one-time notice to the
Agency, certifying compliance with the conditions of the
exclusion and providing documentation, as required by
subsection (c)(1)(A)(iii) of this Section;
ii) If the generator is a company that generates comparable or
syngas fuel at more than one facility, the generator must
specify at which sites the comparable or syngas fuel will be
generated;
iii) A comparable or syngas fuel generator’s notification to the
Agency must contain the items listed in subsection
(c)(1)(C) of this Section.
B) Public notice. Prior to burning an excluded comparable or syngas
fuel, the burner must publish in a major newspaper of general
circulation, local to the site where the fuel will be burned, a notice
entitled “Notification of Burning a Comparable or Syngas Fuel
Excluded Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act”
containing the following information:
i) The name, address, and USEPA identification number of
the generating facility;
ii) The name and address of the units that will burn the
comparable or syngas fuel;
iii) A brief, general description of the manufacturing,
treatment, or other process generating the comparable or
syngas fuel;
iv) An estimate of the average and maximum monthly and
190
annual quantity of the waste claimed to be excluded; and
v) The name and mailing address of the Agency office to
which the claim was submitted.
C) Required content of comparable or syngas notification to the
Agency.
i) The name, address, and USEPA identification number of
the person or facility claiming the exclusion;
ii) The applicable USEPA hazardous waste codes for the
hazardous waste;
iii) The name and address of the units that meet the
requirements of subsection (c)(2) of this Section that will
burn the comparable or syngas fuel; and
iv) The following statement, signed and submitted by the
person claiming the exclusion or its authorized
representative:
Under penalty of criminal and civil prosecution for
making or submitting false statements,
representations, or omissions, I certify that the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.138 have
been met for all waste identified in this
notification. Copies of the records and information
required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.138(c)(10) are
available at the comparable or syngas fuel
generator’s facility. Based on my inquiry of the
individuals immediately responsible for obtaining
the information, the information is, to the best of
my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and
complete. I am aware that there are significant
penalties for submitting false information, including
the possibility of fine and imprisonment for
knowing violations.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (c)(1)(C)(i) through (c)(1)(C)(iv) are
derived from 40 CFR 261.138(c)(1)(i)(C)(
1
) and (c)(1)(i)(C)(
4
),
which the Board has codified here to comport with Illinois
Administrative Code format requirements.
2) Burning. The comparable or syngas fuel exclusion for fuels that meet the
requirements of subsections (a) or (b) and (c)(1) of this Section applies
191
only if the fuel is burned in the following units that also must be subject to
federal, State, and local air emission requirements, including all applicable
federal Clean Air Act (CAA) maximum achievable control technology
(MACT) requirements:
A) Industrial furnaces, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110;
B) Boilers, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, that are further
defined as follows:
i) Industrial boilers located on the site of a facility engaged in
a manufacturing process where substances are transformed
into new products, including the component parts of
products, by mechanical or chemical processes; or
ii) Utility boilers used to produce electric power, steam,
heated or cooled air, or other gases or fluids for sale;
C) Hazardous waste incinerators subject to regulation under Subpart
O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725
or applicable CAA MACT standards.
D) Gas turbines used to produce electric power, steam, heated or
cooled air, or other gases or fluids for sale.
3) Blending to meet the viscosity specification. A hazardous waste blended
to meet the viscosity specification must fulfill the following requirements:
A) As generated and prior to any blending, manipulation, or
processing, the waste must meet the constituent and heating value
specifications of subsections (a)(1)(A) and (a)(2) of this Section;
B) The waste must be blended at a facility that is subject to the
applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725 or 35
Ill. Adm. Code 722.134; and
C) The waste must not violate the dilution prohibition of subsection
(c)(6) of this Section.
4) Treatment to meet the comparable fuel exclusion specifications.
A) A hazardous waste may be treated to meet the exclusion
specifications of subsections (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this Section
provided the treatment fulfills the following requirements:
i) The treatment destroys or removes the constituent listed in
192
the specification or raises the heating value by removing or
destroying hazardous constituents or materials;
ii) The treatment is performed at a facility that is subject to the
applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725
or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134; and
iii) The treatment does not violate the dilution prohibition of
subsection (c)(6) of this Section.
B) Residuals resulting from the treatment of a hazardous waste listed
in Subpart D of this Part to generate a comparable fuel remain a
hazardous waste.
5) Generation of a syngas fuel.
A) A syngas fuel can be generated from the processing of hazardous
wastes to meet the exclusion specifications of subsection (b) of this
Section provided the processing fulfills the following
requirements:
i) The processing destroys or removes the constituent listed in
the specification or raises the heating value by removing or
destroying constituents or materials;
ii) The processing is performed at a facility that is subject to
the applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and
725 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134 or is an exempt recycling
unit pursuant to Section 721.106(c); and
iii) The processing does not violate the dilution prohibition of
subsection (c)(6) of this Section.
B) Residuals resulting from the treatment of a hazardous waste listed
in Subpart D of this Part to generate a syngas fuel remain a
hazardous waste.
6) Dilution prohibition for comparable and syngas fuels. No generator,
transporter, handler, or owner or operator of a treatment, storage, or
disposal facility must in any way dilute a hazardous waste to meet the
exclusion specifications of subsection (a)(1)(A), (a)(2), or (b) of this
Section.
7) Waste analysis plans. The generator of a comparable or syngas fuel must
develop and follow a written waste analysis plan that describes the
procedures for sampling and analysis of the hazardous waste to be
193
excluded.
S
The waste analysis plan must be developed in accordance with
the applicable sections of the “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods” (SW-846).
S
The plan must be followed and
retained at the facility excluding the waste.
A) At a minimum, the plan must specify the following:
i) The parameters for which each hazardous waste will be
analyzed and the rationale for the selection of those
parameters;
ii) The test methods that will be used to test for these
parameters;
iii) The sampling method that will be used to obtain a
representative sample of the waste to be analyzed;
iv) The frequency with which the initial analysis of the waste
will be reviewed or repeated to ensure that the analysis is
accurate and up to date; and
v) If process knowledge is used in the waste determination,
any information prepared by the generator in making such
determination.
B) The waste analysis plan must also contain records of the following:
i) The dates and times waste samples were obtained, and the
dates the samples were analyzed;
ii) The names and qualifications of the persons who obtained
the samples;
iii) A description of the temporal and spatial locations of the
samples;
iv) The name and address of the laboratory facility at which
analyses of the samples were performed;
v) A description of the analytical methods used, including any
clean-up and sample preparation methods;
vi) All quantitation limits achieved and all other quality
control results for the analysis (including method blanks,
duplicate analyses, matrix spikes, etc.), laboratory quality
assurance data, and description of any deviations from
194
analytical methods written in the plan or from any other
activity written in the plan that occurred;
vii) All laboratory results demonstrating that the exclusion
specifications have been met for the waste; and
viii) All laboratory documentation that supports the analytical
results, unless a contract between the claimant and the
laboratory provides for the documentation to be maintained
by the laboratory for the period specified in subsection
(c)(11) of this Section and also provides for the availability
of the documentation to the claimant upon request.
C) Syngas fuel generators must submit for approval, prior to
performing sampling, analysis, or any management of a syngas
fuel as an excluded waste, a waste analysis plan containing the
elements of subsection (c)(7)(A) of this Section to the Agency.
The approval of waste analysis plans must be stated in writing and
received by the facility prior to sampling and analysis to
demonstrate the exclusion of a syngas. The approval of the waste
analysis plan may contain such provisions and conditions as the
regulatory authority deems appropriate.
8) Comparable fuel sampling and analysis.
A) General. For each waste for which an exclusion is claimed, the
generator of the hazardous waste must test for all the constituents
on Appendix H of this Part, except those that the generator
determines, based on testing or knowledge, should not be present
in the waste. The generator is required to document the basis of
each determination that a constituent should not be present. The
generator may not determine that any of the following categories
of constituents should not be present:
i) A constituent that triggered the toxicity characteristic for
the waste constituents that were the basis of the listing of
the waste stream, or constituents for which there is a
treatment standard for the waste code in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.140;
ii) A constituent detected in previous analysis of the waste;
iii) Constituents introduced into the process that generates the
waste; or
iv) Constituents that are byproducts or side reactions to the
195
process that generates the waste.
B) For each waste for which the exclusion is claimed where the
generator of the comparable or syngas fuel is not the original
generator of the hazardous waste, the generator of the comparable
or syngas fuel may not use process knowledge pursuant to
subsection (c)(8)(A) of this Section and must test to determine that
all of the constituent specifications of subsections (a)(2) and (b) of
this Section have been met.
C) The comparable or syngas fuel generator may use any reliable
analytical method to demonstrate that no constituent of concern is
present at concentrations above the specification levels. It is the
responsibility of the generator to ensure that the sampling and
analysis are unbiased, precise, and representative of the waste. For
the waste to be eligible for exclusion, a generator must
demonstrate the following:
i) That each constituent of concern is not present in the waste
above the specification level at the 95 percent upper
confidence limit around the mean; and
ii) That the analysis could have detected the presence of the
constituent at or below the specification level at the 95
percent upper confidence limit around the mean.
D) Nothing in this subsection (c)(8) preempts, overrides, or otherwise
negates the provision in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.111 that requires
any person that generates a solid waste to determine if that waste is
a hazardous waste.
E) In an enforcement action, the burden of proof to establish
conformance with the exclusion specification must be on the
generator claiming the exclusion.
F) The generator must conduct sampling and analysis in accordance
with its waste analysis plan developed under subsection (c)(7) of
this Section.
G) Syngas fuel and comparable fuel that has not been blended in order
to meet the kinematic viscosity specifications must be analyzed as
generated.
H) If a comparable fuel is blended in order to meet the kinematic
viscosity specifications, the generator must undertake the
following actions:
196
i) Analyze the fuel as generated to ensure that it meets the
constituent and heating value specifications; and
ii) After blending, analyze the fuel again to ensure that the
blended fuel continues to meet all comparable or syngas
fuel specifications.
I) Excluded comparable or syngas fuel must be retested, at a
minimum, annually and must be retested after a process change
that could change the chemical or physical properties of the waste.
S
Note to subsection (c)(8):
SU
BOARD NOTE:
U
Any claim under this Section
must be valid and accurate for all hazardous constituents; a determination
not to test for a hazardous constituent will not shield a generator from
liability should that constituent later be found in the waste above the
exclusion specifications.
9) Speculative accumulation. Any persons handling a comparable or syngas
fuel are subject to the speculative accumulation test under Section
721.102(c)(4).
10) Records. The generator must maintain records of the following
information on-site:
A) All information required to be submitted to the implementing
authority as part of the notification of the claim:
i) The owner or operator name, address, and RCRA facility
USEPA identification number of the person claiming the
exclusion;
ii) The applicable USEPA hazardous waste codes for each
hazardous waste excluded as a fuel; and
iii) The certification signed by the person claiming the
exclusion or his authorized representative;
B) A brief description of the process that generated the hazardous
waste and process that generated the excluded fuel, if not the same;
C) An estimate of the average and maximum monthly and annual
quantities of each waste claimed to be excluded;
D) Documentation for any claim that a constituent is not present in the
hazardous waste, as required under subsection (c)(8)(A) of this
197
Section;
E) The results of all analyses and all detection limits achieved, as
required under subsection (c)(8) of this Section;
F) If the excluded waste was generated through treatment or blending,
documentation, as required under subsection (c)(3) or (c)(4) of this
Section;
G) If the waste is to be shipped off-site, a certification from the
burner, as required under subsection (c)(12) of this Section;
H) A waste analysis plan and the results of the sampling and analysis
that include the following:
i) The dates and times waste samples were obtained, and the
dates the samples were analyzed;
ii) The names and qualifications of the persons that obtained
the samples;
iii) A description of the temporal and spatial locations of the
samples;
iv) The name and address of the laboratory facility at which
analyses of the samples were performed;
v) A description of the analytical methods used, including any
clean-up and sample preparation methods;
vi) All quantitation limits achieved and all other quality
control results for the analysis (including method blanks,
duplicate analyses, matrix spikes, etc.), laboratory quality
assurance data, and description of any deviations from
analytical methods written in the plan or from any other
activity written in the plan that occurred;
vii) All laboratory analytical results demonstrating that the
exclusion specifications have been met for the waste; and
viii) All laboratory documentation that supports the analytical
results, unless a contract between the claimant and the
laboratory provides for the documentation to be maintained
by the laboratory for the period specified in subsection
(c)(11) of this Section and also provides for the availability
of the documentation to the claimant upon request; and
198
I) If the generator ships comparable or syngas fuel off-site for
burning, the generator must retain for each shipment the following
information on-site:
i) The name and address of the facility receiving the
comparable or syngas fuel for burning;
ii) The quantity of comparable or syngas fuel shipped and
delivered;
iii) The date of shipment or delivery;
iv) A cross-reference to the record of comparable or syngas
fuel analysis or other information used to make the
determination that the comparable or syngas fuel meets the
specifications, as required under subsection (c)(8) of this
Section; and
v) A one-time certification by the burner, as required under
subsection (c)(12) of this Section.
11) Records retention. Records must be maintained for the period of three
years. A generator must maintain a current waste analysis plan during that
three-year period.
12) Burner certification. Prior to submitting a notification to the Agency, a
comparable or syngas fuel generator that intends to ship its fuel off-site for
burning must obtain a one-time written, signed statement from the burner
that includes the following:
A) A certification that the comparable or syngas fuel will only be
burned in an industrial furnace or boiler, utility boiler, or
hazardous waste incinerator, as required under subsection (c)(2) of
this Section;
B) Identification of the name and address of the units that will burn
the comparable or syngas fuel; and
C) A certification that the state in which the burner is located is
authorized to exclude wastes as comparable or syngas fuel under
the provisions of this Section.
13) Ineligible waste codes. Wastes that are listed because of presence of
dioxins or furans, as set out in Appendix G of this Part, are not eligible for
this exclusion, and any fuel produced from or otherwise containing these
199
wastes remains a hazardous waste subject to full RCRA hazardous waste
management requirements.
d) Table Y of this Part sets forth the table of detection and detection limit values for
comparable fuel specification.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.Appendix A Representative Sampling Methods
The methods and equipment used for sampling waste materials will vary with the form and
consistency of the waste materials to be sampled. Samples collected using the sampling
protocols listed below, for sampling waste with properties similar to the indicated materials, are
considered by USEPA to be representative of the waste.
Extremely viscous liquid: ASTM Standard D140–70
S
,
S
U
(
U
Standard Practice for Sampling
Bituminous Materials
U
)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(a)
U
.
Crushed or powdered material: ASTM Standard D346–75
S
,
S
U
(
U
Standard Practice for Collection and
Preparation of Coke Samples for Laboratory Analysis
U
)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(a)
U
.
Soil or rock-like material: ASTM Standard D420–69
S
,
S
U
(
U
Guide to Site Characterization for
Engineering, Design,
U
and Construction Purposes),
U
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(a)
U
.
S
Soillike
SU
Soil-like
U
material: ASTM Standard D1452–65
S
,
S
U
(
U
Standard Practice for Soil Investigation
and Sampling by Auger Borings
U
)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(a)
U
.
Fly
S
Ash-like
SU
ash-like
U
material: ASTM Standard D2234–76
S
,
S
U
(
U
Standard Practice for Collection of
a Gross Sample of Coal
U
)
U
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
SU
720.111(a)
U
.
Containerized liquid wastes: “
U
Composite Liquid Waste Sampler (
U
COLIWASA
U
).
U
”
S
described in
“Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” SW-846,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
S
S
BOARD NOTE: This method is also described in “Samplers and Sampling Procedures for
Hazardous Waste Streams,” EPA 600/2–80–018, January 1980.
Liquid waste in pits, ponds, lagoons, and similar reservoirs: “Pond Sampler
S
,
SU
.
U
”
S
described in “Test
Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” SW-846, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
S
S
BOARD NOTE: This manual also contains additional information on application of these
protocols. This method is also described in “Samplers and Sampling Procedures for Hazardous
Waste Streams,” EPA 600/2–80–018, January 1980, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111..
200
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.Appendix B Method 1311 Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)
U
(Repealed)
U
S
NOTE: The TCLP (Method 1311) is published in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111.
(Source: Repealed at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.Appendix C Chemical Analysis Test Methods
U
(Repealed)
U
S
NOTE: Appropriate analytical procedures to determine whether a sample contains a given toxic
constituent are specified in Chapter Two, “Choosing the Correct Procedure,” found in “Test
Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111. Prior to final sampling and
analysis method selection, the individual should consult the specific section or method described
in SW-846 for additional guidance on which of the approved methods should be employed for a
specific sample analysis situation.
(Source: Repealed at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.Appendix G Basis for Listing Hazardous Wastes
USEPA hazard-
ous waste No.
Hazardous constituents for which listed
F001 Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-
trichloroethane, carbon tetrachloride, chlorinated fluorocarbons.
F002 Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-
trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichlorethane, chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-
trifluoroethane, ortho-dichlorobenzene, trichlorofluoromethane.
F003 N.A.
F004 Cresols and cresylic acid, nitrobenzene.
F005 Toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, 2-
ethoxyethanol, benzene, 2-nitropropane.
F006 Cadmium, hexavalent chromium, nickel, cyanide (complexed).
F007 Cyanide (salts).
F008 Cyanide (salts).
F009 Cyanide (salts).
F010 Cyanide (salts).
F011 Cyanide (salts).
F012 Cyanide (complexed).
F019 Hexavalent chromium, cyanide (complexed).
201
F020 Tetra- and pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra- and
pentachlorodibenzofurans; tri- and tetrachlorophenols and their
clorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amines, and other salts.
F021 Penta- and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; penta- and
hexachlorodibenzofurans; pentachlorophenol and its derivatives.
F022 Tetra-, penta- and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and
hexachlorodibenzofurans.
F023 Tetra- and pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra- and
pentachlorodibenzofurans; tri- and tetra- chlorophenols and their
chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amines, and other salts.
F024 Chloromethane, dichloromethane, trichloromethane, carbon tetrachloride,
chloroethylene, 1,1-dichloroethane, 1,2-dichloroethane, trans-1,2-
dichloroethylene, 1,1-dichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-
trichloroethane, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane, 1,1,2,2-
tetrachloroethane, tetrachloroethylene, pentachloroethane, hexachloroethane,
allyl chloride (3-chloropropene), dichloropropane, dichloropropene, 2-
chloro-1,3-butadiene, hexachloro-1,3-butadiene, hexachlorochylopentadiene,
hexachlorocylohexane, benzene, chlorobenzene, dichlorobenzenes, 1,2,4-
trichlorobenzene, tetrachlorobenzenes, pentachlorobenzene,
hexachlorobenzene, toluene, naphthalene.
F025 Chloromethane, dicloromethane, trichloromethane; carbon tetrachloride;
chloroethylene; 1,1-dichloroethane; 1,2-dichloroethane; trans-1,2-
dichloroethylene; 1,1-dichloroethylene; 1,1,1-trichloroethane; 1,1,2-
trichloroethane; trichloroethylene; 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane; 1,1,2,2-
tetrachloroethane; tetrachloroethylene; pentachloroethane; hexachloroethane;
allyl chloride (3-chloropropene); dichloropropane; dichloropropene; 2-
chloro-1,3-butadiene; hexachloro-1,3-butadiene; hexachlorocyclopentadiene;
benzene; chlorobenzene; dichlorobenzene; 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene;
tetrachlorobenzene; pentachlorobenzene; hexachlorobenzene; toluene;
naphthalene.
F026 Tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and
hexachlorodibenzofurans.
F027 Tetra-, penta, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and
hexachlorodibenzofurans; tri-, tetra-, and pentachlorophenols and their
chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amines, and other salts.
F028 Tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and
hexachlorodibenzofurans; tri-, tetra-, and pentachlorophenols and their
chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amines, and other salts.
F032 Benz(a)anthracene; benzo(a)pyrene; dibenz(a,h)anthracene; indeno(1,2,3-
cd)pyrene; pentachlorophenol; arsenic; chromium; tetra-, penta-, hexa-, and
heptachlorordibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, hexa-, and
heptachlorodibenzofurans.
F034 Benz(a)anthracene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, benzo(a)pyrene,
dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene, naphthalene, arsenic,
chromium.
F035 Arsenic, chromium, lead.
202
F037 Benzene, benzo(a)pyrene, chrysene, lead, chromium.
F038 Benzene, benzo(a)pyrene, chrysene, lead, chromium.
F039 All constituents for which treatment standards are specified for multi-source
leachate (wastewaters and
S
non-wastewaters
SU
nonwastewaters
U
) under Table B
to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728 (Constituent Concentrations in Waste).
K001 Pentachlorophenol, phenol, 2-chlorophenol, p-chloro-m-cresol, 2,4-
dimethylphenol, 2,4- dinitrophenol, trichlorophenols, tetrachlorophenols,
2,4- dinitrophenol, creosote, chrysene, naphthalene, fluoranthene,
benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(a)pyrene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene, benz(a)
anthracene, dibenz(a)anthracene, acenaphthalene.
K002 Hexavalent chromium, lead.
K003 Hexavalent chromium, lead.
K004 Hexavalent chromium.
K005 Hexavalent chromium, lead.
K006 Hexavalent chromium.
K007 Cyanide (complexed), hexavalent chromium.
K008 Hexavalent chromium.
K009 Chloroform, formaldehyde, methylene chloride, methyl chloride,
paraldehyde, formic acid.
K010 Chloroform, formaldehyde, methylene chloride, methyl chloride,
paraldehyde, formic acid, chloroacetaldehyde.
K011 Acrylonitrile, acetonitrile, hydrocyanic acid.
K013 Hydrocyanic acid, acrylonitrile, acetonitrile.
K014 Acetonitrile, acrylamide.
K015 Benzyl chloride, chlorobenzene, toluene, benzotrichloride.
K016 Hexachlorobenzene, hexachlorobutadiene, carbon tetrachloride,
hexachloroethane, perchloroethylene.
K017 Epichlorohydrin, chloroethers (bis(chloromethyl) ether and bis- (2-
chloroethyl) ethers), trichloropropane, dichloropropanols.
K018 1,2-dichloroethane, trichloroethylene, hexachlorobutadiene,
hexachlorobenzene.
K019 Ethylene dichloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane,
tetrachloroethanes (1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane and 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane),
trichloroethylene, tetrachloroethylene, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform,
vinyl chloride, vinylidene chloride.
K020 Ethylene dichloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, tetrachloro-
ethanes (1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane and 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane),
trichloroethylene, tetrachloroethylene, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform,
vinyl chloride, vinylidene chloride.
K021 Antimony, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform.
K022 Phenol, tars (polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons).
K023 Phthalic anhydride, maleic anhydride.
K024 Phthalic anhydride, 1,4-naphthoguinone.
K025 Meta-dinitrobenzene, 2,4-dinitrotoluene.
K026 Paraldehyde, pyridines, 2-picoline.
K027 Toluene diisocyanate, toluene-2,4-diamine.
203
K028 1,1,1-trichloroethane, vinyl chloride.
K029 1,2-dichloroethane, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, vinyl chloride, vinylidene
chloride, chloroform.
K030 Hexachlorobenzene, hexachlorobutadiene, hexachloroethane, 1,1,1,2-
tetrachloroethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane, ethylene dichloride.
K031 Arsenic.
K032 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene.
K033 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene.
K034 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene.
K035 Creosote, chrysene, naphthalene, fluoranthene, benzo(b) fluoranthene,
benzo(a)-pyrene, indeno(1,2,3-cd) pyrene, benzo(a)anthracene,
dibenzo(a)anthracene, acenaphthalene.
K036 Toluene, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters.
K037 Toluene, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters.
K038 Phorate, formaldehyde, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters.
K039 Phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters.
K040 Phorate, formaldehyde, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters.
K041 Toxaphene.
K042 Hexachlorobenzene, ortho-dichlorobenzene.
K043 2,4-dichlorophenol, 2,6-dichlorophenol, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol.
K044 N.A.
K045 N.A.
K046 Lead.
K047 N.A.
K048 Hexavalent chromium, lead.
K049 Hexavalent chromium, lead.
K050 Hexavalent chromium.
K051 Hexavalent chromium, lead.
K052 Lead.
K060 Cyanide, naphthalene, phenolic compounds, arsenic.
K061 Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium.
K062 Hexavalent chromium, lead.
K064 Lead, cadmium.
K065 Lead, cadmium.
K066 Lead, cadmium.
K069 Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium.
K071 Mercury.
K073 Chloroform, carbon tetrachloride, hexachloroethane, trichloroethane,
tetrachloroethylene, dichloroethylene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane.
K083 Aniline, diphenylamine, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine.
K084 Arsenic.
K085 Benzene, dichlorobenzenes, trichlorobenzenes, tetrachlorobenzenes,
pentachlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, benzyl chloride.
K086 Lead, hexavalent chromium.
K087 Phenol, naphthalene.
K088 Cyanide (complexes).
204
K090 Chromium.
K091 Chromium.
K093 Phthalic anhydride, maleic anhydride.
K094 Phthalic anhydride.
K095 1,1,2-trichloroethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane.
K096 1,2-dichloroethane, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane.
K097 Chlordane, heptachlor.
K098 Toxaphene.
K099 2,4-dichlorophenol, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol.
K100 Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium.
K101 Arsenic.
K102 Arsenic.
K103 Aniline, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine.
K104 Aniline, benzene, diphenylamine, nitrobenzene, phynylenediamine.
K105 Benzene, monochlorobenzene, dichlorobenzenes, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol.
K106 Mercury.
K111 2,4-Dinitrotoluene.
K112 2,4-Toluenediamine, o-toluidine, p-toluidine, aniline.
K113 2,4-Toluenediamine, o-toluidine, p-toluidine, aniline.
K114 2,4-Toluenediamine, o-toluidine, p-toluidine.
K115 2,4-Toluenediamine.
K116 Carbon tetrachloride, tetrachloroethylene, chloroform, phosgene.
K117 Ethylene dibromide.
K118 Ethylene dibromide.
K123 Ethylene thiourea.
K124 Ethylene thiourea.
K125 Ethylene thiourea.
K126 Ethylene thiourea.
K131 Dimethyl sulfate, methyl bromide.
K132 Methyl bromide.
K136 Ethylene dibromide.
K141 Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene,
benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene.
K142 Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene,
benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene.
K143 Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene.
K144 Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene,
benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene.
K145 Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene,
naphthalene.
K147 Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene,
benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene.
K148 Benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene,
benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene.
205
K149 Benzotrichloride, benzyl chloride, chloroform, chloromethane,
chlorobenzene, 1,4-dichlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene,
pentachlorobenzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachlorobenzene, toluene.
K150 Carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, chloromethane, 1,4-dichlorobenzene,
hexachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachlorobenzene, 1,1,2,2-
tetrachloroethane, tetrachloroethylene, 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene.
K151 Benzene, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, hexachlorobenzene,
pentachlorobenzene, toluene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachlorobenzene,
tetrachloroethylene.
K156 Benomyl, carbaryl, carbendazim, carbofuran, carbosulfan, formaldehyde,
methylene chloride, triethylamine.
K157 Carbon tetrachloride, formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride,
pyridine, triethylamine.
K158 Benomyl, carbendazim, carbofuran, carbosulfan, chloroform, methylene
chloride.
K159 Benzene, butylate, EPTC, molinate, pebulate, vernolate.
K161 Antimony, arsenic, metam-sodium, ziram.
K169 Benzene.
K170 Benzo(a)pyrene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, benzo (a) anthracene,
benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, 3-methylcholanthrene, 7,12-
dimethylbenz(a)anthracene.
K171 Benzene, arsenic.
K172 Benzene, arsenic.
K174 1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-HpCDD),
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-heptachlorodibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-HpCDF), 1,2,3,4,7,8,9-
heptachlorodibenzofuran (1,2,3,6,7,8,9-HpCDF), all hexachlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins (HxCDDs), all hexachlorodibenzofurans (HxCDFs), all
pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins (PeCDDs), 1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-octachlorodibenzo-
p-dioxin (OCDD), 1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9- octachlorodibenzofuran (OCDF), all
pentachlorodibenzofurans (PeCDFs), all tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
(TCDDs), all tetrachlorodibenzofurans (TCDFs).
K175 Mercury.
K176 Arsenic, lead.
K177 Antimony.
K178 Thallium.
U
K181
U
U
Aniline, o-anisidine, 4-chloroaniline, p-cresidine, 2,4-dimethylaniline,
1,2-phenylenediamine, 1,3-phenylenediamine.
U
N.A.--Waste is hazardous because it fails the test for the characteristic of ignitability, corrosivity,
or reactivity.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
206
Section 721.Appendix H Hazardous Constituents
Common Name Chemical Abstracts Name
Chemical
Abstracts
Number
(CAS No.)
USEPA
Hazard-
ous
Waste
Number
A2213 Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-
(dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-
oxo-, methyl ester
30558-43-1 U394
Acetonitrile Same 75-05-8 U003
Acetophenone Ethanone, 1-phenyl- 98-86-2 U004
2-Acetylaminofluorene Acetamide,
N-9H-fluoren-2-yl- 53-96-3 U005
Acetyl chloride Same 75-36-5 U006
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea Acetamide, N-
(aminothioxomethyl)-
591-08-2 P002
Acrolein 2-Propenal 107-02-8 P003
Acrylamide 2-Propenamide 79-06-1 U007
Acrylonitrile 2-Propenenitrile 107-13-1 U009
Aflatoxins Same 1402-68-2
Aldicarb Propanal, 2-methyl-2-
(methylthio)-,
S
O-
[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime
SU
O-((methylamino)carbonyl)-
oxime
U
116-06-3 P070
Aldicarb sulfone Propanal, 2-methyl-2- (methyl-
sulfonyl)-,
S
O-[(methylamino)-
carbonyl]oxime
SU
O-
((methylamino)carbonyl)oxime
U
1646-88-4 P203
Aldrin 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-
1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1-
α
,4-
α
,4a-
β
,5-
α
,8-
α
,8a-
β
)-
309-00-2 P004
Allyl alcohol 2-Propen-1-ol 107-18-6 P005
Allyl chloride 1-Propene, 3-chloro- 107-18-6
Aluminum phosphide Same 20859-73-8 P006
4-Aminobiphenyl
S
[1,1'
-Biphenyl]-4-amine
U
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4-amine
U
92-67-1
5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol 3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(amino-
methyl)-
2763-96-4 P007
4-Aminopyridine 4-Pyridinamine 504-24-5 P008
Amitrole 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine 61-82-5 U011
Ammonium vanadate Vanadic acid, ammonium salt 7803-55-6 U119
Aniline Benzenamine 62-53-3 U012
U
o-Anisidine (2-methoxyaniline)
U
U
Benzenamine, 2-Methoxy-
U
U
90–04–0
U
Antimony Same 7440-36-0
207
Antimony compounds, N.O.S.
(not otherwise specified)
Aramite Sulfurous acid, 2-chloroethyl-,
S
2-
[4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)phenoxy]-
1-methylethyl
SU
2-(4-(1,1-
dimethylethyl)phenoxy)-1-
methylethyl
U
ester
140-57-8
Arsenic Arsenic 7440-38-2
Arsenic compounds, N.O.S.
Arsenic acid Arsenic acid H
B
3
B
AsO
B
4
B
7778-39-4 P010
Arsenic pentoxide Arsenic oxide As
B
2
B
O
B
5
B
1303-28-2 P011
Arsenic trioxide Arsenic oxide As
B
2
B
O
B
3
B
1327-53-3 P012
Auramine Benzenamine,
S
4,4'-carbon-
imidoylbis[N, N-dimethyl-
SU
4,4'-
carbonimidoylbis(N, N-dimethyl-
U
492-80-8 U014
Azaserine L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester) 115-02-6 U015
Barban Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-
, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester
101-27-9 U280
Barium Same 7440-39-3
Barium compounds, N.O.S.
Barium cyanide Same 542-62-1 P013
Bendiocarb 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol-2,2-
dimethyl-, methyl carbamate
22781-23-3 U278
Bendiocarb phenol 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol-2,2-
dimethyl-,
22961-82-6 U364
Benomyl Carbamic acid,
S
[1- [(butylamino)-
carbonyl]-1H-benzimidazol-2-
yl]-,
SU
(1- ((butylamino)carbonyl)-
1H-benzimidazol-2-yl)-,
U
methyl
ester
17804-35-2 U271
S
Benz[c]acridine
S
U
Benz(c)acridine
U
Same 225-51-4 U016
S
Benz[a]anthracene
S
U
Benz(a)anthra-
cene
U
Same 56-55-3 U018
Benzal chloride Benzene, (dichloromethyl)- 98-87-3 U017
Benzene Same 71-43-2 U018
Benzenearsonic acid Arsonic acid, phenyl- 98-05-5
Benzidine
S
[1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine
U
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine
U
92-87-5 U021
S
Benzo[b]fluoranthene
U
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
U
S
Benz[e]acephenanthrylene
U
Benz(e)acephenanthrylene
U
205-99-2
S
Benzo[j]fluoranthene
U
Benzo(j)fluoranthene
U
Same 205-82-3
Benzo(k)fluoranthene Same 207-08-9
S
Benzo[a]pyrene
SU
Benzo(a)pyrene
U
Same 50-32-8 U022
p-Benzoquinone 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione 106-51-4 U197
Benzotrichloride Benzene, (trichloromethyl)- 98-07-7 U023
208
Benzyl chloride Benzene, (chloromethyl)- 100-44-7 P028
Beryllium powder Same 7440-41-7 P015
Beryllium compounds, N.O.S.
Bis(pentamethylene)thiuram
tetrasulfide
Piperidine, 1,1'-(tetrathio-
dicarbonothioyl)-bis-
120-54-7
Bromoacetone 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- 598-31-2 P017
Bromoform Methane, tribromo- 75-25-2 U225
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- 101-55-3 U030
Brucine Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-
dimethoxy-
357-57-3 P018
Butylate Carbamothioic acid, bis(2-
methylpropyl)-, S-ethyl ester
2008-41-5
Butyl benzyl phthalate 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
butyl phenylmethyl ester
85-68-7
Cacodylic acid Arsenic acid, dimethyl- 75-60-5 U136
Cadmium Same 7440-43-9
Cadmium compounds, N.O.S.
Calcium chromate Chromic acid H
B
2
B
CrO
B
4
B
, calcium
salt
13765-19-0 U032
Calcium cyanide Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)
B
2
B
592-01-8 P021
Carbaryl 1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate 63-25-2 U279
Carbendazim Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-
2-yl, methyl ester
10605-21-7 U372
Carbofuran 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-
dimethyl-, methylcarbamate
1563-66-2 P127
Carbofuran phenol 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-
dimethyl-
1563-38-8 U367
Carbosulfan Carbamic acid,
S
[(dibutylamino)-
thio] methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-
dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl
SU
((dibutylamino)thio)methyl-2,3-
dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzo-
furanyl
U
ester
55285-14-8 P189
Carbon disulfide Same 75-15-0 P022
Carbon oxyfluoride Carbonic difuoride 353-50-4 U033
Carbon tetrachloride Methane, tetrachloro- 56-23-5 U211
Chloral Acetaldehyde, trichloro- 75-87-6 U034
Chlorambucil Benzenebutanoic acid,
S
4[bis-(2-
chloroethyl)amino]-
SU
4(bis-(2-
chloroethyl)amino)-
U
305-03-3 U035
Chlordane 4,7-Methano-1H-indene,
1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-
2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro-
57-74-9 U036
Chlordane,
α
and
γ
isomers
U036
Chlorinated benzenes, N.O.S.
Chlorinated ethane, N.O.S.
209
Chlorinated fluorocarbons,
N.O.S.
Chlorinated naphthalene, N.O.S.
Chlorinated phenol, N.O.S.
Chlornaphazine Naphthalenamine, N,N'-bis(2-
chloroethyl)-
494-03-1 U026
Chloroacetaldehyde Acetaldehyde, chloro- 107-20-0 P023
Chloroalkyl ethers, N.O.S.
p-Chloroaniline Benzenamine, 4-chloro- 106-47-8 P024
Chlorobenzene Benzene, chloro- 108-90-7 U037
Chlorobenzilate
Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-
α
-
(4-chlorophenyl)-
α
-hydroxy-,
ethyl ester
510-15-6 U038
p-Chloro-m-cresol Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl- 59-50-7 U039
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)- 110-75-8 U042
Chloroform Methane, trichloro- 67-66-3 U044
Chloromethyl methyl ether Methane, chloromethoxy- 107-30-2 U046
β
-Chloronaphthalene
Naphthalene, 2-chloro- 91-58-7 U047
o-Chlorophenol Phenol, 2-chloro- 95-57-8 U048
1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- 5344-82-1 P026
Chloroprene 1,3-Butadiene, 2-chloro- 126-99-8
3-Chloropropionitrile Propanenitrile, 3-chloro- 542-76-7 P027
Chromium Same 7440-47-3
Chromium compounds, N.O.S.
Chrysene Same 218-01-9 U050
Citrus red No. 2 2-Naphthalenol,
S
1-[(2,5-
dimethoxyphenyl)azo]-
SU
1-((2,5-
dimethoxyphenyl)azo)-
U
6358-53-8
Coal tar creosote Same 8007-45-2
Copper cyanide Copper cyanide CuCN 544-92-3 P029
Copper dimethyldithiocarbamate Copper, bis(dimethylcarbamo-
dithioato-S,S')-,
137-29-1
Creosote Same U051
U
p-Cresidine
U
U
2-Methoxy-5-
methylbenzenamine
U
U
120–71–8
U
Cresols (Cresylic acid) Phenol, methyl- 1319-77-3 U052
Crotonaldehyde 2-Butenal 4170-30-3 U053
m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate Phenol, 3-(methylethyl)-, methyl
carbamate
64-00-6 P202
Cyanides (soluble salts and
complexes), N.O.S.
P030
Cyanogen Ethanedinitrile 460-19-5 P031
Cyanogen bromide Cyanogen bromide (CN)Br 506-68-3 U246
Cyanogen chloride Cyanogen chloride (CN)Cl 506-77-4 P033
Cycasin
β
-D-glucopyranoside, (methyl-
ONN-azoxy)methyl-
14901-08-7
210
Cycloate Carbamothioic acid, cyclohexyl-
ethyl-, S-ethyl ester
1134-23-2
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- 131-89-5 P034
Cyclophosphamide 2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-
amine,
S
N,N-bis(2-chloro-
ethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-oxide
SU
N,N-
bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-2-
oxide
U
50-18-0 U058
2,4-D Acetic acid, (2,4-dichloro-
phenoxy)-
94-75-7 U240
2,4-D, salts and esters Acetic acid, (2,4-
dichlorophenoxy)-, salts and
esters
U240
Daunomycin 5, 12-Naphthacenedione,
S
8-
acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-
trideoxy-
α
-L-lyxo-hexo-
pyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-
tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-l-
methoxy-, 8S-cis)-
SU
8-acetyl-10-
((3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy-
α
-L-
lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy)-
7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-tri-
hydroxy-l-methoxy-, 8S-cis)-
U
20830-81-3 U059
Dazomet 2H-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione,
tetrahydro-3,5-dimethyl
533-74-4
DDD Benzene,
S
1,1'-(2,2-dichloroethyl-
idene)bis[4-chloro-
SU
1,1'-(2,2-
dichloroethylidene)bis(4-chloro-
U
72-54-8 U060
DDE Benzene,
S
1,1'-(dichloroethenyl-
idene)bis[4-chloro-
SU
1,1'-
(dichloroethenylidene)bis(4-
chloro-
U
72-55-9
DDT Benzene,
S
1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloro-
ethylidene)bis[4-chloro-
SU
1,1'-
(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis(4-
chloro-
U
50-29-3 U061
Diallate Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-
methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-dichloro-2-
propenyl) ester
2303-16-4 U062
S
Dibenz[a,h]acridine
U
Dibenz(a,h)acridine
U
Same 226-36-8
S
Dibenz[a,j]acridine
U
Dibenz(a,j)acridine
U
Same 224-42-0
S
Dibenz[a,h]anthracene
U
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene
U
Same 53-70-3 U063
211
S
7H-Dibenzo[c,g]carbazole
U
7H-Dibenzo(c,g)carbazole
U
Same 194-59-2
S
Dibenzo[a,e]pyrene
U
Dibenzo(a,e)pyrene
U
S
Naphtho[1,2,3,4-def]chrysene
U
Naphtho(1,2,3,4-def)chrysene
U
192-65-4
S
Dibenzo[a,h]pyrene
U
Dibenzo(a,h)pyrene
U
S
Dibenzo[b,def]chrysene
SU
Dibenzo(
b,def)chrysene
U
189-64-0
S
Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene
U
Dibenzo(a,i)pyrene
U
S
Benzo[rst]pentaphene
U
Benzo(rst)pentaphene
U
189-55-9 U064
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro- 96-12-8 U066
Dibutyl phthalate 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
dibutyl ester
84-74-2 U069
o-Dichlorobenzene Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- 95-50-1 U070
m-Dichlorobenzene Benzene, 1,3-dichloro- 541-73-1 U071
p-Dichlorobenzene Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- 106-46-7 U072
Dichlorobenzene, N.O.S. Benzene, dichloro- 25321-22-6
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine
S
[1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine,
SU
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine,
U
3,3'-dichloro-
91-94-1 U073
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- 764-41-0 U074
Dichlorodifluoromethane Methane, dichlorodifluoro- 75-71-8 U075
Dichloroethylene, N.O.S. Dichloroethylene 25323-30-2
1,1-Dichloroethylene Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- 75-35-4 U078
1,2-Dichloroethylene Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- 156-60-5 U079
Dichloroethyl ether Ethane,
S
1,1'-oxybis[2-chloro-
SU
1,1'-oxybis(2-chloro-
U
111-44-4 U025
Dichloroisopropyl ether Propane,
S
2,2'-oxybis[2-chloro-
SU
2,2'-oxybis(2-chloro-
U
108-60-1 U027
Dichloromethoxyethane Ethane,
S
1,1'-[methylenebis(oxy)-
bis[2-chloro-
SU
1,1'-(methylenebis-
(oxy)bis(2-chloro-
U
111-91-1 U024
Dichloromethyl ether Methane,
S
oxybis[chloro-
SU
oxybis(chloro-
U
542-88-1 P016
2,4-Dichlorophenol Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- 120-83-2 U081
2,6-Dichlorophenol Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- 87-65-0 U082
Dichlorophenylarsine Arsonous dichloride, phenyl- 696-28-6 P036
Dichloropropane, N.O.S. Propane, dichloro- 26638-19-7
Dichloropropanol, N.O.S. Propanol, dichloro- 26545-73-3
Dichloropropene, N.O.S. 1-Propene, dichloro- 26952-23-8
1,3-Dichloropropene 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro- 542-75-6 U084
Dieldrin
S
2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2, 3-b]-
oxirene,
S
U
2,7:3,6-
Dimethanonaphth(2, 3-b)oxirene,
U
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-
1a,2,2a,3,6, 6a,7,7a-octahydro-,
(1a
α
,2
β
,2a
α
,3
β
,6
β
,6a
α
,7
β
,7a
α
)-
60-57-1 P037
1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane 2,2'-Bioxirane 1464-53-5 U085
212
Diethylarsine Arsine, diethyl- 692-42-2 P038
Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate Ethanol, 2,2'-oxybis-,
dicarbamate
5952-26-1 U395
1,4-Diethyleneoxide 1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 U108
Diethylhexyl phthalate 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester
117-81-7 U028
N,N'-Diethylhydrazine Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl- 1615-80-1 U086
O,O-Diethyl-S-methyl dithio-
phosphate
Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-
diethyl S-methyl ester
3288-58-2 U087
Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitro-
phenyl ester
311-45-5 P041
Diethyl phthalate 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
diethyl ester
84-66-2 U088
O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl
phosphorothioate
Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-
diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester
297-97-2 P040
Diethylstilbestrol Phenol, 4,4'-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-
ethenediyl)bis-, (E)-
56-53-1 U089
Dihydrosafrole 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl- 94-58-6 U090
Diisopropylfluorophosphate
(DFP)
Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-
methylethyl) ester
55-91-4 P043
Dimethoate Phosphorodithioic acid,
S
O,O-
dimethyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-
oxoethyl]
SU
O,O-dimethyl S-(2-
(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl)
U
ester
60-51-5 P044
S
Dimetilan
S
S
Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-
[(dimethylamino) carbonyl]-5-
methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester
S
S
644-64-4
S
S
P191
S
3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine
S
[1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine,
S
U
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine,
U
3,3'-dimethoxy-
119-90-4 U091
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-
(phenylazo)-
60-11-7 U093
U
2,4-Dimethylaniline (2,4-xylidine)
U
U
Benzenamine, 2,4-dimethyl-
U
U
95–68–1
U
S
7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene
U
7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)anthracene
U
S
Benz[a]anthracene,
SU
Benz(a)anthracene,
U
7,12-
dimethyl-
57-97-6 U094
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine
S
[1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine,
SU
(1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine,
U
3,3'-dimethyl-
119-93-7 U095
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride Carbamic chloride, dimethyl- 79-44-7 U097
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl- 57-14-7 U098
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl- 540-73-8 U099
α
,
α
-Dimethylphenethylamine Benzeneethanamine,
α
,
α
-
dimethyl-
122-09-8 P046
2,4-Dimethylphenol Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- 105-67-9 U101
213
Dimethylphthalate 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
dimethyl ester
131-11-3 U102
Dimethyl sulfate Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester 77-78-1 U103
U
Dimetilan
U
U
Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-
((dimethylamino) carbonyl)-5-
methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester
U
U
644-64-4
U
U
P191
U
Dinitrobenzene, N.O.S. Benzene, dinitro- 25154-54-5
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro- 534-52-1 P047
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol salts P047
2,4-Dinitrophenol Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- 51-28-5 P048
2,4-Dinitrotoluene Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- 121-14-2 U105
2,6-Dinitrotoluene Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- 606-20-2 U106
Dinoseb Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-
dinitro-
88-85-7 P020
Di-n-octyl phthalate 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
dioctyl ester
117-84-0 U107
Diphenylamine Benzenamine, N-phenyl- 122-39-4
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl- 122-66-7 U109
Di-n-propylnitrosamine 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-
propyl-
621-64-7 U111
Disulfiram Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide,
tetraethyl
97-77-8
Disulfoton Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-
diethyl
S
S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl]
SU
S-
(2-(ethylthio)ethyl)
U
ester
298-04-4 P039
Dithiobiuret Thioimidodicarbonic diamide
S
[(H
SB
S
2
S
B
S
N)C(S)]
S
B
S
2
S
B
S
NH
S
U
((H
U
B
U
2
U
B
U
N)C(S))
U
B
U
2
U
B
U
NH
U
541-53-7 P049
Endosulfan 6, 9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxa-
thiepen,6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-
1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-
oxide,
115-29-7 P050
Endothal
S
7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-
dicarboxylic acid
U
7-Oxabicyclo(2.2.1)heptane-2,3-
dicarboxylic acid
U
145-73-3 P088
Endrin
S
2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]-
oxirene,
SU
2,7:3,6-
Dimethanonaphth(2,3-b)oxirene,
U
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-
1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-,
(1a
α
,2
β
,2a
β
,3
α
,6
α
,6a
β
,7
β
,7a
α
)-
,
72-20-8 P051
Endrin metabolites P051
Epichlorohydrin Oxirane, (chloromethyl)- 106-89-8 U041
214
Epinephrine 1,2-Benzenediol,
S
4-[1-hydroxy-2-
(methylamino)ethyl]-,
SU
4-(1-
hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl)-,
U
(R)-
51-43-4 P042
EPTC Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-
ethyl ester
759-94-4
Ethyl carbamate (urethane) Carbamic acid, ethyl ester 51-79-6 U238
Ethyl cyanide Propanenitrile 107-12-0 P101
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-
ethanediylbis-
111-54-6 U114
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid,
salts and esters
U114
Ethylene dibromide Ethane, 1,2-dibromo- 106-93-4 U067
Ethylene dichloride Ethane, 1,2-dichloro- 107-06-2
Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- 110-80-5 U359
Ethyleneimine Aziridine 151-56-4 P054
Ethylene oxide Oxirane 75-21-8 U115
Ethylenethiourea 2-Imidazolidinethione 96-45-7 U116
Ethylidine dichloride Ethane, 1,1-dichloro- 75-34-3 U076
Ethyl methacrylate 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-,
ethyl ester
97-63-2 U118
Ethyl methanesulfonate Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester 62-50-0 U119
Ethyl Ziram Zinc, bis(diethylcarbamo-
dithioato-S,S')-
14324-55-1 U407
Famphur Phosphorothioc acid,
S
O-[4-
[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]-
phenyl]
SU
O-(4-
((dimethylamino)sulfonyl)-
phenyl)
U
O,O-dimethyl ester
52-85-7 P097
Ferbam Iron, tris(dimethylcarbamo-
dithioato-S,S')-,
14484-64-1
Fluoranthene Same 206-44-0 U120
Fluorine Same 7782-41-4 P056
Fluoroacetamide Acetamide, 2-fluoro- 640-19-7 P057
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt 62-74-8 P058
Formaldehyde Same 50-00-0 U122
Formetanate hydrochloride Methanimidamide,
S
N,N-
dimethyl-N'-[3-[[(methylamino)-
carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-
SU
N,N-
dimethyl-N'-(3-(((methylamino)-
carbonyl)oxy)phenyl)-
U
, mono-
hydrochloride
23422-53-9 P198
Formic acid Same 64-18-16 U123
215
Formparanate Methanimidamide,
S
N,N-
dimethyl-N'-[2-methyl-4-
[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-
phenyl]-
SU
N,N-dimethyl-N'-(2-
methyl-4-(((methylamino)-
carbonyl)oxy)phenyl)-
U
17702-57-7 P197
Glycidylaldehyde Oxiranecarboxaldehyde 765-34-4 U126
Halomethanes, N.O.S.
Heptachlor 4,7-Methano-1H-
indene,1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-
3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-
76-44-8 P059
Heptachlor epoxide
S
2,5-Methano-2H-indeno[1,
2b]oxirene,
SU
2,5-Methano-2H-
indeno(1, 2b)oxirene,
U
2,3,4,5,6,7,7-heptachloro-
1a,1b,5,5a,6,6a-hexahydro-,
(1a
α
,1b
β
,2
α
,5
α
,5a
β
,6
β
,6a
α
)-
1024-57-3
Heptachlor epoxide (
α
,
β
, and
γ
isomers)
Heptachlorodibenzofurans
Heptachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
Hexachlorobenzene Benzene, hexachloro- 118-74-1 U127
Hexachlorobutadiene 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexa-
chloro-
87-68-3 U128
Hexachlorocyclo-pentadiene 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-
hexachloro-
77-47-4 U130
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
Hexachlorodibenzofurans
Hexachloroethane Ethane, hexachloro- 67-72-1 U131
Hexachlorophene Phenol,
S
2,2'-methylenebis[3,4,6-
trichloro-
SU
2,2'-methylene-
bis(3,4,6-trichloro-
U
70-30-4 U132
Hexachloropropene 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-
hexachloro-
1888-71-7 U243
Hexaethyltetraphosphate Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl
ester
757-58-4 P062
Hydrazine Same 302-01-2 U133
Hydrogen cyanide Hydrocyanic acid 74-90-8 P063
Hydrogen fluoride Hydrofluoric acid 7664-39-3 U134
Hydrogen sulfide Hydrogen sulfide H
B
2
B
S 7783-06-4 U135
S
Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene
U
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene
U
Same 193-39-5 U137
3-Iodo-2-propynyl-n-butyl-
carbamate
Carbamic acid, butyl-, 3-iodo-2-
propynyl ester
55406-53-6
Isobutyl alcohol 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- 78-83-1 U140
216
Isodrin 1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaph-
thalene,1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-
1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-,
(1
α
,4
α
,4a
β
,5
β
,8
β
,8a
β
)-,
465-73-6 P060
Isolan Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-
methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-
pyrazol-5-yl ester
119-38-0 P192
Isosafrole 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-
propenyl)-
120-58-1 U141
Kepone
S
1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta[cd]-
pentalen-2-one,
SU
1,3,4-Metheno-
2H-cyclobuta(cd)pentalen-2-one,
U
1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-
decachlorooctahydro-,
143-50-0 U142
Lasiocarpine 2-Butenoic acid,
S
2-methyl-, 7-
[[2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-
methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-
oxobutoxy]methyl]-2,3,5,7a-
tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-l-yl
ester, [1S-[1-
α
(Z),7(2S*,3R*),7a
α
]]-
SU
2-
methyl-, 7-((2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-
methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-
oxobutoxy)methyl)-2,3,5,7a-
tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-l-yl
ester, (1S-(1-
α
(Z),7(2S*,3R*),7a
α
))-
U
303-34-1 U143
Lead Same 7439-92-1
Lead and compounds, N.O.S.
Lead acetate Acetic acid, lead (2+) salt 301-04-2 U144
Lead phosphate Phosphoric acid, lead (2+) salt
(2:3)
7446-27-7 U145
Lead subacetate Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetra-
hydroxytri-
1335-32-6 U146
Lindane Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexa-
chloro-, 1
α
,2
α
,3
β
,4
α
,5
α
,6
β
)-
58-89-9 U129
Maleic anhydride 2,5-Furandione 108-31-6 U147
Maleic hydrazide 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro- 123-33-1 U148
Malononitrile Propanedinitrile 109-77-3 U149
Manganese dimethyldithio-
carbamate
Manganese, bis(dimethyl-
carbamodithioato-S,S')-,
15339-36-3 P196
Melphalan L-Phenylalanine,
S
4-[bis(2-chloro-
ethyl)amino]-
SU
4-(bis(2-chloro-
ethyl)amino)-
U
148-82-3 U150
Mercury Same 7439-97-6 U151
Mercury compounds, N.O.S.
217
Mercury fulminate Fulminic acid, mercury (2+) salt 628-86-4 P065
Metam Sodium Carbamodithioic acid, methyl-,
monosodium salt
137-42-8
Methacrylonitrile 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- 126-98-7 U152
Methapyrilene 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-
dimethyl-N'-2-pyridinyl-N'-(2-
thienylmethyl)-
91-80-5 U155
Methiocarb Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-
(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate
2032-65-7 P199
Metholmyl Ethanimidothioic acid,
S
N-
[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-,
SU
N-(((methyl-
amino)carbonyl)oxy)-,
U
methyl
ester
16752-77-5 P066
Methoxychlor Benzene,
S
1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloro-
ethylidene)bis[4-methoxy-
SU
1,1'-
(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis(4-
methoxy-
U
72-43-5 U247
Methyl bromide Methane, bromo- 74-83-9 U029
Methyl chloride Methane, chloro- 74-87-3 U045
Methylchlorocarbonate Carbonochloridic acid, methyl
ester
79-22-1 U156
Methyl chloroform Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro- 71-55-6 U226
3-Methylcholanthrene
S
Benz[j]aceanthrylene,
SU
Benz(j)aceanthrylene,
U
1,2-
dihydro-3-methyl-
56-49-5 U157
4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloro-
aniline)
Benzenamine,
S
4,4'-methylene-
bis[2-chloro-
SU
4,4'-methylene-
bis(2-chloro-
U
101-14-4 U158
Methylene bromide Methane, dibromo- 74-95-3 U068
Methylene chloride Methane, dichloro- 75-09-2 U080
Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) 2-Butanone 78-93-3 U159
Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide
2-Butanone, peroxide 1338-23-4 U160
Methyl hydrazine Hydrazine, methyl- 60-34-4 P068
Methyl iodide Methane, iodo- 74-88-4 U138
Methyl isocyanate Methane, isocyanato- 624-83-9 P064
2-Methyllactonitrile Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-
methyl-
75-86-5 P069
Methyl methacrylate 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-,
methyl ester
80-62-6 U162
Methyl methanesulfonate Methanesulfonic acid, methyl
ester
66-27-3
Methyl parathion Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-
dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester
298-00-0 P071
Methylthiouracil 4-(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-
dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo-
56-04-2 U164
218
Metolcarb Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-
methylphenyl ester
1129-41-5 P190
Mexacarbate Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-
dimethyl-, methylcarbamate
(ester)
315-18-4 P128
Mitomycin C
S
Azirino[2', 3':3, 4]pyrrolo[1, 2-
a]indole-4, 7-dione, 6-amino-8-
[[(aminocarbonyl)oxy]methyl]-
1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-
methoxy-5-methyl-, [1a-S-
(1a
α
,8
β
,8a
α
,8b
α
)]-,
SU
Azirino(2',
3':3, 4)pyrrolo(1, 2-a)indole-4, 7-
dione, 6-amino-8-(((amino-
carbonyl)oxy)methyl)-
1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-
methoxy-5-methyl-, (1a-S-
(1a
α
,8
β
,8a
α
,8b
α
))-,
U
50-07-7 U010
Molinate 1H-Azepine-1-carbothioic acid,
hexahydro-, S-ethyl ester
2212-67-1
MNNG Guanidine, N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-
nitroso-
70-25-7 U163
Mustard gas Ethane,
S
1,1'-thiobis[2-chloro-
SU
1,1'-thiobis(2-chloro-
U
505-60-2 U165
Naphthalene Same 91-20-3 U165
1,4-Naphthoquinone 1,4-Naphthalenedione 130-15-4 U166
α
-Naphthylamine
1-Naphthalenamine 134-32-7 U167
β
-Naphthylamine
2-Naphthalenamine 91-59-8 U168
α
-Naphthylthiourea
Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- 86-88-4 P072
Nickel Same 7440-02-0
Nickel compounds, N.O.S.
Nickel carbonyl Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)
B
4
B
, (T-4)- 13463-39-3 P073
Nickel cyanide Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)
B
2
B
557-19-7 P074
Nicotine Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-
pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)-
54-11-5 P075
Nicotine salts P075
Nitric oxide Nitrogen oxide NO 10102-43-9 P076
p-Nitroaniline Benzenamine, 4-nitro- 100-01-6 P077
Nitrobenzene Benzene, nitro- 98-95-3 P078
Nitrogen dioxide Nitrogen oxide NO
B
2
B
10102-44-0 P078
Nitrogen mustard Ethanamine, 2-chloro-N-(2-
chloroethyl)-N-methyl-
51-75-2
Nitrogen mustard, hydrochloride
salt
Nitrogen mustard N-oxide Ethanamine, 2-chloro-N-(2-
chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, N-oxide
126-85-2
219
Nitrogen mustard, N-oxide,
hydrochloride salt
Nitroglycerin 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate 55-63-0 P081
p-Nitrophenol Phenol, 4-nitro- 100-02-7 U170
2-Nitropropane Propane, 2-nitro- 79-46-9 U171
Nitrosamines, N.O.S. 35576-91-1
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-
nitroso-
924-16-3 U172
N-Nitrosodiethanolamine Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitrosoimino)bis- 1116-54-7 U173
N-Nitrosodiethylamine Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- 55-18-5 U174
N-Nitrosodimethylamine Methanamine, N-methyl-N-
nitroso-
62-75-9 P082
N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- 759-73-9 U176
N-Nitrosomethylethylamine Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- 10595-95-6
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso- 684-93-5 U177
N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-,
ethyl ester
615-53-2 U178
N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- 4549-40-0 P084
N-Nitrosomorpholine Morpholine, 4-nitroso- 59-89-2
N-Nitrosonornicotine Pyridine, 3-(1-nitroso-2-
pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)-
16543-55-8
N-Nitrosopiperidine Piperidine, 1-nitroso- 100-75-4 U179
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso- 930-55-2 U180
N-Nitrososarcosine Glycine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- 13256-22-9
5-Nitro-o-toluidine Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- 99-55-8 U181
Octachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin
(OCDD)
1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxin.
3268-87-9
Octachlorodibenzofuran (OCDF) 1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachloro-
dibenzofuran.
39001-02-0
Octamethylpyrophosphoramide Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- 152-16-9 P085
Osmium tetroxide Osmium oxide OsO
B
4
B
, (T-4) 20816-12-0 P087
Oxamyl Ethanimidothioc acid,
S
2-
(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methyl-
amino)carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-,
SU
2-
(dimethylamino)-N-(((methyl-
amino)carbonyl)oxy)-2-oxo-,
U
methyl ester
23135-22-0 P194
Paraldehyde 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl- 123-63-7 U182
Parathion Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-
diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester
56-38-2 P089
Pebulate Carbamothioic acid, butylethyl-,
S-propyl ester
1114-71-2
Pentachlorobenzene Benzene, pentachloro- 608-93-5 U183
Pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
Pentachlorodibenzofurans
Pentachloroethane Ethane, pentachloro- 76-01-7 U184
220
Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) Benzene, pentachloronitro- 82-68-8 U185
Pentachlorophenol Phenol, pentachloro- 87-86-5 See F027
Phenacetin Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)- 62-44-2 U187
Phenol Same 108-95-2 U188
Phenylenediamine Benzenediamine 25265-76-3
U
1,2-Phenylenediamine
U
U
1,2-Benzenediamine
U
U
95–54–5
U
U
1,3-Phenylenediamine
U
U
1,3-Benzenediamine
U
U
108–45–2
U
Phenylmercury acetate Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl- 62-38-4 P092
Phenylthiourea Thiourea, phenyl- 103-85-5 P093
Phosgene Carbonic dichloride 75-44-5 P095
Phosphine Same 7803-51-2 P096
Phorate Phosphorodithioic acid,
S
O,O-
diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl]
SU
O,O-diethyl S-((ethylthio)methyl)
U
ester
298-02-2 P094
Phthalic acid esters, N.O.S.
Phthalic anhydride 1,3-Isobenzofurandione 85-44-9 U190
Physostigmine
S
Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-ol,
SU
Pyrrolo-
(2,3-b)indol-5-ol,
U
1,2,3,3a,8,8a-
hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-,
methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-
cis)-
57-47-6 P204
Physostigmine salicylate Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-,
compound with
S
(3aS-cis)-
1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-
trimethylpyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-yl
methylcarbamate
SU
(3aS-cis)-
1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-
trimethylpyrrolo(2,3-b)indol-5-yl
methylcarbamate
U
ester (1:1)
57-64-7 P188
2-Picoline Pyridine, 2-methyl- 109-06-8 U191
Polychlorinated biphenyls,
N.O.S.
Potassium cyanide Same 151-50-8 P098
Potassium dimethyldithio-
carbamate
Carbamodithioc acid, dimethyl,
potassium salt
128-03-0
Potassium n-hydroxymethyl-n-
methyl-dithiocarbamate
Carbamodithioc acid, (hydroxy-
methyl)methyl-, monopotassium
salt
51026-28-9
Potassium n-methyldithio-
carbamate
Carbamodithioc acid, methyl-
monopotassium salt
137-41-7
Potassium silver cyanide Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-,
potassium)
506-61-6 P099
Potassium pentachlorophenate Pentachlorophenol, potassium
salt
7778736 None
221
Promecarb Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methyl-
ethyl)-, methyl carbamate
2631-37-0 P201
Pronamide Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-
dimethyl-2-propynyl)-
23950-58-5 U192
1,3-Propane sultone 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide 1120-71-4 U193
Propham Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-
methylethyl ester
122-42-9 U373
Propoxur Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-,
methylcarbamate
114-26-1 U411
n-Propylamine 1-Propanamine 107-10-8 U194
Propargyl alcohol 2-Propyn-1-ol 107-19-7 P102
Propylene dichloride Propane, 1,2-dichloro- 78-87-5 U083
1,2-Propylenimine Aziridine, 2-methyl- 75-55-8 P067
Propylthiouracil 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-
dihydro-6-propyl-2-thioxo-
51-52-5
Prosulfocarb Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-
(phenylmethyl) ester
52888-80-9 U387
Pyridine Same 110-86-1 U196
Reserpine Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid,
S
11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-tri-
methoxybenzoyl)oxy]-,
SU
11,17-
dimethoxy-18-((3,4,5-trimeth-
oxybenzoyl)oxy)-,
U
methyl ester,
(3
β
,16
β
,17
α
,18
β
,20
α
)-,
50-55-5 U200
Resorcinol 1,3-Benzenediol 108-46-3 U201
Saccharin 1,2-Benzisothiazol-3(2H)-one,
1,1-dioxide
81-07-2 U202
Saccharin salts U202
Safrole 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-
propenyl)-
94-59-7 U203
Selenium Same 7782-49-2
Selenium compounds, N.O.S.
Selenium dioxide Selenious acid 7783-00-8 U204
Selenium sulfide Selenium sulfide SeS
B
2
B
7488-56-4 U205
Selenium, tetrakis(dimethyl-
dithiocarbamate
Carbamodithioic acid, dimethyl-,
tetraanhydrosulfide with ortho-
thioselenious acid
144-34-3
Selenourea Same 630-10-4 P103
Silver Same 7440-22-4
Silver compounds, N.O.S.
Silver cyanide Silver cyanide AgCN 506-64-9 P104
Silvex (2,4,5-TP) Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-
trichlorophenoxy)-
93-72-1 See F027
Sodium cyanide Sodium cyanide NaCN 143-33-9 P106
Sodium dibutyldithiocarbamate Carbamodithioic acid, dibutyl-,
sodium salt
136-30-1
222
Sodium diethyldithiocarbamate Carbamodithioic acid, diethyl-,
sodium salt
148-18-5
Sodium dimethyldithiocarbamate Carbamodithioic acid, dimethyl-,
sodium salt
128-04-1
Sodium pentachlorophenate Pentachlorophenol, sodium salt 131522 None
Streptozotocin D-Glucose,
S
2-deoxy-2-[[(methyl-
nitrosoamino)carbonyl]amino]-
SU
2-deoxy-2-(((methylnitroso-
amino)carbonyl)amino)-
U
18883-66-4 U206
Strychnine Strychnidin-10-one 57-24-9 P108
Strychnine salts P108
Sulfallate Carbamodithioic acid, diethyl-, 2-
chloro-2-propenyl ester
95-06-7
TCDD
S
Dibenzo[b,e][1,4]dioxin,
SU
Dibenzo(b,e)(1,4)dioxin,
U
2,3,7,8-
tetrachloro-
1746-01-6
Tetrabutylthiuram disulfide Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide,
tetrabutyl
1634-02-2
Tetramethylthiuram monosulfide Bis(dimethylthiocarbamoyl)
sulfide
97-74-5
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- 95-94-3 U207
Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
Tetrachlorodibenzofurans
Tetrachloroethane, N.O.S. Ethane, tetrachloro-, N.O.S. 25322-20-7
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- 630-20-6 U208
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- 79-34-5 U209
Tetrachloroethylene Ethene, tetrachloro- 127-18-4 U210
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- 58-90-2 See F027
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol,
potassium salt
Same 53535276 None
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol,
sodium salt
Same 25567559 None
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl
ester
3689-24-5 P109
Tetraethyl lead Plumbane, tetraethyl- 78-00-2 P110
Tetraethylpyrophosphate Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl
ester
107-49-3 P111
Tetranitromethane Methane, tetranitro- 509-14-8 P112
Thallium Same 7440-28-0
Thallium compounds
Thallic oxide Thallium oxide Tl
B
2
B
O
B
3
B
1314-32-5 P113
Thallium (I) acetate Acetic acid, thallium (1+) salt 563-68-8 U214
Thallium (I) carbonate Carbonic acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
6533-73-9 U215
Thallium (I) chloride Thallium chloride TlCl 7791-12-0 U216
Thallium (I) nitrate Nitric acid, thallium (1+) salt 10102-45-1 U217
223
Thallium selenite Selenious acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
12039-52-0 P114
Thallium (I) sulfate Sulfuric acid, dithallium (1+) salt 7446-18-6 P115
Thioacetamide Ethanethioamide 62-55-5 U218
Thiodicarb Ethanimidothioic acid,
S
N,N'-
[thiobis[(methylimino)-
carbonyloxy]]-bis-,
SU
N,N'-
(thiobis((methylimino)-
carbonyloxy))-bis-,
U
dimethyl
ester
59669-26-0 U410
Thiofanox 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-
(methylthio)-,
S
O-
[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime
SU
O-((methylamino)carbonyl)-
oxime
U
39196-18-4 P045
Thiophanate-methyl Carbamic acid,
S
[1,2-
phyenylenebis(iminocarbono-
thioyl)]-bis-,
SU
(1,2-
phyenylenebis(iminocarbono-
thioyl))-bis-,
U
dimethyl ester
23564-05-8 U409
Thiomethanol Methanethiol 74-93-1 U153
Thiophenol Benzenethiol 108-98-5 P014
Thiosemicarbazide Hydrazinecarbothioamide 79-19-6 P116
Thiourea Same 62-56-6 P219
Thiram Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide
S
[(H
SB
S
2
S
B
S
N)C(S)]
S
B
S
2
S
B
S
S
S
B
S
2
S
B
S
,
S
U
((H
U
B
U
2
U
B
U
N)C(S))
U
B
U
2
U
B
U
S
U
B
U
2
U
B
U
,
U
tetramethyl-
137-26-8 U244
Tirpate 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde,
2,4-dimethyl-,
S
O-[(methylamino)-
carbonyl] oxime
SU
O-((methyl-
amino)carbonyl)oxime
U
26419-73-8 P185
Toluene Benzene, methyl- 108-88-3 U220
Toluenediamine Benzenediamine, ar-methyl- 25376-45-8 U221
Toluene-2,4-diamine 1,3-Benzenediamine, 4-methyl- 95-80-7
Toluene-2,6-diamine 1,3-Benzenediamine, 2-methyl- 823-40-5
Toluene-3,4-diamine 1,2-Benzenediamine, 4-methyl- 496-72-0
Toluene diisocyanate Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanato-
methyl-
26471-62-5 U223
o-Toluidine Benzenamine, 2-methyl- 95-53-4 U328
o-Toluidine hydrochloride Benzeneamine, 2-methyl-, hydro-
chloride
636-21-5 U222
p-Toluidine Benzenamine, 4-methyl- 106-49-0 U353
Toxaphene Same 8001-35-2 P123
Triallate Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-
methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-
2-propenyl) ester
2303-17-5 U389
224
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro- 120-82-1
1,1,2-Trichloroethane Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro- 79-00-5 U227
Trichloroethylene Ethene, trichloro- 79-01-6 U228
Trichloromethanethiol Methanethiol, trichloro- 75-70-7 P118
Trichloromonofluoromethane Methane, trichlorofluoro- 75-69-4 U121
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- 95-95-4 See F027
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- 88-06-2 See F027
2,4,5-T Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichloro-
phenoxy)-
93-76-5 See F027
Trichloropropane, N.O.S. 25735-29-9
1,2,3-Trichloropropane Propane, 1,2,3-trichloro- 96-18-4
Triethylamine Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl- 121-44-8 U404
O,O,O-Triethylphosphorothioate
Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,O-
triethyl ester
126-68-1
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- 99-35-4 U234
Tris(l-aziridinyl)phosphine
sulfide
Aziridine, 1,1',1”-phosphino-
thioylidynetris-
52-24-4
Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl)
phosphate
1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-,
phosphate (3:1)
126-72-7 U235
Trypan blue 2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid,
S
3,3'-[(3,3'-dimethyl[1,1'-
biphenyl]-4,4'-diyl)-
bis(azo)]bis[5-amino-4-
hydroxy]-,
SU
3,3'-((3,3'-dimethyl-
(1,1'-biphenyl)-4,4'-diyl)-
bis(azo))bis(5-amino-4-
hydroxy)-,
U
tetrasodium salt
72-57-1 U236
Uracil mustard 2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione,
S
5-
[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]-
SU
5-
(bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)-
U
66-75-1 U237
Vanadium pentoxide Vanadium oxide V
B
2
B
O
B
5
B
1314-62-1 P120
Vernolate Carbamothioc acid, dipropyl-, S-
propyl ester
1929-77-7
Vinyl chloride Ethene, chloro- 75-01-4 U043
Warfarin 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-
hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenyl-
butyl)-, when present at
concentrations less than 0.3
percent
81-81-2 U248
Warfarin 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-
hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenyl-
butyl)-, when present at
concentrations greater than 0.3
percent
81-81-2 P001
225
Warfarin salts, when present at
concentrations less than 0.3
percent
U248
Warfarin salts, when present at
concentrations greater than 0.3
percent
P001
Zinc cyanide Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)
B
2
B
557-21-1 P121
Zinc phosphide Zinc phosphide P
B
2
B
Zn
B
3
B
, when
present at concentrations greater
than 10 percent
1314-84-7 P122
Zinc phosphide Zinc phosphide P
B
2
B
Zn
B
3
B
, when
present at concentrations of 10
percent or less
1314-84-7 U249
Ziram Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamo-
dithioato-S,S')- (T-4)-
137-30-4 P205
Note: The abbreviation N.O.S. (not otherwise specified) signifies those members of the general
class that are not specifically listed by name in this Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.Appendix I Wastes Excluded by Administrative Action
Table A Wastes Excluded by USEPA
S
under
SU
pursuant to
U
40 CFR 260.20 and 260.22 from
Non-Specific Sources
Facility Address Waste Description
(None excluded from an Illinois source at this time)
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.Appendix I Wastes Excluded by Administrative Action
Table B Wastes Excluded by USEPA
S
under
SU
pursuant to
U
40 CFR 260.20 and 260.22 from
Specific Sources
Facility Address Waste Description
Amoco Oil Company
Wood River, Illinois
150 million gallons of DAF float from petroleum refining
contained in four surge ponds after treatment with the
Chemfix stabilization process. This waste contains USEPA
hazardous waste number K048. This exclusion applies to
226
the 150 million gallons of waste after chemical stabilization
as long as the mixing ratios of the reagent with the waste
are monitored continuously and do not vary outside of the
limits presented in the demonstration samples and one grab
sample is taken each hour from each treatment unit,
composited, and TCLP tests performed on each sample. If
the levels of lead or total chromium exceed 0.5 ppm in the
EP extract, then the waste that was processed during the
compositing period is considered hazardous; the treatment
residue must be pumped into bermed cells to ensure that
the waste is identifiable in the event that removal is
necessary.
Conversion Systems, Inc.
Horsham, Pennsylvania
(Sterling, Illinois operations)
Chemically stabilized electric arc furnace dust (CSEAFD)
that is generated by Conversion Systems, Inc. (CSI) (using
the Super Detox
P
®
P
treatment process, as modified by CSI to
treat electric arc furnace dust (EAFD) (USEPA hazardous
waste no. K061)), at the following site and which is
disposed of in a RCRA Subtitle D municipal solid waste
landfill (MSWLF): Northwestern Steel, Sterling, Illinois.
CSI must implement a testing program for each site that
meets the following conditions:
1. Verification testing requirements: Sample collection and
analyses, including quality control procedures, must be
performed according to
S
according to SW-846
methodologies,
SU
using appropriate methods. As applicable
to the method-defined parameters of concern, analyses
requiring the use of methods in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846,
U
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
U
720.111(a), must be used without substitution. As
applicable, the EPA-530/SW-846 methods might include
Methods 0010, 0011, 0020, 0023A, 0030, 0031, 0040,
0050, 0051, 0060, 0061, 1010A, 1020B, 1110A, 1310B,
1311, 1312, 1320, 1330A, 9010C, 9012B, 9040C, 9045D,
9060A, 9070A (uses USEPA Method 1664, Rev. A),
9071B, and 9095B
U
.
A. Initial verification testing: During the first 20
days of full-scale operation of a newly-constructed
Super Detox
P
®
P
treatment facility, CSI must analyze a
minimum of four composite samples of CSEAFD
representative of the full 20-day period. Composite
227
samples must be composed of representative
samples collected from every batch generated. The
CSEAFD samples must be analyzed for the
constituents listed in condition 3 below. CSI must
report the operational and analytical test data,
including quality control information, obtained
during this initial period no later than 60 days after
the generation of the first batch of CSEAFD.
B. Addition of new Super Detox
P
®
P
treatment
facilities to the exclusion:
Option 1: If USEPA approves additional facilities,
CSI may petition the Board for identical-in
substance amendment of this exclusion pursuant to
Section 22.4 for the Act and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 102
and 720.120(a), or
Option 2: If USEPA has not approved such
amendment, CSI may petition the Board for
amendment pursuant to the general rulemaking
procedures of Section 27 of the Act and 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 102 and 720.120(b); or
Option 3: Alternatively to options 1 or 2 above,
CSI may petition the Board for a hazardous waste
delisting pursuant to Section 28.1 of the Act and
Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 104 and 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.122.
If CSI pursues general rulemaking (option 2 above)
or hazardous waste delisting (option 3 above), it
must demonstrate that the CSEAFD generated by a
specific Super Detox
P
®
P
treatment facility
consistently meets the delisting levels specified in
condition 3 below.
C. Subsequent verification testing: For the
approved facility, CSI must collect and analyze at
least one composite sample of CSEAFD each
month. The composite samples must be composed
of representative samples collected from all batches
treated in each month. These monthly
representative samples must be analyzed, prior to
the disposal of the CSEAFD, for the constituents
listed in condition 3 below. CSI may, at its
228
discretion, analyze composite samples gathered
more frequently to demonstrate that smaller batches
of waste are nonhazardous.
2. Waste holding and handling: CSI must store as
hazardous all CSEAFD generated until verification testing,
as specified in condition 1A or 1C above, as appropriate, is
completed and valid analyses demonstrate that condition 3
below is satisfied. If the levels of constituents measured in
the samples of CSEAFD do not exceed the levels set forth
in condition 3, then the CSEAFD is nonhazardous and may
be disposed of in a RCRA Subtitle D municipal solid waste
landfill. If constituent levels in a sample exceed any of the
delisting levels set forth in condition 3 below, the CSEAFD
generated during the time period corresponding to this
sample must be retreated until it meets these levels or
managed and disposed of as hazardous waste, in
accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702 through 705, 720
through 726, 728, and 733. CSEAFD generated by a new
CSI treatment facility must be managed as a hazardous
waste prior to the addition of the name and location of the
facility to this exclusion pursuant to condition 1C above.
After addition of the new facility to the exclusion pursuant
to condition 1B above, CSEAFD generated during the
verification testing in condition 1A is also non-hazardous if
the delisting levels in condition 3 are satisfied.
3. Delisting levels: All leachable concentrations for metals
must not exceed the following levels (in parts per million
(ppm)): antimony--0.06; arsenic--0.50; barium--7.6;
beryllium--0.010; cadmium--0.050; chromium--0.33; lead--
0.15; mercury--0.009; nickel--1; selenium--0.16; silver--
0.30; thallium--0.020; vanadium--2; and zinc--70. Metal
concentrations must be measured in the waste leachate by
the method specified in Section 721.124.
4. Changes in operating conditions: After initiating
subsequent testing, as described in condition 1C, if CSI
significantly changes the stabilization process established
under condition 1 (e.g., use of new stabilization reagents),
CSI must seek amendment of this exclusion using one of
the options set forth in condition 1B above. After written
amendment of this exclusion, CSI may manage CSEAFD
wastes generated from the new process as nonhazardous if
the wastes meet the delisting levels set forth in condition 3
above.
229
5. Data submittals: At least one month prior to operation of
a new Super Detox
P
®
P
treatment facility, CSI must notify the
Agency in writing when the Super Detox
P
®
P
treatment
facility is scheduled to be on-line. The data obtained
through condition 1A must be submitted to the Agency
within the time period specified. Records of operating
conditions and analytical data from condition 1 must be
compiled, summarized, and maintained on site for a
minimum of five years. These records and data must be
furnished to the Agency upon request and made available
for inspection. Failure to submit the required data within
the specified time period or to maintain the required
records on site for the specified time will be considered a
violation of the Act and Board regulations. All data
submitted must be accompanied by a signed copy of the
following certification statement to attest to the truth and
accuracy of the data submitted:
“Under civil and criminal penalty of law for the making or
submission of false or fraudulent statements or
representations, I certify that the information contained in
or accompanying this document is true, accurate, and
complete.
“As to (those) identified section(s) of this document for
which I cannot personally verify its (their) truth and
accuracy, I certify as the company official having
supervisory responsibility for the persons who, acting
under my direct instructions, made the verification that this
information is true, accurate, and complete.
“In the event that any of this information is determined by
the Board or a court of law to be false, inaccurate, or
incomplete, and upon conveyance of this fact to the
company, I recognize and agree that this exclusion of waste
will be void as if it never had effect or to the extent
directed by the Board or court and that the company will be
liable for any actions taken in contravention of the
company’s obligations under the federal RCRA and
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation
and Liability Act (42
S
U.S.C. §§
SU
USC
U
9601 et seq.) and
corresponding provisions of the Act premised upon the
company’s reliance on the void exclusion.”
BOARD NOTE: The obligations of this exclusion are
230
derived from but also distinct from the obligations under
the corresponding federally-granted exclusion of
U
table 2 of
appendix IX to
U
40 CFR 261
S
, Appendix IX, Table 2
S
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.Appendix I Wastes Excluded by Administrative Action
Table C Wastes Excluded by USEPA
S
under
SU
pursuant to
U
40 CFR 260.20 and 260.22 from
Commercial Chemical Products, Off-Specification Species, Container Residues,
and Soil Residues Thereof
Facility Address Waste Description
(None excluded from an Illinois source at this time)
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 721.Appendix Y Table to Section 721.138
Chemical name CAS No
Composite
value
(mg/kg)
Heating
value
(BTU/lb)
Concentra-
tion limit
(mg/kg at
10,000
Btu/lb)
Minimum
required
detection
limit
(mg/kg)
Total Nitrogen as N NA
S
9000
SU
9,000
U
S
18400
U
18,400
U
S
4900
SU
4,900
U
Total Halogens as Cl NA
S
1000
S
U
1,000
U
S
18400
U
18,400
U
540
Total Organic Halogens as
Cl
NA -- -- (Note 1)
Polychlorinated biphenyls,
total (Arocolors, total)
1336-36-3 ND -- ND 1.4
Cyanide, total 57-12-5 ND -- ND 1.0
Metals:
Antimony, total 7440-36-0 ND -- 12
Arsenic, total 7440-38-2 ND -- 0.23
Barium, total 7440-39-3 ND -- 23
Beryllium, total 7440-41-7 ND -- 1.2
Cadmium, total 7440-43-9 -- ND 1.2
Chromium, total 7440-47-3 ND -- 2.3
Cobalt 7440-48-4 ND -- 4.6
Lead, total 7439-92-1 57
S
18100
U
18,100
U
31
231
Manganese 7439-96-5 ND -- 1.2
Mercury, total 7439-97-6 ND -- 0.25
Nickel, total 7440-02-0 106
S
18400
U
18,400
U
58
Selenium, total 7782-49-2 ND -- 0.23
Silver, total 7440-22-4 ND -- 2.3
Thallium, total 7440-28-0 ND -- 23
Hydrocarbons:
Benzo(a)anthracene 56-55-3 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Benzene 71-43-2
S
8000
S
U
8,000
U
S
19600
U
19,600
U
S
4100
SU
4,100
U
Benzo(b)fluoranthene 205-99-2 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Benzo(k)fluoranthene 207-08-9 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Chrysene 218-01-9 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Dibenzo(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)-
anthracene
57-97-6 ND --
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 193-39-5 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
3-Methylcholanthrene 56-49-5 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Naphthalene 91-20-3
S
6200
S
U
6,200
U
S
19400
U
19,400
U
S
3200
SU
3,200
U
Toluene 108-88-3
S
69000
U
69,000
U
S
19400
U
19,400
U
S
36000
U
36,000
U
Oxygenates:
Acetophenone 98-86-2 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Acrolein 107-02-8 ND -- 39
Allyl alcohol 107-18-6 ND -- 30
Bis(2-ethylhexyl)-
phthalate (Di-2-ethyl-
hexyl phthalate)
117-81-7 ND --
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Butyl benzyl phthalate 85-68-7 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
o-Cresol (2-Methyl
phenol)
95-48-7 ND --
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
m-Cresol (3-M ethyl
phenol)
108-39-4 ND --
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
p-Cresol (4-Methyl
phenol)
106-44-5 ND --
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
232
Endothall 145-73-3 ND -- 100
Ethyl methacrylate 97-63-2 ND -- 39
2-Ethoxyethanol
(Ethylene glycol
monoethyl ether)
110-80-5 ND -- 100
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 ND -- 39
Isosafrole 120-58-1 ND --
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Methyl ethyl ketone (2-
Butanone)
78-93-3 ND -- 39
Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 ND -- 39
1,4-Naphthoquinone 130-15-4 ND --
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Phenol 108-95-2 ND --
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Propargyl alcohol (2-
Propyn-l-ol)
107-19-7 ND -- 30.
Safrole 94-59-7 ND --
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Sulfonated Organics:
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 ND -- ND 39
Disulfoton 298-04-4 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Ethyl methanesulfonate 62-50-0 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Methyl methane-
sulfonate
66-27-3 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Phorate 298-02-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
1,3-Propane sultone 1120-71-4 ND -- ND 100
Tetraethyldithiopyro-
phosphate (Sulfotepp)
3689-24-5 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Thiophenol (Benzene-
thiol)
108-98-5 ND -- ND 30
O,O,O-Triethyl
phosphorothioate
126-68-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Nitrogenated Organics:
Acetonitrile (Methyl
cyanide)
75-05-8 ND -- ND 39
2-Acetylaminofluorene
(2-AAF)
53-96-3 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 ND -- ND 39
4-Aminobiphenyl 92-67-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
4-Aminopyridine 504-24-5 ND -- ND 100
Aniline 62-53-3 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Benzidine 92-87-5 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Dibenz(a,j)acridine 224-42-0 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
O,O-Diethyl O-
pyrazinyl phophoro-
thioate (Thionazin)
297-97-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Dimethoate 60-51-5 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
233
p-(Dimethylamino)azo-
benzene (4-Dimethyl-
aminoazobenzene)
60-11-7 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine 119-93-7 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
a,a-Dimethylphenethyl-
amine
122-09-8 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
3,3'-Dimethoxy-
benzidine
119-90-4 ND -- ND 100
1,3-Dinitrobenzene (m-
Dinitrobenzene)
99-65-0 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 534-52-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Dinoseb (2-sec-Butyl-
4,6-dinitrophenol)
88-85-7 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Diphenylamine 122-39-4 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Ethyl carbamate
(Urethane)
51-79-6 ND -- ND 100
Ethylenethiourea (2-
Imidazolidinethione)
96-45-7 ND -- ND 110
Famphur 52-85-7 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Methacrylonitrile 126-98-7 ND -- ND 39
Methapyrilene 91-80-5 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Methomyl 16752-77-5 ND -- ND 57
2-Methyllactonitrile
(Acetone cyanohydrin )
75-86-5 ND -- ND 100
Methyl parathion 298-00-0 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
MNNG (N-Metyl-N-
nitroso-N'-nitro-
guanidine)
70-25-7 ND -- ND 110
1-Naphthylamine (
α
-
Naphthylamine]
134-32-7 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
2-Naphthylamine (
β
-
Naphthylamine)
91-59-8 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Nicotine 54-11-5 ND -- ND 100
4-Nitroaniline (p-
Nitroaniline)
100-01-6 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
p-Nitrophenol (p-Nitro-
phenol)
100-02-7 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
5-Nitro-o-toluidine 99-55-8 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
N-Nitrosodi-n-butyl-
amine
924-16-3 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
234
N-Nitrosodiethylamine 55-18-5 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
N-Nitrosodiphenyl-
amine (Diphenylnitros-
amine)
86-30-6 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
N-Nitroso-N-methyl-
ethylamine
10595-95-6 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
N-Nitrosomorpholine 59-89-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
N-Nitrosopiperidine 100-75-4 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine 930-55-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
2-Nitropropane 79-46-9 ND -- ND 30
Parathion 56-38-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Phenacetin 62-44-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
1,4-Phenylene diamine,
(p-Phenylenediamine)
106-50-3 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
N-Phenylthiourea 103-85-5 ND -- ND 57
2-Picoline (alpha-
Picoline)
109-06-8 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Propythioracil (6-
Propyl-2-thiouracil)
51-52-5 ND -- ND 100
Pyridine 110-86-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Strychnine 57-24-9 ND -- ND 100
Thioacetamide 62-55-5 ND -- ND 57
Thiofanox 39196-18-4 ND -- ND 100
Thiourea 62-56-6 ND -- ND 57
Toluene-2,4-diamine
(2,4-Diaminotoluene)
95-80-7 ND -- ND 57
Toluene-2,6-diamine
(2,6-Diaminotoluene)
823-40-5 ND -- ND 57
o-Toluidine 95-53-4 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
p-Toluidine 106-49-0 ND -- ND 100
S
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzne,
S
U
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene,
U
(sym-Trinitrobenzene)
99-35-4 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Halogenated Organics:
Allyl chloride 107-05-1 ND -- ND 39
Aramite 140-57-8 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Benzal chloride (Di-
chloromethyl benzene)
98-87-3 ND -- ND 100
Benzyl chloride 100-44-77 ND -- ND 100
Bis(2-chloroethyl)ether
(Dichloroethyl ether)
111-44-4 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Bromoform (Tribromo-
methane)
75-25-2 ND -- ND 39
235
Bromomethane
(Methyl bromide)
74-83-9 ND -- ND 39
4-Bromophenyl phenyl
ether (p-Bromodi-
phenyl ether)
101-55-3 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 ND -- ND 39
Chlordane 57-74-9 ND -- ND 14
p-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 ND -- ND 39
Chlorobenzilate 510-15-6 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
2-Chloroethyl vinyl
ether
110-75-8 ND -- ND 39
Chloroform 67-66-3 ND -- ND 39
Chloromethane
(Methyl chloride)
74-87-3 ND -- ND 39
2-Chloronaphthalene
(
β
-Chlorophthalene)
91-58-7 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
2-Chlorophenol (o-
Chlorophenol)
95-57-8 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Chloroprene (2-Chloro-
1,3-butadiene)
1126-99-8 ND -- ND 39
2,4-D (2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid)
94-75-7 ND -- ND 7.0
Diallate 2303-16-4 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloro-
propane
96-12-8 ND -- ND 39
1,2-Dichlorobenzene
(o-Dichlorobenzene)
95-50-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
1,3-Dichlorobenzene
(m-Dichlorobenzene)
541-73-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
1,4-Dichlorobenzene
(p-Dichlorobenzene)
106-46-7 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine 91-94-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Dichlorodifluoro-
methane (CFC-12)
75-71-8 ND -- ND 39
1,2-Dichloroethane
(Ethylene dichloride)
107-06-2 ND -- ND 39
1,1-Dichloroethylene
(Vinylidene chloride)
75-35-4 ND -- ND 39
Dichloromethoxy
ethane (Bis(2-chloro-
ethoxy)methane)
111-91-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
236
2,6-Dichlorophenol 87-65-0 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
1,2-Dichloropropane
(Propylene dichloride)
78-87-5 ND -- ND 39
cis-1,3-Dichloro-
propylene
10061-01-5 ND -- ND 39
trans-1,3-Dichloro-
propylene
10061-02-6 ND -- ND 39
1,3-Dichloro-2-
propanol
96-23-1 ND -- ND 30
Endosulfan I 959-98-8 ND -- ND 1.4
Endosulfan II 33213-65-9 ND -- ND 1.4
Endrin 72-20-8 ND -- ND 1.4
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-4 ND -- ND 1.4
Endrin Ketone 53494-70-5 ND -- ND 1.4
Epichlorohydrin (1-
Chloro-2,3-epoxy
propane)
106-89-8 ND -- ND 30
Ethylidene dichloride
(1,1-Dichloroethane)
75-34-3 ND -- ND 39
2-Fluoroacetamide 640-19-7 ND -- ND 100
Heptachlor 76-44-8 ND -- ND 1.4
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 ND -- ND 2.8
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Hexachloro-1,3-buta-
diene (Hexachlorobuta-
diene)
87-68-3 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Hexachlorocyclopenta-
diene
77-47-4 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Hexachlorophene 70-30-4 ND -- ND
S
59000
U
59,000
U
Hexachloropropene
(Hexachloropropylene)
1888-71-7 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Isodrin 465-73-6 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Kepone (Chlordecone) 143-50-0 ND -- ND
S
4700
S
U
4,700
U
Lindane (gamma-Hexa-
chlorocyclohexane) (
γ
-
BHC)
58-89-9 ND -- ND 1.4
Methylene chloride
(Dichloromethane)
75-09-2 ND -- ND 39
4,4'-methylene-bis(2-
chloroaniline)
101-14-4 ND -- ND 100
Methyl iodide (Iodo-
methane)
74-88-4 ND -- ND 39
237
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 ND -- ND 39
Pentachloronitro-
benzene (PCNB)
(Quintobenzene)
(Quintozene)
82-68-8 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Pronamide 23950-58-5 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
Silvex (2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenoxypropionic acid)
93-72-1 ND -- ND 7.0
2,3,7,8-Tetrachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxin
(2,3,7,8-TCDD)
1746-01-6 ND -- ND 30
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
79-34-5 ND -- ND 39
Tetrachloroethylene
(Perchloroethylene)
127-18-4 ND -- ND 39
2,3,4,6-Tetrachloro-
phenol
58-90-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
1,1,1-Trichloroethane
(Methyl chloroform)
71-55-6 ND -- ND 39
1,1,2-Trichloroethane
(Vinyl trichloride)
79-00-5 ND -- ND 39
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 ND -- ND 39
Trichlorofluoro-
methane (Trichloro-
monofluoromethane)
75-69-4 ND -- ND 39
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 ND -- ND
S
2400
SU
2,400
U
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 ND -- ND
S
2400
S
U
2,400
U
1,2,3-Trichloropropane 96-18-4 ND -- ND 39
Vinyl Chloride 75-01-4 ND -- ND 39
NA means not applicable.
ND means nondetect.
Note 1: 25 (mg/kg at 10,000 Btu/lb) as organic halogen or as the individual halogenated
organics listed in the table at the levels indicated.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
238
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 722
STANDARDS APPLICABLE TO GENERATORS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section
722.110 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
722.111 Hazardous Waste Determination
722.112 USEPA Identification Numbers
SUBPART B: THE MANIFEST
Section
722.120 General Requirements
722.121
S
Acquisition of
SU
Manifest Tracking Numbers, Manifest Printing, and Obtaining
U
Manifests
722.122 Number of Copies
722.123 Use of the Manifest
U
722.127 Waste Minimization Certification
SUBPART C: PRE-TRANSPORT REQUIREMENTS
Section
722.130 Packaging
722.131 Labeling
722.132 Marking
722.133 Placarding
722.134 Accumulation Time
SUBPART D: RECORDKEEPING AND REPORTING
Section
722.140 Recordkeeping
722.141 Annual Reporting
722.142 Exception Reporting
722.143 Additional Reporting
722.144 Special Requirements for Generators of between 100 and 1,000 kilograms per
month
SUBPART E: EXPORTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section
722.150 Applicability
722.151 Definitions
722.152 General Requirements
722.153 Notification of Intent to Export
722.154 Special Manifest Requirements
722.155 Exception Report
722.156 Annual Reports
239
722.157 Recordkeeping
722.158 International Agreements
SUBPART F: IMPORTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section
722.160 Imports of Hazardous Waste
SUBPART G: FARMERS
Section
722.170 Farmers
SUBPART H: TRANSFRONTIER SHIPMENTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
FOR RECOVERY WITHIN THE OECD
Section
722.180 Applicability
722.181 Definitions
722.182 General Conditions
722.183 Notification and Consent
722.184 Tracking Document
722.185 Contracts
722.186 Provisions Relating to Recognized Traders
722.187 Reporting and Recordkeeping
722.189 OECD Waste Lists
722.Appendix A Hazardous Waste Manifest
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 7.2 and 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/7.2, 22.4, and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R81-22 at 5 Ill. Reg. 9781, effective May 17, 1982; amended and
codified in R81-22 at 6 Ill. Reg. 4828, effective May 17, 1982; amended in R82-18 at 7 Ill. Reg.
2518, effective February 22, 1983; amended in R84-9 at 9 Ill. Reg. 11950, effective July 24,
1985; amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg. 1131, effective January 2, 1986; amended in R86-1 at
10 Ill. Reg. 14112, effective August 12, 1986; amended in R86-19 at 10 Ill. Reg. 20709,
effective December 2, 1986; amended in R86-46 at 11 Ill. Reg. 13555, effective August 4, 1987;
amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg. 19392, effective November 12, 1987; amended in R87-39 at 12
Ill. Reg. 13129, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R88-16 at 13 Ill. Reg. 452, effective
December 27, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18523, effective November 13, 1989;
amended in R90-10 at 14 Ill. Reg. 16653, effective September 25, 1990; amended in R90-11 at
15 Ill. Reg. 9644, effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-1 at 15 Ill. Reg. 14562, effective
October 1, 1991; amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9833, effective June 9, 1992; amended in
R92-1 at 16 Ill. Reg. 17696, effective November 6, 1992; amended in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg.
20822, effective November 22, 1993; amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9935, effective June 27,
1995; amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 11236, effective August 1, 1996; amended in R96-
10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 603, effective December 16, 1997; amended in R97-21/R98-
3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 17950, effective September 28, 1998; amended in R00-5 at 24 Ill. Reg.
240
1136, effective January 6, 2000; amended in R00-13 at 24 Ill. Reg. 9822, effective June 20,
2000; expedited correction at 25 Ill. Reg. 5105, effective June 20, 2000; amended in R05-2 at 29
Ill. Reg. 6312, effective April 22, 2005; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg.
________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART B: THE MANIFEST
Section 722.120 General Requirements
a)
U
Manifest use.
U
1)
U
A generator that transports hazardous waste or offers
U
a
U
hazardous waste
for transportation for off-site treatment, storage, or disposal
U
or, effective
September 5, 2006, a treatment, storage, or disposal facility that offers for
transport a rejected load of hazardous waste
U
must prepare a manifest
S
before transporting the waste off-site
SU
on USEPA Form 8700-22 (and, if
necessary, on USEPA Form 8700-22A) according to the instructions
included in the appendix to 40 CFR 262 (Uniform Hazardous Waste
Manifest and Instructions (EPA Forms 8700-22 and 8700-22a and Their
Instructions)), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
U
.
U
2) Manifest amendments effective dates.
U
A) The revised manifest form and procedures in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.110 and 721.107, this Section, and Sections 722.121, 722.127,
722.132 through 722.134, 722.154 and in Appendix A to this Part,
as amended at 70 Fed. Reg. 10776 (March 4, 2005), will not apply
until September 5, 2006.
U
B) The existing manifest form and procedures in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.110 and 721.107, this Section, and Sections 722.121, 722.127,
722.132 through 722.134, 722.154 and in Appendix A to this Part
(2004) will apply until September 5, 2006.
b) A generator must designate on the manifest one receiving facility that is permitted
to handle the waste described on the manifest.
c) A generator may also designate on the manifest one alternate receiving facility
that is permitted to handle his waste in the event an emergency prevents delivery
of the waste to the primary designated facility.
d) If the transporter is unable to deliver the hazardous waste to the designated
receiving facility or the alternate facility, the generator must either designate
another receiving facility or instruct the transporter to return the waste.
e) The requirements of this Subpart B do not apply to hazardous waste produced by
241
generators of greater than 100 kg but less than 1,000 kg in a calendar month
where the following conditions are fulfilled:
1) The waste is reclaimed under a contractual agreement that specifies the
type of waste and frequency of shipments;
2) The vehicle used to transport the waste to the recycling facility and to
deliver regenerated material back to the generator is owned and operated
by the reclaimer of the waste; and
3) The generator maintains a copy of the reclamation agreement in his files
for a period of at least three years after termination or expiration of the
agreement.
f) The requirements of this Subpart B and Section 722.132(b) do not apply to the
transport of hazardous wastes on a public or private right-of-way within or along
the border of contiguous property under the control of the same person, even if
such contiguous property is divided by a public or private right-of-way.
Notwithstanding 35 Ill. Adm. Code 723.110(a), the generator or transporter must
comply with the requirements for transporters set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
723.130 and 723.131 in the event of a discharge of hazardous waste on a public or
private right-of-way.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.121
S
Acquisition of
SU
Manifest Tracking Numbers, Manifest Printing, and
Obtaining
U
Manifests
a) The following requirements apply until September 5, 2006:
S
a
S
1) If the State of Illinois is the state to which the shipment is manifested
(designated receiving state), the generator must use the manifest supplied by
the Agency.
S
b
S
2) If the State of Illinois is not the designated receiving state, the generator
must use the manifest required by the designated receiving state. If the
designated receiving state does not supply and require the manifest, then the
generator must use the manifest supplied by the Agency.
b) The following requirements apply effective September 5, 2006:
1) USEPA approval of manifest.
A) A registrant may not print the manifest or have the manifest
printed for use or distribution, unless it has received approval from
the USEPA Director of the Office of Solid Waste to do so pursuant
242
to 40 CFR 262.21(c) and (e), as described in subsections (b)(3) and
(b)(5) of this Section.
B) The approved registrant is responsible for ensuring that the
organizations identified in its application are in compliance with
the procedures of its approved application and the requirements of
40 CFR 262.21, as described in this subsection (b). The registrant
is responsible for assigning manifest tracking numbers to its
manifests.
2) A registrant must submit an initial application to the USEPA Director of
the Office of Solid Waste that contains the following information:
A) The name and mailing address of registrant;
B) The name, telephone number, and email address of contact person;
C) A brief description of registrant’s government or business activity;
D) The USEPA identification number of the registrant, if applicable;
E) A description of the scope of the operations that the registrant
plans to undertake in printing, distributing, and using its manifests,
including the following:
i) A description of the printing operation. The description
should include an explanation of whether the registrant
intends to print its manifests in-house (i.e., using its own
printing establishments) or through a separate (i.e.,
unaffiliated) printing company. If the registrant intends to
use a separate printing company to print the manifest on its
behalf, the application must identify this printing company
and discuss how the registrant will oversee the company. If
this includes the use of intermediaries (e.g., prime and
subcontractor relationships), the role of each must be
discussed. The application must provide the name and
mailing address of each company. It also must provide the
name and telephone number of the contact person at each
company;
ii) A description of how the registrant will ensure that its
organization and unaffiliated companies, if any, comply
with the requirements of 40 CFR 262.21, as described in
this subsection (b). The application must discuss how the
registrant will ensure that a unique manifest tracking
number will be preprinted on each manifest. The
243
application must describe the internal control procedures to
be followed by the registrant and unaffiliated companies to
ensure that numbers are tightly controlled and remain
unique. In particular, the application must describe how
the registrant will assign manifest tracking numbers to its
manifests. If computer systems or other infrastructure will
be used to maintain, track, or assign numbers, these should
be indicated. The application must also indicate how the
printer will pre-print a unique number on each form (e.g.,
crash or press numbering). The application also must
explain the other quality procedures to be followed by each
establishment and printing company to ensure that all
required print specifications are consistently achieved and
that printing violations are identified and corrected at the
earliest practicable time; and
iii) An indication of whether the registrant intends to use the
manifests for its own business operations or to distribute
the manifests to a separate company or to the general
public (e.g., for purchase);
F) A brief description of the qualifications of the company that will
print the manifest. The registrant may use readily available
information to do so (e.g., corporate brochures, product samples,
customer references, documentation of ISO certification), so long
as such information pertains to the establishments or company
being proposed to print the manifest;
G) Proposed unique three-letter manifest tracking number suffix. If
the registrant is approved to print the manifest, the registrant must
use this suffix to pre-print a unique manifest tracking number on
each manifest; and
H) A signed certification by a duly authorized employee of the
registrant that the organizations and companies in its application
will comply with the procedures of its approved application and
the requirements of 40 CFR 262.21, as described in this subsection
(b) and that it will notify the Agency and the USEPA Director of
the Office of Solid Waste of any duplicated manifest tracking
numbers on manifests that have been used or distributed to other
parties as soon as this becomes known.
3) USEPA will review the application submitted under subsection (b)(2) of
this Section and either approve it or request additional information or
modification before approving it.
244
4) Submission of document samples.
A) Upon USEPA approval of the application pursuant to 40 CFR
262.21(c), as described in subsection (b)(3) of this Section,
USEPA will provide the registrant an electronic file of the
manifest, continuation sheet, and manifest instructions and ask the
registrant to submit three fully assembled manifests and
continuation sheet samples, except as noted in 40 CFR
262.21(d)(3), as described in subsection (b)(4)(C) of this Section.
The registrant’s samples must meet all of the specifications in 40
CFR 262.21(f), as described in subsection (b)(6) of this Section,
and be printed by the company that will print the manifest as
identified in the application approved by USEPA pursuant to 40
CFR 262.21(c), as described in subsection (b)(3) of this Section.
B) The registrant must submit a description of the manifest samples as
follows:
i) The paper type (i.e., manufacturer and grade of the
manifest paper);
ii) The paper weight of each copy;
iii) The ink color of the manifest’s instructions. If screening of
the ink was used, the registrant must indicate the extent of
the screening; and
iv) The method of binding the copies.
C) The registrant need not submit samples of the continuation sheet if
it will print its continuation sheet using the same paper type, paper
weight of each copy, ink color of the instructions, and binding
method as its manifest form samples.
5) USEPA will evaluate the forms and either approve the registrant to print
them as proposed or request additional information or modification to
them before approval. USEPA will notify the registrant of its decision by
mail. The registrant cannot use or distribute its forms until USEPA
approves them. An approved registrant must print the manifest and
continuation sheet according to its application approved by USEPA
pursuant to 40 CFR 262.21(c), as described in subsection (b)(3) of this
Section and the manifest specifications in 40 CFR 262.21(f), as described
in subsection (b)(6) of this Section. It also must print the forms according
to the paper type, paper weight, ink color of the manifest instructions and
binding method of its approved forms.
245
6) Paper manifests and continuation sheets must be printed according to the
following specifications:
A) The manifest and continuation sheet must be printed with the exact
format and appearance as USEPA Forms 8700-22 and 8700-22A,
respectively. However, information required to complete the
manifest may be preprinted on the manifest form.
B) A unique manifest tracking number assigned in accordance with a
numbering system approved by USEPA must be pre-printed in
Item 4 of the manifest. The tracking number must consist of a
unique three-letter suffix following nine digits.
C) The manifest and continuation sheet must be printed on 8½ x 11-
inch white paper, excluding common stubs (
e.g.
, top- or side-
bound stubs). The paper must be durable enough to withstand
normal use.
D) The manifest and continuation sheet must be printed in black ink
that can be legibly photocopied, scanned, and faxed, except that
the marginal words indicating copy distribution must be in red ink.
E) The manifest and continuation sheet must be printed as six-copy
forms. Copy-to-copy registration must be exact within 1
∕
32 inch.
Handwritten and typed impressions on the form must be legible on
all six copies. Copies must be bound together by one or more
common stubs that reasonably ensure that they will not become
detached inadvertently during normal use.
F) Each copy of the manifest and continuation sheet must indicate
how the copy must be distributed, as follows:
i) Page 1 (top copy): “Designated facility to destination State
(if required).”
ii) Page 2: “Designated facility to generator State (if
required).”
iii) Page 3: “Designated facility to generator.”
iv) Page 4: “Designated facility’s copy.”
v) Page 5: “Transporter’s copy.”
vi) Page 6 (bottom copy): “Generator’s initial copy.”
246
G) The instructions in the appendix to 40 CFR 262 (Uniform
Hazardous Waste Manifest and Instructions (EPA Forms 8700-22
and 8700-22a and Their Instructions)), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), must appear legibly on the back
of the copies of the manifest and continuation sheet as provided in
40 CFR 262.21(f), as described in this subsection (b)(6) and
subsection (b)(14) of this Section. The instructions must not be
visible through the front of the copies when photocopied or faxed.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (b)(6)(G) corresponds with 40 CFR
262.21(f)(7) (2004), as amended at 70 Fed. Reg. 10776 (March 4,
2005). The Board has moved 40 CFR 262.21(f)(7)(i) and (f)(7)(ii)
to appear as subsections (b)(14)(A) and (b)(14)(B) to comport with
Illinois Administrative Code codification requirements.
7) Use of approved manifests.
A) A generator may use manifests printed by any source so long as
the source of the printed form has received approval from USEPA
to print the manifest pursuant to 40 CFR 262.21(c) and (e), as
described in subsections (b)(3) and (b)(5) of this Section. A
registered source may be any of the following:
i) A state agency;
ii) A commercial printer;
iii) A hazardous waste generator, transporter, or treatment,
storage, or disposal facility; or
iv) A hazardous waste broker or other preparer who prepares
or arranges shipments of hazardous waste for
transportation.
B) The waste generator must determine whether the generator state or
the consignment state for a shipment regulates any additional
wastes (beyond those regulated federally) as hazardous wastes
under these states’ authorized programs. The generator must also
determine whether the consignment state or generator state
requires the generator to submit any copies of the manifest to these
states. In cases where the generator must supply copies to either
the generator’s state or the consignment state, the generator is
responsible for supplying legible photocopies of the manifest to
these states.
8) Manifest revisions.
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A) If an approved registrant would like to update any of the
information provided in its application approved by USEPA
pursuant to 40 CFR 262.21(c), as described in subsection (b)(3) of
this Section (e.g., to update a company phone number or name of
contact person), the registrant must revise the application and
submit it to the USEPA Director of the Office of Solid Waste,
along with an indication or explanation of the update, as soon as
practicable after the change occurs. The USEPA will either
approve or deny the revision. If USEPA denies the revision, it will
explain the reasons for the denial, and it will contact the registrant
and request further modification before approval.
B) If the registrant would like a new tracking number suffix, the
registrant must submit a proposed suffix to the USEPA Director of
the Office of Solid Waste, along with the reason for requesting it.
USEPA will either approve the suffix or deny the suffix and
provide an explanation why it is not acceptable.
C) If a registrant would like to change the paper type, paper weight,
ink color of the manifest instructions, or binding method of its
manifest or continuation sheet subsequent to approval by USEPA
pursuant to 40 CFR 262.21(e), as described in this subsection
(b)(5) of this Section, then the registrant must submit three samples
of the revised form for USEPA review and approval. If the
approved registrant would like to use a new printer, the registrant
must submit three manifest samples printed by the new printer,
along with a brief description of the printer’s qualifications to print
the manifest. USEPA will evaluate the manifests and either
approve the registrant to print the forms as proposed or request
additional information or modification to them before approval.
USEPA will notify the registrant of its decision by mail. The
registrant cannot use or distribute its revised forms until USEPA
approves them.
9) If, subsequent to its approval by USEPA pursuant to 40 CFR 262.21(e), as
described in subsection (b)(5) of this Section, a registrant typesets its
manifest or continuation sheet instead of using the electronic file of the
forms provided by USEPA, it must submit three samples of the manifest
or continuation sheet to the registry for approval. USEPA will evaluate
the manifests or continuation sheets and either approve the registrant to
print them as proposed or request additional information or modification
to them before approval. USEPA will notify the registrant of its decision
by mail. The registrant cannot use or distribute its typeset forms until
USEPA approves them.
248
10) USEPA may exempt a registrant from the requirement to submit form
samples pursuant to 40 CFR 262.21(d) or (h)(3), as described in
subsection (b)(4) or (b)(8)(C) of this Section, if USEPA is persuaded that
a separate review of the registrant’s forms would serve little purpose in
informing an approval decision (e.g., a registrant certifies that it will print
the manifest using the same paper type, paper weight, ink color of the
instructions, and binding method of the form samples approved for some
other registrant). A registrant may request an exemption from USEPA by
indicating why an exemption is warranted.
11) An approved registrant must notify USEPA by phone or email as soon as
it becomes aware that it has duplicated tracking numbers on any manifests
that have been used or distributed to other parties.
12) If, subsequent to approval of a registrant by USEPA pursuant to 40 CFR
262.21(e), as described in subsection (b)(5) of this Section, USEPA
becomes aware that the approved paper type, paper weight, ink color of
the instructions, or binding method of the registrant’s form is
unsatisfactory, USEPA will contact the registrant and require
modifications to the form.
13) Effects of non-compliance.
A) USEPA may suspend and, if necessary, revoke printing privileges
if we find that the registrant has done either of the following:
i) The registrant has used or distributed forms that deviate
from its approved form samples in regard to paper weight,
paper type, ink color of the instructions, or binding method;
or
ii) The registrant exhibits a continuing pattern of behavior in
using or distributing manifests that contain duplicate
manifest tracking numbers.
B) USEPA will send a warning letter to the registrant that specifies
the date by which it must come into compliance with the
requirements. If the registrant does not come in compliance by the
specified date, USEPA will send a second letter notifying the
registrant that USEPA has suspended or revoked its printing
privileges. An approved registrant must provide information on its
printing activities to the Agency and USEPA if requested.
14) Required manifest instructions.
A) Manifest Form 8700-22.
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i) The “Instructions for Generators” on Copy 6;
ii) The “Instructions for International Shipment Block” and
“Instructions for Transporters” on Copy 5; and
iii) The “Instructions for Treatment, Storage, and Disposal
Facilities” on Copy 4.
B) Manifest Form 8700-22A.
i) The “Instructions for Generators” on Copy 6;
ii) The “Instructions for Transporters” on Copy 5; and
iii) The “Instructions for Treatment, Storage, and Disposal
Facilities” on Copy 4.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (b)(14)(A) and (b)(14)(B) are derived from
40 CFR 262.21(f)(7)(i) and (f)(7)(ii) (2004), as amended at 70 Fed. Reg.
10776 (March 4, 2005). These provisions would normally correspond
with subsections (b)(6)(G)(i) and (b)(6)(G)(ii) of this Section. The Board
has moved 40 CFR 262.21(f)(7)(i) and (f)(7)(ii) to appear as subsections
(b)(14)(A) and (b)(14)(B) of this Section to comport with Illinois
Administrative Code codification requirements.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (a) is derived from 40 CFR 262.21 (2004), effective until
September 5, 2006. Subsection (b) is derived from 40 CFR 262.21 (2005), effective September
5, 2006.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.127 Waste Minimization Certification
Effective September 5, 2006, a generator that initiates a shipment of hazardous waste must
certify to one of the following statements in Item 15 of the uniform hazardous waste manifest:
a) “I am a large quantity generator. I have a program in place to reduce the volume
and toxicity of waste generated to the degree I have determined to be
economically practicable and I have selected the practicable method of treatment,
storage, or disposal currently available to me which minimizes the present and
future threat to human health and the environment”; or
b) “I am a small quantity generator. I have made a good faith effort to minimize my
waste generation and select the best waste management method that is available
to me and that I can afford.”
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BOARD NOTE: 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110 defines a “small quantity generator” as a generator
that generates less than 1,000 kilograms of hazardous waste in any calendar month. There is no
corresponding definition of “large quantity generator” in the federal regulations, but the Board
interprets the term to mean a hazardous waste generator that is not a small quantity generator.
(Source: Added at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART C: PRE-TRANSPORT REQUIREMENTS
Section 722.130 Packaging
Before transporting hazardous waste or offering hazardous waste for transportation off-site, a
generator must package the waste in accordance with the applicable U.S. Department of
Transportation (USDOT) regulations on packaging under 49 CFR 173 (Shippers—General
Requirements for Shipments and Packages), 178 (Specifications for Packagings), and 179
(Specifications for Tank Cars), each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.131 Labeling
Before transporting or offering hazardous waste for transportation off-site, a generator must label
each package in accordance with the applicable USDOT regulations on hazardous materials under
49 CFR 172 (Hazardous Materials Table, Special Provisions, Hazardous Materials
Communications, Emergency Response Information, and Training Requirements), incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.132 Marking
a) Before transporting or offering hazardous waste for transportation off-site, a
generator must mark each package of hazardous waste in accordance with the
applicable USDOT regulations on hazardous materials under 49 CFR 172
(Hazardous Materials Table, Special Provisions, Hazardous Materials
Communications, Emergency Response Information, and Training
Requirements), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b);
b) Marking small containers.
1)
S
Before
S
Until September 5, 2006, before transporting hazardous waste or
offering hazardous waste for transportation off-site, a generator must mark
each container of 416 liters (110 gallons) or less that is used in such
transportation with the following words and information displayed in
accordance with the requirements of 49 CFR 172.304 (Marking
251
Requirements), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b):
HAZARDOUS WASTE -- Federal Law Prohibits Improper Disposal.
If found, contact the nearest police or public safety authority or the
U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
Generator’s Name and Address _______________________.
Manifest Document Number _________________________.
2) Effective September 5, 2006, before transporting hazardous waste or
offering hazardous waste for transportation off-site, a generator must mark
each container of 450 liters (110 gallons) or less that is used in such
transportation with the following words and information displayed in
accordance with the requirements of 49 CFR 172.304 (Marking
Requirements), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b):
HAZARDOUS WASTE--Federal Law Prohibits Improper Disposal.
If found, contact the nearest police or public safety authority or the
U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
Generator’s Name and Address _______________________.
Generator’s USEPA Identification Number ______________.
Manifest Tracking Number ___________________________.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (b)(1) is derived from 40 CFR 262.32(b) (2004),
effective until September 5, 2006. Subsection (b)(2) is derived from 40 CFR
262.32(b) (2005), effective September 5, 2006.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.133 Placarding
a)
S
Before
S
Until September 5, 2006, before transporting hazardous waste or offering
hazardous waste for transportation off-site, a generator must placard or offer the
initial transporter the appropriate placards according to
S
Department of
Transportation
S
USDOT regulations for hazardous materials under subpart F of 49
CFR 172 (Placarding), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
b) Effective September 5, 2006, before transporting hazardous waste or offering
hazardous waste for transportation off-site, a generator must placard or offer the
initial transporter the appropriate placards according to USDOT regulations for
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hazardous materials under subpart F of 49 CFR 172 (Placarding), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b). If placards are not required, a
generator must mark each motor vehicle according to 49 CFR 171.3(b)(1)
(Hazardous Waste), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (a) is derived from 40 CFR 262.33 (2004), effective until
September 5, 2006. Subsection (b) is derived from 40 CFR 262.33 (2005), effective September
5, 2006.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.134 Accumulation Time
a) Except as provided in subsection (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), or (i) of this Section, a
generator is exempt from all the requirements in Subparts G and H of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 725, except for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.211 and 725.214, and may
accumulate hazardous waste on-site for 90 days or less without a permit or
without having interim status, provided that the following conditions are fulfilled:
1) The waste is placed in or on one of the following types of units, and the
generator complies with the applicable requirements:
A) In containers, and the generator complies with Subparts I, AA, BB,
and CC of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725;
B) In tanks, and the generator complies with Subparts J, AA, BB, and
CC of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, except 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.297(c)
and 725.300;
C) On drip pads, and the generator complies with Subpart W of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725 and maintains the following records at the facility:
i) A description of the procedures that will be followed to
ensure that all wastes are removed from the drip pad and
associated collection system at least once every 90 days;
and
ii) Documentation of each waste removal, including the
quantity of waste removed from the drip pad and the sump
or collection system and the date and time of removal; or
D) In containment buildings, and the generator complies with Subpart
DD of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 (has placed its Professional Engineer
(PE) certification that the building complies with the design
standards specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.1101 in the facility’s
operating record prior to the date of initial operation of the unit).
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The owner or operator must maintain the following records at the
facility:
i) A written description of procedures to ensure that each
waste volume remains in the unit for no more than 90 days,
a written description of the waste generation and
management practices for the facility showing that they are
consistent with respect to the 90 day limit, and
documentation that the procedures are complied with; or
ii) Documentation that the unit is emptied at least once every
90 days;
BOARD NOTE: The Board placed the “in addition” hanging subsection
that appears in the
S
Federal
S
federal rules after 40 CFR 262.34(a)(1)(iv)(B)
in the introduction to subsection (a) of this Section.
2) The date upon which each period of accumulation begins is clearly
marked and visible for inspection on each container;
3) While being accumulated on-site, each container and tank is labeled or
marked clearly with the words “Hazardous Waste”; and
4) The generator complies with the requirements for owners or operators in
Subparts C and D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 and with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.116 and 728.107(a)(5).
b) A generator that accumulates hazardous waste for more than 90 days is an
operator of a storage facility. Such a generator is subject to the requirements of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725 and the permit requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
702, 703, and 705, unless the generator has been granted an extension of the 90-
day period. If hazardous wastes must remain on-site for longer than 90 days due
to unforeseen, temporary, and uncontrollable circumstances, the generator may
seek an extension of up to 30 days by means of a variance or provisional variance,
pursuant to Sections 35(b), 36(c), and 37(b) of the Environmental Protection Act
[415 ILCS 5/35(b), 36(c), and 37(b)] and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 180 (Agency
procedural regulations).
c) Accumulation near the point of generation.
1) A generator may accumulate as much as 55 gallons of hazardous waste or
one quart of acutely hazardous waste listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.133(e) in containers at or near any point of generation where wastes
initially accumulate that is under the control of the operator of the process
generating the waste without a permit or interim status and without
complying with subsection (a) of this Section, provided the generator does
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the following:
A) The generator complies with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.271, 725.272,
and 725.273(a); and
B) The generator marks the containers either with the words
“Hazardous Waste” or with other words that identify the contents
of the containers.
2) A generator that accumulates either hazardous waste or acutely hazardous
waste listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.133(e) in excess of the amounts
listed in subsection (c)(1) of this Section at or near any point of generation
must, with respect to that amount of excess waste, comply within three
days with subsection (a) of this Section or other applicable provisions of
this Chapter. During the three day period the generator must continue to
comply with subsection (c)(1) of this Section. The generator must mark
the container holding the excess accumulation of hazardous waste with the
date the excess amount began accumulating.
d) A generator that generates greater than 100 kilograms but less than 1,000
kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month may accumulate hazardous
waste on-site for 180 days or less without a permit or without having interim
status provided that the following conditions are fulfilled:
1) The quantity of waste accumulated on-site never exceeds 6,000 kilograms;
2) The generator complies with the requirements of Subpart I of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 725 (except 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.276 and 725.278);
3) The generator complies with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.301;
4) The generator complies with the requirements of subsections (a)(2) and
(a)(3) of this Section, Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, and 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728.107(a)(5); and
5) The generator complies with the following requirements:
A) At all times there must be at least one employee either on the
premises or on call (i.e., available to respond to an emergency by
reaching the facility within a short period of time) with the
responsibility for coordinating all emergency response measures
specified in subsection (d)(5)(D) of this Section. The employee is
the emergency coordinator.
B) The generator must post the following information next to the
255
telephone:
i) The name and telephone number of the emergency
coordinator;
ii) Location of fire extinguishers and spill control material
and, if present, fire alarm; and
iii) The telephone number of the fire department, unless the
facility has a direct alarm.
C) The generator must ensure that all employees are thoroughly
familiar with proper waste handling and emergency procedures,
relevant to their responsibilities during normal facility operations
and emergencies.
D) The emergency coordinator or designee must respond to any
emergencies that arise. The following are applicable responses:
i) In the event of a fire, call the fire department or attempt to
extinguish it using a fire extinguisher;
ii) In the event of a spill, contain the flow of hazardous waste
to the extent possible and, as soon as is practicable, clean
up the hazardous waste and any contaminated materials or
soil; and
iii) In the event of a fire, explosion, or other release that could
threaten human health outside the facility, or when the
generator has knowledge that a spill has reached surface
water, the generator must immediately notify the National
Response Center (using its 24-hour toll free number 800-
424-8802).
E) A report to the National Response Center pursuant to subsection
(d)(5)(D)(iii) of this Section must include the following
information:
i) The name, address, and USEPA identification number
(Section 722.112 of this Part) of the generator;
ii) The date, time, and type of incident (e.g., spill or fire);
iii) The quantity and type of hazardous waste involved in the
incident; the extent of injuries, if any; and
256
iv) The estimated quantity and disposition of recoverable
materials, if any.
BOARD NOTE: The Board has codified 40 CFR
262.34(d)(5)(iv)(C)(1) through (d)(5)(iv)(C)(5) as subsections
(d)(5)(E)(i) through (d)(5)(E)(iv) because Illinois Administrative
Code codification requirements do not allow the use of a fifth level
of subsection indents.
e) A generator that generates greater than 100 kilograms but less than 1,000
kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month and that must transport the
waste or offer the waste for transportation over a distance of 200 miles or more
for off-site treatment, storage, or disposal may accumulate hazardous waste on-
site for 270 days or less without a permit or without having interim status,
provided that the generator complies with the requirements of subsection (d) of
this Section.
f) A generator that generates greater than 100 kilograms but less than 1,000
kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month and that accumulates
hazardous waste in quantities exceeding 6,000 kg or accumulates hazardous waste
for more than 180 days (or for more than 270 days if the generator must transport
the waste or offer the waste for transportation over a distance of 200 miles or
more) is an operator of a storage facility and is subject to the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725 and the permit requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
703, unless the generator has been granted an extension to the 180-day (or 270-
day if applicable) period. If hazardous wastes must remain on-site for longer than
180 days (or 270 days if applicable) due to unforeseen, temporary, and
uncontrollable circumstances, the generator may seek an extension of up to 30
days by means of variance or provisional variance pursuant to Sections 35(b),
36(c), and 37(b) of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/35(b), 36(c),
and 37(b)].
g) A generator that generates 1,000 kilograms or greater of hazardous waste per
calendar month which also generates wastewater treatment sludges from
electroplating operations that meet the listing description for the RCRA hazardous
waste code F006, may accumulate F006 waste on-site for more than 90 days, but
not more than 180 days, without a permit or without having interim status
provided that the generator fulfills the following conditions:
1) The generator has implemented pollution prevention practices that reduce
the amount of any hazardous substances, pollutants, or contaminants
entering F006 or otherwise released to the environment prior to its
recycling;
2) The F006 waste is legitimately recycled through metals recovery;
257
3) No more than 20,000 kilograms of F006 waste is accumulated on-site at
any one time; and
4) The F006 waste is managed in accordance with the following conditions:
A) The F006 waste is placed in one of the following containing
devices:
i) In containers and the generator complies with the
applicable requirements of Subparts I, AA, BB, and CC of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725;
ii) In tanks and the generator complies with the applicable
requirements of Subparts J, AA, BB, and CC of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725, except 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.297(c) and
725.300; or
iii) In containment buildings, and the generator complies with
Subpart DD of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 and has placed its
professional engineer certification that the building
complies with the design standards specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.1101 in the facility’s operating record prior
to operation of the unit. The owner or operator must
maintain the records listed in subsection (g)(4)(F) of this
Section at the facility
S
.
S
;
B) In addition, such a generator is exempt from all the requirements in
Subparts G and H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, except for 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.211 and 725.214;
C) The date upon which each period of accumulation begins is clearly
marked and visible for inspection on each container;
D) While being accumulated on-site, each container and tank is
labeled or marked clearly with the words, “Hazardous Waste”; and
E) The generator complies with the requirements for owners or
operators in Subparts C and D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, with 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.116, and with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.107(a)(5).
F) Required records for a containment building:
i) A written description of procedures to ensure that the F006
waste remains in the unit for no more than 180 days, a
written description of the waste generation and
management practices for the facility showing that they are
258
consistent with the 180-day limit, and documentation that
the generator is complying with the procedures; or
ii) Documentation that the unit is emptied at least once every
180 days.
BOARD NOTE: The Board has codified 40 CFR
262.34(g)(4)(i)(C)(
1
) and (g)(4)(i)(C)(
2
) as subsections
(g)(4)(F)(i) and (g)(4)(F)(ii) because Illinois Administrative Code
codification requirements do not allow the use of a fifth level of
subsection indents.
h) A generator that generates 1,000 kilograms or greater of hazardous waste per
calendar month, which also generates wastewater treatment sludges from
electroplating operations that meet the listing description for the RCRA hazardous
waste code F006, and which must transport this waste or offer this waste for
transportation over a distance of 200 miles or more for off-site metals recovery
may accumulate F006 waste on-site for more than 90 days, but not more than 270
days, without a permit or without having interim status if the generator complies
with the requirements of subsections (g)(1) through (g)(4) of this Section.
i) A generator accumulating F006 in accordance with subsections (g) and (h) of this
Section that accumulates F006 waste on-site for more than 180 days (or for more
than 270 days if the generator must transport this waste or offer this waste for
transportation over a distance of 200 miles or more) or which accumulates more
than 20,000 kilograms of F006 waste on-site is an operator of a storage facility,
and such a generator is subject to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and
725 and the permit requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702 and 703, unless the
generator has been granted an extension to the 180-day (or 270-day if applicable)
period or an exception to the 20,000 kilogram accumulation limit.
1) On a case-by-case basis, the Agency must grant a provisional variance that
allows an extension of the accumulation time up to an additional 30 days
pursuant to Sections 35(b), 36(c), and 37(b) of the Act [415 ILCS 5/35(b),
36(c), and 37(b)] if it finds that the F006 waste must remain on-site for
longer than 180 days (or 270 days if applicable) due to unforeseen,
temporary, and uncontrollable circumstances.
2) On a case-by-case basis, the Agency must grant a provisional variance
pursuant to Sections 35(b), 36(c), and 37(b) of the Act [415 ILCS 5/35(b),
36(c), and 37(b)] that allows an exception to the 20,000 kilogram
accumulation limit if the Agency finds that more than 20,000 kilograms of
F006 waste must remain on-site due to unforeseen, temporary, and
uncontrollable circumstances.
3) A generator must follow the procedure of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 180 (Agency
259
procedural rules) when seeking a provisional variance under subsection
(i)(1) or (i)(2) of this Section.
j) A member of the federal National Environmental Performance Track program
that generates 1,000 kg or greater of hazardous waste per month (or one kilogram
or more of acute hazardous waste) may accumulate hazardous waste on-site
without a permit or interim status for an extended period of time, provided that
the following conditions are fulfilled:
1) The generator accumulates the hazardous waste for no more than 180
days, or for no more than 270 days if the generator must transport the
waste (or offer the waste for transport) more than 200 miles from the
generating facility;
2) The generator first notifies USEPA Region 5 and the Agency in writing of
its intent to begin accumulation of hazardous waste for extended time
periods under the provisions of this Section. Such advance notice must
include the following information:
A) The name and USEPA ID number of the facility and specification
of when the facility will begin accumulation of hazardous wastes
for extended periods of time in accordance with this Section;
B) A description of the types of hazardous wastes that will be
accumulated for extended periods of time and the units that will be
used for such extended accumulation;
C) A statement that the facility has made all changes to its operations;
procedures, including emergency preparedness procedures; and
equipment, including equipment needed for emergency
preparedness, that will be necessary to accommodate extended
time periods for accumulating hazardous wastes; and
D) If the generator intends to accumulate hazardous wastes on-site for
up to 270 days, a certification that a facility that is permitted (or
operating under interim status) under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702 and
703, federal 40 CFR 270, or the corresponding regulations of a
sister state to receive these wastes is not available within 200 miles
of the generating facility;
3) The waste is managed in the following types of units:
A) Containers, in accordance with the applicable requirements of
Subparts I, AA, BB, and CC of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 and 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.275;
260
B) Tanks, in accordance with the requirements of Subparts J, AA, BB,
and CC of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, except for Sections 725.297(c)
and Section 725.300;
C) Drip pads, in accordance with Subpart W of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725; or
D) Containment buildings, in accordance with Subpart DD of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725;
4) The quantity of hazardous waste that is accumulated for extended time
periods at the facility does not exceed 30,000 kg;
5) The generator maintains the following records at the facility for each unit
used for extended accumulation times:
A) A written description of procedures to ensure that each waste
volume remains in the unit for no more than 180 days (or 270
days, as applicable), a description of the waste generation and
management practices at the facility showing that they are
consistent with the extended accumulation time limit, and
documentation that the procedures are complied with; or
B) Documentation that the unit is emptied at least once every 180
days (or 270 days, if applicable);
6) Each container or tank that is used for extended accumulation time periods
is labeled or marked clearly with the words “Hazardous Waste,” and for
each container the date upon which each period of accumulation begins is
clearly marked and visible for inspection;
7) The generator complies with the requirements for owners and operators in
Subparts C and D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.116,
and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.107(a)(5). In addition, such a generator is
exempt from all the requirements in Subparts G and H of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 725, except for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.211 and 725.214;
8) The generator has implemented pollution prevention practices that reduce
the amount of any hazardous substances, pollutants, or contaminants
released to the environment prior to its recycling, treatment, or disposal;
and
9) The generator includes the following information with its federal National
Environmental Performance Track Annual Performance Report, which
must be submitted to the USEPA Region 5 and the Agency:
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A) Information on the total quantity of each hazardous waste
generated at the facility that has been managed in the previous year
according to extended accumulation time periods;
B) Information for the previous year on the number of off-site
shipments of hazardous wastes generated at the facility, the types
and locations of destination facilities, how the wastes were
managed at the destination facilities (e.g., recycling, treatment,
storage, or disposal), and what changes in on-site or off-site waste
management practices have occurred as a result of extended
accumulation times or other pollution prevention provisions of this
Section;
C) Information for the previous year on any hazardous waste spills or
accidents occurring at extended accumulation units at the facility,
or during off-site transport of accumulated wastes; and
D) If the generator intends to accumulate hazardous wastes on-site for
up to 270 days, a certification that a facility that is permitted (or
operating under interim status) under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702 and
703, federal 40 CFR 270, or the corresponding regulations of a
sister state to receive these wastes is not available within 200 miles
of the generating facility.
BOARD NOTE: The National Environmental Performance Track program is
operated exclusively by USEPA. USEPA established the program in 2000 (see
65 Fed. Reg. 41655 (July 6, 2000)) and amended it in 2004 (see 69 Fed. Reg.
27922 (May 17, 2004)). USEPA confers membership in the program on
application of interested and eligible entities. Information about the program is
available from a website maintained by USEPA:
www.epa.gov/performancetrack.
k) If the Agency finds that hazardous wastes must remain on-site at a federal
National Environmental Performance Track member facility for longer than the
180 days (or 270 days, if applicable) allowed under subsection (j) of this Section
due to unforeseen, temporary, and uncontrollable circumstances, it must grant an
extension to the extended accumulation time period of up to 30 days on a case-by-
case basis by a provisional variance pursuant to Sections 35(b), 36(c), and 37(b)
of the Act [415 ILCS 5/35(b), 36(c), and 37(b)].
1) If a generator that is a member of the federal National Environmental
Performance Track program withdraws from the National Environmental
Performance Track program or if USEPA Region 5 terminates a generator’s
membership, the generator must return to compliance with all otherwise
applicable hazardous waste regulations as soon as possible, but no later than six
months after the date of withdrawal or termination.
262
m) Effective September 5, 2006, a generator that sends a shipment of hazardous
waste to a designated facility with the understanding that the designated facility
can accept and manage the waste and which later receives that shipment back as a
rejected load or residue in accordance with the manifest discrepancy provisions of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.172 or 725.172 may accumulate the returned waste on-site
in accordance with subsections (a) and (b) or (d), (e), and (f) of this Section,
depending on the amount of hazardous waste on-site in that calendar month.
Upon receipt of the returned shipment, the generator must sign the appropriate of
the following:
1) Item 18c of the manifest, if the transporter returned the shipment using the
original manifest; or
2) Item 20 of the manifest, if the transporter returned the shipment using a
new manifest.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART E: EXPORTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section 722.153 Notification of Intent to Export
a) A primary exporter of hazardous waste must notify USEPA in accordance with
federal 40 CFR 262.53 (Notification of Intent to Export), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
b) The primary exporter must send the Agency a copy of each notice sent to USEPA
pursuant to subsection
S
(b)
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(a) of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.154 Special Manifest Requirements
a) A primary exporter must comply with the manifest requirements as specified in
federal 40 CFR 262.54 (Special Manifest Requirements), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
b) The primary exporter must send a copy of the manifest to the Agency.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.155 Exception Report
a) In lieu of the requirements of Section 722.142, a primary exporter must file an
exception report with USEPA as provided by federal 40 CFR 262.55 (Exception
263
Reports), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
b) The primary exporter must send a copy of the exception report to the Agency.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.156 Annual Reports
a) Primary exporters of hazardous waste must file with USEPA, no later than March
1 of each year, a report as specified in federal 40 CFR 262.56 (Annual Reports),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
b) The primary exporter must send the Agency a copy of each report sent to USEPA.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.157 Recordkeeping
For all exports a primary exporter must comply with the recordkeeping requirements of federal 40
CFR 262.57 (Recordkeeping), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART F: IMPORTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section 722.160 Imports of Hazardous Waste
a) Any person that imports hazardous waste from a foreign country into the United
States must comply with the requirements of this Part and the special requirements of
this Subpart F.
b) When importing hazardous waste, a person must meet all the requirements of Section
722.120(a) for the manifest, except that the following information items are
substituted:
1) In place of the generator’s name, address, and USEPA identification number,
the name and address of the foreign generator and the importer’s name,
address, and USEPA identification number must be used.
2) In place of the generator’s signature on the certification statement, the United
States importer or the importer’s agent must sign and date the certification
and obtain the signature of the initial transporter.
c) A person that imports hazardous waste must obtain the manifest form
S
,
S
as provided in
Section 722.121(a) or (b)(7).
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d) Effective September 5, 2006, in the International Shipments block of the
manifest, the importer must check the import box and enter the point of entry (city
and State) into the United States.
e) Effective September 5, 2006, the importer must provide the transporter with an
additional copy of the manifest to be submitted by the receiving facility to
USEPA in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.171(a)(2)(C) or
725.171(a)(2)(C).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART H: TRANSFRONTIER SHIPMENTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
FOR RECOVERY WITHIN THE OECD
Section 722.181 Definitions
The following definitions apply to this Subpart H:
“Amber-list controls” means the controls listed in
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Section
S
section IV of the
S
Annex
S
annex to the OECD Council Decision C(92)39/FINAL, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
“Amber-list waste” means a waste listed in the OECD “Amber List of Wastes,”
Appendix 4 to the OECD Council Decision C(92)39/FINAL, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
“Competent authorities” means the regulatory authorities of concerned countries
having jurisdiction over transfrontier movements of wastes destined for recovery
operations.
“Concerned countries” means the exporting and importing OECD member
countries and any OECD member countries of transit.
“Consignee” means the person to whom possession or other form of legal control
of the waste is assigned at the time the waste is received in the importing country.
“Country of transit” means any designated OECD country in Section
722.158(a)(1) and (a)(2) other than the exporting or importing country across
which a transfrontier movement of wastes is planned or takes place.
“Exporting country” means any designated OECD member country in Section
722.158(a)(1) from which a transfrontier movement of wastes is planned or has
commenced.
“Green-list controls” means the controls listed in
S
Section
S
section III of the
S
Annex
S
annex to the OECD Council Decision C(92)39/FINAL, incorporated by reference
265
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
“Green-list waste” means a waste listed in the OECD “Green List of Wastes,”
Appendix 3 to the OECD Council Decision C(92)39/FINAL, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
“Importing country” means any designated OECD country in Section
722.158(a)(1) to which a transfrontier movement of wastes is planned or takes
place for the purpose of submitting the wastes to recovery operations therein.
“Notifier” means the person under the jurisdiction of the exporting country that
has, or will have at the time the planned transfrontier movement commences,
possession or other forms of legal control of the wastes and that proposes their
transfrontier movement for the ultimate purpose of submitting them to recovery
operations. When the United States (U.S.) is the exporting country, notifier is
interpreted to mean a person domiciled in the U.S.
“OECD area” means all land or marine areas under the national jurisdiction of
any designated OECD member country in Section 722.158. When the regulations
refer to shipments to or from an OECD country, this means OECD area.
“Recognized trader” means a person that, with appropriate authorization of
concerned countries, acts in the role of principal to purchase and subsequently sell
wastes; this person has legal control of such wastes from time of purchase to time
of sale; such a person may act to arrange and facilitate transfrontier movements of
wastes destined for recovery operations.
“Recovery facility” means an entity that, under applicable domestic law, is
operating or is authorized to operate in the importing country to receive wastes
and to perform recovery operations on them.
“Recovery operations” means activities leading to resource recovery, recycling,
reclamation, direct re-use, or alternative uses, as listed in Table 2.B of the
S
Annex
S
annex of OECD Council Decision C(88)90(Final), incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), which include the following activities:
R1 Use as a fuel (other than in direct incineration) or other means to
generate energy,
R2 Solvent reclamation or regeneration,
R3 Recycling or reclamation of organic substances that are not used as
solvents,
R4 Recycling or reclamation of metals and metal compounds,
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R5 Recycling or reclamation of other inorganic materials,
R6 Regeneration of acids or bases,
R7 Recovery of components used for pollution control,
R8 Recovery of components from catalysts,
R9 Used oil re-refining or other reuses of previously used oil,
R10 Land treatment resulting in benefit to agriculture or ecological
improvement,
R11 Uses of residual materials obtained from any of the operations
numbered R1 through R10,
R12 Exchange of wastes for submission to any of the operations
numbered R1 through R11, and
R13 Accumulation of material intended for any operation in Table 2.B.
“Red-list controls” means the controls listed in
S
Section
S
section V of the
S
Annex
S
annex
to the OECD Council Decision C(92)39/FINAL, incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
“Red-list waste” means a waste listed in the OECD
S
Green
S
“Red List of Wastes,”
Appendix 5 to the OECD Council Decision C(92)39/FINAL, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
“Transfrontier movement” means any shipment of wastes destined for recovery
operations from an area under the national jurisdiction of one OECD member
country to an area under the national jurisdiction of another OECD member
country.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 722.187 Reporting and Recordkeeping
a) Annual reports. For all waste movements subject to this Subpart H, persons (e.g.,
notifiers, recognized traders, etc.) that meet the definition of primary exporter in
Section 722.151 must file an annual report with the Office of Enforcement and
Compliance Assurance, Office of Compliance, Enforcement Planning, Targeting
and Data Division (2222A), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 401 M St.,
SW, Washington, DC 20460 and the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency,
Bureau of Land, Division of Land Pollution Control, P.O. Box 19276,
Springfield, IL 62794, no later than March 1 of each year summarizing the types,
267
quantities, frequency, and ultimate destination of all such hazardous waste
exported during the previous calendar year. (If the primary exporter is required to
file an annual report for waste exports that are not covered under this Subpart H,
the person filing may include all export information in one report provided the
following information on exports of waste destined for recovery within the
designated OECD member countries is contained in a separate Section). Such
reports must include the following information:
1) The USEPA identification number, name, and mailing and site address of
the notifier filing the report;
2) The calendar year covered by the report;
3) The name and site address of each final recovery facility;
4) By final recovery facility, for each hazardous waste exported, a
description of the hazardous waste, the USEPA hazardous waste number
(from Subpart C or D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721); the designation of waste
types from the OECD waste list and applicable waste code from the
OECD lists, as described in the annex to OECD Council Decision
C(88)90/FINAL, as amended by C(94)152/FINAL, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), USDOT hazard class; the name
and USEPA identification number (where applicable) for each transporter
used; the total amount of hazardous waste shipped pursuant to this Subpart
H; and number of shipments pursuant to each notification;
5) In even numbered years, for each hazardous waste exported, except for
hazardous waste produced by exporters of greater than 100 kilograms (kg)
but less than 1,000 kg in a calendar month, and except for hazardous waste
for which information was already provided pursuant to Section 722.141:
A) A description of the efforts undertaken during the year to reduce
the volume and toxicity of waste generated; and
B) A description of the changes in volume and toxicity of the waste
actually achieved during the year in comparison to previous years
to the extent such information is available for years prior to 1984;
and
6) A certification signed by the person acting as primary exporter that states
as follows:
“I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am
familiar with the information submitted in this and all attached documents,
and that based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible
for obtaining the information, I believe that the submitted information is
268
true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant
penalties for submitting false information including the possibility of fine
and imprisonment.”
b) Exception reports. Any person that meets the definition of primary exporter in
Section 722.151 must file with USEPA and the Agency an exception report in lieu
of the requirements of Section 722.142 if any of the following occurs:
1) The person has not received a copy of the tracking documentation signed
by the transporter stating point of departure of the waste from the United
States within 45 days from the date it was accepted by the initial
transporter;
2) Within 90 days from the date the waste was accepted by the initial
transporter, the notifier has not received written confirmation from the
recovery facility that the hazardous waste was received; or
3) The waste is returned to the United States.
c) Recordkeeping.
1) Persons that meet the definition of primary exporter in Section 722.151
must keep the following records:
A) A copy of each notification of intent to export and all written
consents obtained from the competent authorities of concerned
countries, for a period of at least three years from the date the
hazardous waste was accepted by the initial transporter;
B) A copy of each annual report, for a period of at least three years
from the due date of the report; and
C) A copy of any exception reports and a copy of each confirmation
of delivery (i.e., tracking documentation) sent by the recovery
facility to the notifier, for at least three years from the date the
hazardous waste was accepted by the initial transporter or received
by the recovery facility, whichever is applicable.
2) The periods of retention referred to in this Section are extended
automatically during the course of any unresolved enforcement action
regarding the regulated activity or as requested by USEPA or the Agency.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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Section 722.Appendix A Hazardous Waste Manifest
The Agency must prepare manifest forms based on the appendix to federal 40 CFR 262
S
, Appendix
S
,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
, with such changes as are necessary
under Illinois law
S
.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 723
STANDARDS APPLICABLE TO TRANSPORTERS OF HAZARDOUS
WASTE
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section
723.110 Scope
723.111 USEPA Identification Number
723.112 Transfer Facility Requirements
SUBPART B: COMPLIANCE WITH THE MANIFEST SYSTEM AND
RECORDKEEPING
Section
723.120 The Manifest System
723.121 Compliance with the Manifest
723.122 Recordkeeping
SUBPART C: HAZARDOUS WASTE DISCHARGES
Section
723.130 Immediate Action
723.131 Discharge
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Clean Up
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Cleanup
AUTHORITY: Implementing Section 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the Environmental
Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R81-22, 43 PCB 427, at 5 Ill. Reg. 9781, effective May 17, 1982;
amended and codified in R81-22, 45 PCB 17, at 6 Ill. Reg. 4828, effective May 17, 1982;
amended in R84-9, at 9 Ill. Reg. 11961, effective July 24, 1985; amended in R86-19, at 10 Ill.
Reg. 20718, effective December 2, 1986; amended in R86-46 at 11 Ill. Reg. 13570, effective
August 4, 1987; amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg. 19412, effective November 12, 1987; amended
in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9945, effective June 27, 1995; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill.
Reg. 589, effective December 16, 1997; amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 17965,
effective September 28, 1998; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg. ________,
270
effective ______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section 723.110 Scope
a) These regulations establish standards which apply to persons transporting
hazardous waste into, out of or through Illinois if the transportation requires a
manifest under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.
b) These regulations do not apply to on-site transportation of hazardous waste by
generators or by owners or operators of permitted hazardous waste management
facilities.
c) A transporter of hazardous waste must also comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722,
“Standards Applicable to Generators of Hazardous Waste,”
S
,
S
if
S
he
S
either of the
following occurs:
1)
S
Transports
S
It transports hazardous waste into the United States from
abroad; or
2)
S
Mixes
S
It mixes hazardous waste of different DOT shipping descriptions by
placing them into a single container.
S
BOARD NOTE: Transporters that store hazardous waste are required to
comply with the storage standards in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725 and
the permit requirements of 40 CFR 122.
d) A transporter of hazardous waste subject to the manifesting requirements of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722 or the waste management standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733 that
is being imported from or exported to any of the countries listed in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.158(a)(1) for purposes of recovery is subject to this Subpart and to all
other relevant requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.Subpart H, including, but
not limited to, 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.184 for tracking documents.
e) The regulations in this Part do not apply to transportation during an explosives or
munitions emergency response, conducted in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.101(g)(8)(A)(iv) or (g)(8)(D) or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.101(c)(11)(A)(iv) or
(c)(11)(D), and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.121(a)(4) or (c).
f) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.303 identifies how the requirements of this Part apply to
military munitions classified as solid waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.302.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART B: COMPLIANCE WITH THE MANIFEST SYSTEM AND
271
RECORDKEEPING
Section 723.120 The Manifest System
a) No acceptance without a manifest.
1) The following manifest requirements apply until September 5, 2006:
S
1
S
A) A transporter
S
shall
S
may not accept hazardous waste from a
generator unless it is accompanied by a manifest signed in
accordance with the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.120. In
the case of exports other than those subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.Subpart H, a transporter
S
shall
S
may not accept such waste from
a primary exporter or other person:
S
A
S
i) If the transporter knows the shipment does not conform
with the USEPA Acknowledgement of Consent (as defined
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.151); and
S
B
S
ii) Unless, in addition to a manifest signed in accordance with
35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.120, the waste is also accompanied
by a USEPA Acknowledgement of Consent which, except
for shipment by rail, is attached to the manifest (or shipping
paper for exports by water (bulk shipment)).
S
2
S
B) For exports of hazardous waste subject to the requirements of
Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722
S
.Subpart H
S
, a transporter may
not accept hazardous waste without a tracking document that
includes all information required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.184.
2) The following manifest requirements apply effective September 5, 2006:
A) Manifest requirement. A transporter may not accept hazardous
waste from a generator unless the transporter is also provided with
a manifest signed in accordance with the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 723.123.
B) Exports.
i) In the case of exports other than those subject to Subpart H
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722, a transporter may not accept
such waste from a primary exporter or other person if the
transporter knows that the shipment does not conform to
the USEPA Acknowledgement of Consent; and unless, in
addition to a manifest signed by the generator as provided
in this Section, the transporter must also be provided with a
272
USEPA Acknowledgement of Consent that, except for
shipment by rail, is attached to the manifest (or shipping
paper for exports by water (bulk shipment)).
ii) For exports of hazardous waste subject to the requirements
of Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722, a transporter may
not accept hazardous waste without a tracking document
that includes all information required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.184.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (a)(1) corresponds with 40 CFR 263.20(a) (2004),
effective until September 5, 2006. Subsection (a)(2) corresponds with 40 CFR
263.20(a) (2005), effective September 5, 2006. The Board omitted 40 CFR
263.20(a)(3) (2005), since that provision merely stated the September 5, 2006
effective date for the newer manifest requirements.
b) Before transporting the hazardous waste, the transporter
S
shall
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must sign and date
the manifest acknowledging acceptance of the hazardous waste from the
generator. The transporter
S
shall
S
must return a signed copy to the generator before
leaving the generator’s property.
c) The transporter
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shall
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must ensure that the manifest accompanies the hazardous
waste. In the case of exports, the transporter
S
shall
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must ensure that a copy of the
USEPA Acknowledgement of Consent also accompanies the hazardous waste.
d) A transporter that delivers a hazardous waste to another transporter or to the
designated facility
S
shall
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must do the following:
1)
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Obtain
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It must obtain the date of delivery and the handwritten signature of
that transporter or of the owner or operator of the designated facility on
the manifest;
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and
S
2)
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Retain
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It must retain one copy of the manifest in accordance with Section
723.122; and
3)
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Give
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It must give the remaining copies of the manifest to the accepting
transporter or designated facility.
e) The requirements of subsections (c), (d), and (f) do not apply to water (bulk
shipment) transporters if all of the following are true:
1) The hazardous waste is delivered by water (bulk shipment) to the
designated facility;
S
and
S
2) A shipping paper containing all the information required on the manifest
(excluding the USEPA identification numbers, generator certification and
273
signatures) accompanies the hazardous waste and, for exports, a USEPA
Acknowledgement of Consent accompanies the hazardous waste;
S
and
S
3) The delivering transporter obtains the date of delivery and handwritten
signature of the owner or operator designated facility on either the
manifest or the shipping paper;
S
and
S
4) The person delivering the hazardous waste to the initial water (bulk
shipment) transporter obtains the date of delivery and signature of the
water (bulk shipment) transporter on the manifest and forwards it to the
designated facility; and
5) A copy of the shipping paper or manifest is retained by each water (bulk
shipment) transporter in accordance with Section 723.122.
f) For shipments involving rail transportation, the following requirements apply
instead of the requirements of subsections (c), (d), and (e), which do not apply
S
and the following requirements do apply
S
:
1) When accepting hazardous waste from a non-rail transporter, the initial
rail transporter
S
shall
S
must do the following:
A)
S
Sign
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It must sign and date the manifest acknowledging acceptance
of the hazardous waste;
B)
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Return
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It must return a signed copy of the manifest to the non-rail
transporter;
C)
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Forward
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It must forward at least three copies of the manifest to the
following entities:
i) The next non-rail transporter, if any;
ii) The designated facility, if the shipment is delivered to that
facility by rail; or
iii) The last rail transporter designated to handle the waste in
the United States;
D)
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Retain
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It must retain one copy of the manifest and rail shipping
paper in accordance with Section 723.122.
2) Rail transporters
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shall
S
must ensure that a shipping paper containing all the
information required on the manifest (excluding the USEPA identification
numbers, generator certification and signatures) and, for exports, a
USEPA Acknowledgement of Consent accompanies the hazardous waste
274
at all times.
BOARD NOTE: Intermediate rail transporters are not required to sign
either the manifest or shipping paper.
3) When delivering hazardous waste to the designated facility, a rail
transporter
S
shall
S
must do the following:
A)
S
Obtain
S
It must obtain the date of delivery and handwritten
signature of the owner or operator of the designated facility on the
manifest or the shipping paper (if the manifest has not been
received by the facility); and
B)
S
Retain
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It must retain a copy of the manifest or signed shipping
paper in accordance with Section 723.122.
4) When delivering hazardous waste to a non-rail transporter a rail
transporter
S
shall
S
must do the following:
A)
S
Obtain
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It must obtain the date of delivery and the handwritten
signature of the next non-rail transporter on the manifest; and
B)
S
Retain
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It must retain a copy of the manifest in accordance with
Section 723.122.
5) Before accepting hazardous waste from a rail transporter, a non-rail
transporter
S
shall
S
must sign and date the manifest and provide a copy to the
rail transporter.
g) Transporters that transport hazardous waste out of the United States
S
shall
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must do
the following:
1) Until September 5, 2006:
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1
S
A) Indicate on the manifest the date the hazardous waste left the
United States;
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and
S
S
2
S
B) Sign the manifest and retain one copy in accordance with Section
723.122(c);
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and
S
S
3
S
C) Return a signed copy of the manifest to the generator; and
S
4
S
D) Give a copy of the manifest to a United States Customs official at
the point of departure from the United States.
2) Effective September 5, 2006:
275
A) Sign and date the manifest in the International Shipments block to
indicate the date that the hazardous waste left the United States;
B) Retain one copy in accordance with Section 723.122(d);
C) Return a signed copy of the manifest to the generator; and
D) Give a copy of the manifest to a U.S. Customs official at the point
of departure from the United States.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (g)(1)(A) through (g)(1)(B) correspond with 40
CFR 263.20(g) (2004). Subsections (g)(2)(A) through (g)(2)(B) correspond with
40 CFR 263.20(g) (2005). The Board added subsections (g)(1) and (g)(2),
reciting the effective dates, based on 40 CFR 263.20(a)(3) (2005).
h) A transporter transporting hazardous waste from a generator that generates greater
than 100 kilograms but less than
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1000
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1,000 kilograms of hazardous waste in a
calendar month need not comply with the requirements of this Section or those of
Section 723.122 provided that:
1) The waste is being transported pursuant to a reclamation agreement
provided for in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.120(e);
2) The transporter records, on a log or shipping paper, the following
information for each shipment:
A) The name, address and USEPA Identification Number (35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722.112) of the generator of the waste;
B) The quantity of waste accepted;
C) All shipping information required by the United States Department
of Transportation;
D) The date the waste is accepted; and
3) The transporter carries this record when transporting waste to the
reclamation facility; and
4) The transporter retains these records for a period of at least three years
after termination or expiration of the agreement.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 723.121 Compliance with the Manifest
276
a) The transporter must deliver the entire quantity of hazardous waste which he has
accepted from a generator or a transporter to:
1) The designated facility listed on the manifest; or
2) The alternate designated facility, if the hazardous waste cannot be
delivered to the designated facility because an emergency prevents
delivery; or
3) The next designated transporter; or
4) The place outside the United States designated by the generator.
b) Non-delivery of the hazardous waste.
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b
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1)
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If
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Until September 5, 2006, if the hazardous waste cannot be delivered in
accordance with
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paragraph
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subsection (a) of this
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section
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Section, the
transporter must contact the generator for further directions and must
revise the manifest according to the generator’s instructions.
2) Effective September 5, 2006.
A) If the hazardous waste cannot be delivered in accordance with
subsection (a) of this Section because of an emergency condition
other than rejection of the waste by the designated facility, then the
transporter must contact the generator for further directions and
must revise the manifest according to the generator’s instructions.
B) If hazardous waste is rejected by the designated facility while the
transporter is on the premises of the designated facility, then the
transporter must obtain the following, as appropriate:
i) For a partial load rejection or for regulated quantities of
container residues: a copy of the original manifest that
includes the facility’s date and signature, the manifest
tracking number of the new manifest that will accompany
the shipment, and a description of the partial rejection or
container residue in the discrepancy block of the original
manifest. The transporter must retain a copy of this
manifest in accordance with Section 723.122 and give the
remaining copies of the original manifest to the rejecting
designated facility. If the transporter is forwarding the
rejected part of the shipment or a regulated container
residue to an alternate facility or returning it to the
generator, the transporter must obtain a new manifest to
277
accompany the shipment, and the new manifest must
include all of the information required in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.172(b)(5)(A) through (b)(5)(F) or (b)(6)(A) through
(b)(6)(F) or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.172(b)(5)(A) through
(b)(5)(F) or (b)(6)(A) through (b)(6)(F).
ii) For a full load rejection that will be taken back by the
transporter: a copy of the original manifest that includes
the rejecting facility’s signature and date attesting to the
rejection, the description of the rejection in the discrepancy
block of the manifest, and the name, address, phone
number, and USEPA identification number for the alternate
facility or generator to whom the shipment must be
delivered. The transporter must retain a copy of the
manifest in accordance with Section 723.122, and give a
copy of the manifest containing this information to the
rejecting designated facility. If the original manifest is not
used, then the transporter must obtain a new manifest for
the shipment and comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.172(b)(5)(A) through (b)(5)(F) or (b)(6)(A) through
(b)(6)(F) or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.172(b)(5)(A) through
(b)(5)(F) or (b)(6)(A) through (b)(6)(F).
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (b)(1) is derived from 40 CFR 263.21(b) (2004),
effective until September 5, 2006. Subsection (b)(2) is derived from 40 CFR
263.21(b) (2005), effective September 5, 2006.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART C: HAZARDOUS WASTE DISCHARGES
Section 723.130 Immediate Action
a) In the event of a discharge of hazardous waste during transportation, the
transporter must take appropriate immediate action to protect human health and
the environment (e.g., notify local authorities, dike the discharge area).
b) If a discharge of hazardous waste occurs during transportation and an official (of
state or local government or of a federal agency) acting within the scope of his or
her official responsibilities determines that immediate removal of the waste is
necessary to protect human health or the environment, that official may authorize
the removal of the waste by transporters that do not have
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U.S. EPA
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USEPA
identification numbers and without the preparation of a manifest.
c) An air, rail, highway, or water transporter that has discharged hazardous waste
must:
278
1) Give notice to the National Response Center (800-424-8802 or 202-426-
2675), if required by 49 CFR 171.15 (Immediate Notice of Certain
Hazardous Materials Incidents), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b);
2) Report in writing to the Director, Office of Hazardous Materials
Regulations, Materials Transportation Bureau, Department of
Transportation, Washington, D.C. 20590, as required by 49 CFR 171.16
(Detailed Hazardous Materials Incident Reports), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b); and
3)
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give
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Give notice to the following State agency:
Illinois Emergency Management Agency
110 East Adams
Springfield, Illinois 62706
217-782-7860
d) A water (bulk shipment) transporter that has discharged hazardous waste must
give the same notice as required by 33 CFR 153.203 (Procedure for the Notice of
Discharge), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), for oil
and hazardous substances.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 723.131 Discharge
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Clean Up
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Cleanup
A transporter must clean up any hazardous waste discharge that occurs during transportation or
take such action as may be required or approved by
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Federal
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federal, State, or local officials so
that the hazardous waste discharge no longer presents a hazard to human health or the
environment.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 724
STANDARDS FOR OWNERS AND OPERATORS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
TREATMENT, STORAGE, AND DISPOSAL FACILITIES
279
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
724.101 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
724.103 Relationship to Interim Status Standards
SUBPART B: GENERAL FACILITY STANDARDS
Section
724.110 Applicability
724.111 USEPA Identification Number
724.112 Required Notices
724.113 General Waste Analysis
724.114 Security
724.115 General Inspection Requirements
724.116 Personnel Training
724.117 General Requirements for Ignitable, Reactive, or Incompatible Wastes
724.118 Location Standards
724.119 Construction Quality Assurance Program
SUBPART C: PREPAREDNESS AND PREVENTION
Section
724.130 Applicability
724.131 Design and Operation of Facility
724.132 Required Equipment
724.133 Testing and Maintenance of Equipment
724.134 Access to Communications or Alarm System
724.135 Required Aisle Space
724.137 Arrangements with Local Authorities
SUBPART D: CONTINGENCY PLAN AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Section
724.150 Applicability
724.151 Purpose and Implementation of Contingency Plan
724.152 Content of Contingency Plan
724.153 Copies of Contingency Plan
724.154 Amendment of Contingency Plan
724.155 Emergency Coordinator
724.156 Emergency Procedures
SUBPART E: MANIFEST SYSTEM, RECORDKEEPING AND REPORTING
Section
724.170 Applicability
724.171 Use of Manifest System
724.172 Manifest Discrepancies
724.173 Operating Record
724.174 Availability, Retention, and Disposition of Records
724.175 Annual Report
280
724.176 Unmanifested Waste Report
724.177 Additional Reports
SUBPART F: RELEASES FROM SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT UNITS
Section
724.190 Applicability
724.191 Required Programs
724.192 Groundwater Protection Standard
724.193 Hazardous Constituents
724.194 Concentration Limits
724.195 Point of Compliance
724.196 Compliance Period
724.197 General Groundwater Monitoring Requirements
724.198 Detection Monitoring Program
724.199 Compliance Monitoring Program
724.200 Corrective Action Program
724.201 Corrective Action for Solid Waste Management Units
SUBPART G: CLOSURE AND POST-CLOSURE CARE
Section
724.210 Applicability
724.211 Closure Performance Standard
724.212 Closure Plan; Amendment of Plan
724.213 Closure; Time Allowed For Closure
724.214 Disposal or Decontamination of Equipment, Structures, and Soils
724.215 Certification of Closure
724.216 Survey Plat
724.217 Post-Closure Care and Use of Property
724.218 Post-Closure Care Plan; Amendment of Plan
724.219 Post-Closure Notices
724.220 Certification of Completion of Post-Closure Care
SUBPART H: FINANCIAL REQUIREMENTS
Section
724.240 Applicability
724.241 Definitions of Terms as Used in This Subpart
724.242 Cost Estimate for Closure
724.243 Financial Assurance for Closure
724.244 Cost Estimate for Post-Closure Care
724.245 Financial Assurance for Post-Closure Care
724.246 Use of a Mechanism for Financial Assurance of Both Closure and Post-Closure
Care
724.247 Liability Requirements
724.248 Incapacity of Owners or Operators, Guarantors, or Financial Institutions
724.251 Wording of the Instruments
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SUBPART I: USE AND MANAGEMENT OF CONTAINERS
Section
724.270 Applicability
724.271 Condition of Containers
724.272 Compatibility of Waste with Container
724.273 Management of Containers
724.274 Inspections
724.275 Containment
724.276 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.277 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.278 Closure
724.279 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART J: TANK SYSTEMS
Section
724.290 Applicability
724.291 Assessment of Existing Tank System Integrity
724.292 Design and Installation of New Tank Systems or Components
724.293 Containment and Detection of Releases
724.294 General Operating Requirements
724.295 Inspections
724.296 Response to Leaks or Spills and Disposition of Leaking or Unfit-for-Use Tank
Systems
724.297 Closure and Post-Closure Care
724.298 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.299 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.300 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART K: SURFACE IMPOUNDMENTS
Section
724.320 Applicability
724.321 Design and Operating Requirements
724.322 Action Leakage Rate
724.323 Response Actions
724.326 Monitoring and Inspection
724.327 Emergency Repairs; Contingency Plans
724.328 Closure and Post-Closure Care
724.329 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.330 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.331 Special Requirements for Hazardous Wastes F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and
F027
724.332 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART L: WASTE PILES
Section
724.350 Applicability
282
724.351 Design and Operating Requirements
724.352 Action Leakage Rate
724.353 Response Action Plan
724.354 Monitoring and Inspection
724.356 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.357 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.358 Closure and Post-Closure Care
724.359 Special Requirements for Hazardous Wastes F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and
F027
SUBPART M: LAND TREATMENT
Section
724.370 Applicability
724.371 Treatment Program
724.372 Treatment Demonstration
724.373 Design and Operating Requirements
724.376 Food-Chain Crops
724.378 Unsaturated Zone Monitoring
724.379 Recordkeeping
724.380 Closure and Post-Closure Care
724.381 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.382 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.383 Special Requirements for Hazardous Wastes F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and
F027
SUBPART N: LANDFILLS
Section
724.400 Applicability
724.401 Design and Operating Requirements
724.402 Action Leakage Rate
724.403 Monitoring and Inspection
724.404 Response Actions
724.409 Surveying and Recordkeeping
724.410 Closure and Post-Closure Care
724.412 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.413 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.414 Special Requirements for Bulk and Containerized Liquids
724.415 Special Requirements for Containers
724.416 Disposal of Small Containers of Hazardous Waste in Overpacked Drums (Lab
Packs)
724.417 Special Requirements for Hazardous Wastes F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and
F027
SUBPART O: INCINERATORS
Section
724.440 Applicability
283
724.441 Waste Analysis
724.442 Principal Organic Hazardous Constituents (POHCs)
724.443 Performance Standards
724.444 Hazardous Waste Incinerator Permits
724.445 Operating Requirements
724.447 Monitoring and Inspections
724.451 Closure
SUBPART S: SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR CLEANUP
Section
724.650 Applicability of Corrective Action Management Unit Regulations
724.651 Grandfathered Corrective Action Management Units
724.652 Corrective Action Management Units
724.653 Temporary Units
724.654 Staging Piles
724.655 Disposal of CAMU-Eligible Wastes in Permitted Hazardous Waste Landfills
SUBPART W: DRIP PADS
Section
724.670 Applicability
724.671 Assessment of Existing Drip Pad Integrity
724.672 Design and Installation of New Drip Pads
724.673 Design and Operating Requirements
724.674 Inspections
724.675 Closure
SUBPART X: MISCELLANEOUS UNITS
Section
724.700 Applicability
724.701 Environmental Performance Standards
724.702 Monitoring, Analysis, Inspection, Response, Reporting, and Corrective Action
724.703 Post-Closure Care
SUBPART AA: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR PROCESS VENTS
Section
724.930 Applicability
724.931 Definitions
724.932 Standards: Process Vents
724.933 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and Control Devices
724.934 Test Methods and Procedures
724.935 Recordkeeping Requirements
724.936 Reporting Requirements
SUBPART BB: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR EQUIPMENT LEAKS
Section
724.950 Applicability
284
724.951 Definitions
724.952 Standards: Pumps in Light Liquid Service
724.953 Standards: Compressors
724.954 Standards: Pressure Relief Devices in Gas/Vapor Service
724.955 Standards: Sampling Connecting Systems
724.956 Standards: Open-ended Valves or Lines
724.957 Standards: Valves in Gas/Vapor or Light Liquid Service
724.958 Standards: Pumps, Valves, Pressure Relief Devices, and Other Connectors
724.959 Standards: Delay of Repair
724.960 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and Control Devices
724.961 Alternative Percentage Standard for Valves
724.962 Skip Period Alternative for Valves
724.963 Test Methods and Procedures
724.964 Recordkeeping Requirements
724.965 Reporting Requirements
SUBPART CC: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR TANKS, SURFACE
IMPOUNDMENTS, AND CONTAINERS
Section
724.980 Applicability
724.981 Definitions
724.982 Standards: General
724.983 Waste Determination Procedures
724.984 Standards: Tanks
724.985 Standards: Surface Impoundments
724.986 Standards: Containers
724.987 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and Control Devices
724.988 Inspection and Monitoring Requirements
724.989 Recordkeeping Requirements
724.990 Reporting Requirements
724.991 Alternative Control Requirements for Tanks (Repealed)
SUBPART DD: CONTAINMENT BUILDINGS
Section
724.1100 Applicability
724.1101 Design and Operating Standards
724.1102 Closure and Post-Closure Care
SUBPART EE: HAZARDOUS WASTE MUNITIONS AND EXPLOSIVES
STORAGE
Section
724.1200 Applicability
724.1201 Design and Operating Standards
724.1202 Closure and Post-Closure Care
724.Appendix A Recordkeeping Instructions
285
724.Appendix B EPA Report Form and Instructions (Repealed)
724.Appendix D Cochran’s Approximation to the Behrens-Fisher Student’s T-Test
724.Appendix E Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste
724.Appendix I Groundwater Monitoring List
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 7.2 and 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/7.2, 22.4, and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R82-19 at 7 Ill. Reg. 14059, effective October 12, 1983; amended in
R84-9 at 9 Ill. Reg. 11964, effective July 24, 1985; amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg. 1136,
effective January 2, 1986; amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill. Reg. 14119, effective August 12, 1986;
amended in R86-28 at 11 Ill. Reg. 6138, effective March 24, 1987; amended in R86-28 at 11 Ill.
Reg. 8684, effective April 21, 1987; amended in R86-46 at 11 Ill. Reg. 13577, effective August
4, 1987; amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg. 19397, effective November 12, 1987; amended in
R87-39 at 12 Ill. Reg. 13135, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R88-16 at 13 Ill. Reg. 458,
effective December 28, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18527, effective November 13,
1989; amended in R90-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 14511, effective August 22, 1990; amended in R90-10 at
14 Ill. Reg. 16658, effective September 25, 1990; amended in R90-11 at 15 Ill. Reg. 9654,
effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-1 at 15 Ill. Reg. 14572, effective October 1, 1991;
amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9833, effective June 9, 1992; amended in R92-1 at 16 Ill. Reg.
17702, effective November 6, 1992; amended in R92-10 at 17 Ill. Reg. 5806, effective March 26,
1993; amended in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20830, effective November 22, 1993; amended in R93-
16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6973, effective April 26, 1994; amended in R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12487,
effective July 29, 1994; amended in R94-17 at 18 Ill. Reg. 17601, effective November 23, 1994;
amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9951, effective June 27, 1995; amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill.
Reg. 11244, effective August 1, 1996; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 636,
effective December 16, 1997; amended in R98-12 at 22 Ill. Reg. 7638, effective April 15, 1998;
amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 17972, effective September 28, 1998; amended
in R98-21/R99-2/R99-7 at 23 Ill. Reg. 2186, effective January 19, 1999; amended in R99-15 at
23 Ill. Reg. 9437, effective July 26, 1999; amended in R00-5 at 24 Ill. Reg. 1146, effective
January 6, 2000; amended in R00-13 at 24 Ill. Reg. 9833, effective June 20, 2000; expedited
correction at 25 Ill. Reg. 5115, effective June 20, 2000; amended in R02-1/R02-12/R02-17 at 26
Ill. Reg. 6635, effective April 22, 2002; amended in R03-7 at 27 Ill. Reg. 3725, effective
February 14, 2003; amended in R05-8 at 29 Ill. Reg. 6009, effective April 13, 2005; amended in
R05-2 at 29 Ill. Reg. 6365, effective April 22, 2005; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill.
Reg. ________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART B: GENERAL FACILITY STANDARDS
Section 724.118 Location Standards
a) Seismic considerations.
1) Portions of new facilities where treatment, storage or disposal of
hazardous waste will be conducted must not be located within 61 meters
(200 feet) of a fault that has had displacement in Holocene time.
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2) As used in subsection (a)(1) of this Section:
A) “Fault” means a fracture along
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with
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which rocks on one side have
been displaced with respect to those on the other side.
B) “Displacement” means the relative movement of any two sides of a
fault measured in any direction.
C) “Holocene” means the most recent epoch of the Quarternary
period, extending from the end of the Pleistocene to the present.
BOARD NOTE: Procedures for demonstrating compliance with this standard in
Part B of the permit application are specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.182.
Facilities that are located in political jurisdictions other than those listed in
appendix VI to 40 CFR 264
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.Appendix VI
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(Political Jurisdictions in Which
Compliance with § 264.18(a) Must Be Demonstrated), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
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720.111
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720.111(b), are assumed to be in compliance with
this requirement.
b) Floodplains.
1) A facility located in a 100 year floodplain must be designed, constructed,
operated and maintained to prevent washout of any hazardous waste by a
100-year flood, unless the owner or operator can demonstrate the
following to the Agency’s satisfaction:
A) That procedures are in effect that will cause the waste to be
removed safely, before flood waters can reach the facility, to a
location where the wastes will not be vulnerable to flood waters; or
B) For existing surface impoundments, waste piles, land treatment
units, landfills and miscellaneous units, that no adverse effect on
human health or the environment will result if washout occurs,
considering the following:
i) The volume and physical and chemical characteristics of
the waste in the facility;
ii) The concentration of hazardous constituents that would
potentially affect surface waters as a result of washout;
iii) The impact of such concentrations on the current or
potential uses of and water quality standards established for
the affected surface waters; and
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iv) The impact of hazardous constituents on the sediments of
affected surface waters or the soils of the 100-year
floodplain that could result from washout;
2) As used in subsection (b)(1) of this Section:
A) “100-year floodplain” means any land area that is subject to a one
percent or greater chance of flooding in any given year from any
source.
B) “Washout” means the movement of hazardous waste from the
active portion of the facility as a result of flooding.
C) “100-year flood” means a flood that has a one percent chance of
being equalled or exceeded in any given year.
BOARD NOTE: Requirements pertaining to other
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Federal
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federal laws that
affect the location and permitting of facilities are found in 40 CFR 270.3. For
details relative to these laws, see EPA’s manual for SEA (special environmental
area) requirements for hazardous waste facility permits. Though EPA is
responsible for complying with these requirements, applicants are advised to
consider them in planning the location of a facility to help prevent subsequent
project delays. Facilities may be required to obtain from the Illinois Department
of Transportation on a permit or certification that a facility is flood-proofed.
c) Salt dome formations, salt bed formations, underground mines and caves. The
placement of any non-containerized or bulk liquid hazardous waste in any salt
dome formation, salt bed formation, underground cave or mine is prohibited.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART D: CONTINGENCY PLAN AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Section 724.150 Applicability
The regulations in this Subpart D apply to owners and operators of
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a11
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all hazardous waste
management facilities, except as Section 724.101 provides otherwise.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.152 Content of Contingency Plan
a) The contingency plan must describe the actions facility personnel must take to
comply with Sections 724.151 and 724.156 in response to fires, explosions, or
any unplanned sudden or non-sudden release of hazardous waste or hazardous
waste constituents to air, soil, or surface water at the facility.
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b) If the owner or operator has already prepared a Spill Prevention Control and
Countermeasures (SPCC) Plan in accordance with federal 40 CFR
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Part
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112 or
300, or some other emergency or contingency plan, the owner or operator need
only amend that plan to incorporate hazardous waste management provisions that
are sufficient to comply with the requirements of this Part.
c) The plan must describe arrangements agreed to by local police departments, fire
departments, hospitals, contractors, and state and local emergency response teams
to coordinate emergency services pursuant to Section 724.137.
d) The plan must list names, addresses, and phone numbers (office and home) of all
persons qualified to act as emergency coordinator (see Section 724.155), and this
list must be kept up to date. Where more than one person is listed, one must be
named as primary emergency coordinator and others must be listed in the order in
which they will assume responsibility as alternates. For new facilities, this
information must be supplied to the Agency at the time of certification, rather
than at the time of permit application.
e) The plan must include a list of all emergency equipment at the facility (such as
fire extinguishing systems, spill control equipment, communications and alarm
systems (internal and external), and decontamination equipment), where this
equipment is required. This list must be kept up to date. In addition, the plan
must include the location and a physical description of each item on the list and a
brief outline of its capabilities.
f) The plan must include an evacuation plan for facility personnel where there is a
possibility that evacuation could be necessary. This plan must describe signals to
be used to begin evacuation, evacuation routes and alternative evacuation routes
(in cases where the primary routes could be blocked by releases of hazardous
waste or fires).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.153 Copies of Contingency Plan
A copy of the contingency plan and all revisions to the plan must be:
a) Maintained at the facility; and
b) Submitted to all local police departments, fire departments, hospitals, and
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state
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State and local emergency response teams that may be called upon to provide
emergency services.
BOARD NOTE: The contingency plan must be submitted to the Agency with Part B of the
permit application under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702 and 703, and, after modification or approval, the
289
plan will become a condition of any permit issued.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.156 Emergency Procedures
a) Whenever there is an imminent or actual emergency situation, the emergency
coordinator (or the designee when the emergency coordinator is on call) must
immediately do the following:
1)
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Activate
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He or she must activate internal facility alarms or communication
systems, where applicable, to notify all facility personnel; and
2)
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Notify
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He or she must notify appropriate
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state
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State or local agencies with
designated response roles if their help is needed.
b) Whenever there is a release, fire, or explosion, the emergency coordinator must
immediately identify the character, exact source, amount, and areal extent of any
released materials. The emergency coordinator may do this by observation or
review of facility records or manifests and, if necessary, by chemical analysis.
c) Concurrently, the emergency coordinator must assess possible hazards to human
health or the environment that may result from the release, fire, or explosion.
This assessment must consider both direct and indirect effects of the release, fire,
or explosion (e.g., the effects of any toxic, irritating, or asphyxiating gases that
are generated, or the effects of any hazardous surface water run-off from water or
chemical agents used to control fire and heat-induced explosions).
d) If the emergency coordinator determines that the facility has had a release, fire, or
explosion that could threaten human health or the environment outside the
facility, the emergency coordinator must report the findings as follows:
1) If the assessment indicates that evacuation of local areas may be
advisable, the emergency coordinator must immediately notify appropriate
local authorities. The emergency coordinator must be available to help
appropriate officials decide whether local areas should be evacuated; and
2) The emergency coordinator must immediately notify either the
government official designated as the on-scene coordinator for that
geographical area (in the applicable regional contingency plan under
federal 40 CFR 300) or the National Response Center (using their 24-hour
toll free number 800-424-8802). The report must include the following:
A) Name and telephone number of reporter;
B) Name and address of facility;
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C) Time and type of incident (e.g., release, fire);
D) Name and quantity of materials involved, to the extent known;
E) The extent of injuries, if any; and
F) The possible hazards to human health or the environment outside
the facility.
e) During an emergency, the emergency coordinator must take all reasonable
measures necessary to ensure that fires, explosions, and releases do not occur,
recur, or spread to other hazardous waste at the facility. These measures must
include, where applicable, stopping processes and operations, collecting and
containing release waste, and removing or isolating containers.
f) If the facility stops operations in response to a fire, explosion, or release, the
emergency coordinator must monitor for leaks, pressure buildup, gas generation,
or ruptures in valves, pipes, or other equipment, wherever this is appropriate.
g) Immediately after an emergency, the emergency coordinator must provide for
treating, storing, or disposing of recovered waste, contaminated soil or surface
water, or any other material that results from a release, fire, or explosion at the
facility.
BOARD NOTE: Unless the owner or operator can demonstrate, in accordance
with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(d) or (e), that the recovered material is not a
hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a generator of hazardous waste
and must manage it in accordance with all applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722, 723, and 724.
h) The emergency coordinator must ensure that the following is true in the affected
areas of the facility:
1) No waste that may be incompatible with the released material is treated,
stored, or disposed of until cleanup procedures are completed; and
2) All emergency equipment listed in the contingency plan is cleaned and fit
for its intended use before operations are resumed.
i) The owner or operator must notify the Agency and appropriate state and local
authorities that the facility is in compliance with subsection (h) of this Section
before operations are resumed in the affected areas of the facility.
j) The owner or operator must note in the operating record the time, date, and details
of any incident that requires implementing the contingency plan. Within 15 days
291
after the incident, the owner or operator must submit a written report on the
incident to the Agency. The report must include the following:
1)
S
Name,
S
The name, address, and telephone number of the owner or operator;
2)
S
Name,
S
The name, address, and telephone number of the facility;
3)
S
Date,
S
The date, time, and type of incident (e.g., fire, explosion);
4)
S
Name
S
The name and quantity of materials involved;
5) The extent of injuries, if any;
6) An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the
environment, where this is applicable; and
7)
S
Estimated
S
The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered material
that resulted from the incident.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART E: MANIFEST SYSTEM, RECORDKEEPING AND
REPORTING
Section 724.170 Applicability
The regulations in this Subpart E apply to owners and operators of both on-site and off-site
facilities, except as Section 724.101 provides otherwise. Sections 724.171, 724.172, and
724.176 do not apply to owners and operators of on-site facilities that do not receive any
hazardous waste from off-site sources, nor do they apply to owners and operators of off-site
facilities with respect to waste military munitions exempted from manifest requirements under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.303(a). Section 724.173(b) only applies to permittees that treat, store, or
dispose of hazardous wastes on-site where such wastes were generated.
BOARD NOTE: This Section corresponds with 40 CFR 264.70(a) (2005), effective September
5, 2006. The Board omitted 40 CFR 264.70(b) (2005), since that provision merely stated the
September 5, 2006 effective date for the newer manifest requirements.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.171 Use of Manifest System
a) Receipt of manifested hazardous waste.
S
a
S
1) The following requirements apply until September 5, 2006: If a facility
receives hazardous waste accompanied by a manifest, the owner or
292
operator, or the owner or operator’s agent, must do the following:
S
1
S
A)
S
Sign
S
It must sign and date each copy of the manifest to certify that
the hazardous waste covered by the manifest was received;
S
2
S
B)
S
Note
S
It must note any significant discrepancies in the manifest (as
defined in Section 724.172(a)) on each copy of the manifest;
BOARD NOTE: The Board does not intend that the owner or
operator of a facility whose procedures under Section 724.113(c)
include waste analysis must perform that analysis before signing
the manifest and giving it to the transporter. Section 724.172(b),
however, requires reporting an unreconciled discrepancy
discovered during later analysis.
S
3
S
C)
S
Immediately
S
It must immediately give the transporter at least one
copy of the signed manifest;
S
4
S
D)
S
Within 30 days after the delivery,
S
It must send a copy of the
manifest to the generator and to the Agency within 30 days after
delivery; and
S
5
S
E)
S
Retain
S
It must retain at the facility a copy of each manifest for at
least three years
S
from
S
after the date of delivery.
2) The following requirements apply effective September 5, 2006:
A) If a facility receives hazardous waste accompanied by a manifest,
the owner, operator, or its agent must sign and date the manifest, as
indicated in subsection (a)(2)(B) of this Section to certify that the
hazardous waste covered by the manifest was received, that the
hazardous waste was received except as noted in the discrepancy
space of the manifest, or that the hazardous waste was rejected as
noted in the manifest discrepancy space.
B) If a facility receives a hazardous waste shipment accompanied by a
manifest, the owner, operator, or its agent must do the following:
i) It must sign and date, by hand, each copy of the manifest;
ii) It must note any discrepancies (as defined in Section
724.172(b)) on each copy of the manifest;
iii) It must immediately give the transporter at least one copy
of the manifest;
293
iv) It must send a copy of the manifest to the generator within
30 days after delivery; and
v) It must retain at the facility a copy of each manifest for at
least three years after the date of delivery.
C) If a facility receives hazardous waste imported from a foreign
source, the receiving facility must mail a copy of the manifest to
the following address within 30 days after delivery: International
Compliance Assurance Division, OFA/OECA (2254A), U.S.
Environmental Protection Agency, Ariel Rios Building, 1200
Pennsylvania Avenue, NW, Washington, DC 20460.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (a)(1) of this Section corresponds with 40 CFR
264.71(a) (2004), effective until September 5, 2006. Subsection (a)(2) of this
Section corresponds with 40 CFR 264.71(a) (2005), effective September 5, 2006.
b) If a facility receives, from a rail or water (bulk shipment) transporter, hazardous
waste that is accompanied by a shipping paper containing all the information
required on the manifest (excluding the USEPA identification numbers,
generator’s certification, and signatures), the owner or operator, or the owner or
operator’s agent, must do the following:
1)
S
Sign
S
It must sign and date each copy of the manifest or shipping paper (if
the manifest has not been received) to certify that the hazardous waste
covered by the manifest or shipping paper was received;
2)
S
Note
S
It must note any significant discrepancies (as defined in Section
724.172(a)) in the manifest or shipping paper (if the manifest has not been
received) on each copy of the manifest or shipping paper;
BOARD NOTE: The Board does not intend that the owner or operator of
a facility whose procedures under Section 724.113(c) include waste
analysis must perform that analysis before signing the shipping paper and
giving it to the transporter. Section 724.172(b), however, requires
reporting an unreconciled discrepancy discovered during later analysis.
3)
S
Immediately
S
It must immediately give the rail or water (bulk shipment)
transporter at least one copy of the manifest or shipping paper (if the
manifest has not been received);
4) It must forward copies of the manifest as follows:
S
4
S
A)
S
Within 30 days after the delivery,
S
Until September 5, 2006: The
owner or operator must send a copy of the signed and dated
manifest to the generator and to the Agency within 30 days after
294
the delivery; however, if the manifest has not been received within
30 days after delivery, the owner or operator, or the owner or
operator’s agent, must send a copy of the shipping paper signed
and dated to the generator;
S
and
S
or
B) Effective September 5, 2006: The owner or operator must send a
copy of the signed and dated manifest or a signed and dated copy
of the shipping paper (if the manifest has not been received within
30 days after delivery) to the generator within 30 days after the
delivery; and
BOARD NOTE: Section 722.123(c) requires the generator to send three
copies of the manifest to the facility when hazardous waste is sent by rail
or water (bulk shipment). Subsection (b)(4)(A) is derived from 40 CFR
264.74(b)(4) (2004), effective until September 5, 2006. Subsection
(b)(4)(B) is derived from 40 CFR 264.74(b)(4) (2005), effective
September 5, 2006.
5) Retain at the facility a copy of the manifest and shipping paper (if signed
in lieu of the manifest at the time of delivery) for at least three years from
the date of delivery.
c) Whenever a shipment of hazardous waste is initiated from a facility, the owner or
operator of that facility must comply with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.
BOARD NOTE: The provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134 are
applicable to the on-site accumulation of hazardous wastes by generators.
Therefore, the provisions of Section 722.134 only apply to owners or
operators that are shipping hazardous waste that they generated at that
facility.
d) Within three working days
S
of
S
after the receipt of a shipment subject to Subpart H
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722, the owner or operator of the facility must provide a
copy of the tracking document bearing all required signatures to the notifier; to
the Office of Enforcement and Compliance Assurance, Office of Compliance,
Enforcement Planning, Targeting and Data Division (2222A), Environmental
Protection Agency, 401 M St., SW, Washington, DC 20460; to the Bureau of
Land, Division of Land Pollution Control, Illinois Environmental Protection
Agency, P.O. Box 19276, Springfield, IL 62794-9276; and to competent
authorities of all other concerned countries. The original copy of the tracking
document must be maintained at the facility for at least three years from the date
of signature.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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Section 724.172 Manifest Discrepancies
a) The following requirements apply until September 5, 2005:
S
a
S
1) Definition of a “manifest discrepancy.”
S
1
S
A) A manifest discrepancy is a difference between the quantity or
type of hazardous waste designated on the manifest or shipping
paper, and the quantity or type of hazardous waste a facility
actually receives;
S
2
S
B) A significant discrepancy in quantity is as follows:
S
A
S
i) For bulk waste, variations greater than 10 percent in
weight; and
S
B
S
ii) For batch waste, any variation in piece count, such as a
discrepancy of one drum in a truckload;
S
3
S
C) Significant discrepancies in type are obvious differences that can
be discovered by inspection or waste analysis, such as waste
solvent substituted for waste acid, or toxic constituents not
reported on the manifest or shipping paper.
S
b
S
2) Upon discovering a significant discrepancy, the owner or operator must
attempt to reconcile the discrepancy with the waste generator or
transporter (e.g., with telephone conversations). If the discrepancy is not
resolved within 15 days after receiving the waste, the owner or operator
must immediately submit to the Agency a letter describing the
discrepancy and attempts to reconcile it, and a copy of the manifest or
shipping paper at issue.
b) The following requirements apply effective September 5, 2005:
1) “Manifest discrepancies” are defined as any one of the following:
A) Significant differences (as defined by subsection (b)(2) of this
Section) between the quantity or type of hazardous waste
designated on the manifest or shipping paper, and the quantity and
type of hazardous waste a facility actually receives;
B) Rejected wastes, which may be a full or partial shipment of
hazardous waste that the treatment, storage, or disposal facility
cannot accept; or
C) Container residues, which are residues that exceed the quantity
296
limits for empty containers set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.107(b).
2) “Significant differences in quantity” are defined as the appropriate of the
following: for bulk waste, variations greater than 10 percent in weight; or,
for batch waste, any variation in piece count, such as a discrepancy of one
drum in a truckload. “Significant differences in type” are defined as
obvious differences that can be discovered by inspection or waste
analysis, such as waste solvent substituted for waste acid, or as toxic
constituents not reported on the manifest or shipping paper.
3) Upon discovering a significant difference in quantity or type, the owner or
operator must attempt to reconcile the discrepancy with the waste
generator or transporter (
e.g.,
with telephone conversations). If the
discrepancy is not resolved within 15 days after receiving the waste, the
owner or operator must immediately submit to the Agency a letter
describing the discrepancy and attempts to reconcile it, and a copy of the
manifest or shipping paper at issue.
4) Rejection of hazardous waste.
A) Upon rejecting waste or identifying a container residue that
exceeds the quantity limits for empty containers set forth in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.107(b), the facility must consult with the generator
prior to forwarding the waste to another facility that can manage
the waste. If it is impossible to locate an alternative facility that
can receive the waste, the facility may return the rejected waste or
residue to the generator. The facility must send the waste to the
alternative facility or to the generator within 60 days after the
rejection or the container residue identification.
B) While the facility is making arrangements for forwarding rejected
wastes or residues to another facility under this Section, it must
ensure that either the delivering transporter retains custody of the
waste, or the facility must provide for secure, temporary custody of
the waste, pending delivery of the waste to the first transporter
designated on the manifest prepared under subsection (b)(5) or
(b)(6) of this Section.
5) Except as provided in subsection (b)(5)(G) of this Section, for full or
partial load rejections and residues that are to be sent off-site to an
alternate facility, the facility is required to prepare a new manifest in
accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.120(a) and the following
instructions:
A) Write the generator’s USEPA identification number in Item 1 of
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the new manifest. Write the generator’s name and mailing address
in Item 5 of the new manifest. If the mailing address is different
from the generator’s site address, then write the generator’s site
address in the designated space in Item 5.
B) Write the name of the alternate designated facility and the
facility’s USEPA identification number in the designated facility
block (Item 8) of the new manifest.
C) Copy the manifest tracking number found in Item 4 of the old
manifest to the Special Handling and Additional Information
Block of the new manifest, and indicate that the shipment is a
residue or rejected waste from the previous shipment.
D) Copy the manifest tracking number found in Item 4 of the new
manifest to the manifest reference number line in the Discrepancy
Block of the old manifest (Item 18a).
E) Write the USDOT description for the rejected load or the residue
in Item 9 (USDOT Description) of the new manifest and write the
container types, quantity, and volumes of waste.
F) Sign the Generator’s/Offeror’s Certification to certify, as the
offeror of the shipment, that the waste has been properly packaged,
marked and labeled and is in proper condition for transportation.
G) For full load rejections that are made while the transporter remains
present at the facility, the facility may forward the rejected
shipment to the alternate facility by completing Item 18b of the
original manifest and supplying the information on the next
destination facility in the Alternate Facility space. The facility
must retain a copy of this manifest for its records, and then give
the remaining copies of the manifest to the transporter to
accompany the shipment. If the original manifest is not used, then
the facility must use a new manifest and comply with subsections
(b)(5)(A) through (b)(5)(F) of this Section.
6) Except as provided in subsection (b)(6)(G) of this Section, for rejected
wastes and residues that must be sent back to the generator, the facility is
required to prepare a new manifest in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.120(a) and the following instructions:
A) Write the facility’s USEPA identification number in Item 1 of the
new manifest. Write the generator’s name and mailing address in
Item 5 of the new manifest. If the mailing address is different from
the generator’s site address, then write the generator’s site address
298
in the designated space for Item 5.
B) Write the name of the initial generator and the generator’s USEPA
identification number in the designated facility block (Item 8) of
the new manifest.
C) Copy the manifest tracking number found in Item 4 of the old
manifest to the Special Handling and Additional Information
Block of the new manifest, and indicate that the shipment is a
residue or rejected waste from the previous shipment.
D) Copy the manifest tracking number found in Item 4 of the new
manifest to the manifest reference number line in the Discrepancy
Block of the old manifest (Item 18a).
E) Write the USDOT description for the rejected load or the residue
in Item 9 (USDOT Description) of the new manifest and write the
container types, quantity, and volumes of waste.
F) Sign the Generator’s/Offeror’s Certification to certify, as offeror of
the shipment, that the waste has been properly packaged, marked
and labeled and is in proper condition for transportation.
G) For full load rejections that are made while the transporter remains
at the facility, the facility may return the shipment to the generator
with the original manifest by completing Item 18b of the manifest
and supplying the generator’s information in the Alternate Facility
space. The facility must retain a copy for its records and then give
the remaining copies of the manifest to the transporter to
accompany the shipment. If the original manifest is not used, then
the facility must use a new manifest and comply with subsections
(b)(6)(A) through (b)(6)(F) of this Section.
7) If a facility rejects a waste or identifies a container residue that exceeds
the quantity limits for empty containers set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.107(b) after it has signed, dated, and returned a copy of the manifest
to the delivering transporter or to the generator, the facility must amend its
copy of the manifest to indicate the rejected wastes or residues in the
discrepancy space of the amended manifest. The facility must also copy
the manifest tracking number from Item 4 of the new manifest to the
Discrepancy space of the amended manifest, and must re-sign and date the
manifest to certify to the information as amended. The facility must retain
the amended manifest for at least three years from the date of amendment,
and must within 30 days, send a copy of the amended manifest to the
transporter and generator that received copies prior to their being
amended.
299
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (a) is derived from 40 CFR 264.72 (2004), effective until
September 5, 2006. Subsection (b) is derived from 40 CFR 264.72 (2005), effective September
5, 2006.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.176 Unmanifested Waste Report
a) The following requirements apply until September 5, 2005: If a facility accepts
for treatment, storage, or disposal any hazardous waste from an off-site source
without an accompanying manifest, or without an accompanying shipping paper
as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 723.120(e)(2), and if the waste is not excluded
from the manifest requirement by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.105, then the owner or
operator must prepare and submit a single copy of a report to the Agency within
15 days after receiving the waste. The unmanifested waste report must be
submitted on EPA form 8700-13B. Such report must be designated
“Unmanifested Waste Report” and include the following information:
S
a
S
1) The USEPA identification number, name, and address of the facility;
S
b
S
2) The date the facility received the waste;
S
c
S
3) The USEPA identification number, name, and address of the generator
and the transporter, if available;
S
d
S
4) A description and the quantity of each unmanifested hazardous waste and
facility received;
S
e
S
5) The method of treatment, storage, or disposal for each hazardous waste;
S
f
S
6) The certification signed by the owner or operator of the facility or the
owner or operator’s authorized representative; and
S
g
S
7) A brief explanation of why the waste was unmanifested, if known.
b) The following requirements apply effective September 5, 2005: If a facility
accepts for treatment, storage, or disposal any hazardous waste from an off-site
source without an accompanying manifest, or without an accompanying shipping
paper, as described by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 723.120(e), and if the waste is not
excluded from the manifest requirement by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 260 through 265,
then the owner or operator must prepare and submit a letter to the Agency within
15 days after receiving the waste. The unmanifested waste report must contain
the following information:
1) The USEPA identification number, name, and address of the facility;
300
2) The date the facility received the waste;
3) The USEPA identification number, name, and address of the generator
and the transporter, if available;
4) A description and the quantity of each unmanifested hazardous waste the
facility received;
5) The method of treatment, storage, or disposal for each hazardous waste;
6) The certification signed by the owner or operator of the facility or its
authorized representative; and
7) A brief explanation of why the waste was unmanifested, if known.
BOARD NOTE: Small quantities of hazardous waste are excluded from regulation under this
Part and do not require a manifest. Where a facility receives unmanifested hazardous wastes,
S
the
Board suggests
S
USEPA has suggested that the owner or operator obtain from each generator a
certification that the waste qualifies for exclusion. Otherwise, the Board
S
the Board suggests
S
USEPA has suggested that the owner or operator file an unmanifested waste report for the
hazardous waste movement. Subsection (a) is derived from 40 CFR 264.76 (2004), effective
until September 5, 2006. Subsection (b) is derived from 40 CFR 264.76 (2005), effective
September 5, 2006.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART F: RELEASES FROM SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT UNITS
Section 724.193 Hazardous Constituents
a) The Agency must specify in the facility permit the hazardous constituents to
which the groundwater protection standard of Section 724.192 applies. Hazardous
constituents are constituents identified in Appendix H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
that have been detected in groundwater in the uppermost aquifer underlying a
regulated unit and that are reasonably expected to be in or derived from waste
contained in a regulated unit, unless the Agency has excluded them under
subsection (b) of this Section.
b) The Agency must exclude a
S
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, Appendix H
S
constituent in
Appendix H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 from the list of hazardous constituents
specified in the facility permit if it finds that the constituent is not capable of
posing a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the
environment. In deciding whether to grant an exemption, the Agency must
consider the following:
301
1) Potential adverse effects on groundwater quality, considering the
following:
A) The physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the
regulated unit, including its potential for migration;
B) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding
land;
C) The quantity of groundwater and the direction of groundwater
flow;
D) The proximity and withdrawal rates of groundwater users;
E) The current and future uses of groundwater in the area;
F) The existing quality of groundwater, including other sources of
contamination, and their cumulative impact on the groundwater
quality;
G) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste
constituents;
H) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical
structures caused by exposure to waste constituents;
I) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects;
and
2) Potential adverse effects on hydraulically-connected surface water quality,
considering the following:
A) The volume and physical and chemical characteristics of the waste
in the regulated unit;
B) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding
land;
C) The quantity and quality of groundwater and the direction of
groundwater flow;
D) The patterns of rainfall in the region;
E) The proximity of the regulated unit to surface waters;
F) The current and future uses of surface waters in the area and any
302
water quality standards established for those surface waters;
G) The existing quality of surface water, including other sources of
contamination, and the cumulative impact on surface water quality;
H) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste
constituents;
I) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical
structures caused by exposure to waste constituents; and
J) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects.
c) In making any determination under subsection (b) of this Section about the use of
groundwater in the area around the facility, the Agency must consider any
identification of underground sources of drinking water and exempted aquifers
made under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704.123.
d) The Agency must make specific written findings in granting any exemptions
under subsection (b) of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.194 Concentration Limits
a) The Agency must specify in the facility permit concentration limits in the
groundwater for hazardous constituents established under Section 724.193. The
following must be true of the concentration of a hazardous constituent:
1) It must not exceed the background level of that constituent in the
groundwater at the time that limit is specified in the permit; or
2) For any of the constituents listed in Table 1, it must not exceed the
respective value given in that Table if the background level of the
constituent is below the value given in Table 1; or
3) It must not exceed an alternative limit established by the Agency under
subsection (b) of this Section.
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TABLE 1 -- MAXIMUM CONCENTRATION OF CONSTITUENTS
FOR GROUNDWATER PROTECTION
Constituent
Maximum
Concentration
(
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
)
Arsenic 0.05
Barium 1.0
Cadmium 0.01
Chromium 0.05
Lead 0.05
Mercury 0.002
Selenium 0.01
Silver 0.05
Endrin (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-6,7-
epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octahydro-
endo,endo-1,4:5,8-dimethanonaphthalene)
0.0002
Lindane (1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachlorocyclo-
hexane, gamma isomer)
0.004
Methoxychlor (1,1,1-Trichloro-2,2'-bis-(p-
methoxyphenyl)ethane)
0.1
Toxaphene (Technical chlorinated
camphene, 67-69 percent chlorine)
0.005
2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) 0.1
2,4,5-TP (Silvex) (2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy-
propionic acid)
0.01
b) The Agency must establish an alternative concentration limit for a hazardous
constituent if it finds that the constituent will not pose a substantial present or
potential hazard to human health or the environment as long as the alternative
concentration limit is not exceeded. In establishing alternate concentration limits,
the Agency must consider the following factors:
1) Potential adverse effects on groundwater quality, considering the
following:
A) The physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the
regulated unit, including its potential for migration;
B) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding
land;
C) The quantity of groundwater and the direction of groundwater
flow;
304
D) The proximity and withdrawal rates of groundwater users;
E) The current and future uses of groundwater in the area;
F) The existing quality of groundwater, including other sources of
contamination and their cumulative impact on the groundwater
quality;
G) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste
constituents;
H) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical
structures caused by exposure to waste constituents;
I) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects;
and
2) Potential adverse effects on hydraulically-connected surface-water quality,
considering the following:
A) The volume and physical and chemical characteristics of the waste
in the regulated unit;
B) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and surrounding
land;
C) The quantity and quality of groundwater and the direction of
groundwater flow;
D) The patterns of rainfall in the region;
E) The proximity of the regulated unit to surface waters;
F) The current and future uses of surface waters in the area and any
water quality standards established for those surface waters;
G) The existing quality of surface water, including other sources of
contamination and the cumulative impact on surface-water quality;
H) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste
constituents;
I) The potential damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and physical
structures caused by exposure to waste constituents; and
J) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse effects.
305
c) In making any determination under subsection (b) of this Section about the use of
groundwater in the area around the facility, the Agency must consider any
identification of underground sources of drinking water and exempted aquifers
made under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704.123.
d) The Agency must make specific written findings in setting any alternate
concentration limits under subsection (b) of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART H: FINANCIAL REQUIREMENTS
Section 724.243 Financial Assurance for Closure
An owner or operator of each facility must establish financial assurance for closure of the
facility. The owner or operator must choose from the options that are specified in subsections
(a) through (f) of this Section.
a) Closure trust fund.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
establishing a closure trust fund that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection (a) and submitting an original signed duplicate of the trust
agreement to the Agency. An owner or operator of a new facility must
submit the original signed duplicate of the trust agreement to the Agency
at least 60 days before the date on which hazardous waste is first received
for treatment, storage or disposal. The trustee must be an entity that has
the authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated
and examined by a federal or State agency.
2) The wording of the trust agreement must be that specified in Section
724.251 and the trust agreement must be accompanied by a formal
certification of acknowledgment (as specified in Section 724.251).
Schedule A of the trust agreement must be updated within 60 days after a
change in the amount of the current closure cost estimate covered by the
agreement.
3) Payments into the trust fund must be made annually by the owner or
operator over the term of the initial RCRA permit or over the remaining
operating life of the facility as estimated in the closure plan, whichever
period is shorter; this period is hereafter referred to as the “pay-in period.”
The payments into the closure trust fund must be made as follows:
A) For a new facility, the first payment must be made before the
initial receipt of hazardous waste for treatment, storage, or
306
disposal. A receipt from the trustee for this payment must be
submitted by the owner or operator to the Agency before this
initial receipt of hazardous waste. The first payment must be at
least equal to the current closure cost estimate, except as provided
in subsection (g) of this Section, divided by the number of years in
the pay-in period. Subsequent payments must be made no later
than 30 days after each anniversary date of the first payment. The
amount of each subsequent payment must be determined by the
following formula:
S
Next payment = (CE - CV) / Y
(
)
Y
CV
-
CE
payment
Next
=
S
where CE is the current closure cost estimate, CV is the
current value of the trust fund and Y is the number of years
remaining in the pay-in period.
Where:
CE = the current closure cost estimate
CV = the current value of the trust fund
Y = the number of years remaining in the pay-in
period.
B) If an owner or operator establishes a trust fund as specified in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.243(a) and the value of that trust fund is less
than the current closure cost estimate when a permit is awarded for
the facility, the amount of the current closure cost estimate still to
be paid into the trust fund must be paid in over the pay-in period as
defined in subsection (a)(3) of this Section. Payments must
continue to be made no later than 30 days after each anniversary
date of the first payment made pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
The amount of each payment must be determined by the following
formula:
S
Next payment = (CE - CV) / Y
(
)
Y
CV
-
CE
payment
Next
=
S
where CE is the current closure cost estimate, CV is the
current value of the trust fund and Y is the number of years
remaining in the pay-in period.
307
Where:
CE = the current closure cost estimate
CV = the current value of the trust fund
Y = the number of years remaining in the pay-in
period.
4) The owner or operator may accelerate payments into the trust fund or may
deposit the full amount of the current closure cost estimate at the time the
fund is established. However, the owner or operator must maintain the
value of the fund at no less than the value that the fund would have if
annual payments were made as specified in subsection (a)(3) of this
Section.
5) If the owner or operator establishes a closure trust fund after having used
one or more alternate mechanisms specified in this Section or in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.243, its first payment must be in at least the amount that
the fund would contain if the trust fund were established initially and
annual payments made according to specifications of this subsection (a)
and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.243, as applicable.
6) After the pay-in period is completed, whenever the current closure cost
estimate changes, the owner or operator must compare the new estimate
with the trustee’s most recent annual valuation of the trust fund. If the
value of the fund is less than the amount of the new estimate, the owner or
operator, within 60 days after the change in the cost estimate, must either
deposit an amount into the fund so that its value after this deposit at least
equals the amount of the current closure cost estimate or obtain other
financial assurance as specified in this Section to cover the difference.
7) If the value of the trust fund is greater than the total amount of the current
closure cost estimate, the owner or operator may submit a written request
to the Agency for release of the amount in excess of the current closure
cost estimate.
8) If an owner or operator substitutes other financial assurance, as specified
in this Section for all or part of the trust fund, it may submit a written
request to the Agency for release of the amount in excess of the current
closure cost estimate covered by the trust fund.
9) Within 60 days after receiving a request from the owner or operator for
release of funds as specified in subsection (a)(7) or (a)(8) of this Section,
the Agency must instruct the trustee to release to the owner or operator
such funds as the Agency specifies in writing.
308
10) After beginning partial or final closure, an owner or operator or another
person authorized to conduct partial or final closure may request
reimbursement for closure expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the
Agency. The owner or operator may request reimbursement for partial
closure only if sufficient funds are remaining in the trust fund to cover the
maximum costs of closing the facility over its remaining operating life.
Within 60 days after receiving bills for partial or final closure activities,
the Agency must instruct the trustee to make reimbursement in those
amounts as the Agency specifies in writing if the Agency determines that
the partial or final closure expenditures are in accordance with the
approved closure plan, or otherwise justified. If the Agency determines
that the maximum cost of closure over the remaining life of the facility
will be significantly greater than the value of the trust fund, it must
withhold reimbursement of such amounts as it deems prudent until it
determines, in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section, that the
owner or operator is no longer required to maintain financial assurance for
final closure of the facility. If the Agency does not instruct the trustee to
make such reimbursements, the Agency must provide the owner or
operator with a detailed written statement of reasons.
11) The Agency must agree to termination of the trust when either of the
following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (i).
b) Surety bond guaranteeing payment into a closure trust fund.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining a surety bond that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection (b) and submitting the bond to the Agency. An owner or
operator of a new facility must submit the bond to the Agency at least 60
days before the date on which hazardous waste is first received for
treatment, storage or disposal. The bond must be effective before this
initial receipt of hazardous waste. The surety company issuing the bond
must, at a minimum, be among those listed as acceptable sureties on
S
Federal
S
federal bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the
Treasury.
BOARD NOTE: The U.S. Department of Treasury updates Circular 570,
“Companies Holding Certificates of Authority as Acceptable Sureties on
Federal Bonds and as Acceptable Reinsuring Companies,” on an annual
basis pursuant to 31 CFR 223.16. Circular 570 is available on the Internet
309
from the following website: http://www.fms.treas.gov/c570/.
2) The wording of the surety bond must be that specified in Section 724.251.
3) The owner or operator who uses a surety bond to satisfy the requirements
of this Section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms
of the bond, all payments made thereunder will be deposited by the surety
directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from
the Agency. This standby trust fund must meet the requirements specified
in subsection (a) of this Section except as follows:
A) An original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be
submitted to the Agency with the surety bond; and
B) Until the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements
of this Section, the following are not required by these regulations:
i) Payments into the trust fund as specified in subsection (a)
of this Section;
ii) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (see
S
40 CFR
264.151(a)
S
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251) to show current
closure cost estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment as required by the trust agreement.
4) The bond must guarantee that the owner or operator will do one of the
following:
A) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum of
the bond before the beginning of final closure of the facility;
B) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum
within 15 days after an order to begin final closure is issued by the
Board or a U.S. district court or other court of competent
jurisdiction; or
C) Provide alternate financial assurance as specified in this Section,
and obtain the Agency’s written approval of the assurance
provided, within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or
operator and the Agency of a notice of cancellation of the bond
from the surety.
5) Under the terms of the bond, the surety will become liable on the bond
310
obligation when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by
the bond.
6) The penal sum of the bond must be in an amount at least equal to the
current closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection (g) of this
Section.
7) Whenever the current closure cost estimate increases to an amount greater
than the penal sum, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the
increase, must either cause the penal sum to be increased to an amount at
least equal to the current closure cost estimate and submit evidence of
such increase to the Agency or obtain other financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, to cover the increase. Whenever the current
closure cost estimate decreases, the penal sum may be reduced to the
amount of the current closure cost estimate following written approval by
the Agency.
8) Under the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending
notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the
Agency. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days
beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the
owner or operator and the Agency, as evidence by the return receipts.
9) The owner or operator may cancel the bond if the Agency has given prior
written consent based on its receipt of evidence of alternate financial
assurance as specified in this Section.
c) Surety bond guaranteeing performance of closure.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining a surety bond that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection (c) and submitting the bond to the Agency. An owner or
operator of a new facility must submit the bond to the Agency at least 60
days before the date on which hazardous waste is first received for
treatment, storage, or disposal. The bond must be effective before this
initial receipt of hazardous waste. The surety company issuing the bond
must, at a minimum, be among those listed as acceptable sureties on
S
Federal
S
federal bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the
Treasury.
BOARD NOTE: The U.S. Department of Treasury updates Circular 570,
“Companies Holding Certificates of Authority as Acceptable Sureties on
Federal Bonds and as Acceptable Reinsuring Companies,” on an annual
basis pursuant to 31 CFR 223.16. Circular 570 is available on the Internet
from the following website: http://www.fms.treas.gov/c570/.
311
2) The wording of the surety bond must be that specified in Section 724.251.
3) The owner or operator who uses a surety bond to satisfy the requirements
of this Section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms
of the bond, all payments made thereunder will be deposited by the surety
directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from
the Agency. This standby trust must meet the requirements specified in
subsection (a) of this Section, except as follows:
A) An original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be
submitted to the Agency with the surety bond; and
B) Unless the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the
requirements of this Section, the following are not required by
these regulations:
i) Payments into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a)
of this Section;
ii) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (as specified
in Section 724.251) to show current closure cost estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment, as required by the trust agreement.
4) The bond must guarantee that the owner or operator will do the following:
A) Perform final closure in accordance with the closure plan and other
requirements of the permit for the facility whenever required to do
so; or
B) Provide alternative financial assurance, as specified in this Section,
and obtain the Agency’s written approval of the assurance
provided, within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or
operator and the Agency of a notice of cancellation of the bond
from the surety.
5) Under the terms of the bond, the surety will become liable on the bond
obligation when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by
the bond. Following a final judicial determination or Board order finding
that the owner or operator has failed to perform final closure in
accordance with the approved closure plan and other permit requirements
when required to do so, under the terms of the bond the surety will
perform final closure, as guaranteed by the bond, or will deposit the
amount of the penal sum into the standby trust fund.
312
6) The penal sum of the bond must be in an amount at least equal to the
current closure cost estimate.
7) Whenever the current closure cost estimate increases to an amount greater
than the penal sum, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the
increase, must either cause the penal sum to be increased to an amount at
least equal to the current closure cost estimate and submit evidence of
such increase to the Agency or obtain other financial assurance as
specified in this Section. Whenever the current closure cost estimate
decreases, the penal sum may be reduced to the amount of the current
closure cost estimate following written approval by the Agency.
8) Under the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending
notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the
Agency. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days
beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the
owner or operator and the Agency, as evidenced by the return receipts.
9) The owner or operator may cancel the bond if the Agency has given prior
written consent. The Agency must provide such written consent when
either of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.
10) The surety must not be liable for deficiencies in the performance of
closure by the owner or operator after the Agency releases the owner or
operator from the requirements of this Section in accordance with
subsection (i) of this Section.
d) Closure letter of credit.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining an irrevocable standby letter of credit that conforms to the
requirements of this subsection (d) and submitting the letter to the
Agency. An owner or operator of a new facility must submit the letter of
credit to the Agency at least 60 days before the date on which hazardous
waste is first received for treatment, storage, or disposal. The letter of
credit must be effective before this initial receipt of hazardous waste. The
issuing institution must be an entity that has the authority to issue letters
of credit and whose letter-of-credit operations are regulated and examined
by a federal or state agency.
313
2) The wording of the letter of credit must be that specified in Section
724.251.
3) An owner or operator who uses a letter of credit to satisfy the
requirements of this Section must also establish a standby trust fund.
Under the terms of the letter of credit, all amounts paid pursuant to a draft
by the Agency must be deposited by the issuing institution directly into
the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from the Agency.
This standby trust fund must meet the requirements of the trust fund
specified in subsection (a) of this Section, except as follows:
A) An original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be
submitted to the Agency with the letter of credit; and
B) Unless the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the
requirements of this Section, the following are not required by
these regulations.
i) Payments into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a)
of this Section;
ii) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (as specified
in Section 724.251) to show current closure cost estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment, as required by the trust agreement.
4) The letter or credit must be accompanied by a letter from the owner or
operator referring to the letter of credit by number, issuing institution, and
date and providing the following information: the USEPA identification
number, name and address of the facility, and the amount of funds assured
for closure of the facility by the letter of credit.
5) The letter of credit must be irrevocable and issued for a period of at least
one year. The letter of credit must provide that the expiration date will be
automatically extended for a period of at least one year unless, at least 120
days before the current expiration date, the issuing institution notifies both
the owner or operator and the Agency by certified mail of a decision not to
extend the expiration date. Under the terms of the letter of credit, the 120
days will begin on the date when both the owner or operator and the
Agency have received the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts.
6) The letter of credit must be issued in an amount at least equal to the
current closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection (g) of this
314
Section.
7) Whenever the current closure cost estimate increases to an amount greater
than the amount of the credit, the owner or operator, within 60 days after
the increase, must either cause the amount of the credit to be increased so
that it at least equals the current closure cost estimate and submit evidence
of such increase to the Agency, or obtain other financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, to cover the increase. Whenever the current
closure cost estimate decreases, the amount of the credit may be reduced
to the amount of the current closure cost estimate following written
approval by the Agency.
8) Following a final judicial determination or Board order finding that the
owner or operator has failed to perform final closure in accordance with
the closure plan and other permit requirements when required to do so, the
Agency may draw on the letter of credit.
9) If the owner or operator does not establish alternative financial assurance,
as specified in this Section, and obtain written approval of such alternative
assurance from the Agency within 90 days after receipt by both the owner
or operator and the Agency of a notice from issuing institution that it has
decided not to extend the letter of credit beyond the current expiration
date, the Agency must draw on the letter of credit. The Agency may delay
the drawing if the issuing institution grants an extension of the term of the
credit. During the last 30 days of any such extension the Agency must
draw on the letter of credit if the owner or operator has failed to provide
alternative financial assurance, as specified in this Section, and obtain
written approval of such assurance from the Agency.
10) The Agency must return the letter of credit to the issuing institution for
termination when either of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.
e) Closure insurance.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining closure insurance that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection (e) and submitting a certificate of such insurance to the
Agency. An owner or operator of a new facility must submit the
certificate of insurance to the Agency at least 60 days before the date on
which hazardous waste is first received for treatment, storage, or disposal.
315
The insurance must be effective before this initial receipt of hazardous
waste. At a minimum, the insurer must be licensed to transact the
business of insurance or be eligible to provide insurance as an excess or
surplus lines insurer in one or more States.
2) The wording of the certificate of insurance must be that specified in
Section 724.251.
3) The closure insurance policy must be issued for a face amount at least
equal to the current closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection
(g) of this Section. The term “face amount” means the total amount the
insurer is obligated to pay under the policy. Actual payments by the
insurer will not change the face amount, although the insurer’s future
liability will be lowered by the amount of the payments.
4) The closure insurance policy must guarantee that funds will be available
to close the facility whenever final closure occurs. The policy must also
guarantee that, once final closure begins, the insurer will be responsible
for paying out funds, up to an amount equal to the face amount of the
policy, upon the direction of the Agency to such party or parties, as the
Agency specifies.
5) After beginning partial or final closure, an owner or operator or any other
person authorized to conduct closure may request reimbursement for
closure expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the Agency. The
owner or operator may request reimbursements for partial closure only if
the remaining value of the policy is sufficient to cover the maximum costs
of closing the facility over its remaining operating life. Within 60 days
after receiving bills for closure activities, the Agency must instruct the
insurer to make reimbursement in such amounts, as the Agency specifies
in writing, if the Agency determines that the partial or final closure
expenditures are in accordance with the approved closure plan or
otherwise justified. If the Agency determines that the maximum cost of
closure over the remaining life of the facility will be significantly greater
than the face amount of the policy, it must withhold reimbursement of
such amounts that it deems prudent, until it determines, in accordance with
subsection (i) of this Section, that the owner or operator is no longer
required to maintain financial assurance for closure of the facility. If the
Agency does not instruct the insurer to make such reimbursements, the
Agency must provide the owner or operator with a detailed written
statement of reasons.
6) The owner or operator must maintain the policy in full force and effect
until the Agency consents to termination of the policy by the owner or
operator, as specified in subsection (e)(10) of this Section. Failure to pay
the premium, without substitution of alternative financial assurance, as
316
specified in this Section, will constitute a significant violation of these
regulations, warranting such remedy as the Board may impose pursuant to
the Environmental Protection Act. Such violation will be deemed to begin
upon receipt by the Agency of a notice of future cancellation, termination
or failure to renew due to nonpayment of the premium, rather than upon
the date of expiration.
7) Each policy must contain a provision allowing assignment of the policy to
a successor owner or operator. Such assignment may be conditional upon
consent of the insurer, provided such consent is not unreasonably refused.
8) The policy must provide that the insurer may not cancel, terminate, or fail
to renew the policy except for failure to pay the premium. The automatic
renewal of the policy must, at a minimum, provide the insured with the
option of renewal at the face amount of the expiring policy. If there is a
failure to pay the premium, the insurer may elect to cancel, terminate, or
fail to renew the policy by sending notice by certified mail to the owner or
operator and the Agency. Cancellation, termination, or failure to renew
may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning with the date of
receipt of the notice by both the Agency and the owner or operator, as
evidenced by the return receipts. Cancellation, termination, or failure to
renew may not occur, and the policy will remain in full force and effect, in
the event that on or before the date of expiration one of the following
occurs:
A) The Agency deems the facility abandoned;
B) The permit is terminated or revoked or a new permit is denied;
C) Closure is ordered by the Board or a U.S. district court or other
court of competent jurisdiction;
D) The owner or operator is named as debtor in a voluntary or
involuntary proceeding under
S
Title
S
11
S
of the United States Code
S
USC (Bankruptcy); or
E) The premium due is paid.
9) Whenever the current closure cost estimate increases to an amount greater
than the face amount of the policy, the owner or operator, within 60 days
after the increase, must either cause the face amount to be increased to an
amount at least equal to the current closure cost estimate and submit
evidence of such increase to the Agency, or obtain other financial
assurance, as specified in this Section to cover the increase. Whenever the
current closure cost estimate decreases, the face amount may be reduced
to the amount of the current closure cost estimate following written
317
approval by the Agency.
10) The Agency must give written consent to the owner or operator that it may
terminate the insurance policy when either of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.
f) Financial test and corporate guarantee for closure.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
demonstrating that it passes a financial test, as specified in this subsection
(f). To pass this test the owner or operator must meet the criteria of either
subsection (f)(1)(A) or (f)(1)(B) of this Section:
A) The owner or operator must have the following:
i) Two of the following three ratios: a ratio of total liabilities
to net worth less than 2.0; a ratio of the sum of net income
plus depreciation, depletion and amortization to total
liabilities greater than 0.1; and a ratio of current assets to
current liabilities greater than 1.5;
ii) Net working capital and tangible net worth each at least six
times the sum of the current closure and post-closure cost
estimates; and the current plugging and abandonment cost
estimates;
iii) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
iv) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90
percent of total assets or at least six times the sum of the
current closure and post-closure cost estimates and the
current plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
B) The owner or operator must have the following:
i) A current rating for its most recent bond issuance of AAA,
AA, A, or BBB as issued by Standard and Poor’s or Aaa,
Aa, A, or Baa as issued by Moody’s;
ii) Tangible net worth at least six times the sum of the current
closure and post-closure cost estimates and the current
318
plugging and abandonment cost estimates;
iii) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
iv) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90
percent of total assets or at least six times the sum of the
current closure and post-closure estimates and the current
plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
2) The phrase “current closure and post-closure cost estimates,” as used in
subsection (f)(1) of this Section, refers to the cost estimates required to be
shown in subsections 1-4 of the letter from the owner’s or operator’s chief
financial officer (
S
40 CFR 264.151(f)) (incorporated by reference in
S
see
Section 724.251). The phrase “current plugging and abandonment cost
estimates,” as used in subsection (f)(1) of this Section, refers to the cost
estimates required to be shown in subsections 1-4 of the letter from the
owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer (
S
40 CFR 144.70(f)),
incorporated by reference in
S
see
35 Ill. Adm. Code 704.240).
3) To demonstrate that it meets this test, the owner or operator must submit
the following items to the Agency:
A) A letter signed by the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer
and worded as specified in Section 724.251; and
B) A copy of the independent certified public accountant’s report on
examination of the owner’s or operator’s financial statements for
the latest completed fiscal year; and
C) A special report from the owner’s or operator’s independent
certified public accountant to the owner or operator stating the
following:
i) That the accountant has compared the data that the letter
from the chief financial officer specifies as having been
derived from the independently audited, year-end financial
statements for the latest fiscal year with the amounts in
such financial statements; and
ii) In connection with that procedure, that no matters came to
the accountant’s attention which caused the accountant to
believe that the specified data should be adjusted.
4) An owner or operator of a new facility must submit the items specified in
subsection (f)(3) of this Section to the Agency at least 60 days before the
date on which hazardous waste is first received for treatment, storage, or
319
disposal.
5) After the initial submission of items specified in subsection (f)(3) of this
Section, the owner or operator must send updated information to the
Agency within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year. This
information must consist of all three items specified in subsection (f)(3) of
this Section.
6) If the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of subsection
(f)(1) of this Section the owner or operator must send notice to the Agency
of intent to establish alternative financial assurance, as specified in this
Section. The notice must be sent by certified mail within 90 days after the
end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show that the
owner or operator no longer meets the requirements. The owner or
operator must provide the alternative financial assurance within 120 days
after the end of such fiscal year.
7) The Agency may, based on a reasonable belief that the owner or operator
may no longer meet the requirements of subsection (f)(1) of this Section,
require reports of financial condition at any time from the owner or
operator in addition to those specified in subsection (f)(3) of this Section.
If the Agency finds, on the basis of such reports or other information, that
the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of subsection
(f)(1) of this Section, the owner or operator must provide alternative
financial assurance, as specified in this Section, within 30 days after
notification of such a finding.
8) The Agency may disallow use of this test on the basis of qualifications in
the opinion expressed by the independent certified public accountant in
the accountant’s report on examination of the owner’s or operator’s
financial statements (see subsection (f)(3)(B) of this Section). An adverse
opinion or a disclaimer of opinion will be cause for disallowance. The
Agency must evaluate other qualifications on an individual basis. The
owner or operator must provide alternative financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, within 30 days after notification of the
disallowance.
9) The owner or operator is no longer required to submit the items specified
in subsection (f)(3) of this Section when either of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.
320
10) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this Section by
obtaining a written guarantee, hereafter referred to as “corporate
guarantee.” The guarantor must be the direct or higher-tier parent
corporation of the owner or operator, a firm whose parent corporation is
also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, or a firm with a
“substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator. The
guarantor must meet the requirements for owners or operators in
subsections (f)(1) through (f)(8) of this Section, must comply with the
terms of the corporate guarantee, and the wording of the corporate
guarantee must be that specified in Section 724.251. The certified copy of
the corporate guarantee must accompany the items sent to the Agency, as
specified in subsection (f)(3) of this Section. One of these items must be
the letter from the guarantor’s chief financial officer. If the guarantor’s
parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator,
the letter must describe the value received in consideration of the
guarantee. If the guarantor is a firm with a “substantial business
relationship” with the owner or operator, this letter must describe this
“substantial business relationship” and the value received in consideration
of the guarantee. The terms of the corporate guarantee must provide as
follows:
A) If the owner or operator fails to perform final closure of a facility
covered by the corporate guarantee in accordance with the closure
plan and other permit requirements whenever required to do so, the
guarantor will do so or establish a trust fund, as specified in
subsection (a) of this Section, in the name of the owner or
operator.
B) The corporate guarantee will remain in force unless the guarantor
sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or
operator and to the Agency. Cancellation may not occur, however,
during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice
of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the Agency, as
evidenced by the return receipts.
C) If the owner or operator fails to provide alternative financial
assurance as specified in this Section and obtain the written
approval of such alternative assurance from the Agency within 90
days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Agency of
a notice of cancellation of the corporate guarantee from the
guarantor, the guarantor will provide such alternative financial
assurance in the name of the owner or operator.
g) Use of multiple financial mechanisms. An owner or operator may satisfy the
requirements of this Section by establishing more than one financial mechanism
per facility. These mechanisms are limited to trust funds, surety bonds
321
guaranteeing payment into a trust fund, letters of credit, and insurance. The
mechanisms must be as specified in subsections (a), (b), (d), and (e) of this
Section, respectively, except that it is the combination of mechanisms, rather than
the single mechanism, that must provide financial assurance for an amount at least
equal to the current closure cost estimate. If an owner or operator uses a trust
fund in combination with a surety bond or a letter of credit, it may use the trust
fund as the standby trust fund for the other mechanisms. A single standby trust
fund may be established for two or more mechanisms. The Agency may use any
or all of the mechanisms to provide for closure of the facility.
h) Use of a financial mechanism for multiple facilities. An owner or operator may
use a financial assurance mechanism specified in this Section to meet the
requirements of this Section for more than one facility. Evidence of financial
assurance submitted to the Agency must include a list showing, for each facility,
the USEPA identification number, name, address, and the amount of funds for
closure assured by the mechanism. The amount of funds available through the
mechanism must be no less than the sum of funds that would be available if a
separate mechanism had been established and maintained for each facility. The
amount of funds available to the Agency must be sufficient to close all of the
owner or operator’s facilities. In directing funds available through the mechanism
for closure of any of the facilities covered by the mechanism, the Agency may
direct only the amount of funds designated for that facility, unless the owner or
operator agrees to the use of additional funds available under the mechanism.
i) Release of the owner or operator from the requirements of this Section. Within
60 days after receiving certifications from the owner or operator and an
independent registered professional engineer that final approved closure has been
accomplished in accordance with the closure plan, the Agency must notify the
owner or operator in writing that it is no longer required by this Section to
maintain financial assurance for closure of the facility, unless the Agency
determines that closure has not been in accordance with the approved closure
plan. The Agency must provide the owner or operator a detailed written
statement of any such determination that closure has not been in accordance with
the approved closure plan.
j) Appeal. The following Agency actions are deemed to be permit modifications or
refusals to modify for purposes of appeal to the Board (35 Ill. Adm. Code
702.184(e)(3)):
1) An increase in, or a refusal to decrease the amount of, a bond, letter of
credit, or insurance;
2) Requiring alternative assurance upon a finding that an owner or operator
or parent corporation no longer meets a financial test.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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Section 724.245 Financial Assurance for Post-Closure Care
An owner or operator of a hazardous waste management unit subject to the requirements of
Section 724.244 must establish financial assurance for post-closure care in accordance with the
approved post-closure plan for the facility 60 days prior to the initial receipt of hazardous waste
or the effective date of the regulation, whichever is later. The owner or operator must choose
from among the following options:
a) Post-closure trust fund.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
establishing a post-closure trust fund that conforms to the requirements of
this subsection (a) and submitting an original, signed duplicate of the trust
agreement to the Agency. An owner or operator of a new facility must
submit the original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement to the Agency
at least 60 days before the date on which hazardous waste is first received
for disposal. The trustee must be an entity that has the authority to act as a
trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and examined by a federal
or State agency.
2) The wording of the trust agreement must be that specified in Section
724.251 and the trust agreement accompanied by a formal certification of
acknowledgment (as specified in Section 724.251). Schedule A of the
trust agreement must be updated within 60 days after a change in the
amount of the current post-closure cost estimate covered by the
agreement.
3) Payments into the trust fund must be made annually by the owner or
operator over the term of the initial RCRA permit or over the remaining
operating life of the facility as estimated in the closure plan, whichever
period is shorter; this period is hereafter referred to as the “pay-in period.”
The payments into the post-closure trust fund must be made as follows:
A) For a new facility, the first payment must be made before the
initial receipt of hazardous waste for disposal. A receipt from the
trustee for this payment must be submitted by the owner or
operator to the Agency before this initial receipt of hazardous
waste. The first payment must be at least equal to the current post-
closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection (g) of this
Section, divided by the number of years in the pay-in period.
Subsequent payments must be made no later than 30 days after
each anniversary date of the first payment. The amount of each
subsequent payment must be determined by the following formula:
S
Next payment = (CE - CV) / Y
323
(
)
Y
CV
-
CE
payment
Next
=
S
where CE is the current closure cost estimate, CV is the
current value of the trust fund and Y is the number of years
remaining in the pay-in period.
Where:
CE = the current closure cost estimate
CV = the current value of the trust fund
Y = the number of years remaining in the pay-in
period.
B) If an owner or operator establishes a trust fund, as specified in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.245(a), and the value of that trust fund is less
than the current post-closure cost estimate when a permit is
awarded for the facility, the amount of the current post-closure cost
estimate still to be paid into the trust fund must be paid in over the
pay-in period as defined in subsection (a)(3) of this Section.
Payments must continue to be made no later than 30 days after
each anniversary date of the first payment made pursuant to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725. The amount of each payment must be determined
by the following formula:
S
Next payment = (CE - CV) / Y
(
)
Y
CV
-
CE
payment
Next
=
S
where CE is the current closure cost estimate, CV is the
current value of the trust fund and Y is the number of years
remaining in the pay-in period.
Where:
CE = the current closure cost estimate
CV = the current value of the trust fund
Y = the number of years remaining in the pay-in
period.
4) The owner or operator may accelerate payments into the trust fund or
owner or operator must maintain the value of the fund at no less than the
value that the fund would have if annual payments were made as specified
324
in subsection (a)(3) of this Section.
5) If the owner or operator establishes a post-closure trust fund after having
used one or more alternative mechanisms specified in this Section or in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.245, its first payment must be in at least the amount
that the fund would contain if the trust fund were established initially and
annual payments made according to specifications of this subsection (a)
and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.245, as applicable.
6) After the pay-in period is completed, whenever the current post-closure
cost estimate changes during the operating life of the facility, the owner or
operator must compare the new estimate with the trustee’s most recent
annual valuation of the trust fund. If the value of the fund is less than the
amount of the new estimate, the owner or operator, within 60 days after
the change in the cost estimate, must either deposit an amount into the
fund so that its value after this deposit at least equals the amount of the
current post-closure cost estimate, or obtain other financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, to cover the difference.
7) During the operating life of the facility, if the value of the trust fund is
greater than the total amount of the current post-closure cost estimate, the
owner or operator may submit a written request to the Agency for release
of the amount in excess of the current post-closure cost estimate.
8) If an owner or operator substitutes other financial assurance as specified in
this Section for all or part of the trust fund, it may submit a written request
to the Agency for release of the amount in excess of the current post-
closure cost estimate covered by the trust fund.
9) Within 60 days after receiving a request from the owner or operator for
release of funds, as specified in subsection (a)(7) or (a)(8) of this Section,
the Agency must instruct the trustee to release to the owner or operator
such funds as the Agency specifies in writing.
10) During the period of post-closure care, the Agency must approve a release
of funds if the owner or operator demonstrates to the Agency that the
value of the trust fund exceeds the remaining cost of post-closure care.
11) An owner or operator or any other person authorized to perform post-
closure care may request reimbursement for post-closure care
expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the Agency. Within 60 days
after receiving bills for post-closure activities, the Agency must instruct
the trustee to make requirements in those amounts that the Agency
specifies in writing if the Agency determines that the post-closure care
expenditures are in accordance with the approved post-closure plan or
otherwise justified. If the Agency does not instruct the trustee to make
325
such reimbursements, the Agency must provide the owner or operator with
a detailed written statement of reasons.
12) The Agency must agree to termination of the trust when either of the
following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.
b) Surety bond guaranteeing payment into a post-closure trust fund.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining a surety bond that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection (b) and submitting the bond to the Agency. An owner or
operator of a new facility must submit the bond to the Agency at least 60
days before the date on which hazardous waste is first received for
disposal. The bond must be effective before this initial receipt of
hazardous waste. The surety company issuing the bond must, at a
minimum, be among those listed as acceptable sureties on
S
Federal
S
federal
bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the Treasury.
BOARD NOTE: The U.S. Department of Treasury updates Circular 570,
“Companies Holding Certificates of Authority as Acceptable Sureties on
Federal Bonds and as Acceptable Reinsuring Companies,” on an annual
basis pursuant to 31 CFR 223.16. Circular 570 is available on the Internet
from the following website: http://www.fms.treas.gov/c570/.
2) The wording of the surety bond must be that specified in Section 724.251.
3) The owner or operator who uses a surety bond to satisfy the requirements
of this Section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms
of the bond, all payments made thereunder will be deposited by the surety
directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from
the Agency. This standby trust fund must meet the requirements specified
in subsection (a) of this Section, except as follows:
A) An original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be
submitted to the Agency with the surety bond; and
B) Until the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements
of this Section, the following are not required by these regulations:
i) Payments into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a)
326
of this Section;
ii) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (as specified
in Section 724.251) to show current post-closure cost
estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment, as required by the trust agreement.
4) The bond must guarantee that the owner or operator will do one of the
following:
A) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum of
the bond before the beginning of final closure of the facility;
B) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum
within 15 days after an order to begin closure is issued by the
Board or a U.S. district court or other court of competent
jurisdiction; or
C) Provide alternative financial assurance as specified in this Section,
and obtain the Agency’s written approval of the assurance
provided, within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or
operator and the Agency of a notice of cancellation of the bond
from the surety.
5) Under the terms of the bond, the surety will become liable on the bond
obligation when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by
the bond.
6) The penal sum of the bond must be in an amount at least equal to the
current post-closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection (g) of
this Section.
7) Whenever the current post-closure cost estimate increases to an amount
greater than the penal sum, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the
increase, must either cause the penal sum to be increased to an amount at
least equal to the current post-closure cost estimate and submit evidence
of such increase to the Agency or obtain other financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, to cover the increase. Whenever the current
post-closure cost estimate decreases, the penal sum may be reduced to the
amount of the current post-closure cost estimate following written
approval by the Agency.
8) Under the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending
327
notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the
Agency. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days
beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the
owner or operator and the Agency, as evidence by the return receipts.
9) The owner or operator may cancel the bond if the Agency has given prior
written consent based on its receipt of evidence of alternative financial
assurance, as specified in this Section.
c) Surety bond guaranteeing performance of post-closure care.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining a surety bond that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection (c) and submitting the bond to the Agency. An owner or
operator of a new facility must submit the bond to the Agency at least 60
days before the date on which hazardous waste is first received for
disposal. The bond must be effective before this initial receipt of
hazardous waste. The surety company issuing the bond must, at a
minimum, be among those listed as acceptable sureties on
S
Federal
S
federal
bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S. Department of the Treasury.
BOARD NOTE: The U.S. Department of Treasury updates Circular 570,
“Companies Holding Certificates of Authority as Acceptable Sureties on
Federal Bonds and as Acceptable Reinsuring Companies,” on an annual
basis pursuant to 31 CFR 223.16. Circular 570 is available on the Internet
from the following website: http://www.fms.treas.gov/c570/.
2) The wording of the surety bond must be that specified in Section 724.251.
3) The owner or operator who uses a surety bond to satisfy the requirements
of this Section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms
of the bond, all payments made thereunder will be deposited by the surety
directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from
the Agency. This standby trust must meet the requirements specified in
subsection (a) of this Section, except as follows:
A) An original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be
submitted to the Agency with the surety bond; and
B) Unless the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the
requirements of this Section, the following are not required:
i) Payments into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a)
of this Section;
ii) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (as specified
328
in Section 724.251) to show current post-closure cost
estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment, as required by the trust agreement.
4) The bond must guarantee that the owner or operator will do either of the
following:
A) Perform final post-closure care in accordance with the post-closure
plan and other requirements of the permit for the facility; or
B) Provide alternative financial assurance, as specified in this Section,
and obtain the Agency’s written approval of the assurance
provided, within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or
operator and the Agency of a notice of cancellation of the bond
from the surety.
5) Under the terms of the bond, the surety will become liable on the bond
obligation when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by
the bond. Following a final judicial determination or Board order finding
that the owner or operator has failed to perform post-closure care in
accordance with the approved post-closure plan and other permit
requirements, under the terms of the bond the surety will perform post-
closure care in accordance with post-closure plan and other permit
requirements or will deposit the amount of the penal sum into the standby
trust fund.
6) The penal sum of the bond must be in an amount at least equal to the
current post-closure cost estimate.
7) Whenever the current post-closure cost estimate increases to an amount
greater than the penal sum during the operating life of the facility, the
owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase, must either cause the
penal sum to be increased to an amount at least equal to the current post-
closure cost estimate and submit evidence of such increase to the Agency,
or obtain other financial assurance, as specified in this Section. Whenever
the current closure cost estimate decreases during the operating life of the
facility, the penal sum may be reduced to the amount of the current post-
closure cost estimate following written approval by the Agency.
8) During the period of post-closure care, the Agency must approve a
decrease in the penal sum if the owner or operator demonstrates to the
Agency that the amount exceeds the remaining cost of post-closure care.
329
9) Under the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending
notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the
Agency. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days
beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the
owner or operator and the Agency, as evidenced by the return receipts.
10) The owner or operator may cancel the bond if the Agency has given prior
written consent. The Agency must provide such written consent when
either of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.
11) The surety will not be liable for deficiencies in the performance of post-
closure care by the owner or operator after the Agency releases the owner
or operator from the requirements of this Section in accordance with
subsection (i) of this Section.
d) Post-closure letter of credit.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining an irrevocable standby letter of credit that conforms to the
requirements of this subsection (d) and submitting the letter to the
Agency. An owner or operator of a new facility must submit the letter of
credit to the Agency at least 60 days before the date on which hazardous
waste is first received for disposal. The letter of credit must be effective
before this initial receipt of hazardous waste. The issuing institution must
be an entity that has the authority to issue letters of credit and whose
letter-of-credit operations are regulated and examined by a federal or State
agency.
2) The wording of the letter of credit must be that specified in Section
724.251.
3) An owner or operator who uses a letter of credit to satisfy the
requirements of this Section must also establish a standby trust fund.
Under the terms of the letter of credit, all amounts paid pursuant to a draft
by the Agency must be deposited by the issuing institution directly into
the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from the Agency.
This standby trust fund must meet the requirements of the trust fund
specified in subsection (a) of this Section, except as follows:
A) An original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be
330
submitted to the Agency with the letter of credit; and
B) Unless the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the
requirements of this Section, the following are not required by
these regulations:
i) Payments into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a)
of this Section;
ii) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (as specified
in Section 724.251) to show current post-closure cost
estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment, as required by the trust agreement.
4) The letter or credit must be accompanied by a letter from the owner or
operator referring to the letter of credit by number, issuing institution, and
date and providing the following information: the USEPA identification
number, name and address of the facility, and the amount of funds assured
for post-closure care of the facility by the letter of credit.
5) The letter of credit must be irrevocable and issued for a period of at least
one year. The letter of credit must provide that the expiration date will be
automatically extended for a period of at least one year unless, at least 120
days before the current expiration date, the issuing institution notifies both
the owner or operator and the Agency by certified mail of a decision not to
extend the expiration date. Under the terms of the letter of credit, the 120
days will begin on the date when both the owner or operator and the
Agency have received the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts.
6) The letter of credit must be issued in an amount at least equal to the
current post-closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection (g) of
this Section.
7) Whenever the current post-closure cost estimate increases to an amount
greater than the amount of the credit during the operating life of the
facility, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase, must
either cause the amount of the credit to be increased so that it at least
equals the current post-closure cost estimate and submit evidence of such
increase to the Agency, or obtain other financial assurance as specified in
this Section to cover the increase. Whenever the current post-closure cost
estimate decreases during the operating life of the facility, the amount of
the credit may be reduced to the amount of the current post-closure cost
estimate following written approval by the Agency.
331
8) During the period of post-closure care, the Agency must approve a
decrease in the amount of the letter of credit if the owner or operator
demonstrates to the Agency that the amount exceeds the remaining cost of
post-closure care.
9) Following a final judicial determination or Board order finding that the
owner or operator has failed to perform post-closure care in accordance
with the approved post-closure plan and other permit requirements, the
Agency may draw on the letter of credit.
10) If the owner or operator does not establish alternative financial assurance,
as specified in this Section, and obtain written approval of such alternative
assurance from the Agency within 90 days after receipt by both the owner
or operator and the Agency of a notice from the issuing institution that it
has decided not to extend the letter of credit beyond the current expiration
date, the Agency must draw on the letter of credit. The Agency may delay
the drawing if the issuing institution grants an extension of the term of the
credit. During the last 30 days of any such extension the Agency must
draw on the letter of credit if the owner or operator has failed to provide
alternative financial assurance, as specified in this Section, and obtain
written approval of such assurance from the Agency.
11) The Agency must return the letter of credit to the issuing institution for
termination when either of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.
e) Post-closure insurance.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining post-closure insurance that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection (e) and submitting a certificate of such insurance to the
Agency. An owner or operator of a new facility must submit the
certificate of insurance to the Agency at least 60 days before the date on
which hazardous waste is first received for disposal. The insurance must
be effective before this initial receipt of hazardous waste. At a minimum,
the insurer must be licensed to transact the business of insurance or be
eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer in one or
more states.
2) The wording of the certificate of insurance must be that specified in
332
Section 724.251.
3) The post-closure insurance policy must be issued for a face amount at
least equal to the current post-closure cost estimate, except as provided in
subsection (g) of this Section. The term “face amount” means the total
amount the insurer is obligated to pay under the policy. Actual payments
by the insurer will not change the face amount, although the insurer’s
future liability will be lowered by the amount of the payments.
4) The post-closure insurance policy must guarantee that funds will be
available to provide post-closure care of facility whenever the post-closure
period begins. The policy must also guarantee that, once post-closure care
begins, the insurer will be responsible for paying out funds, up to an
amount equal to the face amount of the policy, upon the direction of the
Agency to such party or parties as the Agency specifies.
5) An owner or operator or any other person authorized to perform post-
closure care may request reimbursement for post-closure care
expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the Agency. Within 60 days
after receiving bills for post-closure activities, the Agency must instruct
the insurer to make reimbursement in such amounts as the Agency
specifies in writing if the Agency determines that the post-closure care
expenditures are in accordance with the approved post-closure plan or
otherwise justified. If the Agency does not instruct the insurer to make
such reimbursements, the Agency must provide the owner or operator with
a detailed written statement of reasons.
6) The owner or operator must maintain the policy in full force and effect
until the Agency consents to termination of the policy by the owner or
operator as specified in subsection (e)(11) of this Section. Failure to pay
the premium, without substitution of alternative financial assurance as
specified in this Section, will constitute a significant violation of these
regulations, warranting such remedy as the Board may impose pursuant to
the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5]. Such violation will be
deemed to begin upon receipt by the Agency of a notice of future
cancellation, termination, or failure to renew due to nonpayment of the
premium, rather than upon the date of expiration.
7) Each policy must contain a provision allowing assignment of the policy to
a successor owner or operator. Such assignment may be conditional upon
consent of the insurer, provided such consent is not unreasonably refused.
8) The policy must provide that the insurer may not cancel, terminate, or fail
to renew the policy except for failure to pay the premium. The automatic
renewal of the policy must, at a minimum, provide the insured with the
option of renewal at the face amount of the expiring policy. If there is a
333
failure to pay the premium, the insurer may elect to cancel, terminate, or
fail to renew the policy by sending notice by certified mail to the owner or
operator and the Agency. Cancellation, termination, or failure to renew
may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning with the date of
receipt of the notice by both the Agency and the owner or operator, as
evidenced by the return receipts. Cancellation, termination, or failure to
renew may not occur, and the policy will remain in full force and effect, in
the event that on or before the date of expiration one of the following
occurs:
A) The Agency deems the facility abandoned;
B) The permit is terminated or revoked or a new permit is denied;
C) Closure is ordered by the Board or a U.S. district court or other
court of competent jurisdiction;
D) The owner or operator is named as debtor in a voluntary or
involuntary proceeding under
S
Title
S
11
S
of the United States Code
S
USC (Bankruptcy); or
E) The premium due is paid.
9) Whenever the current post-closure cost estimate increases to an amount
greater than the face amount of the policy during the life of the facility, the
owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase, must either cause the
face amount to be increased to an amount at least equal to the current post-
closure cost estimate and submit evidence of such increase to the Agency
or obtain other financial assurance, as specified in this Section, to cover
the increase. Whenever the current post-closure cost estimate decreases
during the operating life of the facility, the face amount may be reduced to
the amount of the current post-closure cost estimate following written
approval by the Agency.
10) Commencing on the date that liability to make payments pursuant to the
policy accrues, the insurer must thereafter annually increase the face
amount of the policy. Such increase must be equivalent to the face
amount of the policy, less any payments made, multiplied by an amount
equivalent to 85 percent of the most recent investment rate or of the
equivalent coupon-issue yield announced by the U.S. Treasury for 26-
week Treasury securities.
11) The Agency must give written consent to the owner or operator that the
owner or operator may terminate the insurance policy when either of the
following occurs:
334
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.
f) Financial test and corporate guarantee for post-closure care.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
demonstrating that it passes a financial test as specified in this subsection
(f). To pass this test the owner or operator must meet the criteria of either
subsection (f)(1)(A) or (f)(1)(B) of this Section:
A) The owner or operator must have the following:
i) Two of the following three ratios: a ratio of total liabilities
to net worth less than 2.0; a ratio of the sum of net income
plus depreciation, depletion and amortization to total
liabilities greater than 0.1; and a ratio of current assets to
current liabilities greater than 1.5;
ii) Net working capital and tangible net worth each at least six
times the sum of the current closure and post-closure cost
estimates and the current plugging and abandonment cost
estimates;
iii) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
iv) Assets in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent
of its total assets or at least six times the sum of the current
closure and post-closure cost estimates and the current
plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
B) The owner or operator must have the following:
i) A current rating for its most recent bond issuance of AAA,
AA, A, or BBB as issued by Standard and Poor’s or Aaa,
Aa, A, or Baa as issued by Moody’s;
ii) Tangible net worth at least six times the sum of the current
closure and post-closure cost estimates and current
plugging and abandonment cost estimates;
iii) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
iv) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90
335
percent of its total assets or at least six times the sum of the
current closure and post-closure cost estimates and the
current plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
2) The phrase “current closure and post-closure cost estimates,” as used in
subsection (f)(1) of this Section, refers to the cost estimates required to be
shown in subsections 1 through 4 of the letter from the owner’s or
operator’s chief financial officer (
S
40 CFR 264.151(f), incorporated by
reference in
S
see Section 724.251). The phrase “current plugging and
abandonment cost estimates,” as used in subsection (f)(1) of this Section,
refers to the cost estimates required to be shown in subsections 1 through
4 of the letter from the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer (
S
40
CFR 144.70(f), incorporated by reference in
S
see 35 Ill. Adm. Code
704.240).
3) To demonstrate that it meets this test, the owner or operator must submit
the following items to the Agency:
A) A letter signed by the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer
and worded, as specified in Section 724.251; and
B) A copy of the independent certified public accountant’s report on
examination of the owner’s or operator’s financial statements for
the latest completed fiscal year; and
C) A special report from the owner’s or operator’s independent
certified public accountant to the owner or operator stating the
following:
i) The accountant has compared the data that the letter from
the chief financial officer specifies as having been derived
from the independently audited, year-end financial
statements for the latest fiscal year with the amounts in
such financial statements; and
ii) In connection with that procedure, no matters came to the
accountant’s attention that caused the accountant to believe
that the specified data should be adjusted.
4) An owner or operator of a new facility must submit the items specified in
subsection (f)(3) of this Section to the Agency at least 60 days before the
date on which hazardous waste is first received for disposal.
5) After the initial submission of items specified in subsection (f)(3) of this
Section, the owner or operator must send updated information to the
Agency within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year. This
336
information must consist of all three items specified in subsection (f)(3) of
this Section.
6) If the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of subsection
(f)(1) of this Section, the owner or operator must send notice to the
Agency of intent to establish alternative financial assurance, as specified
in this Section. The notice must be sent by certified mail within 90 days
after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show
that the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements the owner or
operator must provide the alternative financial assurance within 120 days
after the end of such fiscal year.
7) Based on a reasonable belief that the owner or operator may no longer
meet the requirements of subsection (f)(1) of this Section, the Agency may
require reports of financial condition at any time from the owner or
operator in addition to those specified in subsection (f)(3) of this Section.
If the Agency finds, on the basis of such reports or other information, that
the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of subsection
(f)(1) of this Section, the owner or operator must provide alternative
financial assurance, as specified in this Section, within 30 days after
notification of such a finding.
8) The Agency may disallow use of this test on the basis of qualifications in
the opinion expressed by the independent certified public accountant in
the accountant’s report on examination of the owner’s or operator’s
financial statements (see subsection (f)(3)(B) of this Section). An adverse
opinion or a disclaimer of opinion will be cause for disallowance. The
Agency must evaluate other qualifications on an individual basis. The
owner or operator must provide alternative financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, within 30 days after notification of the
disallowance.
9) During the period of post-closure care, the Agency must approve a
decrease in the current post-closure cost estimate for which this test
demonstrates financial assurance if the owner or operator demonstrates to
the Agency that the amount of the cost estimate exceeds the remaining
cost of post-closure care.
10) The owner or operator is no longer required to submit the items specified
in subsection (f)(3) of this Section when either of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section.
337
11) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this Section by
obtaining a written guarantee, hereafter referred to as “corporate
guarantee.” The guarantor must be the direct or higher-tier parent
corporation of the owner or operator, a firm whose parent corporation is
also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, or a firm with a
“substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator. The
guarantor must meet the requirements for owners or operators in
subsections (f)(1) through (f)(9), and must comply with the terms of the
corporate guarantee. The wording of the corporate guarantee must be that
specified in Section 724.251. A certified copy of the corporate guarantee
must accompany the items sent to the Agency, as specified in subsection
(f)(3) of this Section. One of these items must be the letter from the
guarantor’s chief financial officer. If the guarantor’s parent corporation is
also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, the letter must
describe the value received in consideration of the guarantee. If the
guarantor is a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the
owner or operator, this letter must describe this “substantial business
relationship” and the value received in consideration of the guarantee.
The terms of the corporate guarantee must provide as follows:
A) That if the owner or operator fails to perform post-closure care of a
facility covered by the corporate guarantee in accordance with the
post-closure plan and other permit requirements whenever required
to do so, the guarantor will do so or establish a trust fund as
specified in subsection (a) of this Section in the name of the owner
or operator.
B) That the corporate guarantee will remain in force unless the
guarantor sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the
owner or operator and to the Agency. Cancellation may not occur,
however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of
the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the
Agency, as evidenced by the return receipts.
C) That if the owner or operator fails to provide alternative financial
assurance as specified in this Section and obtain the written
approval of such alternative assurance from the Agency within 90
days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Agency of
a notice of cancellation of the corporate guarantee from the
guarantor, the guarantor will provide such alternative financial
assurance in the name of the owner or operator.
g) Use of multiple financial mechanisms. An owner or operator may satisfy the
requirements of this Section by establishing more than one financial mechanism
per facility. These mechanisms are limited to trust funds, surety bonds
338
guaranteeing payment into a trust fund, letters of credit and insurance. The
mechanisms must be as specified in subsections (a), (b), (d), and (e) of this
Section, respectively, except that it is the combination of mechanisms, rather than
the single mechanism, that must provide financial assurance for an amount at least
equal to the current post-closure cost estimate. If an owner or operator uses a
trust fund in combination with a surety bond or a letter of credit, it may use the
trust fund as the standby trust fund for the other mechanisms. A single standby
trust fund may be established for two or more mechanisms. The Agency may use
any or all of the mechanisms to provide for post-closure care of the facility.
h) Use of a financial mechanism for multiple facilities. An owner or operator may
use a financial assurance mechanism specified in this Section to meet the
requirements of this Section for more than one facility. Evidence of financial
assurance submitted to the Agency must include a list showing, for each facility,
the USEPA identification number, name, address, and the amount of funds for
post-closure care assured by the mechanism. The amount of funds available
through the mechanism must be no less than the sum of funds that would be
available if a separate mechanism had been established and maintained for each
facility. The amount of funds available to the Agency must be sufficient to close
all of the owner or operator’s facilities. In directing funds available through the
mechanism for post-closure care of any of the facilities covered by the
mechanism, the Agency may direct only the amount of funds designated for that
facility, unless the owner or operator agrees to the use of additional funds
available under the mechanism.
i) Release of the owner or operator from the requirements of this Section. Within
60 days after receiving certifications from the owner or operator and an
independent registered professional engineer that the post-closure care period has
been completed for a hazardous waste disposal unit in accordance with the
approved plan, the Agency must notify the owner or operator that it is no longer
required to maintain financial assurance for post-closure care of that unit, unless
the Agency determines that post-closure care has not been in accordance with the
approved post-closure plan. The Agency must provide the owner or operator with
a detailed written statement of any such determination that post-closure care has
not been in accordance with the approved post-closure plan.
j) Appeal. The following Agency actions are deemed to be permit modifications or
refusals to modify for purposes of appeal to the Board (35 Ill. Adm. Code
702.184(e)(3)):
1) An increase in or a refusal to decrease the amount of a bond, letter of
credit, or insurance;
2) Requiring alternative assurance upon a finding that an owner or operator
or parent corporation no longer meets a financial test.
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(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.248 Incapacity of Owners or Operators, Guarantors, or Financial Institutions
a) An owner or operator must notify the Agency by certified mail of the
commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under Title 11 of the
United States Code (Bankruptcy) naming the owners or operators as debtor, within
10 days after commencement of the proceeding. A guarantor of a corporate
guarantee, as specified in Sections 724.243(f) and 724.245(f), must make such a
notification if he is named as a debtor, as required under the terms of the
corporate guarantee (
S
40 CFR 264.151(h), incorporated by reference in
S
see Section
724.251).
b) An owner or operator who fulfills the requirements of Sections 724.243, 724.245,
or 724.247 by obtaining a trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance
policy will be deemed to be without the required financial assurance or liability
coverage in the event of bankruptcy of the trustee or issuing institution, or a
suspension or revocation of the authority of the trustee institution to act as trustee
or of the institution issuing the surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy to
issue such instruments. The owner or operator must establish other financial
assurance or liability coverage within 60 days after such an event.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.251 Wording of the Instruments
The Agency must promulgate standardized forms based on 40 CFR 264.151 (Wording of the
Instruments), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), with such changes in
wording as are necessary under Illinois law. Any owner or operator required to establish
financial assurance under this Subpart H must do so only upon the standardized forms
promulgated by the Agency. The Agency must reject any financial assurance document that is
not submitted on such standardized forms.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART I: USE AND MANAGEMENT OF CONTAINERS
Section 724.273 Management of Containers
a) A container holding hazardous waste must always be closed during storage,
except when it is necessary to add or remove waste.
b) A container holding hazardous waste must not be opened, handled, or stored in a
manner that may rupture the container or cause it to leak.
BOARD NOTE: Reuse of containers in transportation is governed by
S
U.S. Department of
340
Transportation
S
USDOT regulations including those set forth in 49 CFR 173.28 (Reuse,
Reconditioning, and Remanufacture of Packagings), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.277 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
a) Incompatible wastes or incompatible wastes and materials (see
S
Appendix E
S
appendix V of
S
this Part
S
40 CFR 265 (Examples of Potentially Incompatible
Waste), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), for examples)
must not be placed in the same container, unless Section 724.117(b) is complied
with.
b) Hazardous waste must not be placed in an unwashed container that previously
held an incompatible waste or material.
c) A storage container holding a hazardous waste that is incompatible with any
waste or other materials stored nearby in other containers, piles, open tanks, or
surface impoundments must be separated from the other materials or protected
from them by means of a dike, berm, wall, or other device.
BOARD NOTE: The purpose of this Section is to prevent fires, explosions, gaseous emission,
leaching, or other discharge of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents that could result
from the mixing of incompatible wastes or materials if containers break or leak. As required by
Section 724.113, the waste analysis plan must include analyses needed to comply with Section
724.277. Also Section 724.117(c) requires waste analyses, trial tests, or other documentation to
assure compliance with Section 724.117(b). As required by Section 724.173, the owner or
operator must place the results of each waste analysis and trial test, and any documented
information, in the operating record of the facility.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART J: TANK SYSTEMS
Section 724.290 Applicability
The requirements of this Subpart J apply to owners and operators of facilities that use tank
systems for storing or treating hazardous waste, except as otherwise provided in subsection (a),
(b), or (c) of this Section or in Section 724.101.
a) Tank systems that are used to store or treat hazardous waste that contains no free
liquids and are situated inside a building with an impermeable floor are exempted
from the requirements in Section 724.293. To demonstrate the absence or
presence of free liquids in the stored or treated waste, the following test must be
used: USEPA Method
S
9095
S
9095B (Paint Filter Liquids Test), as described in
341
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Wastes Physical/Chemical Methods” USEPA
S
Publication No.
S
publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
)
S
, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
b) Tank systems, including sumps, are defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, that
serve as part of a secondary containment system to collect or contain releases of
hazardous wastes are exempted from the requirements in Section 724.293(a).
c) Tanks, sumps, and other such collection devices or systems used in conjunction
with drip pads, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110 and regulated under
Subpart W of this Part, must meet the requirements of this Subpart J.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.291 Assessment of Existing Tank System Integrity
a) For each existing tank system that does not have secondary containment meeting
the requirements of Section 724.293, the owner or operator must determine either
that the tank system is not leaking or that it is unfit for use. Except as provided in
subsection (c) of this Section, the owner or operator must, by January 12, 1988,
obtain and keep on file at the facility a written assessment reviewed and certified
by an independent, qualified registered professional engineer, in accordance with
35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.126(d), that attests to the tank system’s integrity.
b) This assessment must determine whether the tank system is adequately designed
and has sufficient structural strength and compatibility with the wastes to be
stored or treated, to ensure that it will not collapse, rupture, or fail. At a
minimum, this assessment must consider the following:
1) Design standards, if available, according to which the tank and ancillary
equipment were constructed;
2) Hazardous characteristics of the wastes that have been and will be
handled;
3) Existing corrosion protection measures;
4) Documented age of the tank system, if available (otherwise an estimate of
the age); and
5) Results of a leak test, internal inspection, or other tank integrity
examination so that the following is true:
A) For non-enterable underground tanks, the assessment must include
a leak test that is capable of taking into account the effects of
temperature variations, tank end deflection, vapor pockets, and
342
high water table effects, and
B) For other than non-enterable underground tanks and for ancillary
equipment, this assessment must include either a leak test, as
described above, or other integrity examination that is certified by
an independent, qualified registered professional engineer in
accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.126(d), that address
cracks, leaks, corrosion, and erosion.
BOARD NOTE: The practices described in the American Petroleum
Institute (API) Publication, “Guide for Inspection of Refinery
Equipment,” Chapter XIII, “Atmospheric and Low-Pressure Storage
Tanks,” incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), may be used, where applicable, as guidelines in conducting
other than a leak test.
c) Tank systems that store or treat materials that become hazardous wastes
subsequent to July 14, 1986, must conduct this assessment within 12 months after
the date that the waste becomes a hazardous waste.
d) If, as a result of the assessment conducted in accordance with subsection (a) of
this Section, a tank system is found to be leaking or unfit for use, the owner or
operator must comply with the requirements of Section 724.296.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.292 Design and Installation of New Tank Systems or Components
a) Owners or operators of new tank systems or components must obtain and submit
to the Agency, at time of submittal of Part B information, a written assessment,
reviewed and certified by an independent, qualified registered professional
engineer in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.126(d), attesting that the tank
system has sufficient structural integrity and is acceptable for the storing and
treating of hazardous waste. The assessment must show that the foundation,
structural support, seams, connections, and pressure controls (if applicable) are
adequately designed and that the tank system has sufficient structural strength,
compatibility with the wastes to be stored or treated and corrosion protection to
ensure that it will not collapse, rupture, or fail. This assessment, which will be
used by the Agency to review and approve or disapprove the acceptability of the
tank system design, must include, at a minimum, the following information:
1) Design standards according to which tanks or the ancillary equipment are
constructed;
2) Hazardous characteristics of the wastes to be handled;
343
3) For new tank systems or components in which the external shell of a metal
tank or any external metal component of the tank system will be in contact
with the soil or with water, a determination by a corrosion expert of the
following:
A) Factors affecting the potential for corrosion, including but not
limited to the following:
i) Soil moisture content;
ii) Soil pH;
iii) Soil sulfide level;
iv) Soil resistivity;
v) Structure to soil potential;
vi) Influence of nearby underground metal structures (e.g.,
piping);
vii) Existence of stray electric current;
viii) Existing corrosion-protection measures (e.g., coating,
cathodic protection, etc.); and
B) The type and degree of external corrosion protection that are
needed to ensure the integrity of the tank system during the use of
the tank system or component, consisting of one or more of the
following:
i) Corrosion-resistant materials of construction, such as
special alloys, fiberglass reinforced plastic, etc.;
ii) Corrosion-resistant coating, such as epoxy, fiberglass, etc.,
with cathodic protection (e.g., impressed current or
sacrificial anodes); and
iii) Electrical isolation devices, such as insulating joints,
flanges, etc.
BOARD NOTE: The practices described in the National
Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) standard,
S
“Recommended Practice (RP-02-85)
S
“Control of External
Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged
Liquid Storage Systems,” NACE Recommended Practice RP0285,
344
and
S
API Publication 1632,
S
“Cathodic Protection of Underground
Petroleum Storage Tanks and Piping Systems,” API
Recommended Practice 1632, each incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), may be used, where
applicable, as guidelines in providing corrosion protection for tank
systems.
4) For underground tank system components that are likely to be adversely
affected by vehicular traffic, a determination of design or operational
measures that will protect the tank system against potential damage; and
5) Design considerations to ensure the following:
A) That tank foundations will maintain the load of a full tank;
B) That tank systems will be anchored to prevent flotation or
dislodgment where the tank system is placed in a saturated zone, or
is located within a seismic fault zone subject to the standards of
Section 724.118(a); and
C) That tank systems will withstand the effects of frost heave.
b) The owner or operator of a new tank system must ensure that proper handling
procedures are adhered to in order to prevent damage to the system during
installation. Prior to covering, enclosing or placing a new tank system or
component in use, an independent qualified installation inspector or an
independent, qualified registered professional engineer, either of whom is trained
and experienced in the proper installation of tank systems or components, must
inspect the system for the presence of any of the following items:
1) Weld breaks;
2) Punctures;
3) Scrapes of protective coatings;
4) Cracks;
5) Corrosion;
6) Other structural damage or inadequate construction or installation. All
discrepancies must be remedied before the tank system is covered,
enclosed, or placed in use.
c) New tank systems or components that are placed underground and which are
backfilled must be provided with a backfill material that is a noncorrosive,
345
porous, and homogeneous substance which is installed so that the backfill is
placed completely around the tank and compacted to ensure that the tank and
piping are fully and uniformly supported.
d) All new tanks and ancillary equipment must be tested for tightness prior to being
covered, enclosed or placed in use. If a tank system is found not to be tight, all
repairs necessary to remedy the leaks in the system must be performed prior to the
tank system being covered, enclosed, or placed into use.
e) Ancillary equipment must be supported and protected against physical damage
and excessive stress due to settlement, vibration, expansion, or contraction.
BOARD NOTE: The piping system installation procedures described in
S
API
Publication 1615,
S
“Installation of Underground Petroleum Storage Systems,” API
Recommended Practice 1615
S
;
S
, or
S
American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
Standard B31.3,
S
“Chemical Plant and Petroleum Refinery Piping,”
S
;
S
ASME/ANSI
Standard B31.3-1987, as supplemented by B31.3a-1988 and B31.3b-1988, and
S
ANSI Standard B31.4
S
“Liquid Petroleum Transportation Piping Systems for
Hydrocarbons, Liquid Petroleum Gas, Anhydrous Ammonia, and Alcohols,”
ASME/ANSI Standard B31.4-1986, as supplemented by B31.4a-1987, each
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), may be used
where applicable, as guidelines for proper installation of piping systems.
f) The owner or operator must provide the type and degree of corrosion protection
recommended by an independent corrosion expert, based on the information
provided under subsection (a)(3) of this Section, or other corrosion protection if
the Agency determines that other corrosion protection is necessary to ensure the
integrity of the tank system during use of the tank system. The installation of a
corrosion protection system that is field fabricated must be supervised by an
independent corrosion expert to ensure proper installation.
g) The owner or operator must obtain and keep on file at the facility written
statements by those persons required to certify the design of the tank system and
supervise the installation of the tank system in accordance with the requirements
of subsections (b) through (f) of this Section, that attest that the tank system was
properly designed and installed and that repairs, pursuant to subsections (b) and
(d) of this Section, were performed. These written statements must also include
the certification statement, as required in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.126(d).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.293 Containment and Detection of Releases
a) In order to prevent the release of hazardous waste or hazardous constituents to the
environment, secondary containment that meets the requirements of this Section
must be provided (except as provided in subsections (f) and (g) of this Section).
346
1) For a new tank system or component, prior to their being put into service;
2) For all existing tank systems used to store or treat Hazardous Waste
Numbers F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, or F027, as defined in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.131, within two years after January 12, 1987;
3) For those existing tank systems of known and documented age, within two
years after January 12, 1987, or when the tank system has reached 15
years of age, whichever comes later;
4) For those existing tank systems for which the age cannot be documented,
within eight years of January 12, 1987; but if the age of the facility is
greater than seven years, secondary containment must be provided by the
time the facility reaches 15 years of age, or within two years of January
12, 1987, whichever comes later; and
5) For tank systems that store or treat materials that become hazardous
wastes subsequent to January 12, 1987, within the time intervals required
in subsections (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this Section, except that the date
that a material becomes a hazardous waste must be used in place of
January 12, 1987.
b) Secondary containment systems must fulfill the following:
1) It must be designed, installed, and operated to prevent any migration of
wastes or accumulated liquid out of the system to the soil, groundwater, or
surface water at any time during the use of the tank system; and
2) It must be capable of detecting and collecting releases and accumulated
liquids until the collected material is removed.
c) To meet the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section, secondary
containment systems must, at a minimum, fulfill the following:
1) It must be constructed of or lined with materials that are compatible with
the wastes to be placed in the tank system and must have sufficient
strength and thickness to prevent failure owing to pressure gradients
(including static head and external hydrological forces), physical contact
with the waste to which it is exposed, climatic conditions, and the stress of
daily operation (including stresses from nearby vehicular traffic);
2) It must be placed on a foundation or base capable of providing support to
the secondary containment system, resistance to pressure gradients above
and below the system, and capable of preventing failure due to settlement,
compression or uplift;
347
3) It must be provided with a leak-detection system that is designed and
operated so that it will detect the failure of either the primary or secondary
containment structure or the presence of any release of hazardous waste or
accumulated liquid in the secondary containment system within 24 hours,
or at the earliest practicable time if the owner or operator demonstrates, by
way of permit application, to the Agency that existing detection
technologies or site conditions will not allow detection of a release within
24 hours; and
4) It must be sloped or otherwise designed or operated to drain and remove
liquids resulting from leaks, spills, or precipitation. Spilled or leaked
waste and accumulated precipitation must be removed from the secondary
containment system within 24 hours, or in as timely a manner as is
possible to prevent harm to human health and the environment, if the
owner or operator demonstrates to the Agency, by way of permit
application, that removal of the released waste or accumulated
precipitation cannot be accomplished within 24 hours.
BOARD NOTE: If the collected material is a hazardous waste under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721, it is subject to management as a hazardous waste in
accordance with all applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722
through 725. If the collected material is discharged through a point source
to waters of the State, it is subject to the NPDES permit requirement of
Section 12(f) of the Environmental Protection Act and 35 Ill. Adm. Code
309. If discharged to a Publicly Owned Treatment Work (POTW), it is
subject to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 307 and 310. If the
collected material is released to the environment, it may be subject to the
reporting requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 750.410 and federal 40 CFR
302.6
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
.
d) Secondary containment for tanks must include one or more of the following
devices:
1) A liner (external to the tank);
2) A vault;
3) A double-walled tank; or
4) An equivalent device, as approved by the Board in an adjusted standards
proceeding.
e) In addition to the requirements of subsections (b), (c), and (d) of this Section,
secondary containment systems must satisfy the following requirements:
348
1) An external liner system must fulfill the following:
A) It must be designed or operated to contain 100 percent of the
capacity of the largest tank within its boundary.
B) It must be designed or operated to prevent run-on or infiltration of
precipitation into the secondary containment system, unless the
collection system has sufficient excess capacity to contain run-on
or infiltration. Such additional capacity must be sufficient to
contain precipitation from a 25-year, 24-hour rainfall event.
C) It must be free of cracks or gaps
S
; and
S
.
D) It must be designed and installed to surround the tank completely
and to cover all surrounding earth likely to come into contact with
the waste if the waste is released from the tanks (i.e., it is capable
of preventing lateral as well as vertical migration of the waste).
2) A vault system must fulfill the following:
A) It must be designed or operated to contain 100 percent of the
capacity of the largest tank within the vault system’s boundary;
B) It must be designed or operated to prevent run-on or infiltration of
precipitation into the secondary containment system unless the
collection system has sufficient excess capacity to contain run-on
or infiltration. Such additional capacity must be sufficient to
contain precipitation from a 25-year, 24-hour rainfall event;
C) It must be constructed with chemical-resistant water stops in place
at all joints (if any);
D) It must be provided with an impermeable interior coating or lining
that is compatible with the stored waste and that will prevent
migration of waste into the concrete;
E) It must be provided with a means to protect against the formation
of and ignition of vapors within the vault, if the waste being stored
or treated fulfills the following:
i) It meets the definition of ignitable waste under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.121; or
ii) It meets the definition of reactive waste under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.123, and may form an ignitable or explosive
vapor;
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F) It must be provided with an exterior moisture barrier or be
otherwise designed or operated to prevent migration of moisture
into the vault if the vault is subject to hydraulic pressure.
3) A double-walled tank must fulfill the following:
A) It must be designed as an integral structure (i.e., an inner tank
completely enveloped within an outer shell) so that any release
from the inner tank is contained by the outer shell;
B) It must be protected, if constructed of metal, from both corrosion
of the primary tank interior and of the external surface of the outer
shell; and
C) It must be provided with a built-in continuous leak detection
system capable of detecting a release within 24 hours, or at the
earliest practicable time, if the owner or operator demonstrates, by
way of permit application, to the Agency that the existing
detection technology or site conditions would not allow detection
of a release within 24 hours.
BOARD NOTE: The provisions outlined in the Steel Tank
S
Institute’s
S
Institute document (STI) “Standard for Dual Wall
Underground Steel Storage Tanks,” incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), may be used as a guideline
for aspects of the design of underground steel double-walled tanks.
f) Ancillary equipment must be provided with secondary containment (e.g., trench,
jacketing, double-walled piping, etc.) that meets the requirements of subsections
(b) and (c) of this Section, except as follows:
1) Aboveground piping (exclusive of flanges, joints, valves, and other
connections) that are visually inspected for leaks on a daily basis;
2) Welded flanges, welded joints, and welded connections that are visually
inspected for leaks on a daily basis;
3) Sealless or magnetic coupling pumps and sealless valves that are visually
inspected for leaks on a daily basis; and
4) Pressurized aboveground piping systems with automatic shut-off devices
(e.g., excess flow check valves, flow metering shutdown devices, loss of
pressure actuated shut-off devices, etc.) that are visually inspected for
leaks on a daily basis.
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g) Pursuant to Section 28.1 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/28.1],
and in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 101 and 104, an adjusted standard will
be granted by the Board regarding alternative design and operating practices only
if the Board finds either that the alternative design and operating practices,
together with location characteristics, will prevent the migration of any hazardous
waste or hazardous constituents into the groundwater or surface water at least as
effectively as secondary containment during the active life of the tank system, or
that in the event of a release that does migrate to groundwater or surface water, no
substantial present or potential hazard will be posed to human health or the
environment. New underground tank systems may not receive an adjusted
standard from the secondary containment requirements of this Section through a
justification in accordance with subsection (g)(2) of this Section.
1) When determining whether to grant alternative design and operating
practices based on a demonstration of equivalent protection of
groundwater and surface water, the Board will consider whether the
petitioner has justified an adjusted standard based on the following
factors:
A) The nature and quantity of the wastes;
B) The proposed alternative design and operation;
C) The hydrogeologic setting of the facility, including the thickness of
soils present between the tank system and groundwater; and
D) All other factors that would influence the quality and mobility of
the hazardous constituents and the potential for them to migrate to
groundwater or surface water.
2) When determining whether to grant alternative design and operating
practices based on a demonstration of no substantial present or potential
hazard, the Board will consider whether the petitioner has justified an
adjusted standard based on the following factors:
A) The potential adverse effects on groundwater, surface water and
land quality taking into account, considering the following:
i) The physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in
the tank system, including its potential for migration;
ii) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and
surrounding land;
iii) The potential for health risk caused by human exposure to
waste constituents;
351
iv) The potential for damage to wildlife, crops, vegetation, and
physical structures caused by exposure to waste
constituents; and
v) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse
effects.
B) The potential adverse effects of a release on groundwater quality,
taking into account;
i) The quantity and quality of groundwater and the direction
of groundwater flow;
ii) The proximity and withdrawal rates of groundwater users;
iii) The current and future uses of groundwater in the area; and
iv) The existing quality of groundwater, including other
sources of contamination and their cumulative impact on
the groundwater quality.
C) The potential adverse effects of a release on surface water quality,
taking the following into account:
i) The quantity and quality of groundwater and the direction
of groundwater flow;
ii) The patterns of rainfall in the region;
iii) The proximity of the tank system to surface waters;
iv) The current and future uses of surface waters in the area
and water quality standards established for those surface
waters; and
v) The existing quality of surface water, including other
sources of contamination and the cumulative impact on
surface water quality.
D) The potential adverse effect of a release on the land surrounding
the tank system, taking the following into account:
i) The patterns of rainfall in the region; and
ii) The current and future uses of the surrounding land.
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3) The owner or operator of a tank system, for which alternative design and
operating practices had been granted in accordance with the requirements
of subsection (g)(1) of this Section, at which a release of hazardous waste
has occurred from the primary tank system but which has not migrated
beyond the zone of engineering control (as established in the alternative
design and operating practices), must do the following:
A) It must comply with the requirements of Section 724.296, except
Section 724.296(d); and
B) It must decontaminate or remove contaminated soil to the extent
necessary to do the following:
i) Enable the tank system for which the alternative design and
operating practices were granted to resume operation with
the capability for the detection of releases at least
equivalent to the capability it had prior to the release; and
ii) Prevent the migration of hazardous waste or hazardous
constituents to groundwater or surface water; and
C) If contaminated soil cannot be removed or decontaminated in
accordance with subsection (g)(3)(B) of this Section, the owner or
operator must comply with the requirement of Section 724.297(b).
4) The owner or operator of a tank system, for which alternative design and
operating practices had been granted in accordance with the requirements
of subsection (g)(1) of this Section, at which a release of hazardous waste
has occurred from the primary tank system and which has migrated
beyond the zone of engineering control (as established in the alternative
design and operating practices), must do the following:
A) Comply with the requirements of Section 724.296(a), (b), (c), and
(d); and
B) Prevent the migration of hazardous waste or hazardous
constituents to groundwater or surface water, if possible, and
decontaminate or remove contaminated soil. If contaminated soil
cannot be decontaminated or removed, or if groundwater has been
contaminated, the owner or operator must comply with the
requirements of Section 724.297(b); and
C) If repairing, replacing or reinstalling the tank system, provide
secondary containment in accordance with the requirements of
subsections (a) through (f) of this Section, or make the alternative
353
design and operating practices demonstration to the Board again,
and meet the requirements for new tank systems in Section
724.292 if the tank system is replaced. The owner or operator
must comply with these requirements even if contaminated soil is
decontaminated or removed and groundwater or surface water has
not been contaminated.
h) In order to make an alternative design and operating practices, the owner or
operator must follow the following procedures in addition to those specified in
Section 28.1 of the Act [415 ILCS 5/28.1] and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 101 and 104:
1) The owner or operator must file a petition for approval of alternative
design and operating practices according to the following schedule:
A) For existing tank systems, at least 24 months prior to the date that
secondary containment must be provided in accordance with
subsection (a) of this Section.
B) For new tank systems, at least 30 days prior to entering into a
contract for installation.
2) As part of the petition, the owner or operator must also submit the
following to the Board:
A) A description of the steps necessary to conduct the demonstration
and a timetable for completing each of the steps. The
demonstration must address each of the factors listed in subsection
(g)(1) or (g)(2) of this Section; and
B) The portion of the Part B permit application specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.202.
3) The owner or operator must complete its showing within 180 days after
filing its petition for approval of alternative design and operating
practices.
4) The Agency must issue or modify the RCRA permit so as to require the
permittee to construct and operate the tank system in the manner that was
provided in any Board order approving alternative design and operating
practices.
i) All tank systems, until such time as secondary containment that meets the
requirements of this Section is provided, must comply with the following:
1) For non-enterable underground tanks, a leak test that meets the
requirements of Section 724.291(b)(5) or other tank integrity methods, as
354
approved or required by the Agency, must be conducted at least annually.
2) For other than non-enterable underground tanks, the owner or operator
must do either of the following:
A) Conduct a leak test, as in subsection (i)(1) of this Section, or
B) Develop a schedule and procedure for an assessment of the overall
condition of the tank system by an independent, qualified
registered professional engineer. The schedule and procedure must
be adequate to detect obvious cracks, leaks, and corrosion or
erosion that may lead to cracks and leaks. The owner or operator
must remove the stored waste from the tank, if necessary, to allow
the condition of all internal tank surfaces to be assessed. The
frequency of these assessments must be based on the material of
construction of the tank and its ancillary equipment, the age of the
system, the type of corrosion or erosion protection used, the rate of
corrosion or erosion observed during the previous inspection and
the characteristics of the waste being stored or treated.
3) For ancillary equipment, a leak test or other integrity assessment, as
approved by the Agency, must be conducted at least annually.
BOARD NOTE: The practices described in the API Publication, “Guide
for Inspection of Refinery Equipment,” Chapter XIII, “Atmospheric and
Low-Pressure Storage Tanks,” incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), may be used, where applicable, as a guideline
for assessing the overall condition of the tank system.
4) The owner or operator must maintain on file at the facility a record of the
results of the assessments conducted in accordance with subsections (i)(1)
through (i)(3) of this Section.
5) If a tank system or component is found to be leaking or unfit for use as a
result of the leak test or assessment in subsections (i)(1) through (1)(3) of
this Section, the owner or operator must comply with the requirements of
Section 724.296.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.295 Inspections
a) The owner or operator must develop and follow a schedule and procedure for
inspecting overfill controls.
b) The owner or operator must inspect the following at least once each operating
355
day:
1) Aboveground portions of the tank system, if any, to detect corrosion or
releases of waste;
2) Data gathered from monitoring and leak detection equipment (e.g.,
pressure or temperature gauges, monitoring wells, etc.) to ensure that the
tank system is being operated according to its design; and
3) The construction materials and the area immediately surrounding the
externally accessible portion of the tank system, including the secondary
containment system (e.g., dikes) to detect erosion or signs of releases of
hazardous waste (e.g., wet spots, dead vegetation, etc.).
BOARD NOTE: Section 724.115(c) requires the owner or operator to remedy
any deterioration or malfunction the owner or operator finds. Section 724.296
requires the owner or operator to notify the Agency within 24 hours of confirming
a leak. Also federal 40 CFR
S
302
S
302.6 may require the owner or operator to
notify the National Response Center of a release.
c) The owner or operator must inspect cathodic protection systems, if present,
according to, at a minimum, the following schedule to ensure that they are
functioning properly:
1) The proper operation of the cathodic protection system must be confirmed
within six months after initial installation and annually thereafter; and
2) All sources of impressed current must be inspected or tested, as
appropriate, at least bimonthly (i.e., every other month).
BOARD NOTE: The practices described in
S
the NACE Standard, RP-02-85,
S
“Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or
Submerged Liquid Storage Systems,” NACE Recommended Practice RP0285-85
and
S
API Publication 1632,
S
“Cathodic Protection of Underground Petroleum
Storage Tanks and Piping Systems,” API Recommended Practice 1632, each
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), may be used,
where applicable, as guidelines in maintaining and inspecting cathodic protection
systems.
d) The owner or operator must document in the operating record of the facility an
inspection of those items in subsections (a) through (c) of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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Section 724.296 Response to Leaks or Spills and Disposition of Leaking or Unfit-for-Use
Tank Systems
A tank system or secondary containment system from which there has been a leak or spill, or
which is unfit for use, must be removed from service immediately, and the owner or operator
must satisfy the following requirements:
a) Cease using; prevent flow or addition of wastes. The owner or operator must
immediately stop the flow of hazardous waste into the tank system or secondary
containment system and inspect the system to determine the cause of the release.
b) Removal of waste from tank system or secondary containment system.
1) If the release was from the tank system, the owner or operator must,
within 24 hours after detection of the leak or as otherwise provided in the
permit, remove as much of the waste as is necessary to prevent further
release of hazardous waste to the environment and to allow inspection and
repair of the tank system to be performed.
2) If the material released was to a secondary containment system, all
released materials must be removed within 24 hours or as otherwise
provided in the permit to prevent harm to human health and the
environment.
c) Containment of visible releases to the environment. The owner or operator must
immediately conduct a visual inspection of the release and, based upon that
inspection, do the following:
1) Prevent further migration of the leak or spill to soils or surface water; and
2) Remove and properly dispose of any visible contamination of the soil or
surface water.
d) Notifications, reports.
1) Any release to the environment, except as provided in subsection (d)(2) of
this Section, must be reported to the Agency within 24 hours of its
detection.
2) A leak or spill of hazardous waste is exempted from the requirements of
this subsection (d) if the following is true:
A) The spill was less than or equal to a quantity of one pound; and
B) It was immediately contained and cleaned up.
357
3) Within 30 days of detection of a release to the environment, a report
containing the following information must be submitted to the Agency:
A) Likely route of migration of the release;
B) Characteristics of the surrounding soil (soil composition, geology,
hydrogeology, climate, etc.);
C) Results of any monitoring or sampling conducted in connection
with the release (if available). If sampling or monitoring data
relating to the release are not available within 30 days, these data
must be submitted to the Agency as soon as they become available.
D) Proximity the downgradient drinking water, surface water, and
populated areas; and
E) Description of response actions taken or planned.
e) Provision of secondary containment, repair, or closure.
1) Unless the owner or operator satisfies the requirements of subsections
(e)(2) through (e)(4) of this Section, the tank system must be closed in
accordance with Section 724.297.
2) If the cause of the release was a spill that has not damaged the integrity of
the system, the owner or operator may return the system to service as soon
as the released waste is removed and repairs, if necessary, are made.
3) If the cause of the release was a leak from the primary tank system into the
secondary containment system, the system must be repaired prior to
returning the tank system to service.
4) If the source of the release was a leak to the environment from a
component of a tank system without secondary containment, the owner or
operator must provide the component of the system from which the leak
occurred with secondary containment that satisfies the requirements of
Section 724.293 before it can be returned to service, unless the source of
the leak is an aboveground portion of a tank system that can be inspected
visually. If the source is an aboveground component that can be inspected
visually, the component must be repaired and may be returned to service
without secondary containment, as long as the requirements of subsection
(f) of this Section are satisfied. If a component is replaced to comply with
the requirements of this subsection (e), that component must satisfy the
requirements of new tank systems or components in Sections 724.292 and
724.293. Additionally, if a leak has occurred in any portion of a tank
system component that is not readily accessible for visual inspection (e.g.,
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the bottom of an in-ground or on-ground tank), the entire component must
be provided with secondary containment in accordance with Section
724.293 prior to being returned to use.
f) Certification of major repairs. If the owner or operator has repaired a tank system
in accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, and the repair has been
extensive (e.g., installation of an internal liner, repair, or a ruptured primary
containment or secondary containment vessel), the tank system must not be
returned to service unless the owner or operator has obtained a certification by an
independent, qualified registered professional engineer, in accordance with 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702.126(d), that the repaired system is capable of handling hazardous
wastes without release for the intended life of the system. This certification must
be submitted to the Agency within seven days after returning the tank system to
use.
BOARD NOTE: See Section 724.115(c) for the requirements necessary to remedy a failure.
Also, federal 40 CFR 302.6
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111,
S
may
require the owner or operator to notify the National Response Center of
S
certain releases.
S
any
“reportable quantity.”
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.298 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
a) Ignitable or reactive waste must not be placed in tank systems unless the
following is true:
1) The waste is treated, rendered, or mixed before or immediately after
placement in the tank system so that the following is true:
A) The resulting waste, mixture, or dissolved material no longer meets
the definition of ignitable or reactive waste under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.121 or 721.123; and
B) Section 724.117(b) is complied with; or
2) The waste is stored or treated in such a way that it is protected from any
material or conditions that may cause the waste to ignite or react; or
3) The tank is used solely for emergencies.
b) The owner or operator of a facility where ignitable or reactive waste is stored or
treated in a tank must comply with the requirements for the maintenance of
protective distances between the waste management area and any public ways,
streets, alleys, or an adjoining property line that can be built upon, as required in
tables 2-1 through 2-6 of
S
the National Fire Protection Association’s
S
“Flammable
359
and Combustible Liquids Code,” NFPA 30, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART N: LANDFILLS
Section 724.414 Special Requirements for Bulk and Containerized Liquids
a) This subsection (a) corresponds with 40 CFR 264.314(a), which pertains to pre
May 8, 1985 actions, a date long since passed. This statement maintains
structural consistency with USEPA rules.
b) The placement of bulk or non-containerized liquid hazardous waste or hazardous
waste containing free liquids (whether or not sorbents have been added) in any
landfill is prohibited.
c) To demonstrate the absence or presence of free liquids in either a containerized or
a bulk waste, the following test must be used: Method
S
9095
S
9095B (Paint Filter
Liquids Test), as described in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Wastes,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication No.
S
publication number EPA-
530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
d) Containers holding free liquids must not be placed in a landfill unless the
following is true:
1) All free-standing liquid fulfills one of the following:
A) It has been removed by decanting or other methods;
B) It has been mixed with sorbent or solidified so that free-standing
liquid is no longer observed; or
C) It has been otherwise eliminated; or
2) The container is very small, such as an ampule; or
3) The container is designed to hold free liquids for use other than storage,
such as a battery or capacitor; or
4) The container is a lab pack as defined in Section 724.416 and is disposed
of in accordance with Section 724.416.
e) Sorbents used to treat free liquids to be disposed of in landfills must be
nonbiodegradable. Nonbiodegradable sorbents are the following: materials listed
or described in subsection (e)(1) of this Section; materials that pass one of the
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tests in subsection (e)(2) of this Section; or materials that are determined by the
Board to be nonbiodegradable through the adjusted standard procedure of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 104.
1) Nonbiodegradable sorbents are the following:
A) Inorganic minerals, other inorganic materials, and elemental
carbon (e.g., aluminosilicates (clays, smectites, Fuller’s earth,
bentonite, calcium bentonite, montmorillonite, calcined
montmorillonite, kaolinite, micas (illite), vermiculites, zeolites,
etc.), calcium carbonate (organic free limestone),
oxides/hydroxides (alumina, lime, silica (sand), diatomaceous
earth, etc.), perlite (volcanic glass), expanded volcanic rock,
volcanic ash, cement kiln dust, fly ash, rice hull ash, activated
charcoal (activated carbon), etc.); or
B) High molecular weight synthetic polymers (e.g., polyethylene,
high density polyethylene (HDPE), polypropylene, polystrene,
polyurethane, polyacrylate, polynorborene, polyisobutylene,
ground synthetic rubber, cross-linked allylstrene and tertiary butyl
copolymers, etc.). This does not include polymers derived from
biological material or polymers specifically designed to be
degradable; or
C) Mixtures of these nonbiodegradable materials.
2) Tests for nonbiodegradable sorbents are the following:
A) The sorbent material is determined to be nonbiodegradable under
ASTM Method G21-70 (1984a)
S
--“
S
(Standard Practice for
Determining Resistance of Synthetic Polymer Materials to
Fungi),
S
”
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a);
B) The sorbent material is determined to be nonbiodegradable under
ASTM Method G22-76 (1984b)
S
--“
S
(Standard Practice for
Determining Resistance of Plastics to Bacteria),
S
”
S
incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a); or
C) The sorbent material is determined to be non-biodegradable under
OECD
S
test
S
Guideline for Testing of Chemicals, Method 301B
(CO
B
2
B
Evolution (Modified Sturm Test)), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
f) The placement of any liquid that is not a hazardous waste in a hazardous waste
landfill is prohibited (35 Ill. Adm. Code 729.311), unless the Board finds that the
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owner or operator has demonstrated the following in a petition for an adjusted
standard pursuant to Section 28.1 of the Act [415 ILCS 5/28.1] and 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 101 and 104:
1) The only reasonably available alternative to the placement in a hazardous
waste landfill is placement in a landfill or unlined surface impoundment,
whether or not permitted or operating under interim status, that contains or
which may reasonably be anticipated to contain hazardous waste; and
2) Placement in the hazardous waste landfill will not present a risk of
contamination of any underground source of drinking water (as that term
is defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.110).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.416 Disposal of Small Containers of Hazardous Waste in Overpacked Drums
(Lab Packs)
Small containers of hazardous waste in overpacked drums (lab packs) may be placed in a landfill
if the following requirements are met:
a) Hazardous waste must be packaged in non-leaking inside containers. The inside
containers must be of a design and constructed of a material that will not react
dangerously with, be decomposed by, or be ignited by the contained waste. The
inside containers must be tightly and securely sealed. The inside containers must
be of the size and type specified in the
S
Department of Transportation (DOT)
S
USDOT hazardous materials regulations (49 CFR 173 (Shippers--General
Requirements for Shipments and Packages), 178 (Specifications for Packagings),
and 179 (Specifications for Tank Cars), each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(b)), if those regulations specify a particular inside container
for the waste.
b) The inside containers must be overpacked in an open head
S
DOT-specification
S
USDOT-specification metal shipping container (49 CFR 178 (Specifications for
Packagings) and 179 (Specifications for Tank Cars)) of no more than 416 liter
(110 gallon) capacity and surrounded by, at a minimum, a sufficient quantity of
sorbent material, determined to be nonbiodegradable in accordance with Section
724.414(e), to completely sorb all of the liquid contents of the inside containers.
The metal outer container must be full after packing with inside containers and
sorbent material.
c) In accordance with Section 724.117(b), the sorbent material used must not be
capable of reacting dangerously with, being decomposed by, or being ignited by
the contents of the inside containers, in accordance with Section 724.117(b).
d) Incompatible waste, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, must not be placed
362
in the same outside container.
e) Reactive wastes, other than cyanide- or sulfide-bearing waste as defined in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.123(a)(5), must be treated or rendered non-reactive prior to
packaging in accordance with subsections (a) through (d) of this Section.
Cyanide- and sulfide-bearing reactive waste may be packed in accordance with
subsections (a) through (d) of this Section without first being treated or rendered
non-reactive.
f) Such disposal is in compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728. Persons who
incinerate lab packs according to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.142(c)(1) may use fiber
drums in place of metal outer containers. Such fiber drums must meet the
S
DOT
S
USDOT specifications in 49 CFR 173.12 (Exceptions for Shipments of Waste
Materials), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), and be
overpacked according to the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section.
g) Pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 729.312, the use of labpacks for disposal of liquid
wastes or wastes containing free liquids allowed under this Section is restricted to
labwaste and non-periodic waste, as those terms are defined in that Part.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART O: INCINERATORS
Section 724.440 Applicability
a) The regulations in this Subpart O apply to owners and operators of hazardous
waste incinerators (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110), except as Section
724.101 provides otherwise.
b) Integration of the MACT standards.
1) Except as provided by subsections (b)(2), (b)(3), and (b)(4) of this
Section, the standards of this Part no longer apply when an owner or
operator demonstrates compliance with the maximum achievable control
technology (MACT) requirements of subpart EEE of 40 CFR 63
S
, Subpart
EEE
S
(National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from
Hazardous Waste Combustors), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b), by conducting a comprehensive performance
test and submitting to the Agency a Notification of Compliance, under 40
CFR 63.1207(j) and 63.1210(b), documenting compliance with the
requirements of subpart EEE of 40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
S
. Nevertheless,
even after this demonstration of compliance with the MACT standards,
RCRA permit conditions that were based on the standards of this Part will
continue to be in effect until they are removed from the permit or the
permit is terminated or revoked, unless the permit expressly provides
363
otherwise.
2) The MACT standards of subpart EEE of 40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
S
do not
replace the closure requirements of Section 724.451 or the applicable
requirements of Subparts A through H, BB, and CC of this Part.
3) The particulate matter standard of Section 724.443(c) remains in effect for
incinerators that elect to comply with the alternative to the particulate
matter standard of 40 CFR 63.1206(b)(14) (When and How Must You
Comply with the Standards and Operating Requirements?), incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
4) The following requirements remain in effect for startup, shutdown, and
malfunction events if the owner or operator elects to comply with 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.320(a)(1)(A) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds
from the following events:
A) Section 724.445(a), requiring that an incinerator operate in
accordance with operating requirements specified in the permit;
and
B) Section 724.445(c), requiring compliance with the emission
standards and operating requirements during startup and shutdown
if hazardous waste is in the combustion chamber, except for
particular hazardous wastes.
BOARD NOTE: Sections 9.1 and 39.5 of the Environmental Protection Act [415
ILCS 5/9.1 and 39.5] make the federal MACT standards directly applicable to
entities in Illinois and authorize the Agency to issue permits based on the federal
standards. Operating conditions used to determine effective treatment of
hazardous waste remain effective after the owner or operator demonstrates
compliance with the standards of subpart EEE of 40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
S
. In
adopting this subsection (b), USEPA stated as follows (at 64 Fed Reg. 52828,
52975 (September 30,1999)):
Under this approach . . . , MACT air emissions and related
operating requirements are to be included in Title V permits;
RCRA permits will continue to be required for all other aspects of
the combustion unit and the facility that are governed by RCRA
(e.g., corrective action, general facility standards, other
combustor-specific concerns such as materials handling, risk-based
emissions limits and operating requirements, as appropriate, and
other hazardous waste management units).
c) After consideration of the waste analysis included with Part B of the permit
application, the Agency, in establishing the permit conditions, must exempt the
364
applicant from all requirements of this Subpart O, except Section 724.441 (Waste
Analysis) and Section 724.451 (Closure):
1) If the Agency finds that the waste to be burned is one of the following:
A) It is listed as a hazardous waste in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721 solely because it is ignitable (Hazard Code I), corrosive
(Hazard Code C), or both;
B) It is listed as a hazardous waste in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721 solely because it is reactive (Hazard Code R) for
characteristics other than those listed in Section 721.123(a)(4) and
(5), and will not be burned when other hazardous wastes are
present in the combustion zone;
C) It is a hazardous waste solely because it possesses the
characteristic of ignitability, as determined by the test for
characteristics of hazardous wastes under Subpart C of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721; or
D) It is a hazardous waste solely because it possesses any of the
reactivity characteristics described by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.123(a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(6), (a)(7), and (a)(8) and will not
be burned when other hazardous wastes are present in the
combustion zone; and
2) If the waste analysis shows that the waste contains none of the hazardous
constituents listed in Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 that would
reasonably be expected to be in the waste.
d) If the waste to be burned is one that is described by subsection (b)(1)(A),
(b)(1)(B), (b)(1)(C), or (b)(1)(D) of this Section and contains insignificant
concentrations of the hazardous constituents listed in Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721, then the Agency may, in establishing permit conditions, exempt the
applicant from all requirements of this Subpart O, except Section 724.441 (Waste
Analysis) and Section 724.451 (Closure), after consideration of the waste analysis
included with Part B of the permit application, unless the Agency finds that the
waste will pose a threat to human health or the environment when burned in an
incinerator.
e) The owner or operator of an incinerator may conduct trial burns subject only to
the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.222 through 703.225 (short-term and
incinerator permits).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
365
Section 724.442 Principal Organic Hazardous Constituents (POHCs)
a) Principal organic hazardous constituents (POHCs) in the waste feed must be
treated to the extent required by the performance standard of Section 724.443.
b) Designation of POHCs.
1) One or more POHCs will be specified in the facility’s permit, from among
those constituents listed in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
S
,
Appendix H,
S
for each waste feed to be burned. This specification will be
based on the degree of difficulty of incineration of the organic constituents
in the waste and on their concentration or mass in the waste feed,
considering the results of waste analyses and trial burns or alternative data
submitted with Part B of the facility’s permit application. Organic
constituents that represent the greatest degree of difficulty of incineration
will be those most likely to be designated as POHCs. Constituents are
more likely to be designated as POHCs if they are present in large
quantities or concentrations in the waste.
2) Trial POHCs will be designated for performance of trial burns in
accordance with the procedure specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.222
through 703.225 for obtaining trial burn permits.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.443 Performance Standards
An incinerator burning hazardous waste must be designed, constructed, and maintained so that,
when operated in accordance with operating requirements specified under Section 724.445, it
will meet the following performance standards:
a) Destruction and removal efficiency.
1) Except as provided in subsection (a)(2) of this Section, an incinerator
burning hazardous waste must achieve a destruction and removal
efficiency (DRE) of 99.99% for each principal organic hazardous
constituent (POHC) designated (under Section 724.442) in its permit for
each waste feed. DRE is determined for each POHC from the following
equation:
(
)
N
O
N
100
DRE
−
×
=
Where:
N = Mass feed rate of one principal organic hazardous
366
constituent (POHC) in the waste stream feeding the
incinerator
S
, and
S
O = Mass emission rate of the same POHC present in
exhaust emissions prior to release to the
atmosphere.
2) An incinerator burning hazardous wastes F020, F021, F022, F023, F026,
or F027 must achieve a destruction and removal efficiency (DRE) of
99.9999% for each principal organic hazardous constituent (POHC)
designated (under Section 724.442) in its permit. This performance must
be demonstrated on POHCs that are more difficult to incinerate than tetra-,
penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins and dibenzofurans. DRE is
determined for each POHC from the equation in subsection (a)(1) of this
Section. In addition, the owner or operator of the incinerator must notify
the Agency of its intent to incinerate hazardous wastes F020, F021, F022,
F023, F026, or F027.
b) An incinerator burning hazardous waste and producing stack emissions of more
than 1.8 kilograms per hour (4 pounds per hour) of hydrogen chloride (HCl) must
control HCl emissions such that the rate of emission is no greater than the larger
of either 1.8 kilograms per hour or one percent of the HCl in the stack gas prior to
entering any pollution control equipment.
c) An incinerator burning hazardous waste must not emit particulate matter in excess
of 180 milligrams per dry standard cubic meter (0.08 grains per dry standard
cubic foot) when corrected for the amount of oxygen in the stack gas according to
the following formula:
Y
21
M
14
C
−
×
=
1) Where:
C = the corrected concentration of particulate matter
S
,
S
M = the measured concentration of particulate matter
S
, and
S
Y = the measured concentration of oxygen in the stack gas, using the
Orsat method for oxygen analysis of dry flue gas, presented in
Method 3 in appendix A to 40 CFR 60
S
, Appendix A (Method 3)
S
(Gas Analysis for the Determination of Dry Molecular Weight),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
2) This correction procedure is to be used by all hazardous waste incinerators
except those operating under conditions of oxygen enrichment. For these
367
facilities,
S
The
S
the Agency must select an appropriate correction procedure,
to be specified in the facility permit.
d) For the purposes of permit enforcement, compliance with the operating
requirements specified in the permit (under Section 724.445) will be regarded as
compliance with this Section. However, evidence that compliance with those
permit conditions is insufficient to ensure compliance with the performance
requirements of this Section may be “information” justifying modification,
revocation or reissuance of a permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.184.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART S: SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR CLEANUP
Section 724.652 Corrective Action Management Units
a) To implement remedies under Section 724.201 or RCRA section 3008(h), or to
implement remedies at a permitted facility that is not subject to Section 724.201,
the Agency may designate an area at the facility as a corrective action
management unit under the requirements in this Section. “Corrective action
management unit” or “CAMU” means an area within a facility that is used only
for managing CAMU-eligible wastes for implementing corrective action or
cleanup at that facility. A CAMU must be located within the contiguous property
under the control of the owner or operator where the wastes to be managed in the
CAMU originated. One or more CAMUs may be designated at a facility.
1) “CAMU-eligible waste” means the following:
A) All solid and hazardous wastes, and all media (including
groundwater, surface water, soils, and sediments) and debris, that
are managed for implementing cleanup. As-generated wastes
(either hazardous or non-hazardous) from ongoing industrial
operations at a site are not CAMU-eligible wastes.
B) Wastes that would otherwise meet the description in subsection
(a)(1)(A) of this Section are not CAMU-eligible waste where the
following is true:
i) The wastes are hazardous waste found during cleanup in
intact or substantially intact containers, tanks, or other non-
land-based units found above ground, unless the wastes are
first placed in the tanks, containers, or non-land-based units
as part of cleanup, or the containers or tanks are excavated
during the course of cleanup; or
ii) The Agency makes the determination in subsection (a)(2)
368
of this Section to prohibit the wastes from management in a
CAMU.
C) Notwithstanding subsection (a)(1)(A) of this Section, where
appropriate, as-generated non-hazardous waste may be placed in a
CAMU where such waste is being used to facilitate treatment or
the performance of the CAMU.
2) The Agency must prohibit the placement of waste in a CAMU where the
Agency determines that the wastes have not been managed in compliance
with applicable land disposal treatment standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728, applicable unit design requirements of this Part or 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725, or other applicable requirements of this Subtitle G, and that the non-
compliance likely contributed to the release of the waste.
3) Prohibition against placing liquids in a CAMU.
A) The placement of bulk or noncontainerized liquid hazardous waste
or free liquids contained in hazardous waste (whether or not
sorbents have been added) in any CAMU is prohibited except
where placement of such wastes facilitates the remedy selected for
the waste.
B) The requirements in Section 724.414(d) for placement of
containers holding free liquids in landfills apply to placement in a
CAMU, except where placement facilitates the remedy selected for
the waste.
C) The placement of any liquid that is not a hazardous waste in a
CAMU is prohibited unless such placement facilitates the remedy
selected for the waste or a demonstration is made pursuant to
Section 724.414(f).
D) The absence or presence of free liquids in either a containerized or
a bulk waste must be determined in accordance with Section
724.414(c). Sorbents used to treat free liquids in a CAMU must
meet the requirements of Section 724.414(e).
4) Placement of CAMU-eligible wastes into or within a CAMU does not
constitute land disposal of hazardous waste.
5) Consolidation or placement of CAMU-eligible wastes into or within a
CAMU does not constitute creation of a unit subject to minimum
technology requirements.
b) Establishing a CAMU.
369
1) The Agency must designate a regulated unit (as defined in Section
724.190(a)(2)) as a CAMU or must incorporate a regulated unit into a
CAMU, if it determines that the following is true of a regulated unit:
A) The regulated unit is closed or closing, meaning it has begun the
closure process under Section 724.213 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.213; and
B) Inclusion of the regulated unit will enhance implementation of
effective, protective, and reliable remedial actions for the facility.
2) The Subpart F, G, and H requirements and the unit-specific requirements
of this Part or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 265 that applied to the regulated unit will
continue to apply to that portion of the CAMU after incorporation into the
CAMU.
c) The Agency must designate a CAMU that will be used for storage or treatment
only in accordance with subsection (f) of this Section. The Agency must
designate any other CAMU in accordance with the following requirements:
1) The CAMU must facilitate the implementation of reliable, effective,
protective, and cost-effective remedies;
2) Waste management activities associated with the CAMU must not create
unacceptable risks to humans or to the environment resulting from
exposure to hazardous wastes or hazardous constituents;
3) The CAMU must include uncontaminated areas of the facility, only if
including such areas for the purpose of managing CAMU-eligible waste is
more protective than management of such wastes at contaminated areas of
the facility;
4) Areas within the CAMU, where wastes remain in place after closure of the
CAMU, must be managed and contained so as to minimize future releases,
to the extent practicable;
5) The CAMU must expedite the timing of remedial activity implementation,
when appropriate and practicable;
6) The CAMU must enable the use, when appropriate, of treatment
technologies (including innovative technologies) to enhance the long-term
effectiveness of remedial actions by reducing the toxicity, mobility, or
volume of wastes that will remain in place after closure of the CAMU; and
7) The CAMU must, to the extent practicable, minimize the land area of the
370
facility upon which wastes will remain in place after closure of the
CAMU.
d) The owner or operator must provide sufficient information to enable the Agency
to designate a CAMU in accordance with the criteria in this Section. This must
include, unless not reasonably available, information on the following:
1) The origin of the waste and how it was subsequently managed (including a
description of the timing and circumstances surrounding the disposal or
release);
2) Whether the waste was listed or identified as hazardous at the time of
disposal or release; and
3) Whether the disposal or release of the waste occurred before or after the
land disposal requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728 were in effect for the
waste listing or characteristic.
e) The Agency must specify, in the permit or order, requirements for the CAMU to
include the following:
1) The areal configuration of the CAMU.
2) Except as provided in subsection (g) of this Section, requirements for
CAMU-eligible waste management to include the specification of
applicable design, operation, treatment, and closure requirements.
3) Minimum Design Requirements: a CAMU, except as provided in
subsection (f) of this Section, into which wastes are placed must be
designed in accordance with the following:
A) Unless the Agency approves alternative requirements under
subsection (e)(3)(B) of this Section, a CAMU that consists of new,
replacement, or laterally expanded units must include a composite
liner and a leachate collection system that is designed and
constructed to maintain less than a 30-cm depth of leachate over
the liner. For purposes of this Section, “composite liner”
means a
system consisting of two components; the upper component must
consist of a minimum 30-mil flexible membrane liner (FML), and
the lower component must consist of at least a two-foot layer of
compacted soil with a hydraulic conductivity of no more than
1x10
P
-7
P
cm/sec. FML components consisting of high density
polyethylene (HDPE) must be at least 60 mil thick. The FML
component must be installed in direct and uniform contact with the
compacted soil component;
371
B) Alternative Requirements. The Agency must approve alternative
requirements if it determines that either of the following is true:
i) The Agency determines that alternative design and
operating practices, together with location characteristics,
will prevent the migration of any hazardous constituents
into the groundwater or surface water at least as effectively
as the liner and leachate collection systems in subsection
(e)(3)(A) of this Section; or
ii) The CAMU is to be established in an area with existing
significant levels of contamination, and the Agency
determines that an alternative design, including a design
that does not include a liner, would prevent migration from
the unit that would exceed long-term remedial goals.
4) Minimum treatment requirements: Unless the wastes will be placed in a
CAMU for storage or treatment only in accordance with subsection (f) of
this Section, CAMU-eligible wastes that, absent this Section, would be
subject to the treatment requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728, and that
the Agency determines contain principal hazardous constituents must be
treated to the standards specified in subsection (e)(4)(C) of this Section.
A) Principal hazardous constituents are those constituents that the
Agency determines pose a risk to human health and the
environment substantially higher than the cleanup levels or goals
at the site.
i) In general, the Agency must designate as principal
hazardous constituents those contaminants specified in
subsection (e)(4)(H) of this Section.
BOARD NOTE: The Board has codified 40 CFR
264.552(e)(4)(i)(A)(
1
) and (e)(4)(i)(A)(
2
) as subsections
(e)(4)(H)(i) and (e)(4)(H)(ii) of this Section in order to
comply with Illinois Administrative Code codification
requirements.
ii) The Agency must also designate constituents as principal
hazardous constituents, where appropriate, when risks to
human health and the environment posed by the potential
migration of constituents in wastes to groundwater are
substantially higher than cleanup levels or goals at the site;
when making such a designation, the Agency must consider
such factors as constituent concentrations, and fate and
transport characteristics under site conditions.
372
iii) The Agency must also designate other constituents as
principal hazardous constituents that the Agency
determines pose a risk to human health and the
environment substantially higher than the cleanup levels or
goals at the site.
B) In determining which constituents are “principal hazardous
constituents,” the Agency must consider all constituents that,
absent this Section, would be subject to the treatment requirements
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.
C) Waste that the Agency determines contains principal hazardous
constituents must meet treatment standards determined in
accordance with subsection (e)(4)(D) or (e)(4)(E) of this Section.
D) Treatment standards for wastes placed in a CAMU.
i) For non-metals, treatment must achieve 90 percent
reduction in total principal hazardous constituent
concentrations, except as provided by subsection
(e)(4)(D)(iii) of this Section.
ii) For metals, treatment must achieve 90 percent reduction in
principal hazardous constituent concentrations as measured
in leachate from the treated waste or media (tested
according to the TCLP) or 90 percent reduction in total
constituent concentrations (when a metal removal treatment
technology is used), except as provided by subsection
(e)(4)(D)(iii) of this Section.
iii) When treatment of any principal hazardous constituent to a
90 percent reduction standard would result in a
concentration less than 10 times the Universal Treatment
Standard for that constituent, treatment to achieve
constituent concentrations less than 10 times the Universal
Treatment Standard is not required. Universal Treatment
Standards are identified in Table U to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.
iv) For waste exhibiting the hazardous characteristic of
ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity, the waste must also
be treated to eliminate these characteristics.
v) For debris, the debris must be treated in accordance with
S
§
268.45
S
35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.145, or by methods or to
373
levels established under subsections (e)(4)(D)(i) through
(e)(4)(D)(iv) or subsection (e)(4)(E) of this Section,
whichever the Agency determines is appropriate.
vi) Alternatives to TCLP. For metal bearing wastes for which
metals removal treatment is not used, the Agency must
specify a leaching test other than
S
the TCLP (SW-846,
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure), in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code
S
720.111)
S
720.111(a) to measure treatment
effectiveness, provided the Agency determines that an
alternative leach testing protocol is appropriate for use, and
that the alternative more accurately reflects conditions at
the site that affect leaching.
E) Adjusted standards. The Board will grant an adjusted standard
pursuant to Section 28.1 of the Act to adjust the treatment level or
method in subsection (e)(4)(D) of this Section to a higher or lower
level, based on one or more of the following factors, as
appropriate, if the owner or operator demonstrates that the adjusted
level or method would be protective of human health and the
environment, based on consideration of the following:
i) The technical impracticability of treatment to the levels or
by the methods in subsection (e)(4)(D) of this Section;
ii) The levels or methods in subsection (e)(4)(D) of this
Section would result in concentrations of principal
hazardous constituents (PHCs) that are significantly above
or below cleanup standards applicable to the site
(established either site-specifically, or promulgated under
State or federal law);
iii) The views of the affected local community on the treatment
levels or methods in subsection (e)(4)(D) of this Section, as
applied at the site, and, for treatment levels, the treatment
methods necessary to achieve these levels;
iv) The short-term risks presented by the on-site treatment
method necessary to achieve the levels or treatment
methods in subsection (e)(4)(D) of this Section;
v) The long-term protection offered by the engineering design
of the CAMU and related engineering controls under the
374
circumstances set forth in subsection (e)(4)(I) of this
Section.
BOARD NOTE: The Board has codified 40 CFR
264.552(e)(4)(v)(E)(
1
) through (e)(4)(v)(E)(
5
) as
subsections (e)(4)(I)(i) through (e)(4)(I)(v) of this Section
in order to comply with Illinois Administrative Code
codification requirements.
F) The treatment required by the treatment standards must be
completed prior to, or within a reasonable time after, placement in
the CAMU.
G) For the purpose of determining whether wastes placed in a CAMU
have met site-specific treatment standards, the Agency must
specify a subset of the principal hazardous constituents in the
waste as analytical surrogates for determining whether treatment
standards have been met for other principal hazardous constituents
if it determines that the specification is appropriate based on the
degree of difficulty of treatment and analysis of constituents with
similar treatment properties.
H) Principal hazardous constituents that the Agency must designate
are the following:
i) Carcinogens that pose a potential direct risk from ingestion
or inhalation at the site at or above 10
P
-3
P
; and
ii) Non-carcinogens that pose a potential direct risk from
ingestion or inhalation at the site an order of magnitude or
greater over their reference dose.
I) Circumstances relating to the long-term protection offered by
engineering design of the CAMU and related engineering controls
are the following:
i) Where the treatment standards in subsection (e)(4)(D) of
this Section are substantially met and the principal
hazardous constituents in the waste or residuals are of very
low mobility;
ii) Where cost-effective treatment has been used and the
CAMU meets the Subtitle C liner and leachate collection
requirements for new land disposal units at Section
724.401(c) and (d);
375
iii) Where, after review of appropriate treatment technologies,
the Board determines that cost-effective treatment is not
reasonably available, and the CAMU meets the Subtitle C
liner and leachate collection requirements for new land
disposal units at Section 724.401(c) and (d);
iv) Where cost-effective treatment has been used and the
principal hazardous constituents in the treated wastes are of
very low mobility; or
v) Where, after review of appropriate treatment technologies,
the Board determines that cost-effective treatment is not
reasonably available, the principal hazardous constituents
in the wastes are of very low mobility, and either the
CAMU meets or exceeds the liner standards for new,
replacement, or a laterally expanded CAMU in subsections
(e)(3)(A) and (e)(3)(B) of this Section or the CAMU
provides substantially equivalent or greater protection.
5) Except as provided in subsection (f) of this Section, requirements for
groundwater monitoring and corrective action that are sufficient to do the
following:
A) Continue to detect and to characterize the nature, extent,
concentration, direction, and movement of existing releases of
hazardous constituents in groundwater from sources located within
the CAMU;
B) Detect and subsequently characterize releases of hazardous
constituents to groundwater that may occur from areas of the
CAMU in which wastes will remain in place after closure of the
CAMU; and
C) Require notification to the Agency and corrective action as
necessary to protect human health and the environment for releases
to groundwater from the CAMU.
6) Except as provided in subsection (f) of this Section, closure and post-
closure requirements, as follows:
A) Closure of corrective action management units must do the
following:
i) Minimize the need for further maintenance; and
ii) Control, minimize, or eliminate, to the extent necessary to
376
protect human health and the environment, for areas where
wastes remain in place, post-closure escape of hazardous
wastes, hazardous constituents, leachate, contaminated
runoff, or hazardous waste decomposition products to the
ground, to surface waters, or to the atmosphere.
B) Requirements for closure of a CAMU must include the following,
as appropriate and as deemed necessary by the Agency for a given
CAMU:
i) Requirements for excavation, removal, treatment or
containment of wastes; and
ii) Requirements for removal and decontamination of
equipment, devices, and structures used in CAMU-eligible
waste management activities within the CAMU.
C) In establishing specific closure requirements for a CAMU under
this subsection (e), the Agency must consider the following
factors:
i) CAMU characteristics;
ii) Volume of wastes that remain in place after closure;
iii) Potential for releases from the CAMU;
iv) Physical and chemical characteristics of the waste;
v) Hydrological and other relevant environmental conditions
at the facility that may influence the migration of any
potential or actual releases; and
vi) Potential for exposure of humans and environmental
receptors if releases were to occur from the CAMU.
D) Cap requirements:
i) At final closure of the CAMU, for areas in which wastes
will remain with constituent concentrations at or above
remedial levels or goals applicable to the site after closure
of the CAMU, the owner or operator must cover the
CAMU with a final cover designed and constructed to meet
the performance criteria listed in subsection (e)(6)(F) of
this Section, except as provided in subsection (e)(6)(D)(ii)
of this Section:
377
BOARD NOTE: The Board has codified 40 CFR
264.552(e)(6)(iv)(A)(
1
) through (e)(6)(iv)(A)(
5
) as
subsections (e)(6)(F)(i) through (e)(6)(F)(v) of this Section
in order to comply with Illinois Administrative Code
codification requirements.
ii) The Agency must apply cap requirements that deviate from
those prescribed in subsection (e)(6)(D)(i) of this Section if
it determines that the modifications are needed to facilitate
treatment or the performance of the CAMU (e.g., to
promote biodegradation).
E) Post-closure requirements as necessary to protect human health
and the environment, to include, for areas where wastes will
remain in place, monitoring and maintenance activities, and the
frequency with which such activities must be performed to ensure
the integrity of any cap, final cover, or other containment system.
F) The final cover design and performance criteria are as follows:
i) Provide long-term minimization of migration of liquids
through the closed unit;
ii) Function with minimum maintenance;
iii) Promote drainage and minimize erosion or abrasion of the
cover;
iv) Accommodate settling and subsidence so that the cover’s
integrity is maintained; and
v) Have a permeability less than or equal to the permeability
of any bottom liner system or natural subsoils present.
f) A CAMU used for storage or treatment only is a CAMU in which wastes will not
remain after closure. Such a CAMU must be designated in accordance with all of
the requirements of this Section, except as follows:
1) A CAMU that is used for storage or treatment only and that operates in
accordance with the time limits established in the staging pile regulations
at Section 724.654(d)(1)(C), (h), and (i) is subject to the requirements for
staging piles at Section 724.654(d)(1)(A) and (d)(1)(B), (d)(2), (e), (f), (j),
and (k) in lieu of the performance standards and requirements for a
CAMU in subsections (c) and (e)(3) through (e)(6) of this Section.
378
2) A CAMU that is used for storage or treatment only and that does not
operate in accordance with the time limits established in the staging pile
regulations at Section 724.654(d)(1)(C), (h), and (i):
A) The owner or operator must operate in accordance with a time
limit, established by the Agency, that is no longer than necessary
to achieve a timely remedy selected for the waste and
B) The CAMU is subject to the requirements for staging piles at
Section 724.654(d)(1)(A) and (d)(1)(B), (d)(2), (e), (f), (j), and (k)
in lieu of the performance standards and requirements for a CAMU
in subsections (c), (e)(4), and (6) of this Section.
g) A CAMU into which wastes are placed where all wastes have constituent levels at
or below remedial levels or goals applicable to the site do not have to comply
with the requirements for liners at subsection (e)(3)(A) of this Section, caps at
subsection (e)(6)(D) of this Section, groundwater monitoring requirements at
subsection (e)(5) of this Section or, for treatment or storage-only a CAMU, the
design standards at subsection (f) of this Section.
h) The Agency must provide public notice and a reasonable opportunity for public
comment before designating a CAMU. Such notice must include the rationale for
any proposed adjustments under subsection (e)(4)(E) of this Section to the
treatment standards in subsection (e)(4)(D) of this Section.
i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the Agency must impose
those additional requirements that it determines are necessary to protect human
health and the environment.
j) Incorporation of a CAMU into an existing permit must be approved by the
Agency according to the procedures for Agency-initiated permit modifications
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.270 through 703.273, or according to the permit
modification procedures of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.280 through 703.283.
k) The designation of a CAMU does not change the Agency’s existing authority to
address cleanup levels, media-specific points of compliance to be applied to
remediation at a facility, or other remedy selection decisions.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART W: DRIP PADS
Section 724.673 Design and Operating Requirements
a) Drip pads must fulfill the following:
379
1) Not be constructed of earthen materials, wood, or asphalt, unless the
asphalt is structurally supported;
2) Be sloped to free-drain to the associated collection system treated wood
drippage, rain, other waters, or solutions of drippage and water or other
wastes;
3) Have a curb or berm around the perimeter;
4) In addition, the drip pad must fulfill the following:
A) Have a hydraulic conductivity of less than or equal to 1
S
X
S
×
10
P
-7
P
centimeters per second (cm/sec), e.g., existing concrete drip pads
must be sealed, coated, or covered with a surface material with a
hydraulic conductivity of less than or equal to 1
S
X
S
×
10
P
-7
P
cm/sec
such that the entire surface where drippage occurs or may run
across is capable of containing such drippage and mixtures of
drippage and precipitation, materials, or other wastes while being
routed to an associated collection system. This surface material
must be maintained free of cracks and gaps that could adversely
affect its hydraulic conductivity, and the material must be
chemically compatible with the preservatives that contact the drip
pad. The requirements of this provision apply only to the existing
drip pads and those drip pads for which the owner or operator
elects to comply with Section 724.672(a) instead of Section
724.672(b).
B) The owner or operator must obtain and keep on file at the facility a
written assessment of the drip pad, reviewed and certified by an
independent qualified registered professional engineer that attests
to the results of the evaluation. The assessment must be reviewed,
updated and recertified annually. The evaluation must document
the extent to which the drip pad meets the design and operating
standards of this Section, except for in subsection (b) of this
Section.
5) Be of sufficient structural strength and thickness to prevent failure due to
physical contact, climatic conditions, the stress of installation, and the
stress of daily operations, e.g., variable and moving loads such as vehicle
traffic, movement of wood, etc.
BOARD NOTE: In judging the structural integrity requirement of this
subsection (c), the Agency should generally consider applicable standards
established by professional organizations generally recognized by the
industry, including ACI 318 (Building Code Requirements for Reinforced
Concrete), or ASTM
S
C94
S
C 94-90 (Standard Specification for Ready-
380
Mixed Concrete), each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
b) If an owner or operator elects to comply with Section 724.672(b) instead of
Section 724.672(a), the drip pad must have the following:
1) A synthetic liner installed below the drip pad that is designed, constructed,
and installed to prevent leakage from the drip pad into the adjacent
subsurface soil or groundwater or surface water at any time during the
active life (including the closure period) of the drip pad. The liner must
be constructed of materials that will prevent waste from being absorbed
into the liner and to prevent releases into the adjacent subsurface soil or
groundwater or surface water during the active life of the facility. The
liner must fulfill the following:
A) It must be constructed of materials that have appropriate chemical
properties and sufficient strength and thickness to prevent failure
due to pressure gradients (including static head and external
hydrogeologic forces), physical contact with the waste or drip pad
leakage to which they are exposed, climatic conditions, the stress
of installation and the stress of daily operation (including stresses
from vehicular traffic on the drip pad);
B) It must be placed upon a foundation or base capable of providing
support to the liner and resistance to pressure gradients above and
below the liner to prevent failure of the liner due to settlement,
compression or uplift; and
C) It must be installed to cover all surrounding earth that could come
in contact with the waste or leakage; and
2) A leakage detection system immediately above the liner that is designed,
constructed, maintained, and operated to detect leakage from the drip pad.
The leakage detection system must fulfill the following:
A) It must be constructed of materials that are as follows:
i) Chemically resistant to the waste managed in the drip pad
and the leakage that might be generated; and
ii) Of sufficient strength and thickness to prevent collapse
under the pressures exerted by overlaying materials and by
any equipment used at the drip pad; and
B) It must be designed and operated to function without clogging
through the scheduled closure of the drip pad; and
381
C) It must be designed so that it will detect the failure of the drip pad
or the presence of a release of hazardous waste or accumulated
liquid at the earliest practicable time.
3) A leaking collection system immediately above the liner that is designed,
constructed, maintained, and operated to collect leakage from the drip pad
such that it can be removed from below the drip pad. The date, time, and
quantity of any leakage collected in this system and removed must be
documented in the operating log.
A) The drip pad surface must be cleaned thoroughly in a manner and
frequency such that accumulated residues of hazardous waste or
other materials are removed, with residues being properly managed
as to allow weekly inspections of the entire drip pad surface
without interference of hindrance from accumulated residues of
hazardous waste or other materials on the drip pad. The owner or
operator must document the date and time of each cleaning and
cleaning procedure used in the facility’s operating log. The owner
or operator must determine if the residues are hazardous, as per 35
Ill. Adm. Code 722.111, and, if so, the owner or operator must
manage them under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 through 728, and
Section 3010 of RCRA.
B) The
S
Federal
S
federal rules do not contain a 40 CFR
264.573(b)(3)(B). This subsection (b) is added to conform to
Illinois Administrative Code rules.
c) Drip pads must be maintained such that they remain free of cracks, gaps,
corrosion, or other deterioration that could cause hazardous waste to be released
from the drip pad.
BOARD NOTE: See subsection (m) of this Section for remedial action required
if deterioration or leakage is detected.
d) The drip pad and associated collection system must be designed and operated to
convey, drain, and collect liquid resulting from drippage or precipitation in order
to prevent run-off.
e) Unless the drip pad is protected by a structure, as described in Section 724.670(b),
the owner or operator must design, construct, operate, and maintain a run-on
control system capable of preventing flow onto the drip pad during peak
discharge from at least a 24-hour, 25-year storm, unless the system has sufficient
excess capacity to contain any run-on that might enter the system.
f) Unless the drip pad is protected by a structure or cover, as described in Section
382
724.670(b), the owner or operator must design, construct, operate, and maintain a
run-off management system to collect and control at least the water volume
resulting from a 24-hour, 25-year storm.
g) The drip pad must be evaluated to determine that it meets the requirements of
subsections (a) through (f) of this Section. The owner or operator must obtain a
statement from an independent, qualified registered professional engineer
certifying that the drip pad design meets the requirements of this Section.
h) Drippage and accumulated precipitation must be removed from the associated
collection system as necessary to prevent overflow onto the drip pad.
i) The drip surface must be cleaned thoroughly at least once every seven days such
that accumulated residues of hazardous waste or other materials are removed,
using an appropriate and effective cleaning technique, including but not limited
to, rinsing, washing with detergents or other appropriate solvents, or steam
cleaning. The owner or operator must document, in the facility’s operating log,
the date and time of each cleaning and the cleaning procedure used.
j) Drip pads must be operated and maintained in a manner to minimize tracking of
hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents off the drip pad as a result of
activities by personnel or equipment.
k) After being removed from the treatment vessel, treated wood from pressure and
non-pressure processes must be held on the drip pad until drippage has ceased.
The owner or operator must maintain records sufficient to document that all
treated wood is held on the pad, in accordance with this Section, following
treatment.
l) Collection and holding units associated with run-on and run-off control systems
must be emptied or otherwise managed as soon as possible after storms to
maintain design capacity of the system.
m) Throughout the active life of the drip pad and as specified in the permit, if the
owner or operator detects a condition that could lead to or has caused a release of
hazardous waste, the condition must be repaired within a reasonably prompt
period of time following discovery, in accordance with the following procedures:
1) Upon detection of a condition that may have caused or has caused a
release of hazardous waste (e.g., upon detection of leakage in the leak
detection system), the owner or operator must do the following:
A) Enter a record of the discovery in the facility operating log;
B) Immediately remove from service the portion of the drip pad
affected by the condition;
383
C) Determine what steps must be taken to repair the drip pad, clean up
any leakage from below the drip pad, and establish a schedule for
accomplishing the clean up and repairs;
D) Within 24 hours after discovery of the condition, notify the
Agency of the condition and, within 10 working days, provide
written notice to the Agency with a description of the steps that
will be taken to repair the drip pad and clean up any leakage, and
the schedule for accomplishing this work.
2) The Agency must do the following: review the information submitted,
make a determination regarding whether the pad must be removed from
service completely or partially until repairs and clean up are complete, and
notify the owner or operator of the determination and the underlying
rationale in writing.
3) Upon completing all repairs and clean up, the owner or operator must
notify the Agency in writing and provide a certification, signed by an
independent, qualified registered professional engineer, that the repairs
and clean up have been completed according to the written plan submitted
in accordance with subsection (m)(1)(D) of this Section.
n) If a permit is necessary, the Agency must specify in the permit all design and
operating practices that are necessary to ensure that the requirements of this
Section are satisfied.
o) The owner or operator must maintain, as part of the facility operating log,
documentation of past operating and waste handling practices. This must include
identification of preservative formulations used in the past, a description of
drippage management practices, and a description of treated wood storage and
handling practices.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART X: MISCELLANEOUS UNITS
Section 724.701 Environmental Performance Standards
A miscellaneous unit must be located, designed, constructed, operated, maintained, and closed in
a manner that will ensure protection of human health and the environment. Permits for
miscellaneous units are to contain such terms and provisions as are necessary to protect human
health and the environment, including, but not limited to, as appropriate, design and operating
requirements, detection and monitoring requirements, and requirements for responses to releases
of hazardous waste or hazardous constituents from the unit. Permit terms and provisions must
include those requirements of Subparts I through O and AA through CC of this Part; 35 Ill. Adm.
384
Code 702, 703, and 730; and federal subpart EEE of 40 CFR 63
S
, Subpart EEE
S
, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b), that are appropriate for the miscellaneous
unit being permitted. Protection of human health and the environment includes, but is not
limited to the following:
a) Prevention of any releases that may have adverse effects on human health or the
environment due to migration of waste constituents in the groundwater or
subsurface environment, considering the following:
1) The volume and physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the
unit, including its potential for migration through soil, liners, or other
containing structures;
2) The hydrologic and geologic characteristics of the unit and the
surrounding area;
3) The existing quality of groundwater, including other sources of
contamination and their cumulative impact on the groundwater;
4) The quantity and direction of groundwater flow;
5) The proximity to and withdrawal rates of current and potential
groundwater users;
6) The patterns of land use in the region;
7) The potential for deposition or migration of waste constituents into
subsurface physical structures and the root zone of food-chain crops and
other vegetation;
8) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste
constituents; and
9) The potential for damage to domestic animals, wildlife, crops, vegetation,
and physical structures caused by exposure to waste constituents.
b) Prevention of any releases that may have adverse effects on human health or the
environment due to migration of waste constituents in surface water, in wetlands,
or on the soil surface, considering the following:
1) The volume and physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the
unit;
2) The effectiveness and reliability of containing, confining, and collecting
systems and structures in preventing migration;
385
3) The hydrologic characteristics of the unit and surrounding area, including
the topography of the land around the unit;
4) The patterns of precipitation in the region;
5) The quantity, quality, and direction of groundwater flow;
6) The proximity of the unit to surface waters;
7) The current and potential uses of the nearby surface waters and any water
quality standards in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 302 or 303;
8) The existing quality of surface waters and surface soils, including other
sources of contamination and their cumulative impact on surface waters
and surface soils;
9) The patterns of land use in the region;
10) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste
constituents; and
11) The potential for damage to domestic animals, wildlife, crops, vegetation,
and physical structures caused by exposure to waste constituents.
c) Prevention of any release that may have adverse effects on human health or the
environment due to migration of waste constituents in the air, considering the
following:
1) The volume and physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in the
unit, including its potential for the emission and dispersal of gases,
aerosols, and particulates;
2) The effectiveness and reliability of systems and structures to reduce or
prevent emissions of hazardous constituents to the air;
3) The operating characteristics of the unit;
4) The atmospheric, meteorologic, and topographic characteristics of the unit
and the surrounding area;
5) The existing quality of the air, including other sources of contamination
and their cumulative impact on the air;
6) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to waste
constituents; and
386
7) The potential for damage to domestic animals, wildlife, crops, vegetation,
and physical structures caused by waste constituents.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART AA: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR PROCESS VENTS
Section 724.933 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and Control Devices
a) Compliance Required.
1) Owners or operators of closed-vent systems and control devices used to
comply with provisions of this Part must comply with the provisions of
this Section.
2) Implementation Schedule.
A) The owner or operator of an existing facility that cannot install a
closed-vent system and control device to comply with the
provisions of this Subpart AA on the effective date that the facility
becomes subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA must prepare
an implementation schedule that includes dates by which the
closed-vent system and control device will be installed and in
operation. The controls must be installed as soon as possible, but
the implementation schedule may allow up to 30 months after the
effective date that the facility becomes subject to this Subpart AA
for installation and startup.
B) Any unit that began operation after December 21, 1990 and which
was subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA when operation
began must comply with the rules immediately (i.e., must have
control devices installed and operating on startup of the affected
unit); the 30-month implementation schedule does not apply.
C) The owner or operator of any facility in existence on the effective
date of a statutory or regulatory amendment that renders the
facility subject to this Subpart AA must comply with all
requirements of this Subpart AA as soon as practicable, but no
later than 30 months after the effective date of the amendment.
When control equipment required by this Subpart AA
S
can not
S
cannot be installed and begin operation by the effective date of the
amendment, the facility owner or operator must prepare an
implementation schedule that includes the following information:
specific calendar dates for award of contracts or issuance of
purchase orders for the control equipment, initiation of on-site
installation of the control equipment, completion of the control
387
equipment installation, and performance of any testing to
demonstrate that the installed equipment meets the applicable
standards of this Subpart AA. The owner or operator must enter
the implementation schedule in the operating record or in a
permanent, readily available file located at the facility.
D) An owner or operator of a facility or unit that becomes newly
subject to the requirements of this Subpart AA after December 8,
1997, due to an action other than those described in subsection
(a)(2)(C) of this Section must comply with all applicable
requirements immediately (i.e., the facility or unit must have
control devices installed and operating on the date the facility or
unit becomes subject to this Subpart AA; the 30-month
implementation schedule does not apply).
b) A control device involving vapor recovery (e.g., a condenser or adsorber) must be
designed and operated to recover the organic vapors vented to it with an
efficiency of 95 weight percent or greater unless the total organic emission limits
of Section 724.932(a)(1) for all affected process vents is attained at an efficiency
less than 95 weight percent.
c) An enclosed combustion device (e.g., a vapor incinerator, boiler, or process
heater) must be designed and operated to reduce the organic emissions vented to
it by 95 weight percent or greater; to achieve a total organic compound
concentration of 20 ppmv, expressed as the sum of the actual compounds and not
in carbon equivalents, on a dry basis, corrected to three percent oxygen; or to
provide a minimum residence time of 0.50 seconds at a minimum temperature of
760° C. If a boiler or process heater is used as the control device, then the vent
stream must be introduced into the flame zone of the boiler or process heater.
d) Flares.
1) A flare must be designed for and operated with no visible emissions, as
determined by the methods specified in subsection (e)(1) of this Section,
except for periods not to exceed a total of five minutes during any two
consecutive hours.
2) A flare must be operated with a flame present at all times, as determined
by the methods specified in subsection (f)(2)(C) of this Section.
3) A flare must be used only if the net heating value of the gas being
combusted is 11.2 MJ/scm (300 Btu/scf) or greater and the flare is steam-
assisted or air-assisted or if the net heating value of the gas being
combusted is 7.45 MJ/scm (200 Btu/scf) or greater and the flare is
nonassisted. The net heating value of the gas being combusted must be
determined by the methods specified in subsection (e)(2) of this Section.
388
4) Exit Velocity.
A) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare must be designed for and
operated with an exit velocity, as determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(3) of this Section, less than 18.3 m/s (60
ft/s), except as provided in subsections (d)(4)(B) and (d)(4)(C) of
this Section.
B) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare designed for and operated
with an exit velocity, as determined by the methods specified in
subsection (e)(3) of this Section, equal to or greater than 18.3 m/s
(60 ft/s) but less than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is allowed if the net
heating value of the gas being combusted is greater than 37.3
MJ/scm (
S
1000
S
1,000 Btu/scf).
C) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare designed for and operated
with an exit velocity, as determined by the methods specified in
subsection (e)(3) of this Section, less than the velocity, V, as
determined by the method specified in subsection (e)(4) of this
Section, and less than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is allowed.
5) An air-assisted flare must be designed and operated with an exit velocity
less than the velocity, V, as determined by the method specified in
subsection (e)(5) of this Section.
6) A flare used to comply with this Section must be steam-assisted, air-
assisted, or nonassisted.
e) Compliance determination and equations.
1) Reference Method 22 (Visual Determination of Fugitive Emissions from
Material Sources and Smoke Emissions from Flares) in appendix A to 40
CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b), must be used to determine the compliance of a flare
with the visible emission provisions of this Subpart AA. The observation
period is two hours and must be used according to Method 22.
2) The net heating value of the gas being combusted in a flare must be
calculated using the following equation:
∑
=
×
×
n
1
i
Hi
Ci
K
=
HT
Where:
389
H
B
T
B
S
is
S
= the net heating value of the sample in MJ/scm; where the
net enthalpy per mole of offgas is based on combustion at
25° C and 760 mm Hg, but the standard temperature for
determining the volume corresponding to 1 mole is 20° C
S
.
S
K = 1.74
×
S
10
S
P
S
7
S
P
S
S
10
P
-7
P
(1/ppm)(g mol/scm)(MJ/kcal) where the
standard temperature for (g mol/scm) is 20° C
S
.
S
Σ
(Xi)
S
means
S
= the sum of the values of X for each component i,
from i=1 to n
S
.
S
C
B
i
B
S
is
S
= the concentration of sample component i in ppm on a wet
basis, as measured for organics by Reference Method 18
(Measurement of Gaseous Organic Compound Emissions
by Gas Chromatography) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60
(Test Methods), and for carbon monoxide, by ASTM D
1946-90 (Standard Practice for Analysis of Reformed Gas
by Gas Chromatography), each incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
.
S
H
B
i
B
S
is
S
= the net heat of combustion of sample component i,
kcal/gmol at 25° C and 760 mm Hg. The heats of
combustion must be determined using ASTM D 2382-88
(Standard Test Method for Heat of Combustion of
Hydrocarbon Fuels by Bomb Calorimeter (High Precision
Method)), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), if published values are not available or
cannot be calculated.
3) The actual exit velocity of a flare must be determined by dividing the
volumetric flow rate (in units of standard temperature and pressure), as
determined by Reference Methods 2 (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity
and Volumetric Flow Rate (Type S Pitot Tube)), 2A (Direct Measurement
of Gas Volume through Pipes and Small Ducts), 2C (Determination of Gas
Velocity and Volumetric Flow Rate in Small Stacks or Ducts (Standard
Pitot Tube)), or 2D (Measurement of Gas Volume Flow Rates in Small
Pipes and Ducts) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b), as
appropriate, by the unobstructed (free) cross-sectional area of the flare tip.
4) The maximum allowed velocity in m/s, V
B
max
B
, for a flare complying with
subsection (d)(4)(C) of this Section must be determined by the following
equation:
390
()
log V
H 28.8
31.7
10 max
T
=
+
Where:
log
B
10
B
S
means
S
= logarithm to the base 10
H
B
T
B
S
is
S
= the net heating value as determined in subsection (e)(2) of
this Section.
5) The maximum allowed velocity in m/s, V
B
max
B
, for an air-assisted flare must
be determined by the following equation:
max
T
V
8.706 0.7084H
=+
Where:
H
B
T
B
S
is
S
= the net heating value as determined in subsection (e)(2) of
this Section.
f) The owner or operator must monitor and inspect each control device required to
comply with this Section to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the
control device by implementing the following requirements:
1) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate according to the manufacturer’s
specifications a flow indicator that provides a record of stream flow from
each affected process vent to the control device at least once every hour.
The flow indicator sensor must be installed in the vent stream at the
nearest feasible point to the control device inlet but before the point at
which the vent streams are combined.
2) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate according to the manufacturer’s
specifications a device to continuously monitor control device operation,
as follows:
A) For a thermal vapor incinerator, a temperature monitoring device
equipped with a continuous recorder. The device must have
accuracy of ±1 percent of the temperature being monitored in ° C
or ±0.5° C, whichever is greater. The temperature sensor must be
installed at a location in the combustion chamber downstream of
the combustion zone.
B) For a catalytic vapor incinerator, a temperature monitoring device
equipped with a continuous recorder. The device must be capable
of monitoring temperature at two locations and have an accuracy
of ±1 percent of the temperature being monitored in ° C or ±0.5° C,
391
whichever is greater. One temperature sensor must be installed in
the vent stream at the nearest feasible point to the catalyst bed inlet
and a second temperature sensor must be installed in the vent
stream at the nearest feasible point to the catalyst bed outlet.
C) For a flare, a heat sensing monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder that indicates the continuous ignition of the
pilot flame.
D) For a boiler or process heater having a design heat input capacity
less than 44 MW, a temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must have an accuracy of ±1
percent of the temperature being monitored in ° C or ±0.5° C,
whichever is greater. The temperature sensor must be installed at a
location in the furnace downstream of the combustion zone.
E) For a boiler or process heater having a design heat input capacity
greater than or equal to 44 MW, a monitoring device equipped
with a continuous recorder to measure parameters that indicate
good combustion operating practices are being used.
F) For a condenser, either of the following:
i) A monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder
to measure the concentration level of the organic
compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the condenser;
or
ii) A temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must be capable of
monitoring temperature with an accuracy of ±1 percent of
the temperature being monitored in ° C or ±0.5° C,
whichever is greater. The temperature sensor must be
installed at a location in the exhaust vent stream from the
condenser exit (i.e., product side).
G) For a carbon adsorption system that regenerates the carbon bed
directly in the control device such as a fixed-bed carbon adsorber,
either of the following:
i) A monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder
to measure the concentration level of the organic
compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the carbon bed,
or
ii) A monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder
392
to measure a parameter that indicates the carbon bed is
regenerated on a regular, predetermined time cycle.
3) Inspect the readings from each monitoring device required by subsections
(f)(1) and (f)(2) of this Section at least once each operating day to check
control device operation and, if necessary, immediately implement the
corrective measures necessary to ensure the control device operates in
compliance with the requirements of this Section.
g) An owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system such as a fixed-bed
carbon adsorber that regenerates the carbon bed directly onsite in the control
device must replace the existing carbon in the control device with fresh carbon at
a regular, predetermined time interval that is no longer than the carbon service life
established as a requirement of Section 724.935(b)(4)(C)(vi).
h) An owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system such as a carbon canister
that does not regenerate the carbon bed directly onsite in the control device must
replace the existing carbon in the control device with fresh carbon on a regular
basis by using one of the following procedures:
1) Monitor the concentration level of the organic compounds in the exhaust
vent stream from the carbon adsorption system on a regular schedule, and
replace the existing carbon with fresh carbon immediately when carbon
breakthrough is indicated. The monitoring frequency must be daily or at
an interval no greater than 20 percent of the time required to consume the
total carbon working capacity established as a requirement of Section
724.935(b)(4)(C)(vii), whichever is longer.
2) Replace the existing carbon with fresh carbon at a regular, predetermined
time interval that is less than the design carbon replacement interval
established as a requirement of Section 724.935(b)(4)(C)(vii).
i) An alternative operational or process parameter may be monitored if the operator
demonstrates that the parameter will ensure that the control device is operated in
conformance with these standards and the control device’s design specifications.
j) An owner or operator of an affected facility seeking to comply with the provisions
of this Part by using a control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator,
catalytic vapor incinerator, flare, boiler, process heater, condenser, or carbon
adsorption system is required to develop documentation including sufficient
information to describe the control device operation and identify the process
parameter or parameters that indicate proper operation and maintenance of the
control device.
k) A closed-vent system must meet either of the following design requirements:
393
1) A closed-vent system must be designed to operate with no detectable
emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less than 500 ppmv
above background, as determined by the methods specified at Section
724.934(b), and by visual inspections; or
2) A closed-vent system must be designed to operate at a pressure below
atmospheric pressure. The system must be equipped with at least one
pressure gauge or other pressure measurement device that can be read
from a readily accessible location to verify that negative pressure is being
maintained in the closed-vent system when the control device is operating.
l) The owner or operator must monitor and inspect each closed-vent system required
to comply with this Section to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the
closed-vent system by implementing the following requirements:
1) Each closed-vent system that is used to comply with subsection (k)(1) of
this Section must be inspected and monitored in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) An initial leak detection monitoring of the closed-vent system must
be conducted by the owner or operator on or before the date that
the system becomes subject to this Section. The owner or operator
must monitor the closed-vent system components and connections
using the procedures specified in Section 724.934(b) to
demonstrate that the closed-vent system operates with no
detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less
than 500 ppmv above background.
B) After initial leak detection monitoring required in subsection
(l)(1)(A) of this Section, the owner or operator must inspect and
monitor the closed-vent system as follows:
i) Closed-vent system joints, seams, or other connections that
are permanently or semi-permanently sealed (e.g., a welded
joint between two sections of hard piping or a bolted and
gasketed ducting flange) must be visually inspected at least
once per year to check for defects that could result in air
pollutant emissions. The owner or operator must monitor a
component or connection using the procedures specified in
Section 724.934(b) to demonstrate that it operates with no
detectable emissions following any time the component is
repaired or replaced (e.g., a section of damaged hard piping
is replaced with new hard piping) or the connection is
unsealed (e.g., a flange is unbolted).
ii) Closed-vent system components or connections other than
394
those specified in subsection (l)(1)(B)(i) of this Section
must be monitored annually and at other times as requested
by the Regional Administrator, except as provided for in
subsection (o) of this Section, using the procedures
specified in Section 724.934(b) to demonstrate that the
components or connections operate with no detectable
emissions.
C) In the event that a defect or leak is detected, the owner or operator
must repair the defect or leak in accordance with the requirements
of subsection (l)(3) of this Section.
D) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection
and monitoring in accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 724.935.
2) Each closed-vent system that is used to comply with subsection (k)(2) of
this Section must be inspected and monitored in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) The closed-vent system must be visually inspected by the owner or
operator to check for defects that could result in air pollutant
emissions. Defects include, but are not limited to, visible cracks,
holes, or gaps in ductwork or piping or loose connections.
B) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of the
closed-vent system on or before the date that the system becomes
subject to this Section. Thereafter, the owner or operator must
perform the inspections at least once every year.
C) In the event that a defect or leak is detected, the owner or operator
must repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of
subsection (l)(3) of this Section.
D) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection
and monitoring in accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 724.935.
3) The owner or operator must repair all detected defects as follows:
A) Detectable emissions, as indicated by visual inspection or by an
instrument reading greater than 500 ppmv above background, must
be controlled as soon as practicable, but not later than 15 calendar
days after the emission is detected, except as provided for in
subsection (l)(3)(C) of this Section.
395
B) A first attempt at repair must be made no later than five calendar
days after the emission is detected.
C) Delay of repair of a closed-vent system for which leaks have been
detected is allowed if the repair is technically infeasible without a
process unit shutdown, or if the owner or operator determines that
emissions resulting from immediate repair would be greater than
the fugitive emissions likely to result from delay of repair. Repair
of such equipment must be completed by the end of the next
process unit shutdown.
D) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the defect repair
in accordance with the requirements specified in Section 724.935.
m) A closed-vent system or control device used to comply with provisions of this
Subpart AA must be operated at all times when emissions may be vented to it.
n) The owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system to control air pollutant
emissions must document that all carbon removed that is a hazardous waste and
that is removed from the control device is managed in one of the following
manners, regardless of the volatile organic concentration of the carbon:
1) It is regenerated or reactivated in a thermal treatment unit that meets one
of the following:
A) The owner or operator of the unit has been issued a final permit
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements the
requirements of Subpart X of this Part; or
B) The unit is equipped with and operating air emission controls in
accordance with the applicable requirements of Subparts AA and
CC of this Part or Subparts AA and CC of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725;
or
C) The unit is equipped with and operating air emission controls in
accordance with a national emission standard for hazardous air
pollutants under 40 CFR 61 (National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants) or
S
40 CFR
S
63 (National Emission
Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories),
each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
2) It is incinerated in a hazardous waste incinerator for which the owner or
operator has done either of the following:
A) The owner or operator has been issued a final permit under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements the requirements of
396
Subpart O of this Part; or
B) The owner or operator has certified compliance in accordance with
the interim status requirements of Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.
3) It is burned in a boiler or industrial furnace for which the owner or
operator has done either of the following:
A) The owner or operator has been issued a final permit under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements the requirements of
Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726; or
B) The owner or operator has designed and operates the boiler or
industrial furnace in accordance with the interim status
requirements of Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.
o) Any components of a closed-vent system that are designated, as described in
Section 724.935(c)(9), as unsafe to monitor are exempt from the requirements of
subsection (l)(1)(B)(ii) of this Section if both of the following conditions are
fulfilled:
1) The owner or operator of the closed-vent system has determined that the
components of the closed-vent system are unsafe to monitor because
monitoring personnel would be exposed to an immediate danger as a
consequence of complying with subsection (l)(1)(B)(ii) of this Section;
and
2) The owner or operator of the closed-vent system adheres to a written plan
that requires monitoring the closed-vent system components using the
procedure specified in subsection (l)(1)(B)(ii) of this Section as frequently
as practicable during safe-to-monitor times.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.934 Test Methods and Procedures
a) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA must comply
with the test methods and procedures requirements provided in this Section
b) When a closed-vent system is tested for compliance with no detectable emissions,
as required in Section 724.933(l), the test must comply with the following
requirements:
1) Monitoring must comply with Reference Method 21 (Determination of
Volatile Organic Compound Leaks) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test
397
Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
2) The detection instrument must meet the performance criteria of Reference
Method 21.
3) The instrument must be calibrated before use on each day of its use by the
procedures specified in Reference Method 21.
4) Calibration gases must be as follows:
A) Zero air (less than 10 ppm of hydrocarbon in air); and
B) A mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a concentration of
approximately, but less than, 10,000 ppm methane or n-hexane.
5) The background level must be determined as set forth in Reference
Method 21.
6) The instrument probe must be traversed around all potential leak
interfaces as close to the interface as possible as described in Reference
Method 21.
7) The arithmetic difference between the maximum concentration indicated
by the instrument and the background level is compared with 500 ppm for
determining compliance.
c) Performance tests to determine compliance with Section 724.932(a) and with the
total organic compound concentration limit of Section 724.933(c) must comply
with the following:
1) Performance tests to determine total organic compound concentrations and
mass flow rates entering and exiting control devices must be conducted
and data reduced in accordance with the following reference methods and
calculation procedures:
A) Method 2 (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity and Volumetric
Flow Rate (Type S Pitot Tube)) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test
Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b), for velocity and volumetric flow rate.
B) Method 18 (Measurement of Gaseous Organic Compound
Emissions by Gas Chromatography) or Method 25A
(Determination of Total Gaseous Organic Concentration Using a
Flame Ionization Analyzer) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test
Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
398
720.111(b), for organic content. If Method 25A is used, the
organic HAP used as the calibration gas must be the single organic
HAP representing the largest percent by volume of the emissions.
The use of Method 25A is acceptable if the response from the
high-level calibration gas is at least 20 times the standard deviation
of the response from the zero calibration gas when the instrument
is zeroed on the most sensitive scale.
C) Each performance test must consist of three separate runs, each run
conducted for at least one hour under the conditions that exist
when the hazardous waste management unit is operating at the
highest load or capacity level reasonably expected to occur. For
the purpose of determining total organic compound concentrations
and mass flow rates, the average of results of all runs applies. The
average must be computed on a time-weighed basis.
D) Total organic mass flow rates must be determined by the following
equation:
i) For a source using Method 18:
h
2sd
i
i
-6
E
= Q
x(
n
i = 1
C x MW )x0.0416x10
∑
Where:
E
B
h
B
= The total organic mass flow rate, kg/h
S
.
S
Q
B
2sd
B
= The volumetric flow rate of gases entering
or exiting control device, dscm/h, as
determined by Method 2
S
in 40 CFR 60,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111.
S
n = The number of organic compounds in the
vent gas
S
.
S
C
B
i
B
= The organic concentration in ppm, dry basis,
of compound i in the vent gas, as determined
by Method 18
S
in 40 CFR 60.
S
MW
B
i
B
= The molecular weight of organic compound
i in the vent gas, kg/kg-mol
S
.
S
399
0.0416 = The conversion factor for molar volume,
kg-mol/m
P
3
P
, at 293 K and 760 mm Hg
S
.
S
10
P
-6
P
= The conversion factor from ppm.
ii) For a source using Method 25A:
-6
h
10
0.0416
MW
C
Q
=
E
×
×
×
×
Where:
E
B
h
B
= The total organic mass flow rate, kg/h
Q = The volumetric flow rate of gases entering
or exiting control device, dscm/h, as
determined by Method 2
C = The organic concentration in ppm, dry basis,
of compound i in the vent gas, as determined
by Method 25A
MW = The molecular weight of propane, 44 kg/kg-
mol
0.0416 = The conversion factor for molar volume,
kg-mol/m
P
3
P
, at 293 K and 760 mm Hg
10
P
-6
P
= The conversion factor from ppm.
E) The annual total organic emission rate must be determined by the
following equation:
A = F
×
H
Where:
A
S
is
S
= total organic emission rate, kg/y
S
.
S
F
S
is
S
=
the total organic mass flow rate, kg/h, as calculated
in subsection (c)(1)(D) of this Section.
H
S
is
S
= the total annual hours of operation for the affected
unit.
400
F) Total organic emissions from all affected process vents at the
facility must be determined by summing the hourly total organic
mass emissions rates (F as determined in subsection (c)(1)(D) of
this Section) and by summing the annual total organic mass
emission rates (A as determined in subsection (c)(1)(E) of this
Section) for all affected process vents at the facility.
2) The owner or operator must record such process information as is
necessary to determine the conditions of the performance tests.
Operations during periods of startup, shutdown, and malfunction do not
constitute representative conditions for the purpose of a performance test.
3) The owner or operator of an affected facility must provide, or cause to be
provided, performance testing facilities as follows:
A) Sampling ports adequate for the test methods specified in
subsection (c)(1) of this Section.
B) Safe sampling platforms.
C) Safe access to sampling platforms.
D) Utilities for sampling and testing equipment.
4) For the purpose of making compliance determinations, the time-weighted
average of the results of the three runs must apply. In the event that a
sample is accidentally lost or conditions occur in which one of the three
runs must be discontinued because of forced shutdown, failure of an
irreplaceable portion of the sample train, extreme meteorological
conditions, or other circumstances beyond the owner or operator’s control,
compliance may, upon the Agency’s approval, be determined using the
average of the results of the two other runs.
d) To show that a process vent associated with a hazardous waste distillation,
fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping
operation is not subject to the requirements of this Subpart AA, the owner or
operator must make an initial determination that the time-weighted, annual
average total organic concentration of the waste managed by the waste
management unit is less than 10 ppmw using one of the following two methods:
1) Direct measurement of the organic concentration of the waste using the
following procedures:
A) The owner or operator must take a minimum of four grab samples
of waste for each wastestream managed in the affected unit under
process conditions expected to cause the maximum waste organic
401
concentration.
B) For waste generated onsite, the grab samples must be collected at a
point before the waste is exposed to the atmosphere, such as in an
enclosed pipe or other closed system that is used to transfer the
waste after generation to the first affected distillation,
fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or
steam stripping operation. For waste generated offsite, the grab
samples must be collected at the inlet to the first waste
management unit that receives the waste provided the waste has
been transferred to the facility in a closed system such as a tank
truck and the waste is not diluted or mixed with other waste.
C) Each sample must be analyzed and the total organic concentration
of the sample must be computed using Method
S
9060
S
9060A (Total
Organic Carbon)
S
or 8260
S
of “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), or analyzed for its individual
constituents.
D) The arithmetic mean of the results of the analyses of the four
samples apply for each wastestream managed in the unit in
determining the time-weighted, annual average total organic
concentration of the waste. The time-weighted average is to be
calculated using the annual quantity of each waste stream
processed and the mean organic concentration of each wastestream
managed in the unit.
2) Using knowledge of the waste to determine that its total organic
concentration is less than 10 ppmw. Documentation of the waste
determination is required. Examples of documentation that must be used
to support a determination under this subsection (d)(2) include the
following:
A) Production process information documenting that no organic
compounds are used;
B) Information that the waste is generated by a process that is
identical to a process at the same or another facility that has
previously been demonstrated by direct measurement to generate a
wastestream having a total organic content less than 10 ppmw; or
C) Prior speciation analysis results on the same wastestream where it
is also documented that no process changes have occurred since
that analysis that could affect the waste total organic concentration.
402
e) The determination that a distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent
extraction, or air or steam stripping operation that manages hazardous wastes that
have time-weighted, annual average total organic concentrations less than 10
ppmw must be made as follows:
1) By the effective date that the facility becomes subject to the provisions of
this Subpart AA or by the date when the waste is first managed in a waste
management unit, whichever is later; and either of the following:
2) For continuously generated waste, annually; or
3) Whenever there is a change in the waste being managed or a change in the
process that generates or treats the waste.
f) When an owner or operator and the Agency do not agree on whether a distillation,
fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping
operation manages a hazardous waste with organic concentrations of at least 10
ppmw based on knowledge of the waste,
S
the procedures in Method 8260 in SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111,
S
direct measurement
may be used to resolve the dispute, as specified in subsection (d)(1) of this
Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART BB: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR EQUIPMENT LEAKS
Section 724.935 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Compliance Required.
1) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA must
comply with the recordkeeping requirements of this Section.
2) An owner or operator of more than one hazardous waste management unit
subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA may comply with the
recordkeeping requirements for these hazardous waste management units
in one recordkeeping system if the system identifies each record by each
hazardous waste management unit.
b) Owners and operators must record the following information in the facility
operating record:
1) For facilities that comply with the provisions of Section 724.933(a)(2), an
implementation schedule that includes dates by which the closed-vent
system and control device will be installed and in operation. The schedule
403
must also include a rationale of why the installation cannot be completed
at an earlier date. The implementation schedule must be in the facility
operating record by the effective date that the facility becomes subject to
the provisions of this Subpart AA.
2) Up-to-date documentation of compliance with the process vent standards
in Section 724.932, including the following:
A) Information and data identifying all affected process vents, annual
throughput, and operating hours of each affected unit, estimated
emission rates for each affected vent and for the overall facility
(i.e., the total emissions for all affected vents at the facility), and
the approximate location within the facility of each affected unit
(e.g., identify the hazardous waste management units on a facility
plot plan).
B) Information and data supporting determination of vent emissions
and emission reductions achieved by add-on control devices based
on engineering calculations or source tests. For the purpose of
determining compliance, determinations of vent emissions and
emission reductions must be made using operating parameter
values (e.g., temperatures, flow rates, or vent stream organic
compounds and concentrations) that represent the conditions that
result in maximum organic emissions, such as when the waste
management unit is operating at the highest load or capacity level
reasonably expected to occur. If the owner or operator takes any
action (e.g., managing a waste of different composition or
increasing operating hours of affected waste management units)
that would result in an increase in total organic emissions from
affected process vents at the facility, then a new determination is
required.
3) Where an owner or operator chooses to use test data to determine the
organic removal efficiency or total organic compound concentration
achieved by the control device, a performance test plan. The test plan
must include the following:
A) A description of how it is determined that the planned test is going
to be conducted when the hazardous waste management unit is
operating at the highest load or capacity level reasonably expected
to occur. This must include the estimated or design flow rate and
organic content of each vent stream and define the acceptable
operating ranges of key process and control device parameters
during the test program.
B) A detailed engineering description of the closed-vent system and
404
control device including the following:
i) Manufacturer’s name and model number of control device;
ii) Type of control device;
iii) Dimensions of the control device;
iv) Capacity; and
v) Construction materials.
C) A detailed description of sampling and monitoring procedures,
including sampling and monitoring locations in the system, the
equipment to be used, sampling and monitoring frequency, and
planned analytical procedures for sample analysis.
4) Documentation of compliance with Section 724.933 must include the
following information:
A) A list of all information references and sources used in preparing
the documentation.
B) Records, including the dates of each compliance test required by
Section 724.933(k).
C) If engineering calculations are used, a design analysis,
specifications, drawings, schematics, and piping and
instrumentation diagrams based on the appropriate sections of
“APTI Course 415: Control of Gaseous Emissions,”
S
(
S
USEPA
publication number EPA-450/2-81-005, incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111)
S
720.111(a), or other engineering
texts, approved by the Agency, that present basic control device
design information. Documentation provided by the control device
manufacturer or vendor that describes the control device design in
accordance with subsections (b)(4)(C)(i) through (b)(4)(C)(vii) of
this Section may be used to comply with this requirement. The
design analysis must address the vent stream characteristics and
control device operation parameters as specified below.
i) For a thermal vapor incinerator, the design analysis must
consider the vent stream composition, constituent
concentrations, and flow rate. The design analysis must
also establish the design minimum and average temperature
in the combustion zone and the combustion zone residence
time.
405
ii) For a catalytic vapor incinerator, the design analysis must
consider the vent stream composition, constituent
concentrations, and flow rate. The design analysis must
also establish the design minimum and average
temperatures across the catalyst bed inlet and outlet.
iii) For a boiler or process heater, the design analysis must
consider the vent stream composition, constituent
concentrations, and flow rate. The design analysis must
also establish the design minimum and average flame zone
temperatures, combustion zone residence time and
description of method and location where the vent stream is
introduced into the combustion zone.
iv) For a flare, the design analysis must consider the vent
stream composition, constituent concentrations, and flow
rate. The design analysis must also consider the
requirements specified in Section 724.933(d).
v) For a condenser, the design analysis must consider the vent
stream composition, constituent concentrations, flow rate,
relative humidity and temperature. The design analysis
must also establish the design outlet organic compound
concentration level, design average temperature of the
condenser exhaust vent stream and design average
temperatures of the coolant fluid at the condenser inlet and
outlet.
vi) For a carbon adsorption system, such as a fixed-bed
adsorber that regenerates the carbon bed directly onsite in
the control device, the design analysis must consider the
vent stream composition, constituent concentrations, flow
rate, relative humidity and temperature. The design
analysis must also establish the design exhaust vent stream
organic compound concentration level, number and
capacity of carbon beds, type and working capacity of
activated carbon used for carbon beds, design total steam
flow over the period of each complete carbon bed
regeneration cycle, duration of the carbon bed steaming and
cooling/drying cycles, design carbon bed temperature after
regeneration, design carbon bed regeneration time and
design service life of carbon.
vii) For a carbon adsorption system, such as a carbon canister
that does not regenerate the carbon bed directly onsite in
406
the control device, the design analysis must consider the
vent stream composition, constituent concentrations, flow
rate, relative humidity and temperature. The design
analysis must also establish the design outlet organic
concentration level, capacity of carbon bed, type and
working capacity of activated carbon used for carbon bed
and design carbon replacement interval based on the total
carbon working capacity of the control device and source
operating schedule.
D) A statement signed and dated by the owner or operator certifying
that the operating parameters used in the design analysis
reasonably represent the conditions that exist when the hazardous
waste management unit is or would be operating at the highest load
or capacity level reasonably expected to occur.
E) A statement signed and dated by the owner or operator certifying
that the control device is designed to operate at an efficiency of 95
percent or greater unless the total organic concentration limit of
Section 724.932(a) is achieved at an efficiency less than 95 weight
percent or the total organic emission limits of Section 724.932(a)
for affected process vents at the facility are attained by a control
device involving vapor recovery at an efficiency less than 95
weight percent. A statement provided by the control device
manufacturer or vendor certifying that the control equipment meets
the design specifications may be used to comply with this
requirement.
F) If performance tests are used to demonstrate compliance, all test
results.
c) Design documentation and monitoring operating and inspection information for
each closed-vent system and control device required to comply with the
provisions of this Part must be recorded and kept up-to-date in the facility
operating record. The information must include the following:
1) Description and date of each modification that is made to the closed-vent
system or control device design.
2) Identification of operating parameter, description of monitoring device,
and diagram of monitoring sensor location or locations used to comply
with Section 724.933(f)(1) and (f)(2).
3) Monitoring, operating and inspection information required by Section
724.933(f) through (k).
407
4) Date, time, and duration of each period that occurs while the control
device is operating when any monitored parameter exceeds the value
established in the control device design analysis as specified below:
A) For a thermal vapor incinerator designed to operate with a
minimum residence time of 0.50 second at a minimum temperature
of 760° C, any period when the combustion temperature is below
760° C.
B) For a thermal vapor incinerator designed to operate with an
organic emission reduction efficiency of 95 weight percent or
greater, any period when the combustion zone temperature is more
than 28° C below the design average combustion zone temperature
established as a requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(i) of this
Section.
C) For a catalytic vapor incinerator, any period when:
i) Temperature of the vent stream at the catalyst bed inlet is
more than 28° C below the average temperature of the inlet
vent stream established as a requirement of subsection
(b)(4)(C)(ii) of this Section; or
ii) Temperature difference across the catalyst bed is less than
80% of the design average temperature difference
established as a requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(ii) of
this Section.
D) For a boiler or process heater, any period when either of the
following occurs:
i) Flame zone temperature is more than 28° C below the
design average flame zone temperature established as a
requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(iii) of this Section; or
ii) Position changes where the vent stream is introduced to the
combustion zone from the location established as a
requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(iii) of this Section.
E) For a flare, period when the pilot flame is not ignited.
F) For a condenser that complies with Section 724.933(f)(2)(F)(i),
any period when the organic compound concentration level or
readings of organic compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the
condenser are more than 20 percent greater than the design outlet
organic compound concentration level established as a requirement
408
of subsection (b)(4)(C)(v) of this Section.
G) For a condenser that complies with Section 724.933(f)(2)(F)(ii),
any period when the following occurs:
i) Temperature of the exhaust vent stream from the condenser
is more than 6° C above the design average exhaust vent
stream temperature established as a requirement of
subsection (b)(4)(C)(v) of this Section.
ii) Temperature of the coolant fluid exiting the condenser is
more than 6° C above the design average coolant fluid
temperature at the condenser outlet established as a
requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(v) of this Section.
H) For a carbon adsorption system such as a fixed-bed carbon
adsorber that regenerates the carbon bed directly onsite in the
control device and complies with Section 724.933(f)(2)(G)(i), any
period when the organic compound concentration level or readings
of organic compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the carbon
bed are more than 20 percent greater than the design exhaust vent
stream organic compound concentration level established as a
requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(vi) of this Section.
I) For a carbon adsorption system such as a fixed-bed carbon
adsorber that regenerates the carbon bed directly onsite in the
control device and complies with Section 724.933(f)(2)(G)(ii), any
period when the vent stream continues to flow through the control
device beyond the predetermined carbon bed regeneration time
established as a requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(vi) of this
Section.
5) Explanation for each period recorded under subsection (c)(4) of this
Section of the cause for control device operating parameter exceeding the
design value and the measures implemented to correct the control device
operation.
6) For a carbon adsorption system operated subject to requirements specified
in Section 724.933(g) or (h)(2), any date when existing carbon in the
control device is replaced with fresh carbon.
7) For a carbon adsorption system operated subject to requirements specified
in Section 724.933(h)(1), a log that records the following:
A) Date and time when control device is monitored for carbon
breakthrough and the monitoring device reading; and
409
B) Date when existing carbon in the control device is replaced with
fresh carbon.
8) Date of each control device startup and shutdown.
9) An owner or operator designating any components of a closed-vent system
as unsafe to monitor pursuant to Section 724.933(o) must record in a log
that is kept in the facility operating record the identification of closed-vent
system components that are designated as unsafe to monitor in accordance
with the requirements of Section 724.933(o), an explanation for each
closed-vent system component stating why the closed-vent system
component is unsafe to monitor, and the plan for monitoring each closed-
vent system component.
10) When each leak is detected, as specified in Section 724.933(l), the
following information must be recorded:
A) The instrument identification number; the closed-vent system
component identification number; and the operator name, initials,
or identification number.
B) The date the leak was detected and the date of first attempt to
repair the leak.
C) The date of successful repair of the leak.
D) Maximum instrument reading measured by Method 21
(Determination of Volatile Organic Compound Leaks) of appendix
A to 40 CFR 60
S
, appendix A
S
(Test Methods), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b), after it is
successfully repaired or determined to be nonrepairable.
E) “Repair delayed” and the reason for the delay if a leak is not
repaired within 15 calendar days after discovery of the leak.
i) The owner or operator may develop a written procedure
that identifies the conditions that justify a delay of repair.
In such cases, reasons for delay of repair may be
documented by citing the relevant sections of the written
procedure.
ii) If delay of repair was caused by depletion of stocked parts,
there must be documentation that the spare parts were
sufficiently stocked on-site before depletion and the reason
for depletion.
410
d) Records of the monitoring, operating, and inspection information required by
subsections (c)(3) through (c)(10) of this Section must be kept at least three years
following the date of each occurrence, measurement, corrective action, or record.
e) For a control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator, catalytic vapor
incinerator, flare, boiler, process heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption system,
the Agency must specify the appropriate recordkeeping requirements.
f) Up-to-date information and data used to determine whether or not a process vent
is subject to the requirements in Section 724.932, including supporting
documentation as required by Section 724.934(d)(2), when application of the
knowledge of the nature of the hazardous wastestream or the process by which it
was produced is used, must be recorded in a log that is kept in the facility
operating record.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART BB: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR EQUIPMENT LEAKS
Section 724.950 Applicability
a) The regulations in this Subpart BB apply to owners and operators of facilities that
treat, store, or dispose of hazardous wastes (except as provided in Section
724.101).
b) Except as provided in Section 724.964(k), this Subpart BB applies to equipment
that contains or contacts hazardous wastes with organic concentrations of at least
10 percent by weight that are managed in one of the following:
1) A unit that is subject to the RCRA permitting requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, and 705,
2) A unit (including a hazardous waste recycling unit) that is not exempt
from permitting under the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134(a)
(i.e., a hazardous waste recycling unit that is not a “90-day” tank or
container) and that is located at a hazardous waste management facility
otherwise subject to the permitting requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702,
703, and 705, or
3) A unit that is exempt from permitting under the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.134(a) (i.e., a “90-day” tank or container) and which is not a
recycling unit under the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.106.
c) For the owner or operator of a facility subject to this Subpart BB that received a
final permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 prior to December 6,
411
1996, the requirements of this Subpart BB must be incorporated into the permit
when the permit is reissued, renewed, or modified in accordance with the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703 and 705. Until such date when the owner
or operator receives a final permit incorporating the requirements of this Subpart
BB, the owner or operator is subject to the requirements of Subpart BB of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.
d) Each piece of equipment to which this Subpart BB applies must be marked in
such a manner that it can be distinguished readily from other pieces of equipment.
e) Equipment that is in vacuum service is excluded from the requirements of
Sections 724.952 to 724.960, if it is identified as required in Section
724.964(g)(5).
f) Equipment that contains or contacts hazardous waste with an organic
concentration of at least 10 percent by weight for less than 300 hours per calendar
year is excluded from the requirements of Sections 724.952 through 724.960 if it
is identified as required in Section 724.964(g)(6).
g) This subsection (g) corresponds with 40 CFR 264.1050(g), which relates
exclusively to a facility outside Illinois. This statement maintains structural
consistency with the corresponding federal regulations.
h) Purged coatings and solvents from surface coating operations subject to the
federal national emission standards for hazardous air pollutants (NESHAPs) for
the surface coating of automobiles and light-duty trucks at
S
Subpart
S
subpart IIII of
40 CFR 63
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b),
S
(National
Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Surface Coating of
Automobiles and Light-Duty Trucks) are not subject to the requirements of this
Subpart BB.
BOARD NOTE: The requirements of Sections 724.952 through 724.965 apply to equipment
associated with hazardous waste recycling units previously exempt under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.106(c)(1). Other exemptions under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.104 and 724.101(g) are not
affected by these requirements.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.963 Test Methods and Procedures
a) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Subpart BB must comply
with the test methods and procedures requirements provided in this Section.
b) Leak detection monitoring, as required in Sections 724.952 through 724.962,
must comply with the following requirements:
412
1) Monitoring must comply with Reference Method 21 (Determination of
Volatile Organic Compound Leaks) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test
Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
2) The detection instrument must meet the performance criteria of Reference
Method 21.
3) The instrument must be calibrated before use on each day of its use by the
procedures specified in Reference Method 21.
4) Calibration gases must be as follows:
A) Zero air (less than 10 ppm of hydrocarbon in air); and
B) A mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a concentration of
approximately, but less than 10,000 ppm methane or n-hexane.
5) The instrument probe must be traversed around all potential leak
interfaces as close to the interface as possible as described in Reference
Method 21.
c) When equipment is tested for compliance with no detectable emissions, as
required in Sections 724.952(e), 724.953(i), 724.954, and 724.957(f), the test
must comply with the following requirements:
1) The requirements of subsections (b)(1) through (b)(4) of this Section
apply.
2) The background level must be determined as set forth in Reference
Method 21.
3) The instrument probe must be traversed around all potential leak
interfaces as close to the interface as possible as described in Reference
Method 21.
4) This arithmetic difference between the maximum concentration indicated
by the instrument and the background level is compared with 500 ppm for
determining compliance.
d) In accordance with the waste analysis plan required by Section 724.113(b), an
owner or operator of a facility must determine, for each piece of equipment,
whether the equipment contains or contacts a hazardous waste with organic
concentration that equals or exceeds 10 percent by weight using the following:
1) Methods described in ASTM Methods D 2267-88 (Standard Test Method
413
for Aromatics in Light Naphthas and Aviation Gasolines by Gas
Chromatography), E 168-88 (Standard Practices for General Techniques
of Infrared Quantitative Analysis), E 169-87 (Standard Practices for
General Techniques of Ultraviolet-Visible Quantitative Analysis),
S
and
S
or
E 260-85 (Standard Practice for Packed Column Gas Chromatography),
each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a);
2) Method
S
9060 or 8260
S
9060A (Total Organic Carbon) of “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), for computing total organic concentration
of the sample, or analyzed for its individual constituents; or
3) Application of the knowledge of the nature of the hazardous wastestream
or the process by which it was produced. Documentation of a waste
determination by knowledge is required. Examples of documentation that
must be used to support a determination under this provision include
production process information documenting that no organic compounds
are used, information that the waste is generated by a process that is
identical to a process at the same or another facility that has previously
been demonstrated by direct measurement to have a total organic content
less than 10 percent, or prior speciation analysis results on the same
wastestream where it is also documented that no process changes have
occurred since that analysis that could affect the waste total organic
concentration.
e) If an owner or operator determines that a piece of equipment contains or contacts
a hazardous waste with organic concentrations at least 10 percent by weight, the
determination can be revised only after following the procedures in subsection
(d)(1) or (d)(2) of this Section.
f) When an owner or operator and the Agency do not agree on whether a piece of
equipment contains or contacts a hazardous waste with organic concentrations at
least 10 percent by weight, the procedures in subsection (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this
Section must be used to resolve the dispute.
g) Samples used in determining the percent organic content must be representative
of the highest total organic content hazardous waste that is expected to be
contained in or contact the equipment.
h) To determine if pumps or valves are in light liquid service, the vapor pressures of
constituents must either be obtained from standard reference texts or be
determined by ASTM D 2879-92 (Standard Test Method for Vapor Pressure-
Temperature Relationship and Initial Decomposition Temperature of Liquids by
Isoteniscope), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
414
i) Performance tests to determine if a control device achieves 95 weight percent
organic emission reduction must comply with the procedures of Section
724.934(c)(1) through (c)(4).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.964 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Lumping Units.
1) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Subpart BB must
comply with the recordkeeping requirements of this Section.
2) An owner or operator of more than one hazardous waste management unit
subject to the provisions of this Subpart BB may comply with the
recordkeeping requirements for these hazardous waste management units
in one recordkeeping system if the system identifies each record by each
hazardous waste management unit.
b) Owners and operators must record the following information in the facility
operating record:
1) For each piece of equipment to which this Subpart BB applies, the
following:
A) Equipment identification number and hazardous waste
management unit identification.
B) Approximate locations within the facility (e.g., identify the
hazardous waste management unit on a facility plot plan).
C) Type of equipment (e.g., a pump or pipeline valve).
D) Percent-by-weight total organics in the hazardous wastestream at
the equipment.
E) Hazardous waste state at the equipment (e.g., gas-vapor or liquid).
F) Method of compliance with the standard (e.g., “monthly leak
detection and repair” or “equipped with dual mechanical seals”).
2) For facilities that comply with the provisions of Section 724.933(a)(2), an
implementation schedule, as specified in that Section.
3) Where an owner or operator chooses to use test data to demonstrate the
415
organic removal efficiency or total organic compound concentration
achieved by the control device, a performance test plan, as specified in
Section 724.935(b)(3).
4) Documentation of compliance with Section 724.960, including the
detailed design documentation or performance test results specified in
Section 724.935(b)(4).
c) When each leak is detected as specified in Sections 724.952, 724.953, 724.957, or
724.958, the following requirements apply:
1) A weatherproof and readily visible identification, marked with the
equipment identification number, the date evidence of a potential leak was
found in accordance with Section 724.958(a), and the date the leak was
detected, must be attached to the leaking equipment.
2) The identification on equipment except on a valve, may be removed after
it has been repaired.
3) The identification on a valve may be removed after it has been monitored
for two successive months as specified in Section 724.957(c) and no leak
has been detected during those two months.
d) When each leak is detected as specified in Section 724.952, 724.953, 724.957, or
724.958, the following information must be recorded in an inspection log and
must be kept in the facility operating record:
1) The instrument and operator identification numbers and the equipment
identification number.
2) The date evidence of a potential leak was found in accordance with
Section 724.958(a).
3) The date the leak was detected and the dates of each attempt to repair the
leak.
4) Repair methods applied in each attempt to repair the leak.
5) “Above 10,000,” if the maximum instrument reading measured by the
methods specified in Section 724.963(b) after each repair attempt is equal
to or greater than 10,000 ppm.
6) “Repair delayed” and the reason for the delay if a leak is not repaired
within 15 calendar days after discovery of the leak.
7) Documentation supporting the delay of repair of a valve in compliance
416
with Section 724.959(c).
8) The signature of the owner or operator (or designate) whose decision it
was that repair could not be effected without a hazardous waste
management unit shutdown.
9) The expected date of successful repair of the leak if a leak is not repaired
within 15 calendar days.
10) The date of successful repair of the leak.
e) Design documentation and monitoring, operating, and inspection information for
each closed-vent system and control device required to comply with the
provisions of Section 724.960 must be recorded and kept up-to-date in the facility
operating record, as specified in Section 724.935(c)(1) and (c)(2), and monitoring,
operating and inspection information in Section 724.935(c)(3) through (c)(8).
f) For a control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator, catalytic vapor
incinerator, flare, boiler, process heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption system,
the Agency must specify the appropriate recordkeeping requirements, indicating
proper operation and maintenance of the control device, in the RCRA permit.
g) The following information pertaining to all equipment subject to the requirements
in Sections 724.952 through 724.960 must be recorded in a log that is kept in the
facility operating record:
1) A list of identification numbers for equipment (except welded fittings)
subject to the requirements of this Subpart BB.
2) List of Equipment
A) A list of identification numbers for equipment that the owner or
operator elects to designate for no detectable emissions, as
indicated by an instrument reading of less than 500 ppm above
background, under the provisions of Sections 724.952(e),
724.953(i), and 724.957(f).
B) The designation of this equipment as subject to the requirements of
Section 724.952(e), 724.953(i), or 724.957(f) must be signed by
the owner or operator.
3) A list of equipment identification numbers for pressure relief devices
required to comply with Section 724.954(a).
4) Compliance tests.
417
A) The dates of each compliance test required in Sections 724.952(e),
724.953(i), 724.954, and 724.957(f).
B) The background level measured during each compliance test.
C) The maximum instrument reading measured at the equipment
during each compliance test.
5) A list of identification numbers for equipment in vacuum service.
6) Identification, either by list or location (area or group), of equipment that
contains or contacts hazardous waste with an organic concentration of at
least 10 percent by weight for less than 300 hours per year.
h) The following information pertaining to all valves subject to the requirements of
Section 724.957(g) and (h) must be recorded in a log that is kept in the facility
operating record:
1) A list of identification numbers for valves that are designated as unsafe to
monitor, an explanation for each valve stating why the valve is unsafe to
monitor, and the plan for monitoring each valve.
2) A list of identification numbers for valves that are designated as difficult
to monitor, an explanation for each valve stating why the valve is difficult
to monitor, and the planned schedule for monitoring each valve.
i) The following information must be recorded in the facility operating record for
valves complying with Section 724.962:
1) A schedule of monitoring.
2) The percent of valves found leaking during each monitoring period.
j) The following information must be recorded in a log that is kept in the facility
operating record:
1) Criteria required in Sections 724.952(d)(5)(B) and 724.953(e)(2) and an
explanation of the design criteria.
2) Any changes to these criteria and the reasons for the changes.
k) The following information must be recorded in a log that is kept in the facility
operating record for use in determining exemptions, as provided in Section
724.950 and other specific Subparts:
1) An analysis determining the design capacity of the hazardous waste
418
management unit.
2) A statement listing the hazardous waste influent to and effluent from each
hazardous waste management unit subject to the requirements in Section
724.960 and an analysis determining whether these hazardous wastes are
heavy liquids.
3) An up-to-date analysis and the supporting information and data used to
determine whether or not equipment is subject to the requirements in
Sections 724.952 through 724.960. The record must include supporting
documentation as required by Section 724.963(d)(3) when application of
the knowledge of the nature of the hazardous wastestream or the process
by which it was produced is used. If the owner or operator takes any
action (e.g., changing the process that produced the waste) that could
result in an increase in the total organic content of the waste contained in
or contacted by equipment determined not to be subject to the
requirements in Sections 724.952 through 724.960, then a new
determination is required.
l) Records of the equipment leak information required by subsection (d) of this
Section and the operating information required by subsection (e) of this Section
need be kept only three years.
m) The owner or operator of any facility with equipment that is subject to this
Subpart BB and to regulations at federal 40 CFR 60 (Standards of Performance
for New Stationary Sources), 61 (National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air
Pollutants), or 63 (National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for
Source Categories)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
, may
elect to determine compliance with this Subpart BB by documentation of
compliance either pursuant to Section 724.964 or by documentation of
compliance with the regulations at 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63, pursuant to the relevant
provisions of 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63, each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(b). The documentation of compliance under the regulation
at 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63 must be kept with or made readily available with the
facility operating record.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART CC: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR TANKS, SURFACE
IMPOUNDMENTS, AND CONTAINERS
Section 724.980 Applicability
a) The requirements of this Subpart CC apply to owners and operators of all
facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste in tanks, surface
impoundments, or containers subject to Subpart I, J, or K of this Part, except as
419
Section 724.101 and subsection (b) of this Section provide otherwise.
b) The requirements of this Subpart CC do not apply to the following waste
management units at the facility:
1) A waste management unit that holds hazardous waste placed in the unit
before December 6, 1996, and in which no hazardous waste is added to the
unit on or after December 6, 1996.
2) A container that has a design capacity less than or equal to 0.1 m
P
3
P
(3.5 ft
P
3
P
or 26.4 gal).
3) A tank in which an owner or operator has stopped adding hazardous waste
and the owner or operator has begun implementing or completed closure
pursuant to an approved closure plan.
4) A surface impoundment in which an owner or operator has stopped adding
hazardous waste (except to implement an approved closure plan) and the
owner or operator has begun implementing or completed closure pursuant
to an approved closure plan.
5) A waste management unit that is used solely for on-site treatment or
storage of hazardous waste that is placed in the unit as a result of
implementing remedial activities required pursuant to the Act or Board
regulations or under the corrective action authorities of RCRA section
3004(u), 3004(v), or 3008(h); CERCLA authorities; or similar federal or
State authorities.
6) A waste management unit that is used solely for the management of
radioactive mixed waste in accordance with all applicable regulations
under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 USC 2011 et
seq.) and the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (42 USC 10101 et seq.).
7) A hazardous waste management unit that the owner or operator certifies is
equipped with and operating air emission controls in accordance with the
requirements of an applicable federal Clean Air Act regulation codified
under 40 CFR 60 (Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources),
61 (National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants), or 63
(National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source
Categories). For the purpose of complying with this subsection (b)(7), a
tank for which the air emission control includes an enclosure, as opposed
to a cover, must be in compliance with the enclosure and control device
requirements of Section 724.984(i), except as provided in Section
724.982(c)(5).
8) A tank that has a process vent, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.931.
420
c) For the owner and operator of a facility subject to this Subpart CC and that
received a final RCRA permit prior to December 6, 1996, the requirements of this
Subpart CC must be incorporated into the permit when the permit is reissued,
renewed, or modified in accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
703 and 705. Until the date when the owner and operator receives a final permit
incorporating the requirements of this Subpart CC, the owner and operator are
subject to the requirements of Subpart CC of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
d) The requirements of this Subpart CC, except for the recordkeeping requirements
specified in Section 724.989(i), are stayed for a tank or container used for the
management of hazardous waste generated by organic peroxide manufacturing
and its associated laboratory operations, when the owner or operator of the unit
meets all of the following conditions:
1) The owner or operator identifies that the tank or container receives
hazardous waste generated by an organic peroxide manufacturing process
producing more than one functional family of organic peroxides or
multiple organic peroxides within one functional family, that one or more
of these organic peroxides could potentially undergo self-accelerating
thermal decomposition at or below ambient temperatures, and that organic
peroxides are the predominant products manufactured by the process. For
the purposes of this subsection (d), “organic peroxide” means an organic
compound that contains the bivalent -O-O- structure and which may be
considered to be a structural derivative of hydrogen peroxide where one or
both of the hydrogen atoms has been replaced by an organic radical.
2) The owner or operator prepares documentation, in accordance with
Section 724.989(i), explaining why an undue safety hazard would be
created if air emission controls specified in Sections 724.984 through
724.987 are installed and operated on the tanks and containers used at the
facility to manage the hazardous waste generated by the organic peroxide
manufacturing process or processes meeting the conditions of subsection
(d)(1) of this Section.
3) The owner or operator notifies the Agency in writing that hazardous waste
generated by an organic peroxide manufacturing process or processes
meeting the conditions of subsection (d)(1) of this Section are managed at
the facility in tanks or containers meeting the conditions of subsection
(d)(2) of this Section. The notification must state the name and address of
the facility and be signed and dated by an authorized representative of the
facility owner or operator.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
421
Section 724.982 Standards: General
a) This Section applies to the management of hazardous waste in tanks, surface
impoundments, and containers subject to this Subpart CC.
b) The owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from each waste
management unit in accordance with the standards specified in Sections 724.984
through 724.987, as applicable to the waste management unit, except as provided
for in subsection (c) of this Section.
c) A tank, surface impoundment, or container is exempt from standards specified in
Sections 724.984 through 724.987, as applicable, provided that all hazardous
waste placed in the waste management unit is one of the following:
1) A tank, surface impoundment, or container for which all hazardous waste
entering the unit has an average VO concentration at the point of waste
origination of less than 500 parts per million by weight (ppmw). The
average VO concentration must be determined by the procedures specified
in Section 724.983(a). The owner or operator must review and update, as
necessary, this determination at least once every 12 months following the
date of the initial determination for the hazardous waste streams entering
the unit.
2) A tank, surface impoundment, or container for which the organic content
of all the hazardous waste entering the waste management unit has been
reduced by an organic destruction or removal process that achieves any
one of the following conditions:
A) The process removes or destroys the organics contained in the
hazardous waste to a level such that the average VO concentration
of the hazardous waste at the point of waste treatment is less than
the exit concentration limit (C
B
t
B
) established for the process. The
average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the point of
waste treatment and the exit concentration limit for the process
must be determined using the procedures specified in Section
724.983(b).
B) The process removes or destroys the organics contained in the
hazardous waste to a level such that the organic reduction
efficiency (R) for the process is equal to or greater than 95 percent,
and the average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the
point of waste treatment is less than 100 ppmw. The organic
reduction efficiency for the process and the average VO
concentration of the hazardous waste at the point of waste
treatment must be determined using the procedures specified in
Section 724.983(b).
422
C) The process removes or destroys the organics contained in the
hazardous waste to such a level that the actual organic mass
removal rate (MR) for the process is equal to or greater than the
required organic mass removal rate (RMR) established for the
process. The required organic mass removal rate and the actual
organic mass removal rate for the process must be determined
using the procedures specified in Section 724.983(b).
D) The process is a biological process that destroys or degrades the
organics contained in the hazardous waste so that either of the
following conditions are met:
i) The organic reduction efficiency (R) for the process is
equal to or greater than 95 percent, and the organic
biodegradation efficiency (R
B
bio
B
) for the process is equal to
or greater than 95 percent. The organic reduction
efficiency and the organic biodegradation efficiency for the
process must be determined using the procedures specified
in Section 724.983(b).
ii) The total actual organic mass biodegradation rate (MR
B
bio
B
)
for all hazardous waste treated by the process is equal to or
greater than the required organic mass removal rate (RMR).
The required organic mass removal rate and the actual
organic mass biodegradation rate for the process must be
determined using the procedures specified in Section
724.983(b).
E) The process removes or destroys the organics contained in the
hazardous waste and meets all of the following conditions:
i) From the point of waste origination through the point
where the hazardous waste enters the treatment process, the
hazardous waste is continuously managed in waste
management units that use air emission controls in
accordance with the standards specified in Sections
724.984 through 724.987, as applicable to the waste
management unit.
ii) From the point of waste origination through the point
where the hazardous waste enters the treatment process,
any transfer of the hazardous waste is accomplished
through continuous hard-piping or other closed system
transfer that does not allow exposure of the waste to the
atmosphere.
423
BOARD NOTE: The USEPA considers a drain system that
meets the requirements of federal subpart RR of 40 CFR
63
S
, subpart RR,
S
S
“
S
(National Emission Standards for
Individual Drain Systems
S
,”
S
) to be a closed system.
iii) The average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at
the point of waste treatment is less than the lowest average
VO concentration at the point of waste origination,
determined for each of the individual hazardous waste
streams entering the process or 500 ppmw, whichever value
is lower. The average VO concentration of each individual
hazardous waste stream at the point of waste origination
must be determined using the procedures specified in
Section 724.983(a). The average VO concentration of the
hazardous waste at the point of waste treatment must be
determined using the procedures specified in Section
724.983(b).
F) A process that removes or destroys the organics contained in the
hazardous waste to a level such that the organic reduction
efficiency (R) for the process is equal to or greater than 95 percent
and the owner or operator certifies that the average VO
concentration at the point of waste origination for each of the
individual waste streams entering the process is less than 10,000
ppmw. The organic reduction efficiency for the process and the
average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the point of
waste origination must be determined using the procedures
specified in Section 724.983(b) and Section 724.983(a),
respectively.
G) A hazardous waste incinerator for which either of the following
conditions is true:
i) The owner or operator has been issued a final permit under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements the
requirements of Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726; or
ii) The owner or operator has designed and operates the
incinerator in accordance with the interim status
requirements of Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
H) A boiler or industrial furnace for which either of the following
conditions is true:
i) The owner or operator has been issued a final permit under
424
35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements the
requirements of Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726; or
ii) The owner or operator has designed and operates the boiler
or industrial furnace in accordance with the interim status
requirements of Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
I) For the purpose of determining the performance of an organic
destruction or removal process in accordance with the conditions
in each of subsections (c)(2)(A) through (c)(2)(F) of this Section,
the owner or operator must account for VO concentrations
determined to be below the limit of detection of the analytical
method by using the following VO concentration:
i) If Method 25D (Determination of the Volatile Organic
Concentration of Waste Samples) in appendix A to 40 CFR
60
S
, appendix A
S
(Test Methods), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b), is used for the
analysis, one-half the blank value determined in Section
4.4 of the method or a value of 25 ppmw, whichever is less.
ii) If any other analytical method is used, one-half the sum of
the limits of detection established for each organic
constituent in the waste that has a Henry’s law constant
value at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-
fraction-in-the-liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) (which can also be
expressed as 1.8 x 10
P
-6
P
atmospheres/gram-mole/m
P
3
P
) at 25°
C.
3) A tank or surface impoundment used for biological treatment of hazardous
waste in accordance with the requirements of subsection (c)(2)(D) of this
Section.
4) A tank, surface impoundment, or container for which all hazardous waste
placed in the unit fulfills either of the following conditions:
A) It meets the numerical concentration limits for organic hazardous
constituents, applicable to the hazardous waste, as specified in
Table T to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728; or
B) The organic hazardous constituents in the waste have been treated
by the treatment technology established by USEPA for the waste,
as set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.142(a), or have been removed
or destroyed by an equivalent method of treatment approved by the
Agency pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.142(b).
425
5) A tank used for bulk feed of hazardous waste to a waste incinerator and all
of the following conditions are met:
A) The tank is located inside an enclosure vented to a control device
that is designed and operated in accordance with all applicable
requirements specified under federal subpart FF of 40 CFR 61
S
,
subpart FF,
S
S
“
S
(National Emission Standard for Benzene Waste
Operations),
S
”
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b), for a facility at which the total annual benzene
quantity from the facility waste is equal to or greater than 10
megagrams (11 tons) per year;
B) The enclosure and control device serving the tank were installed
and began operation prior to November 25, 1996; and
C) The enclosure is designed and operated in accordance with the
criteria for a permanent total enclosure as specified in “Procedure
T--Criteria for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total
Enclosure” under appendix B to 40 CFR 52.741
S
, appendix B
S
(VOM Measurement Techniques for Capture Efficiency),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b). The enclosure may have permanent or temporary
openings to allow worker access; passage of material into or out of
the enclosure by conveyor, vehicles, or other mechanical or
electrical equipment; or to direct air flow into the enclosure. The
owner or operator must perform the verification procedure for the
enclosure as specified in Section 5.0 to “Procedure T--Criteria for
and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure”
annually.
d) The Agency may at any time perform or request that the owner or operator
perform a waste determination for a hazardous waste managed in a tank, surface
impoundment, or container that is exempted from using air emission controls
under the provisions of this Section, as follows:
1) The waste determination for average VO concentration of a hazardous
waste at the point of waste origination must be performed using direct
measurement in accordance with the applicable requirements of Section
724.983(a). The waste determination for a hazardous waste at the point of
waste treatment must be performed in accordance with the applicable
requirements of Section 724.983(b).
2) In performing a waste determination pursuant to subsection (d)(1) of this
Section, the sample preparation and analysis must be conducted as
follows:
426
A) In accordance with the method used by the owner or operator to
perform the waste analysis, except in the case specified in
subsection (d)(2)(B) of this Section.
B) If the Agency determines that the method used by the owner or
operator was not appropriate for the hazardous waste managed in
the tank, surface impoundment, or container, then the Agency may
choose an appropriate method.
3) Where the owner or operator is requested to perform the waste
determination, the Agency may elect to have an authorized representative
observe the collection of the hazardous waste samples used for the
analysis.
4) Where the results of the waste determination performed or requested by
the Agency do not agree with the results of a waste determination
performed by the owner or operator using knowledge of the waste, then
the results of the waste determination performed in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (d)(1) of this Section must be used to establish
compliance with the requirements of this Subpart CC.
5) Where the owner or operator has used an averaging period greater than
one hour for determining the average VO concentration of a hazardous
waste at the point of waste origination, the Agency may elect to establish
compliance with this Subpart CC by performing or requesting that the
owner or operator perform a waste determination using direct
measurement based on waste samples collected within a one-hour period,
as follows:
A) The average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the point
of waste origination must be determined by direct measurement in
accordance with the requirements of Section 724.983(a).
B) Results of the waste determination performed or requested by the
Agency showing that the average VO concentration of the
hazardous waste at the point of waste origination is equal to or
greater than 500 ppmw must constitute noncompliance with this
Subpart CC, except in a case as provided for in subsection
(d)(5)(C) of this Section.
C) Where the average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the
point of waste origination previously has been determined by the
owner or operator using an averaging period greater than one hour
to be less than 500 ppmw but because of normal operating process
variations the VO concentration of the hazardous waste determined
by direct measurement for any given one-hour period may be equal
427
to or greater than 500 ppmw, information that was used by the
owner or operator to determine the average VO concentration of
the hazardous waste (e.g., test results, measurements, calculations,
and other documentation) and recorded in the facility records in
accordance with the requirements of Section 724.983(a) and
Section 724.989 must be considered by the Agency together with
the results of the waste determination performed or requested by
the Agency in establishing compliance with this Subpart CC.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.984 Standards: Tanks
a) The provisions of this Section apply to the control of air pollutant emissions from
tanks for which Section 724.982(b) references the use of this Section for such air
emission control.
b) The owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from each tank subject
to this Section in accordance with the following requirements, as applicable:
1) For a tank that manages hazardous waste that meets all of the conditions
specified in subsections (b)(1)(A) through (b)(1)(C) of this Section, the
owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from the tank in
accordance with the Tank Level 1 controls specified in subsection (c) of
this Section or the Tank Level 2 controls specified in subsection (d) of this
Section.
A) The hazardous waste in the tank has a maximum organic vapor
pressure that is less than the maximum organic vapor pressure
limit for the tank’s design capacity category, as follows:
i) For a tank design capacity equal to or greater than 151 m
P
3
P
(39,900 gal), the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for
the tank is 5.2 kPa (0.75 psig).
ii) For a tank design capacity equal to or greater than 75 m
P
3
P
(19,800 gal) but less than 151 m
P
3
P
(39,900 gal), the
maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank is 27.6
kPa (4.00 psig).
iii) For a tank design capacity less than 75 m
P
3
P
(19,800 gal), the
maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank is 76.6
kPa (11.1 psig).
B) The hazardous waste in the tank is not heated by the owner or
operator to a temperature that is greater than the temperature at
428
which the maximum organic vapor pressure of the hazardous waste
is determined for the purpose of complying with subsection
(b)(1)(A) of this Section.
C) The owner or operator does not treat the hazardous waste in the
tank using a waste stabilization process, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 725.981.
2) For a tank that manages hazardous waste that does not meet all of the
conditions specified in subsections (b)(1)(A) through (b)(1)(C) of this
Section, the owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from
the tank by using Tank Level 2 controls in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (d) of this Section. Examples of tanks required
to use Tank Level 2 controls include a tank used for a waste stabilization
process and a tank for which the hazardous waste in the tank has a
maximum organic vapor pressure that is equal to or greater than the
maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank’s design capacity
category, as specified in subsection (b)(1)(A) of this Section.
c) Owners and operators controlling air pollutant emissions from a tank using Tank
Level 1 controls must meet the requirements specified in subsections (c)(1)
through (c)(4) of this Section:
1) The owner or operator must determine the maximum organic vapor
pressure for a hazardous waste to be managed in the tank using Tank
Level 1 controls before the first time the hazardous waste is placed in the
tank. The maximum organic vapor pressure must be determined using the
procedures specified in Section 724.983(c). Thereafter, the owner or
operator must perform a new determination whenever changes to the
hazardous waste managed in the tank could potentially cause the
maximum organic vapor pressure to increase to a level that is equal to or
greater than the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank design
capacity category specified in subsection (b)(1)(A) of this Section, as
applicable to the tank.
2) The tank must be equipped with a fixed roof designed to meet the
following specifications:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be designed to form a
continuous barrier over the entire surface area of the hazardous
waste in the tank. The fixed roof may be a separate cover installed
on the tank (e.g., a removable cover mounted on an open-top tank)
or may be an integral part of the tank structural design (e.g., a
horizontal cylindrical tank equipped with a hatch).
B) The fixed roof must be installed in such a manner that there are no
429
visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces between roof
section joints or between the interface of the roof edge and the tank
wall.
C) Either of the following must be true of each opening in the fixed
roof and of any manifold system associated with the fixed roof:
i) The opening or manifold system is equipped with a closure
device designed to operate so that when the closure device
is secured in the closed position there are no visible cracks,
holes, gaps, or other open spaces in the closure device or
between the perimeter of the opening and the closure
device; or
ii) The opening or manifold system is connected by a closed-
vent system that is vented to a control device. The control
device must remove or destroy organics in the vent stream,
and it must be operating whenever hazardous waste is
managed in the tank, except as provided for in subsection
(c)(2)(E) of this Section.
D) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be made of suitable
materials that will minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to
the atmosphere, to the extent practical, and will maintain the
integrity of the fixed roof and closure devices throughout their
intended service life. Factors to be considered when selecting the
materials for and designing the fixed roof and closure devices must
include the following: the organic vapor permeability; the effects
of any contact with the hazardous waste or its vapors managed in
the tank; the effects of outdoor exposure to wind, moisture, and
sunlight; and the operating practices used for the tank on which the
fixed roof is installed.
E) The control device operated pursuant to subsection (c)(2)(C) of
this Section needs not remove or destroy organics in the vent
stream under the following conditions:
i) During periods when it is necessary to provide access to the
tank for performing the activities of subsection (c)(2)(E)(ii)
of this Section, venting of the vapor headspace underneath
the fixed roof to the control device is not required, opening
of closure devices is allowed, and removal of the fixed roof
is allowed. Following completion of the activity, the owner
or operator must promptly secure the closure device in the
closed position or reinstall the cover, as applicable, and
resume operation of the control device; and
430
ii) During periods of routine inspection, maintenance, or other
activities needed for normal operations, and for removal of
accumulated sludge or other residues from the bottom of
the tank.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (c)(2)(E)(i) and (c)(2)(E)(ii) of this
Section are derived from 40 CFR 264.1084(c)(2)(iii)(B)(
1
) and
(c)(2)(iii)(B)(
2
), which the Board has codified here to comport
with Illinois Administrative Code format requirements.
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the fixed roof must be
installed with each closure device secured in the closed position, except as
follows:
A) Opening of closure devices or removal of the fixed roof is allowed
at the following times:
i) To provide access to the tank for performing routine
inspection, maintenance, or other activities needed for
normal operations. Examples of such activities include
those times when a worker needs to open a port to sample
the liquid in the tank, or when a worker needs to open a
hatch to maintain or repair equipment. Following
completion of the activity, the owner or operator must
promptly secure the closure device in the closed position or
reinstall the cover, as applicable, to the tank.
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other residues from the
bottom of the tank.
B) Opening of a spring-loaded pressure-vacuum relief valve,
conservation vent, or similar type of pressure relief device that
vents to the atmosphere is allowed during normal operations for
the purpose of maintaining the tank internal pressure in accordance
with the tank design specifications. The device must be designed
to operate with no detectable organic emissions when the device is
secured in the closed position. The settings at which the device
opens must be established so that the device remains in the closed
position whenever the tank internal pressure is within the internal
pressure operating range determined by the owner or operator
based on the tank manufacturer recommendations, applicable
regulations, fire protection and prevention codes, standard
engineering codes and practices, or other requirements for the safe
handling of flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous
materials. Examples of normal operating conditions that may
431
require these devices to open are during those times when the tank
internal pressure exceeds the internal pressure operating range for
the tank as a result of loading operations or diurnal ambient
temperature fluctuations.
C) Opening of a safety device, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.981, is allowed at any time conditions require doing so to
avoid an unsafe condition.
4) The owner or operator must inspect the air emission control equipment in
accordance with the following requirements.
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be visually inspected
by the owner or operator to check for defects that could result in
air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but are not limited to,
visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the roof sections or between the
roof and the tank wall; broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged
seals or gaskets on closure devices; and broken or missing hatches,
access covers, caps, or other closure devices.
B) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of the
fixed roof and its closure devices on or before the date that the
tank becomes subject to this Section. Thereafter, the owner or
operator must perform the inspections at least once every year
except under the special conditions provided for in subsection (l)
of this Section.
C) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator must
repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(k) of this Section.
D) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection in
accordance with the requirements specified in Section 724.989(b).
d) Owners and operators controlling air pollutant emissions from a tank using Tank
Level 2 controls must use one of the following tanks:
1) A fixed-roof tank equipped with an internal floating roof in accordance
with the requirements specified in subsection (e) of this Section;
2) A tank equipped with an external floating roof in accordance with the
requirements specified in subsection (f) of this Section;
3) A tank vented through a closed-vent system to a control device in
accordance with the requirements specified in subsection (g) of this
Section;
432
4) A pressure tank designed and operated in accordance with the
requirements specified in subsection (h) of this Section; or
5) A tank located inside an enclosure that is vented through a closed-vent
system to an enclosed combustion control device in accordance with the
requirements specified in subsection (i) of this Section.
e) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions from a tank using a
fixed roof with an internal floating roof must meet the requirements specified in
subsections (e)(1) through (e)(3) of this Section.
1) The tank must be equipped with a fixed roof and an internal floating roof
in accordance with the following requirements:
A) The internal floating roof must be designed to float on the liquid
surface except when the floating roof must be supported by the leg
supports.
B) The internal floating roof must be equipped with a continuous seal
between the wall of the tank and the floating roof edge that meets
either of the following requirements:
i) A single continuous seal that is either a liquid-mounted seal
or a metallic shoe seal, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.981; or
ii) Two continuous seals mounted one above the other. The
lower seal may be a vapor-mounted seal.
C) The internal floating roof must meet the following specifications:
i) Each opening in a noncontact internal floating roof except
for automatic bleeder vents (vacuum breaker vents) and the
rim space vents is to provide a projection below the liquid
surface.
ii) Each opening in the internal floating roof must be equipped
with a gasketed cover or a gasketed lid except for leg
sleeves, automatic bleeder vents, rim space vents, column
wells, ladder wells, sample wells, and stub drains.
iii) Each penetration of the internal floating roof for the
purpose of sampling must have a slit fabric cover that
covers at least 90 percent of the opening.
433
iv) Each automatic bleeder vent and rim space vent must be
gasketed.
v) Each penetration of the internal floating roof that allows for
passage of a ladder must have a gasketed sliding cover.
vi) Each penetration of the internal floating roof that allows for
passage of a column supporting the fixed roof must have a
flexible fabric sleeve seal or a gasketed sliding cover.
2) The owner or operator must operate the tank in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) When the floating roof is resting on the leg supports, the process of
filling, emptying, or refilling must be continuous and must be
completed as soon as practical.
B) Automatic bleeder vents are to be set closed at all times when the
roof is floating, except when the roof is being floated off or is
being landed on the leg supports.
C) Prior to filling the tank, each cover, access hatch, gauge float well
or lid on any opening in the internal floating roof must be bolted or
fastened closed (i.e., no visible gaps). Rim space vents must be set
to open only when the internal floating roof is not floating or when
the pressure beneath the rim exceeds the manufacturer’s
recommended setting.
3) The owner or operator must inspect the internal floating roof in
accordance with the procedures specified as follows:
A) The floating roof and its closure devices must be visually inspected
by the owner or operator to check for defects that could result in
air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but are not limited to, any
of the following: when the internal floating roof is not floating on
the surface of the liquid inside the tank; when liquid has
accumulated on top of the internal floating roof; when any portion
of the roof seals have detached from the roof rim; when holes,
tears, or other openings are visible in the seal fabric; when the
gaskets no longer close off the hazardous waste surface from the
atmosphere; or when the slotted membrane has more than 10
percent open area.
B) The owner or operator must inspect the internal floating roof
components as follows, except as provided in subsection (e)(3)(C)
of this Section:
434
i) Visually inspect the internal floating roof components
through openings on the fixed-roof (e.g., manholes and roof
hatches) at least once every 12 months after initial fill, and
ii) Visually inspect the internal floating roof, primary seal,
secondary seal (if one is in service), gaskets, slotted
membranes, and sleeve seals (if any) each time the tank is
emptied and degassed and at least once every 10 years.
C) As an alternative to performing the inspections specified in
subsection (e)(3)(B) of this Section for an internal floating roof
equipped with two continuous seals mounted one above the other,
the owner or operator may visually inspect the internal floating
roof, primary and secondary seals, gaskets, slotted membranes, and
sleeve seals (if any) each time the tank is emptied and degassed
and at least every five years.
D) Prior to each inspection required by subsection (e)(3)(B) or
(e)(3)(C) of this Section, the owner or operator must notify the
Agency in advance of each inspection to provide the Agency with
the opportunity to have an observer present during the inspection.
The owner or operator must notify the Agency of the date and
location of the inspection, as follows:
i) Prior to each visual inspection of an internal floating roof
in a tank that has been emptied and degassed, written
notification must be prepared and sent by the owner or
operator so that it is received by the Agency at least 30
calendar days before refilling the tank, except when an
inspection is not planned, as provided for in subsection
(e)(3)(D)(ii) of this Section.
ii) When a visual inspection is not planned and the owner or
operator could not have known about the inspection 30
calendar days before refilling the tank, the owner or
operator must notify the Agency as soon as possible, but no
later than seven calendar days before refilling of the tank.
This notification may be made by telephone and
immediately followed by a written explanation for why the
inspection is unplanned. Alternatively, written notification,
including the explanation for the unplanned inspection,
may be sent so that it is received by the Agency at least
seven calendar days before refilling the tank.
E) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator must
435
repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(k) of this Section.
F) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection in
accordance with the requirements specified in Section 724.989(b).
4) Safety devices, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.981, may be installed
and operated as necessary on any tank complying with the requirements of
this subsection (e).
f) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions from a tank using an
external floating roof must meet the requirements specified in subsections (f)(1)
through (f)(3) of this Section.
1) The owner or operator must design the external floating roof in
accordance with the following requirements:
A) The external floating roof must be designed to float on the liquid
surface except when the floating roof must be supported by the leg
supports.
B) The floating roof must be equipped with two continuous seals, one
above the other, between the wall of the tank and the roof edge.
The lower seal is referred to as the primary seal, and the upper seal
is referred to as the secondary seal.
i) The primary seal must be a liquid-mounted seal or a
metallic shoe seal, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.981. The total area of the gaps between the tank wall
and the primary seal must not exceed 212 square
centimeters (cm
P
2
P
) per meter (10.0 square inches (in
P
2
P
) per
foot) of tank diameter, and the width of any portion of
these gaps must not exceed 3.8 centimeters (cm) (1.5 in).
If a metallic shoe seal is used for the primary seal, the
metallic shoe seal must be designed so that one end extends
into the liquid in the tank and the other end extends a
vertical distance of at least 61 cm (24 in) above the liquid
surface.
ii) The secondary seal must be mounted above the primary
seal and cover the annular space between the floating roof
and the wall of the tank. The total area of the gaps between
the tank wall and the secondary seal must not exceed 21.2
cm
P
2
P
per meter (1.00 in
P
2
P
per foot) of tank diameter, and the
width of any portion of these gaps must not exceed 1.3 cm
(0.51 in).
436
C) The external floating roof must meet the following specifications:
i) Except for automatic bleeder vents (vacuum breaker vents)
and rim space vents, each opening in a noncontact external
floating roof must provide a projection below the liquid
surface.
ii) Except for automatic bleeder vents, rim space vents, roof
drains, and leg sleeves, each opening in the roof must be
equipped with a gasketed cover, seal, or lid.
iii) Each access hatch and each gauge float well must be
equipped with a cover designed to be bolted or fastened
when the cover is secured in the closed position.
iv) Each automatic bleeder vent and each rim space vent must
be equipped with a gasket.
v) Each roof drain that empties into the liquid managed in the
tank must be equipped with a slotted membrane fabric
cover that covers at least 90 percent of the area of the
opening.
vi) Each unslotted and slotted guide pole well must be
equipped with a gasketed sliding cover or a flexible fabric
sleeve seal.
vii) Each unslotted guide pole must be equipped with a
gasketed cap on the end of the pole.
viii) Each slotted guide pole must be equipped with a gasketed
float or other device that closes off the liquid surface from
the atmosphere.
ix) Each gauge hatch and each sample well must be equipped
with a gasketed cover.
2) The owner or operator must operate the tank in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) When the floating roof is resting on the leg supports, the process of
filling, emptying, or refilling must be continuous and must be
completed as soon as practical.
B) Except for automatic bleeder vents, rim space vents, roof drains,
437
and leg sleeves, each opening in the roof must be secured and
maintained in a closed position at all times except when the
closure device must be open for access.
C) Covers on each access hatch and each gauge float well must be
bolted or fastened when secured in the closed position.
D) Automatic bleeder vents must be set closed at all times when the
roof is floating, except when the roof is being floated off or is
being landed on the leg supports.
E) Rim space vents must be set to open only at those times that the
roof is being floated off the roof leg supports or when the pressure
beneath the rim seal exceeds the manufacturer’s recommended
setting.
F) The cap on the end of each unslotted guide pole must be secured in
the closed position at all times except when measuring the level or
collecting samples of the liquid in the tank.
G) The cover on each gauge hatch or sample well must be secured in
the closed position at all times except when the hatch or well must
be opened for access.
H) Both the primary seal and the secondary seal must completely
cover the annular space between the external floating roof and the
wall of the tank in a continuous fashion except during inspections.
3) The owner or operator must inspect the external floating roof in
accordance with the procedures specified as follows:
A) The owner or operator must measure the external floating roof seal
gaps in accordance with the following requirements:
i) The owner or operator must perform measurements of gaps
between the tank wall and the primary seal within 60
calendar days after initial operation of the tank following
installation of the floating roof and, thereafter, at least once
every five years.
ii) The owner or operator must perform measurements of gaps
between the tank wall and the secondary seal within 60
calendar days after initial operation of the tank following
installation of the floating roof and, thereafter, at least once
every year.
438
iii) If a tank ceases to hold hazardous waste for a period of one
year or more, subsequent introduction of hazardous waste
into the tank must be considered an initial operation for the
purposes of subsections (f)(3)(A)(i) and (f)(3)(A)(ii) of this
Section.
iv) The owner or operator must determine the total surface area
of gaps in the primary seal and in the secondary seal
individually using the procedure of subsection (f)(3)(D) of
this Section.
v) In the event that the seal gap measurements do not conform
to the specifications in subsection (f)(1)(B) of this Section,
the owner or operator must repair the defect in accordance
with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section.
vi) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the
inspection in accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 724.989(b).
B) The owner or operator must visually inspect the external floating
roof in accordance with the following requirements:
i) The floating roof and its closure devices must be visually
inspected by the owner or operator to check for defects that
could result in air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but
are not limited to, any of the following conditions: holes,
tears, or other openings in the rim seal or seal fabric of the
floating roof; a rim seal detached from the floating roof; all
or a portion of the floating roof deck being submerged
below the surface of the liquid in the tank; broken, cracked,
or otherwise damaged seals or gaskets on closure devices;
and broken or missing hatches, access covers, caps, or
other closure devices.
ii) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of
the external floating roof and its closure devices on or
before the date that the tank becomes subject to this
Section. Thereafter, the owner or operator must perform
the inspections at least once every year except for the
special conditions provided for in subsection (l) of this
Section.
iii) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator
must repair the defect in accordance with the requirements
of subsection (k) of this Section.
439
iv) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the
inspection in accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 724.989(b).
C) Prior to each inspection required by subsection (f)(3)(A) or
(f)(3)(B) of this Section, the owner or operator must notify the
Agency in advance of each inspection to provide the Agency with
the opportunity to have an observer present during the inspection.
The owner or operator must notify the Agency of the date and
location of the inspection, as follows:
i) Prior to each inspection to measure external floating roof
seal gaps as required under subsection (f)(3)(A) of this
Section, written notification must be prepared and sent by
the owner or operator so that it is received by the Agency at
least 30 calendar days before the date the measurements are
scheduled to be performed.
ii) Prior to each visual inspection of an external floating roof
in a tank that has been emptied and degassed, written
notification must be prepared and sent by the owner or
operator so that it is received by the Agency at least 30
calendar days before refilling the tank, except when an
inspection is not planned as provided for in subsection
(f)(3)(C)(iii) of this Section.
iii) When a visual inspection is not planned and the owner or
operator could not have known about the inspection 30
calendar days before refilling the tank, the owner or
operator must notify the Agency as soon as possible, but no
later than seven calendar days before refilling of the tank.
This notification may be made by telephone and
immediately followed by a written explanation for why the
inspection is unplanned. Alternatively, written notification,
including the explanation for the unplanned inspection,
may be sent so that it is received by the Agency at least
seven calendar days before refilling the tank.
D) Procedure for determining the total surface area of gaps in the
primary seal and the secondary seal:
i) The seal gap measurements must be performed at one or
more floating roof levels when the roof is floating off the
roof supports.
440
ii) Seal gaps, if any, must be measured around the entire
perimeter of the floating roof in each place where a 0.32
cm (0.125 in) diameter uniform probe passes freely
(without forcing or binding against the seal) between the
seal and the wall of the tank and measure the
circumferential distance of each such location.
iii) For a seal gap measured under subsection (f)(3) of this
Section, the gap surface area must be determined by using
probes of various widths to measure accurately the actual
distance from the tank wall to the seal and multiplying each
such width by its respective circumferential distance.
iv) The total gap area must be calculated by adding the gap
surface areas determined for each identified gap location
for the primary seal and the secondary seal individually,
and then dividing the sum for each seal type by the nominal
diameter of the tank. These total gap areas for the primary
seal and secondary seal are then compared to the respective
standards for the seal type, as specified in subsection
(f)(1)(B) of this Section.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (f)(3)(D)(i) through (f)(3)(D)(iv) of
this Section are derived from 40 CFR 264.1084(f)(3)(i)(D)(
1
)
through (f)(3)(i)(D)(
4
), which the Board has codified here to
comport with Illinois Administrative Code format requirements.
4) Safety devices, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.981, may be installed
and operated as necessary on any tank complying with the requirements of
subsection (f) of this Section.
g) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions from a tank by venting
the tank to a control device must meet the requirements specified in subsections
(g)(1) through (g)(3) of this Section.
1) The tank must be covered by a fixed roof and vented directly through a
closed-vent system to a control device in accordance with the following
requirements:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be designed to form a
continuous barrier over the entire surface area of the liquid in the
tank.
B) Each opening in the fixed roof not vented to the control device
must be equipped with a closure device. If the pressure in the
vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof is less than atmospheric
441
pressure when the control device is operating, the closure device
must be designed to operate so that when the closure device is
secured in the closed position there are no visible cracks, holes,
gaps, or other open spaces in the closure device or between the
perimeter of the cover opening and the closure device. If the
pressure in the vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof is equal
to or greater than atmospheric pressure when the control device is
operating, the closure device must be designed to operate with no
detectable organic emissions.
C) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be made of suitable
materials that will minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to
the atmosphere, to the extent practical, and will maintain the
integrity of the fixed roof and closure devices throughout their
intended service life. Factors to be considered when selecting the
materials for and designing the fixed roof and closure devices must
include the following: organic vapor permeability; the effects of
any contact with the liquid and its vapor managed in the tank; the
effects of outdoor exposure to wind, moisture, and sunlight; and
the operating practices used for the tank on which the fixed roof is
installed.
D) The closed-vent system and control device must be designed and
operated in accordance with the requirements of Section 724.987.
2) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the fixed roof must be
installed with each closure device secured in the closed position and the
vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof vented to the control device,
except as follows:
A) Venting to the control device is not required, and opening of
closure devices or removal of the fixed roof is allowed at the
following times:
i) To provide access to the tank for performing routine
inspection, maintenance, or other activities needed for
normal operations. Examples of such activities include
those times when a worker needs to open a port to sample
liquid in the tank, or when a worker needs to open a hatch
to maintain or repair equipment. Following completion of
the activity, the owner or operator must promptly secure
the closure device in the closed position or reinstall the
cover, as applicable, to the tank.
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other residues from the
bottom of a tank.
442
B) Opening of a safety device, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.981, is allowed at any time conditions require doing so to
avoid an unsafe condition.
3) The owner or operator must inspect and monitor the air emission control
equipment in accordance with the following procedures:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be visually inspected
by the owner or operator to check for defects that could result in
air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but are not limited to, any
of the following: visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the roof sections
or between the roof and the tank wall; broken, cracked, or
otherwise damaged seals or gaskets on closure devices; and broken
or missing hatches, access covers, caps, or other closure devices.
B) The closed-vent system and control device must be inspected and
monitored by the owner or operator in accordance with the
procedures specified in Section 724.987.
C) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of the air
emission control equipment on or before the date that the tank
becomes subject to this Section. Thereafter, the owner or operator
must perform the inspections at least once every year except for
the special conditions provided for in subsection (l) of this Section.
D) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator must
repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(k) of this Section.
E) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection in
accordance with the requirements specified in Section 724.989(b).
h) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions by using a pressure
tank must meet the following requirements:
1) The tank must be designed not to vent to the atmosphere as a result of
compression of the vapor headspace in the tank during filling of the tank
to its design capacity.
2) All tank openings must be equipped with closure devices designed to
operate with no detectable organic emissions, as determined using the
procedure specified in Section 724.983(d).
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the tank must be operated as a
closed-vent system that does not vent to the atmosphere, except under
443
either of the following two conditions:
A) The tank does not need to be operated as a closed-vent system at
those times when the opening of a safety device, as defined in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.981, is required to avoid an unsafe condition.
B) The tank does not need to be operated as a closed-vent system at
those times when the purging of inerts from the tank is required and
the purge stream is routed to a closed-vent system and control device
designed and operated in accordance with the requirements of
Section 724.987.
i) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions by using an enclosure
vented through a closed-vent system to an enclosed combustion control device
must meet the requirements specified in subsections (i)(1) through (i)(4) of this
Section.
1) The tank must be located inside an enclosure. The enclosure must be
designed and operated in accordance with the criteria for a permanent total
enclosure, as specified in “Procedure T—Criteria for and Verification of a
Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure” under appendix B to 40 CFR
52.741
S
, appendix B
S
(VOM Measurement Techniques for Capture
Efficiency), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b). The enclosure may have permanent or temporary openings to
allow worker access; passage of material into or out of the enclosure by
conveyor, vehicles, or other mechanical means; entry of permanent
mechanical or electrical equipment; or direct airflow into the enclosure.
The owner or operator must perform the verification procedure for the
enclosure, as specified in Section 5.0 to “Procedure T—Criteria for and
Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure,” initially
when the enclosure is first installed and, thereafter, annually.
2) The enclosure must be vented through a closed-vent system to an enclosed
combustion control device that is designed and operated in accordance
with the standards for either a vapor incinerator, boiler, or process heater
specified in Section 724.987.
3) Safety devices, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.981, may be installed
and operated as necessary on any enclosure, closed-vent system, or control
device used to comply with the requirements of subsections (i)(1) and
(i)(2) of this Section.
4) The owner or operator must inspect and monitor the closed-vent system
and control device, as specified in Section 724.987.
j) The owner or operator must transfer hazardous waste to a tank subject to this
444
Section in accordance with the following requirements:
1) Transfer of hazardous waste, except as provided in subsection (j)(2) of this
Section, to the tank from another tank subject to this Section or from a
surface impoundment subject to Section 724.985 must be conducted using
continuous hard-piping or another closed system that does not allow
exposure of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere. For the purpose of
complying with this provision, an individual drain system is considered to
be a closed system when it meets the requirements of subpart RR of 40
CFR 63
S
, subpart RR,
S
S
“
S
(National Emission Standards for Individual Drain
Systems
S
,”
S
), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
2) The requirements of subsection (j)(1) of this Section do not apply when
transferring a hazardous waste to the tank under any of the following
conditions:
A) The hazardous waste meets the average VO concentration
conditions specified in Section 724.982(c)(1) at the point of waste
origination.
B) The hazardous waste has been treated by an organic destruction or
removal process to meet the requirements in Section
724.982(c)(2).
C) The hazardous waste meets the requirements of Section
724.982(c)(4).
k) The owner or operator must repair each defect detected during an inspection
performed in accordance with the requirements of subsection (c)(4), (e)(3), (f)(3),
or (g)(3) of this Section, as follows:
1) The owner or operator must make first efforts at repair of the defect no
later than five calendar days after detection, and repair must be completed
as soon as possible but no later than 45 calendar days after detection
except as provided in subsection (k)(2) of this Section.
2) Repair of a defect may be delayed beyond 45 calendar days if the owner
or operator determines that repair of the defect requires emptying or
temporary removal from service of the tank and no alternative tank
capacity is available at the site to accept the hazardous waste normally
managed in the tank. In this case, the owner or operator must repair the
defect the next time the process or unit that is generating the hazardous
waste managed in the tank stops operation. Repair of the defect must be
completed before the process or unit resumes operation.
445
l) Following the initial inspection and monitoring of the cover, as required by the
applicable provisions of this Subpart CC, subsequent inspection and monitoring
may be performed at intervals longer than one year under the following special
conditions:
1) In the case when inspecting or monitoring the cover would expose a
worker to dangerous, hazardous, or other unsafe conditions, then the
owner or operator may designate a cover as an “unsafe to inspect and
monitor cover” and comply with all of the following requirements:
A) Prepare a written explanation for the cover stating the reasons why
the cover is unsafe to visually inspect or to monitor, if required.
B) Develop and implement a written plan and schedule to inspect and
monitor the cover, using the procedures specified in the applicable
Section of this Subpart CC, as frequently as practicable during
those times when a worker can safely access the cover.
2) In the case when a tank is buried partially or entirely underground, an
owner or operator is required to inspect and monitor, as required by the
applicable provisions of this Section, only those portions of the tank cover
and those connections to the tank (e.g., fill ports, access hatches, gauge
wells, etc.) that are located on or above the ground surface.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.985 Standards: Surface Impoundments
a) The provisions of this Section apply to the control of air pollutant emissions from
surface impoundments for which Section 724.982(b) references the use of this
Section for such air emission control.
b) The owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from the surface
impoundment by installing and operating either of the following:
1) A floating membrane cover in accordance with the provisions specified in
subsection (c) of this Section; or
2) A cover that is vented through a closed-vent system to a control device in
accordance with the provisions specified in subsection (d) of this Section.
c) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions from a surface
impoundment using a floating membrane cover must meet the requirements
specified in subsections (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this Section.
1) The surface impoundment must be equipped with a floating membrane
446
cover designed to meet the following specifications:
A) The floating membrane cover must be designed to float on the
liquid surface during normal operations and form a continuous
barrier over the entire surface area of the liquid.
B) The cover must be fabricated from a synthetic membrane material
that is either of the following:
i) High density polyethylene (HDPE) with a thickness no less
than 2.5 millimeters (mm) (0.098 in); or
ii) A material or a composite of different materials determined
to have both organic permeability properties that are
equivalent to those of the material listed in subsection
(c)(1)(B)(i) of this Section and chemical and physical
properties that maintain the material integrity for the
intended service life of the material.
C) The cover must be installed in such a manner that there are no
visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces between cover
section seams or between the interface of the cover edge and its
foundation mountings.
D) Except as provided for in subsection (c)(1)(E) of this Section, each
opening in the floating membrane cover must be equipped with a
closure device so designed as to operate that when the closure
device is secured in the closed position there are no visible cracks,
holes, gaps, or other open spaces in the closure device or between
the perimeter of the cover opening and the closure device.
E) The floating membrane cover may be equipped with one or more
emergency cover drains for removal of stormwater. Each
emergency cover drain must be equipped with a slotted membrane
fabric cover that covers at least 90 percent of the area of the
opening or a flexible fabric sleeve seal.
F) The closure devices must be made of suitable materials that will
minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere, to
the extent practical, and will maintain the integrity of the closure
devices throughout their intended service life. Factors to be
considered when selecting the materials of construction and
designing the cover and closure devices must include the
following: the organic vapor permeability; the effects of any
contact with the liquid and its vapor managed in the surface
impoundment; the effects of outdoor exposure to wind, moisture,
447
and sunlight; and the operating practices used for the surface
impoundment on which the floating membrane cover is installed.
2) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the surface impoundment, the floating
membrane cover must float on the liquid and each closure device must be
secured in the closed position, except as follows:
A) Opening of closure devices or removal of the cover is allowed at
the following times:
i) To provide access to the surface impoundment for
performing routine inspection, maintenance, or other
activities needed for normal operations. Examples of such
activities include those times when a worker needs to open
a port to sample the liquid in the surface impoundment, or
when a worker needs to open a hatch to maintain or repair
equipment. Following completion of the activity, the
owner or operator must promptly replace the cover and
secure the closure device in the closed position, as
applicable.
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other residues from the
bottom of surface impoundment.
B) Opening of a safety device, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.981, is allowed at any time conditions require doing so to
avoid an unsafe condition.
3) The owner or operator must inspect the floating membrane cover in
accordance with the following procedures:
A) The floating membrane cover and its closure devices must be
visually inspected by the owner or operator to check for defects
that could result in air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but
are not limited to, visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the cover section
seams or between the interface of the cover edge and its foundation
mountings; broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged seals or gaskets
on closure devices; and broken or missing hatches, access covers,
caps, or other closure devices.
B) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of the
floating membrane cover and its closure devices on or before the
date that the surface impoundment becomes subject to this
Section. Thereafter, the owner or operator must perform the
inspections at least once every year except for the special
conditions provided for in subsection (g) of this Section.
448
C) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator must
repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(f) of this Section.
D) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection in
accordance with the requirements specified in Section 724.989(c).
d) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions from a surface
impoundment using a cover vented to a control device must meet the
requirements specified in subsections (d)(1) through (d)(3) of this Section.
1) The surface impoundment must be covered by a cover and vented directly
through a closed-vent system to a control device in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) The cover and its closure devices must be designed to form a
continuous barrier over the entire surface area of the liquid in the
surface impoundment.
B) Each opening in the cover not vented to the control device must be
equipped with a closure device. If the pressure in the vapor
headspace underneath the cover is less than atmospheric pressure
when the control device is operating, the closure devices must be
designed to operate such that when the closure device is secured in
the closed position there are no visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other
open spaces in the closure device or between the perimeter of the
cover opening and the closure device. If the pressure in the vapor
headspace underneath the cover is equal to or greater than
atmospheric pressure when the control device is operating, the
closure device must be designed to operate with no detectable
organic emissions using the procedure specified in Section
724.983(d).
C) The cover and its closure devices must be made of suitable
materials that will minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to
the atmosphere to the extent practical and which will maintain the
integrity of the cover and closure devices throughout their intended
service life. Factors to be considered when selecting the materials
of construction and designing the cover and closure devices must
include the following: the organic vapor permeability; the effects
of any contact with the liquid or its vapors managed in the surface
impoundment; the effects of outdoor exposure to wind, moisture,
and sunlight; and the operating practices used for the surface
impoundment on which the cover is installed.
449
D) The closed-vent system and control device must be designed and
operated in accordance with the requirements of Section 724.987.
2) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the surface impoundment, the cover
must be installed with each closure device secured in the closed position
and the vapor headspace underneath the cover vented to the control
device, except as follows:
A) Venting to the control device is not required, and opening of
closure devices or removal of the cover is allowed at the following
times:
i) To provide access to the surface impoundment for
performing routine inspection, maintenance, or other
activities needed for normal operations. Examples of such
activities include those times when a worker needs to open
a port to sample liquid in the surface impoundment, or
when a worker needs to open a hatch to maintain or repair
equipment. Following completion of the activity, the
owner or operator must promptly secure the closure device
in the closed position or reinstall the cover, as applicable,
to the surface impoundment.
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other residues from the
bottom of the surface impoundment.
B) Opening of a safety device, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.981, is allowed at any time conditions require doing so to
avoid an unsafe condition.
3) The owner or operator must inspect and monitor the air emission control
equipment in accordance with the following procedures:
A) The surface impoundment cover and its closure devices must be
visually inspected by the owner or operator to check for defects
that could result in air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but
are not limited to, visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the cover section
seams or between the interface of the cover edge and its foundation
mountings; broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged seals or gaskets
on closure devices; and broken or missing hatches, access covers,
caps, or other closure devices.
B) The closed-vent system and control device must be inspected and
monitored by the owner or operator in accordance with the
procedures specified in Section 724.987.
450
C) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of the air
emission control equipment on or before the date that the surface
impoundment becomes subject to this Section. Thereafter, the
owner or operator must perform the inspections at least once every
year except for the special conditions provided for in subsection
(g) of this Section.
D) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator must
repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(f) of this Section.
E) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection in
accordance with the requirements specified in Section 724.989(c).
e) The owner or operator must transfer hazardous waste to a surface impoundment
subject to this Section in accordance with the following requirements:
1) Transfer of hazardous waste, except as provided in subsection (e)(2) of
this Section, to the surface impoundment from another surface
impoundment subject to this Section or from a tank subject to Section
724.984 must be conducted using continuous hard-piping or another
closed system that does not allow exposure of the waste to the
atmosphere. For the purpose of complying with this provision, an
individual drain system is considered to be a closed system when it meets
the requirements of subpart RR of 40 CFR 63
S
, Subpart RR,
S
S
“
S
(National
Emission Standards for Individual Drain Systems
S
,”
S
), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
2) The requirements of subsection (e)(1) of this Section do not apply when
transferring a hazardous waste to the surface impoundment under any of
the following conditions:
A) The hazardous waste meets the average VO concentration
conditions specified in Section 724.982(c)(1) at the point of waste
origination.
B) The hazardous waste has been treated by an organic destruction or
removal process to meet the requirements in Section
724.982(c)(2).
C) The hazardous waste meets the requirements of Section
724.982(c)(4).
f) The owner or operator must repair each defect detected during an inspection
performed in accordance with the requirements of subsection (c)(3) or (d)(3) of
this Section as follows:
451
1) The owner or operator must make first efforts at repair of the defect no
later than five calendar days after detection and repair must be completed
as soon as possible but no later than 45 calendar days after detection
except as provided in subsection (f)(2) of this Section.
2) Repair of a defect may be delayed beyond 45 calendar days if the owner
or operator determines that repair of the defect requires emptying or
temporary removal from service of the surface impoundment and no
alternative capacity is available at the site to accept the hazardous waste
normally managed in the surface impoundment. In this case, the owner or
operator must repair the defect the next time the process or unit that is
generating the hazardous waste managed in the surface impoundment
stops operation. Repair of the defect must be completed before the
process or unit resumes operation.
g) Following the initial inspection and monitoring of the cover, as required by the
applicable provisions of this Subpart CC, subsequent inspection and monitoring
may be performed at intervals longer than one year in the case when inspecting or
monitoring the cover would expose a worker to dangerous, hazardous, or other
unsafe conditions. In this case, the owner or operator may designate the cover as
an “unsafe to inspect and monitor cover” and comply with all of the following
requirements:
1) Prepare a written explanation for the cover stating the reasons why the
cover is unsafe to visually inspect or to monitor, if required.
2) Develop and implement a written plan and schedule to inspect and
monitor the cover using the procedures specified in the applicable Section
of this Subpart CC as frequently as practicable during those times when a
worker can safely access the cover.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.986 Standards: Containers
a) The provisions of this Section apply to the control of air pollutant emissions from
containers for which Section 724.982(b) references the use of this Section for
such air emission control.
b) General requirements.
1) The owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from each
container subject to this Section in accordance with the following
requirements, as applicable to the container, except when the special
provisions for waste stabilization processes specified in subsection (b)(2)
452
of this Section apply to the container.
A) For a container having a design capacity greater than 0.1 m
P
3
P
(26
gal) and less than or equal to 0.46 m
P
3
P
(120 gal), the owner or
operator must control air pollutant emissions from the container in
accordance with the Container Level 1 standards specified in
subsection (c) of this Section.
B) For a container having a design capacity greater than 0.46 m
P
3
P
(120
gal) that is not in light material service, the owner or operator must
control air pollutant emissions from the container in accordance
with the Container Level 1 standards, specified in subsection (c) of
this Section.
C) For a container having a design capacity greater than 0.46 m
P
3
P
(120
gal) that is in light material service, the owner or operator must
control air pollutant emissions from the container in accordance
with the Container Level 2 standards specified in subsection (d) of
this Section.
2) When a container having a design capacity greater than 0.1 m
P
3
P
(26 gal) is
used for treatment of a hazardous waste by a waste stabilization process,
the owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from the
container in accordance with the Container Level 3 standards specified in
subsection (e) of this Section at those times during the waste stabilization
process when the hazardous waste in the container is exposed to the
atmosphere.
c) Container Level 1 standards.
1) A container using Container Level 1 controls is one of the following:
A) A container that meets the applicable USDOT regulations on
packaging hazardous materials for transportation, as specified in
subsection (f) of this Section.
B) A container equipped with a cover and closure devices that form a
continuous barrier over the container openings so that when the
cover and closure devices are secured in the closed position there
are no visible holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the interior of
the container. The cover may be a separate cover installed on the
container (e.g., a lid on a drum or a suitably secured tarp on a roll-
off box) or may be an integral part of the container structural
design (e.g., a “portable tank” or bulk cargo container equipped
with a screw-type cap).
453
C) An open-top container in which an organic-vapor suppressing
barrier is placed on or over the hazardous waste in the container so
that no hazardous waste is exposed to the atmosphere. One
example of such a barrier is application of a suitable organic-vapor
suppressing foam.
2) A container used to meet the requirements of subsection (c)(1)(B) or
(c)(1)(C) of this Section must be equipped with covers and closure
devices, as applicable to the container, that are composed of suitable
materials to minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere
and to maintain the equipment integrity for as long as it is in service.
Factors to be considered in selecting the materials of construction and
designing the cover and closure devices must include the following: the
organic vapor permeability; the effects of contact with the hazardous
waste or its vapor managed in the container; the effects of outdoor
exposure of the closure device or cover material to wind, moisture, and
sunlight; and the operating practices for which the container is intended to
be used.
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in a container using Container Level 1
controls, the owner or operator must install all covers and closure devices
for the container, as applicable to the container, and secure and maintain
each closure device in the closed position, except as follows:
A) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of
adding hazardous waste or other material to the container, as
follows:
i) In the case when the container is filled to the intended final
level in one continuous operation, the owner or operator
must promptly secure the closure devices in the closed
position and install the covers, as applicable to the
container, upon conclusion of the filling operation.
ii) In the case when discrete quantities or batches of material
intermittently are added to the container over a period of
time, the owner or operator must promptly secure the
closure devices in the closed position and install covers, as
applicable to the container, upon either the container being
filled to the intended final level; the completion of a batch
loading after which no additional material will be added to
the container within 15 minutes; the person performing the
loading operation leaving the immediate vicinity of the
container; or the shutdown of the process generating the
material being added to the container, whichever condition
occurs first.
454
B) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of
removing hazardous waste from the container, as follows:
i) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of this
Section, an empty container, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.107(b), may be open to the atmosphere at any
time (i.e., covers and closure devices are not required to be
secured in the closed position on an empty container).
ii) In the case when discrete quantities or batches of material
are removed from the container but the container does not
meet the conditions to be an empty container, as defined in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.107(b), the owner or operator must
promptly secure the closure devices in the closed position
and install covers, as applicable to the container, upon the
completion of a batch removal after which no additional
material will be removed from the container within 15
minutes or the person performing the unloading operation
leaves the immediate vicinity of the container, whichever
condition occurs first.
C) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed when access inside
the container is needed to perform routine activities other than
transfer of hazardous waste. Examples of such activities include
those times when a worker needs to open a port to measure the
depth of or sample the material in the container, or when a worker
needs to open a manhole hatch to access equipment inside the
container. Following completion of the activity, the owner or
operator must promptly secure the closure device in the closed
position or reinstall the cover, as applicable to the container.
D) Opening of a spring-loaded pressure-vacuum relief valve,
conservation vent, or similar type of pressure relief device that
vents to the atmosphere is allowed during normal operations for
the purpose of maintaining the internal pressure of the container in
accordance with the container design specifications. The device
must be designed to operate with no detectable organic emissions
when the device is secured in the closed position. The settings at
which the device opens must be established so that the device
remains in the closed position whenever the internal pressure of
the container is within the internal pressure operating range
determined by the owner or operator based on container
manufacturer recommendations, applicable regulations, fire
protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes and
practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of
455
flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
Examples of normal operating conditions that may require these
devices to open are during those times when the internal pressure
of the container exceeds the internal pressure operating range for
the container as a result of loading operations or diurnal ambient
temperature fluctuations.
E) Opening of a safety device, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.981, is allowed at any time conditions require doing so to
avoid an unsafe condition.
4) The owner or operator of containers using Container Level 1 controls must
inspect the containers and their covers and closure devices, as follows:
A) In the case when a hazardous waste already is in the container at
the time the owner or operator first accepts possession of the
container at the facility and the container is not emptied within 24
hours after the container is accepted at the facility (i.e., it does not
meet the conditions for an empty container, as specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.107(b)), the owner or operator must visually
inspect the container and its cover and closure devices to check for
visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the interior of
the container when the cover and closure devices are secured in the
closed position. The container visual inspection must be
conducted on or before the date on which the container is accepted
at the facility (i.e., the date when the container becomes subject to
the Subpart CC container standards). For the purposes of this
requirement, the date of acceptance is the date of signature that the
facility owner or operator enters on Item 20 of the Uniform
Hazardous Waste Manifest, as set forth in the appendix to 40 CFR
262 (Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest and Instructions (EPA
Forms 8700–22 and 8700–22a and Their Instructions)),
incorporated by reference in
S
Appendix A to
S
35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
722
S
720.111(b) (USEPA Forms 8700-22 and 8700-22A), as required
under Section 724.171. If a defect is detected, the owner or
operator must repair the defect in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (c)(4)(C) of this Section.
B) In the case when a container used for managing hazardous waste
remains at the facility for a period of one year or more, the owner
or operator must visually inspect the container and its cover and
closure devices initially and thereafter, at least once every 12
months, to check for visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open
spaces into the interior of the container when the cover and closure
devices are secured in the closed position. If a defect is detected,
the owner or operator must repair the defect in accordance with the
456
requirements of subsection (c)(4)(C) of this Section.
C) When a defect is detected for the container, cover, or closure
devices, the owner or operator must make first efforts at repair of
the defect no later than 24 hours after detection and repair must be
completed as soon as possible but no later than five calendar days
after detection. If repair of a defect cannot be completed within
five calendar days, then the hazardous waste must be removed
from the container and the container must not be used to manage
hazardous waste until the defect is repaired.
5) The owner or operator must maintain at the facility a copy of the
procedure used to determine that containers with capacity of 0.46 m
P
3
P
(120
gal) or greater that do not meet applicable USDOT regulations, as
specified in subsection (f) of this Section, are not managing hazardous
waste in light material service.
d) Container Level 2 standards.
1) A container using Container Level 2 controls is one of the following:
A) A container that meets the applicable USDOT regulations on
packaging hazardous materials for transportation, as specified in
subsection (f) of this Section.
B) A container that operates with no detectable organic emissions, as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.981, and determined in
accordance with the procedure specified in subsection (g) of this
Section.
C) A container that has been demonstrated within the preceding 12
months to be vapor-tight by using Method 27 (Determination of
Vapor Tightness of Gasoline Delivery Tank Using Pressure-
Vacuum Test) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60
S
, appendix A, Method
27
S
(Test Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b), in accordance with the procedure specified in
subsection (h) of this Section.
2) Transfer of hazardous waste in or out of a container using Container Level
2 controls must be conducted in such a manner as to minimize exposure of
the hazardous waste to the atmosphere, to the extent practical, considering
the physical properties of the hazardous waste and good engineering and
safety practices for handling flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or
other hazardous materials. Examples of container loading procedures that
the USEPA considers to meet the requirements of this subsection (d)(2)
include using any one of the following: a submerged-fill pipe or other
457
submerged-fill method to load liquids into the container; a vapor-
balancing system or a vapor-recovery system to collect and control the
vapors displaced from the container during filling operations; or a fitted
opening in the top of a container through which the hazardous waste is
filled and subsequently purging the transfer line before removing it from
the container opening.
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in a container using Container Level 2
controls, the owner or operator must install all covers and closure devices
for the container, and secure and maintain each closure device in the
closed position, except as follows:
A) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of
adding hazardous waste or other material to the container, as
follows:
i) In the case when the container is filled to the intended final
level in one continuous operation, the owner or operator
must promptly secure the closure devices in the closed
position and install the covers, as applicable to the
container, upon conclusion of the filling operation.
ii) In the case when discrete quantities or batches of material
intermittently are added to the container over a period of
time, the owner or operator must promptly secure the
closure devices in the closed position and install covers, as
applicable to the container, upon either the container being
filled to the intended final level; the completion of a batch
loading after which no additional material will be added to
the container within 15 minutes; the person performing the
loading operation leaving the immediate vicinity of the
container; or the shutdown of the process generating the
material being added to the container, whichever condition
occurs first.
B) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of
removing hazardous waste from the container, as follows:
i) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of this
Section, an empty container, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.107(b), may be open to the atmosphere at any
time (i.e., covers and closure devices are not required to be
secured in the closed position on an empty container).
ii) In the case when discrete quantities or batches of material
are removed from the container but the container does not
458
meet the conditions to be an empty container, as defined in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.107(b), the owner or operator must
promptly secure the closure devices in the closed position
and install covers, as applicable to the container, upon the
completion of a batch removal after which no additional
material will be removed from the container within 15
minutes or the person performing the unloading operation
leaves the immediate vicinity of the container, whichever
condition occurs first.
C) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed when access inside
the container is needed to perform routine activities other than
transfer of hazardous waste. Examples of such activities include
those times when a worker needs to open a port to measure the
depth of or sample the material in the container, or when a worker
needs to open a manhole hatch to access equipment inside the
container. Following completion of the activity, the owner or
operator must promptly secure the closure device in the closed
position or reinstall the cover, as applicable to the container.
D) Opening of a spring-loaded, pressure-vacuum relief valve,
conservation vent, or similar type of pressure relief device that
vents to the atmosphere is allowed during normal operations for
the purpose of maintaining the internal pressure of the container in
accordance with the container design specifications. The device
must be designed to operate with no detectable organic emission
when the device is secured in the closed position. The settings at
which the device opens must be established so that the device
remains in the closed position whenever the internal pressure of
the container is within the internal pressure operating range
determined by the owner or operator based on container
manufacturer recommendations, applicable regulations, fire
protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes and
practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of
flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
Examples of normal operating conditions that may require these
devices to open are during those times when the internal pressure
of the container exceeds the internal pressure operating range for
the container as a result of loading operations or diurnal ambient
temperature fluctuations.
E) Opening of a safety device, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.981, is allowed at any time conditions require doing so to
avoid an unsafe condition.
4) The owner or operator of containers using Container Level 2 controls must
459
inspect the containers and their covers and closure devices, as follows:
A) In the case when a hazardous waste already is in the container at
the time the owner or operator first accepts possession of the
container at the facility and the container is not emptied within 24
hours after the container is accepted at the facility (i.e., it does not
meet the conditions for an empty container as specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.107(b)), the owner or operator must visually
inspect the container and its cover and closure devices to check for
visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the interior of
the container when the cover and closure devices are secured in the
closed position. The container visual inspection must be
conducted on or before the date on which the container is accepted
at the facility (i.e., the date when the container becomes subject to
the Subpart CC container standards). For the purposes of this
requirement, the date of acceptance is the date of signature that the
facility owner or operator enters on Item 20 of the Uniform
Hazardous Waste Manifest, in the appendix to 40 CFR 262
S
incorporated by reference in the appendix to 40 CFR 262
S
(Uniform
Hazardous Waste Manifest and Instructions (USEPA Forms 8700-
22 and
S
8700-22A
S
8700-22a and Their Instructions)), as required
under Section 724.171. If a defect is detected, the owner or
operator must repair the defect in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (d)(4)(C) of this Section.
B) In the case when a container used for managing hazardous waste
remains at the facility for a period of one year or more, the owner
or operator must visually inspect the container and its cover and
closure devices initially and thereafter, at least once every 12
months, to check for visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open
spaces into the interior of the container when the cover and closure
devices are secured in the closed position. If a defect is detected,
the owner or operator must repair the defect in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (d)(4)(C) of this Section.
C) When a defect is detected for the container, cover, or closure
devices, the owner or operator must make first efforts at repair of
the defect no later than 24 hours after detection, and repair must be
completed as soon as possible but no later than five calendar days
after detection. If repair of a defect cannot be completed within
five calendar days, then the hazardous waste must be removed
from the container and the container must not be used to manage
hazardous waste until the defect is repaired.
e) Container Level 3 standards.
460
1) A container using Container Level 3 controls is one of the following:
A) A container that is vented directly through a closed-vent system to
a control device in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(e)(2)(B) of this Section.
B) A container that is vented inside an enclosure that is exhausted
through a closed-vent system to a control device in accordance
with the requirements of subsections (e)(2)(A) and (e)(2)(B) of this
Section.
2) The owner or operator must meet the following requirements, as
applicable to the type of air emission control equipment selected by the
owner or operator:
A) The container enclosure must be designed and operated in
accordance with the criteria for a permanent total enclosure, as
specified in “Procedure T—Criteria for and Verification of a
Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure” under appendix B to 40
CFR 52.741
S
, appendix B, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111
S
(VOM Measurement Techniques for Capture
Efficiency). The enclosure may have permanent or temporary
openings to allow worker access; passage of containers through the
enclosure by conveyor or other mechanical means; entry of
permanent mechanical or electrical equipment; or direct airflow
into the enclosure. The owner or operator must perform the
verification procedure for the enclosure, as specified in Section 5.0
to “Procedure T—Criteria for and Verification of a Permanent or
Temporary Total Enclosure” initially when the enclosure is first
installed and, thereafter, annually.
B) The closed-vent system and control device must be designed and
operated in accordance with the requirements of Section 724.987.
3) Safety devices, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.981, may be installed
and operated as necessary on any container, enclosure, closed-vent
system, or control device used to comply with the requirements of
subsection (e)(1) of this Section.
4) Owners and operators using Container Level 3 controls in accordance with
the provisions of this Subpart CC must inspect and monitor the closed-
vent systems and control devices, as specified in Section 724.987.
5) Owners and operators that use Container Level 3 controls in accordance
with the provisions of this Subpart CC must prepare and maintain the
records specified in Section 724.989(d).
461
6) The transfer of hazardous waste into or out of a container using Container
Level 3 controls must be conducted in such a manner as to minimize
exposure of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere, to the extent practical
considering the physical properties of the hazardous waste and good
engineering and safety practices for handling flammable, ignitable,
explosive, reactive, or other hazardous materials. Examples of container
loading procedures that USEPA considers to meet the requirements of this
subsection (e)(6) include using any one of the following: the use of a
submerged-fill pipe or other submerged-fill method to load liquids into the
container; the use of a vapor-balancing system or a vapor-recovery system
to collect and control the vapors displaced from the container during filling
operations; or the use of a fitted opening in the top of a container through
which the hazardous waste is filled and subsequently purging the transfer
line before removing it from the container opening.
f) For the purpose of compliance with subsection (c)(1)(A) or (d)(1)(A) of this
Section, containers must be used that meet the applicable USDOT regulations on
packaging hazardous materials for transportation, as follows:
1) The container meets the applicable requirements specified by USDOT in
49 CFR 178
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Specifications for Packaging),
S
”
S
or 49 CFR 179
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Specifications for Tank Cars),
S
”
S
S
both
S
each incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
2) Hazardous waste is managed in the container in accordance with the
applicable requirements specified by USDOT in subpart B of 49 CFR 107
S
,
subpart B,
S
S
“
S
(Exemptions
S
”;
S
), 49 CFR 172
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Hazardous Materials Table,
Special Provisions, Hazardous Materials Communications, Emergency
Response Information, and Training Requirements
S
”;
S
), 49 CFR 173
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Shippers—General Requirements for Shipments and Packages
S
”;
S
), and
49 CFR 180
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Continuing Qualification and Maintenance of
Packagings),
S
”
S
each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
3) For the purpose of complying with this Subpart CC, no exceptions to the
49 CFR 178 or 179 regulations are allowed, except as provided for in
subsection (f)(4) of this Section.
4) For a lab pack that is managed in accordance with the USDOT
requirements of 49 CFR 178 (Specifications for Packagings)
S
, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
, for the purpose of complying
with this Subpart CC, an owner or operator may comply with the
exceptions for combination packagings specified by USDOT in 49 CFR
173.12(b) (Exceptions for Shipments of Waste Materials), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
462
g) To determine compliance with the no detectable organic emissions requirement of
subsection (d)(1)(B) of this Section, the procedure specified in Section 724.983(d)
must be used.
1) Each potential leak interface (i.e., a location where organic vapor leakage
could occur) on the container, its cover, and associated closure devices, as
applicable to the container, must be checked. Potential leak interfaces that
are associated with containers include, but are not limited to, the
following: the interface of the cover rim and the container wall; the
periphery of any opening on the container or container cover and its
associated closure device; and the sealing seat interface on a spring-loaded
pressure-relief valve.
2) The test must be performed when the container is filled with a material
having a volatile organic concentration representative of the range of
volatile organic concentrations for the hazardous wastes expected to be
managed in this type of container. During the test, the container cover and
closure devices must be secured in the closed position.
h) Procedure for determining a container to be vapor-tight using Method 27
S
of 40
CFR 60, appendix A
S
for the purpose of complying with subsection (d)(1)(C) of
this Section.
1) The test must be performed in accordance with Method 27
S
of 40 CFR 60,
appendix A, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
.
2) A pressure measurement device must be used that has a precision of ± 2.5
mm (0.098 in) water and that is capable of measuring above the pressure
at which the container is to be tested for vapor tightness.
3) If the test results determined by Method 27 indicate that the container
sustains a pressure change less than or equal to 750 Pascals (0.11 psig)
within five minutes after it is pressurized to a minimum of 4,500 Pascals
(0.65 psig), then the container is determined to be vapor-tight.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.989 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Each owner or operator of a facility subject to the requirements of this Subpart
CC must record and maintain the information specified in subsections (b) through
(j) of this Section, as applicable to the facility. Except for air emission control
equipment design documentation and information required by subsections (i) and
(j) of this Section, records required by this Section must be maintained in the
operating record for a minimum of three years. Air emission control equipment
463
design documentation must be maintained in the operating record until the air
emission control equipment is replaced or is otherwise no longer in service.
Information required by subsections (i) and (j) of this Section must be maintained
in the operating record for as long as the waste management unit is not using air
emission controls specified in Sections 724.984 through 724.987, in accordance
with the conditions specified in Section 724.980(d) or (b)(7), respectively.
b) The owner or operator of a tank using air emission controls in accordance with
the requirements of Section 724.984 must prepare and maintain records for the
tank that include the following information:
1) For each tank using air emission controls in accordance with the
requirements of Section 724.984, the owner or operator must record the
following:
A) A tank identification number (or other unique identification
description, as selected by the owner or operator).
B) A record for each inspection required by Section 724.984 that
includes the following information:
i) Date inspection was conducted.
ii) For each defect detected during the inspection: the location
of the defect, a description of the defect, the date of
detection, and corrective action taken to repair the defect.
In the event that repair of the defect is delayed in
accordance with the requirements of Section 724.984, the
owner or operator must also record the reason for the delay
and the date that completion of repair of the defect is
expected.
2) In addition to the information required by subsection (b)(1) of this
Section, the owner or operator must record the following information, as
applicable to the tank:
A) The owner or operator using a fixed roof to comply with the Tank
Level 1 control requirements specified in Section 724.984(c) must
prepare and maintain records for each determination for the
maximum organic vapor pressure of the hazardous waste in the
tank performed in accordance with the requirements of Section
724.984(c). The records must include the date and time the
samples were collected, the analysis method used, and the analysis
results.
B) The owner or operator using an internal floating roof to comply
464
with the Tank Level 2 control requirements specified in Section
724.984(e) must prepare and maintain documentation describing
the floating roof design.
C) Owners and operators using an external floating roof to comply
with the Tank Level 2 control requirements specified in Section
724.984(f) must prepare and maintain the following records:
i) Documentation describing the floating roof design and the
dimensions of the tank.
ii) Records for each seal gap inspection required by Section
724.984(f)(3) describing the results of the seal gap
measurements. The records must include the date that the
measurements were performed, the raw data obtained for
the measurements, and the calculations of the total gap
surface area. In the event that the seal gap measurements
do not conform to the specifications in Section
724.984(f)(1), the records must include a description of the
repairs that were made, the date the repairs were made, and
the date the tank was emptied, if necessary.
D) Each owner or operator using an enclosure to comply with the
Tank Level 2 control requirements specified in Section 724.984(i)
must prepare and maintain the following records:
i) Records for the most recent set of calculations and
measurements performed by the owner or operator to verify
that the enclosure meets the criteria of a permanent total
enclosure as specified in “Procedure T--Criteria for and
Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure”
under appendix B to 40 CFR 52.741
S
, appendix B
S
(VOM
Measurement Techniques for Capture Efficiency),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
ii) Records required for the closed-vent system and control
device in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(e) of this Section.
c) The owner or operator of a surface impoundment using air emission controls in
accordance with the requirements of Section 724.985 must prepare and maintain
records for the surface impoundment that include the following information:
1) A surface impoundment identification number (or other unique
identification description as selected by the owner or operator).
465
2) Documentation describing the floating membrane cover or cover design,
as applicable to the surface impoundment, that includes information
prepared by the owner or operator or provided by the cover manufacturer
or vendor describing the cover design, and certification by the owner or
operator that the cover meets the specifications listed in Section
724.985(c).
3) A record for each inspection required by Section 724.985 that includes the
following information:
A) Date inspection was conducted.
B) For each defect detected during the inspection the following
information: the location of the defect, a description of the defect,
the date of detection, and corrective action taken to repair the
defect. In the event that repair of the defect is delayed in
accordance with the provisions of Section 724.985(f), the owner or
operator must also record the reason for the delay and the date that
completion of repair of the defect is expected.
4) For a surface impoundment equipped with a cover and vented through a
closed-vent system to a control device, the owner or operator must prepare
and maintain the records specified in subsection (e) of this Section.
d) The owner or operator of containers using Container Level 3 air emission controls
in accordance with the requirements of Section 724.986 must prepare and
maintain records that include the following information:
1) Records for the most recent set of calculations and measurements
performed by the owner or operator to verify that the enclosure meets the
criteria of a permanent total enclosure as specified in “Procedure T--
Criteria for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total
Enclosure” under appendix B to 40 CFR 52.741
S
, appendix B, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
(VOM Measurement
Techniques for Capture Efficiency).
2) Records required for the closed-vent system and control device in
accordance with the requirements of subsection (e) of this Section.
e) The owner or operator using a closed-vent system and control device in
accordance with the requirements of Section 724.987 must prepare and maintain
records that include the following information:
1) Documentation for the closed-vent system and control device that includes
the following:
466
A) Certification that is signed and dated by the owner or operator
stating that the control device is designed to operate at the
performance level documented by a design analysis as specified in
subsection (e)(1)(B) of this Section or by performance tests as
specified in subsection (e)(1)(C) of this Section when the tank,
surface impoundment, or container is or would be operating at
capacity or the highest level reasonably expected to occur.
B) If a design analysis is used, then design documentation, as
specified in Section 724.935(b)(4). The documentation must
include information prepared by the owner or operator or provided
by the control device manufacturer or vendor that describes the
control device design in accordance with Section 724.935(b)(4)(C)
and certification by the owner or operator that the control
equipment meets the applicable specifications.
C) If performance tests are used, then a performance test plan as
specified in Section 724.935(b)(3) and all test results.
D) Information as required by Section 724.935(c)(1) and Section
724.935(c)(2), as applicable.
E) An owner or operator must record, on a semiannual basis, the
information specified in subsections (e)(1)(E)(i) and (e)(1)(E)(ii)
of this Section for those planned routine maintenance operations
that would require the control device not to meet the requirements
of Section 724.987(c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), or (c)(1)(C) of this Section,
as applicable.
i) A description of the planned routine maintenance that is
anticipated to be performed for the control device during
the next six-month period. This description must include
the type of maintenance necessary, planned frequency of
maintenance, and lengths of maintenance periods.
ii) A description of the planned routine maintenance that was
performed for the control device during the previous six-
month period. This description must include the type of
maintenance performed and the total number of hours
during those six months that the control device did not
meet the requirements of Section 724.987(c)(1)(A),
(c)(1)(B), or (c)(1)(C), as applicable, due to planned
routine maintenance.
F) An owner or operator must record the information specified in
467
subsections (e)(1)(F)(i) through (e)(1)(F)(iii) of this Section for
those unexpected control device system malfunctions that would
require the control device not to meet the requirements of Section
724.987 (c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), or (c)(1)(C) of this Section, as
applicable.
i) The occurrence and duration of each malfunction of the
control device system.
ii) The duration of each period during a malfunction when
gases, vapors, or fumes are vented from the waste
management unit through the closed-vent system to the
control device while the control device is not properly
functioning.
iii) Actions taken during periods of malfunction to restore a
malfunctioning control device to its normal or usual
manner of operation.
G) Records of the management of carbon removed from a carbon
adsorption system conducted in accordance with Section
724.987(c)(3)(B).
f) The owner or operator of a tank, surface impoundment, or container exempted
from standards in accordance with the provisions of Section 724.982(c) must
prepare and maintain the following records, as applicable:
1) For tanks, surface impoundments, or containers exempted under the
hazardous waste organic concentration conditions specified in Section
724.982(c)(1) or (c)(2)(A) through (c)(2)(E), the owner or operator must
record the information used for each waste determination (e.g., test results,
measurements, calculations, and other documentation) in the facility
operating log. If analysis results for waste samples are used for the waste
determination, then the owner or operator must record the date, time, and
location that each waste sample is collected in accordance with the
applicable requirements of Section 724.983.
2) For tanks, surface impoundments, or containers exempted under the
provisions of Section 724.982(c)(2)(G) or (c)(2)(H), the owner or operator
must record the identification number for the incinerator, boiler, or
industrial furnace in which the hazardous waste is treated.
g) An owner or operator designating a cover as “unsafe to inspect and monitor”
pursuant to Section 724.984(l) or Section 724.985(g) must record in a log that is
kept in the facility operating record the following information: the identification
numbers for waste management units with covers that are designated as “unsafe
468
to inspect and monitor,” the explanation for each cover stating why the cover is
unsafe to inspect and monitor, and the plan and schedule for inspecting and
monitoring each cover.
h) The owner or operator of a facility that is subject to this Subpart CC and to the
control device standards in federal subpart VV of 40 CFR 60
S
, Subpart VV
S
(Standards of Performance for Equipment Leaks of VOC in the Synthetic Organic
Chemicals Manufacturing Industry) or subpart V of 40 CFR 61
S
, Subpart V
S
(National Emission Standard for Equipment Leaks (Fugitive Emission Sources)),
each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b)
, may
elect to demonstrate compliance with the applicable Sections of this Subpart CC
by documentation either pursuant to this Subpart CC, or pursuant to the
provisions of subpart VV of 40 CFR 60
S
, Subpart VV
S
or subpart V of 40 CFR 61
S
,
Subpart V
S
, to the extent that the documentation required by 40 CFR 60 or 61
duplicates the documentation required by this Section.
i) For each tank or container not using air emission controls specified in Sections
724.984 through 724.987 in accordance with the conditions specified in Section
724.980(d), the owner or operator must record and maintain the following
information:
1) A list of the individual organic peroxide compounds manufactured at the
facility that meet the conditions specified in Section 724.980(d)(1).
2) A description of how the hazardous waste containing the organic peroxide
compounds identified pursuant to subsection (i)(1) of this Section are
managed at the facility in tanks and containers. This description must
include the following information:
A) For the tanks used at the facility to manage this hazardous waste,
sufficient information must be provided to describe the following
for each tank: a facility identification number for the tank, the
purpose and placement of this tank in the management train of this
hazardous waste, and the procedures used to ultimately dispose of
the hazardous waste managed in the tanks.
B) For containers used at the facility to manage this hazardous waste,
sufficient information must be provided to describe each tank: a
facility identification number for the container or group of
containers, the purpose and placement of this container or group of
containers in the management train of this hazardous waste, and
the procedures used to ultimately dispose of the hazardous waste
managed in the containers.
3) An explanation of why managing the hazardous waste containing the
organic peroxide compounds identified pursuant to subsection (i)(1) of
469
this Section in the tanks or containers identified pursuant to subsection
(i)(2) of this Section would create an undue safety hazard if the air
emission controls specified in Sections 724.984 through 724.987 were
installed and operated on these waste management units. This explanation
must include the following information:
A) For tanks used at the facility to manage this hazardous waste,
sufficient information must be provided to explain the following:
how use of the required air emission controls on the tanks would
affect the tank design features and facility operating procedures
currently used to prevent an undue safety hazard during
management of this hazardous waste in the tanks; and why
installation of safety devices on the required air emission controls,
as allowed under this Subpart CC, would not address those
situations in which evacuation of tanks equipped with these air
emission controls is necessary and consistent with good
engineering and safety practices for handling organic peroxides.
B) For containers used at the facility to manage this hazardous waste,
sufficient information must be provided to explain the following:
how use of the required air emission controls on the tanks would
affect the container design features and handling procedures
currently used to prevent an undue safety hazard during
management of this hazardous waste in the containers; and why
installation of safety devices on the required air emission controls,
as allowed under this Subpart CC, would not address those
situations in which evacuation of containers equipped with these
air emission controls is necessary and consistent with good
engineering and safety practices for handling organic peroxides.
j) For each hazardous waste management unit not using air emission controls
specified in Sections 724.984 through 724.987 in accordance with the
requirements of Section 724.980(b)(7), the owner and operator must record and
maintain the following information:
1) The certification that the waste management unit is equipped with and
operating air emission controls in accordance with the requirements of an
applicable federal Clean Air Act regulation codified under 40 CFR 60, 61,
or 63.
2) An identification of the specific federal requirements codified under 40
CFR 60, 61, or 63 with which the waste management unit is in
compliance.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
470
SUBPART DD: CONTAINMENT BUILDINGS
Section 724.1101 Design and Operating Standards
a) All containment buildings must comply with the following design and operating
standards:
1) The containment building must be completely enclosed with a floor, walls,
and a roof to prevent exposure to the elements (e.g. precipitation, wind,
run on) and to assure containment of managed wastes.
2) The floor and containment walls of the unit, including the secondary
containment system if required under subsection (b) of this Section, must
be designed and constructed of materials of sufficient strength and
thickness to support themselves, the waste contents, and any personnel
and heavy equipment that operate within the unit, and to prevent failure
due to pressure gradients, settlement, compression, or uplift, physical
contact with the hazardous wastes to which they are exposed; climatic
conditions; and the stresses of daily operation, including the movement of
heavy equipment within the unit and contact of such equipment with
containment walls. The unit must be designed so that it has sufficient
structural strength to prevent collapse or other failure. All surfaces to be
in contact with hazardous wastes must be chemically compatible with
those wastes. The containment building must meet the structural integrity
requirements established by professional organizations generally
recognized by the industry such as the American Concrete Institute (ACI)
and the American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM). If appropriate to
the nature of the waste management operation to take place in the unit, an
exception to the structural strength requirement may be made for light-
weight doors and windows that meet the following criteria:
A) They provide an effective barrier against fugitive dust emissions
under subsection (c)(1)(C) of this Section; and
B) The unit is designed and operated in a fashion that assures that
wastes will not actually come in contact with these openings.
3) Incompatible hazardous wastes or treatment reagents must not be placed
in the unit or its secondary containment system if they could cause the unit
or secondary containment system to leak, corrode, or otherwise fail.
4) A containment building must have a primary barrier designed to withstand
the movement of personnel, waste, and handling equipment in the unit
during the operating life of the unit and appropriate for the physical and
chemical characteristics of the waste to be managed.
471
b) For a containment building used to manage hazardous wastes containing free
liquids or treated with free liquids (the presence of which is determined by the
paint filter test, a visual examination, or other appropriate means), the owner or
operator must include the following:
1) A primary barrier designed and constructed of materials to prevent the
migration of hazardous constituents into the barrier (e.g., a geomembrane
covered by a concrete wear surface).
2) A liquid collection and removal system to minimize the accumulation of
liquid on the primary barrier of the containment building, as follows:
A) The primary barrier must be sloped to drain liquids to the
associated collection system; and
B) Liquids and waste must be collected and removed to minimize
hydraulic head on the containment system at the earliest
practicable time.
3) A secondary containment system including a secondary barrier designed
and constructed to prevent migration of hazardous constituents into the
barrier, and a leak detection system that is capable of detecting failure of
the primary barrier and collecting accumulated hazardous wastes and
liquids at the earliest practicable time.
A) The requirements of the leak detection component of the secondary
containment system are satisfied by installation of a system that is,
at a minimum, as follows:
i) It is constructed with a bottom slope of 1 percent or more;
and
ii) It is constructed of a granular drainage material with a
hydraulic conductivity of 1 x 10
P
-2
P
cm/sec or more and a
thickness of 12 inches (30.5 cm) or more, or constructed of
synthetic or geonet drainage materials with a transmissivity
of 3 x 10
P
-5
P
m
P
2
P
/sec or more.
B) If treatment is to be conducted in the building, an area in which
such treatment will be conducted must be designed to prevent the
release of liquids, wet materials, or liquid aerosols to other
portions of the building.
C) The secondary containment system must be constructed of
materials that are chemically resistant to the waste and liquids
managed in the containment building and of sufficient strength and
472
thickness to prevent collapse under the pressure exerted by
overlaying materials and by any equipment used in the
containment building. (Containment buildings can serve as
secondary containment systems for tanks placed within the
building under certain conditions. A containment building can
serve as an external liner system for a tank, provided it meets the
requirements of Section 724.193(d)(1). In addition, the
containment building must meet the requirements of Section
724.193(b) and Sections 724.193(c)(1) and (c)(2) to be an
acceptable secondary containment system for a tank.)
4) For existing units other than 90-day generator units, USEPA may delay
the secondary containment requirement for up to two years, based on a
demonstration by the owner or operator that the unit substantially meets
the standards of this Subpart DD. In making this demonstration, the
owner or operator must have done the following:
A) Provided written notice to USEPA of their request by November
16, 1992. This notification must have described the unit and its
operating practices with specific reference to the performance of
existing systems, and specific plans for retrofitting the unit with
secondary containment;
B) Responded to any comments from USEPA on these plans within
30 days; and
C) Fulfilled the terms of the revised plans, if such plans are approved
by USEPA.
c) An owner or operator of a containment building must do the following:
1) Use controls and practice to ensure containment of the hazardous waste
within the unit, and at a minimum:
A) Maintain the primary barrier to be free of significant cracks, gaps,
corrosion, or other deterioration that could cause hazardous waste
to be release from the primary barrier;
B) Maintain the level of the stored or treated hazardous waste within
the containment walls of the unit so that the height of any
containment wall is not exceeded;
C) Take measures to prevent the tracking of hazardous waste out of
the unit by personnel or by equipment used in handling the waste.
An area must be designated to decontaminate equipment and any
rinsate must be collected and properly managed; and
473
D) Take measures to control fugitive dust emissions such that any
openings (doors, windows, vents, cracks, etc.) exhibit no visible
emissions (see Method 22 (Visual Determination of Fugitive
Emissions from Material Sources and Smoke Emissions from
Flares) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60
S
, appendix A, Method 22
S
(Test
Methods)
S
- Visual Determination of Fugitive Emissions from
Material Sources and Smoke Emissions from Flares)
S
, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b). In addition, all
associated particulate collection devices (e.g., fabric filter,
electrostatic precipitator, etc.) must be operated and maintained
with sound air pollution control practices (see 40 CFR 60 for
guidance). This state of no visible emissions must be maintained
effectively at all times during routine operating and maintenance
conditions, including when vehicles and personnel are entering and
exiting the unit.
BOARD NOTE: At 40 CFR 264.1101(c)(1)(iv)
S
(2004)
S
(2005),
USEPA cites “40 CFR part 60, subpart 292.” At 57 Fed. Reg.
37217 (Aug. 18, 1992), USEPA repeats this citation in the
preamble discussion of adoption of the rules. No such provision
exists in the Code of Federal Regulations. While section 40 CFR
60.292 of the federal regulations pertains to control of fugitive dust
emissions, that provision is limited in its application to glass
melting furnaces. The Board has chosen to use the
S
more
S
general
citation: “40 CFR 60.”
2) Obtain certification by a qualified registered professional engineer (PE)
that the containment building design meets the requirements of
subsections (a) through (c) of this Section. For units placed into operation
prior to February 18, 1993, this certification must have been placed in the
facility’s operating record (on-site files for generators that are not formally
required to have operating records) no later than 60 days after the date of
initial operation of the unit. After February 18, 1993, PE certification has
been required prior to operation of the unit.
3) Throughout the active life of the containment building, if the owner or
operator detects a condition that could lead to or has caused a release of
hazardous waste, must repair the condition promptly. In addition,
however the following is required:
A) Upon detection of a condition that has caused to a release of
hazardous wastes (e.g., upon detection of leakage from the primary
barrier) the owner or operator must do the following:
i) Enter a record of the discovery in the facility operating
474
record;
ii) Immediately remove the portion of the containment
building affected by the condition from service;
iii) Determine what steps must be taken to repair the
containment building, remove any leakage from the
secondary collection system, and establish a schedule for
accomplishing the cleanup and repairs; and
iv) Within seven days after the discovery of the condition,
notify the Agency in writing of the condition, and within 14
working days, provide a written notice to the Agency with
a description of the steps taken to repair the containment
building, and the schedule for accomplishing the work.
B) The Agency must review the information submitted, make a
determination in accordance with Section 34 of the Act, regarding
whether the containment building must be removed from service
completely or partially until repairs and cleanup are complete, and
notify the owner or operator of the determination and the
underlying rationale in writing.
C) Upon completing all repairs and cleanup the owner and operator
must notify the Agency in writing and provide a verification,
signed by a qualified, registered professional engineer, that the
repairs and cleanup have been completed according to the written
plan submitted in accordance with subsection (c)(3)(A)(iv) of this
Section.
4) Inspect and record in the facility’s operating record, at least once every
seven days, data gathered from monitoring equipment and leak detection
equipment, as well as the containment building and the area immediately
surrounding the containment building, to detect signs of releases of
hazardous waste.
d) For containment buildings that contain areas both with and without secondary
containment, the owner or operator must do the following:
1) Design and operate each area in accordance with the requirements
enumerated in subsections (a) through (c) of this Section;
2) Take measures to prevent the release of liquids or wet materials into areas
without secondary containment; and
3) Maintain in the facility’s operating log a written description of the
475
operating procedures used to maintain the integrity of areas without
secondary containment.
e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Subpart DD the Agency must not
require secondary containment for a permitted containment building where the
owner operator demonstrates that the only free liquids in the unit are limited
amounts of dust suppression liquids required to meet occupational health and
safety requirements, and where containment of managed wastes and liquids can
be assured without a secondary containment system.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.Appendix A Recordkeeping Instructions
See appendix I to 40 CFR 264
S
, Appendix I
S
(Recordkeeping Instructions), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.Appendix D Cochran’s Approximation to the Behrens-Fisher Student’s T-Test
See appendix IV to 40 CFR 264
S
, Appendix IV
S
(Cochran’s Approximation to the Behrens-Fisher
Students’ T-Test), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.Appendix E Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste
See appendix V to 40 CFR 264
S
, Appendix V
S
(Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 724.Appendix I Groundwater Monitoring List
S
a)
The regulatory requirements pertain only to the list of substances; the right hand
columns (Methods and PQL) are given for informational purposes only. See also
subsections (e) and (f) of this Section.
S
b
S
a) Common names are those widely used in government regulations, scientific
publications and commerce; synonyms exist for many chemicals.
S
c
S
b) “CAS RN” means “Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number.” Where
“total” is entered, all species in the groundwater that contain this element are
included.
476
S
d
S
c) CAS index names are those used in the 9th Cumulative index.
S
e)
“Suggested Methods” refer to analytical procedure numbers used in “Test
Methods for Solid Waste,” SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111. Analytical details can be found in “Test Methods,” and in
documentation on file with USEPA. The packed column gas chromatography
methods 8010, 8020, 8030, 8040, 8060, 8080, 8090, 8110, 8120, 8140, 8150,
8240, and 8250 were in Update IIB of SW-846. However, in Update III, USEPA
replaced these methods with “capillary column gas chromatography (GC)
methods,” as the suggested methods.
S
f)
Practical Quantitation Limits (“PQLs”) are the lowest concentrations of analytes
in groundwater that can be reliably determined within specified limits of precision
and accuracy by the indicated methods under routine laboratory operating
conditions. The POLs listed are generally stated to one significant figure.
Caution: The PQL values in many cases are based only on a general estimate for
the method and not on a determination for individual compounds; PQLs are not a
part of the regulation.
S
g
S
d) PCBs (CAS RN 1336-36-3). This category contains congener chemicals,
including constituents Aroclor-1016 (CAS RN 12674-11-2), Aroclor-1221 (CAS
RN 11104-28-2), Aroclor-1232 (CAS RN 11141-16-5), Aroclor-1242 (CAS RN
53469-21-9), Aroclor-1248 (CAS RN 12672-29-6), Aroclor-1254 (CAS RN
11097-69-1) and Aroclor-1260 (CAS RN 11096-82-5).
S
The PQL shown is an
average value for PCB congeners.
S
S
h
S
e) PCDDs. This category includes congener chemicals, including tetrachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins (see also 2,3,7,8-TCDD), pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins and
hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins.
S
The PQL shown is an average value for PCDD
congeners.
S
S
i
S
f) PCDFs. This category contains congener chemicals, including tetrachloro-
dibenzofurans, pentachlorodibenzofurans, and hexachlorodibenzofurans.
S
The
PQL shown is an average for all PCDF congeners.
S
S
Common Name
S
S
CAS RN
S
S
Chemical Abstracts Service
Index Name
S
S
Suggested
Methods
S
S
PQL
(μg/L)
S
S
Acenaphthene
S
S
83-32-9
S
S
Acenaphthylene, 1,2-di-
hydro-
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Acenaphthylene
S
S
208-96-8
S
S
Acenaphthylene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Acetone
S
S
67-64-1
S
S
2-Propanone
S
S
8240
S
S
100.
S
477
S
Acetophenone
S
S
98-86-2
S
S
Ethanone, 1-phenyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Acetonitrile; Methyl
cyanide
S
S
75-05-8
S
S
Acetonitrile
S
S
8015
S
S
100.
S
S
2-Acetylaminofluorene; 2-
AAF
S
S
53-96-3
S
S
Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-
2-yl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Acrolein
S
S
107-02-8
S
S
2-Propenal
S
S
8030
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
5.
S
S
Acrylonitrile
S
S
107-13-1
S
S
2-Propenenitrile
S
S
8030
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
5.
S
S
Aldrin
S
S
309-00-2
S
S
1,4:5,8-Dimethano-
naphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-
hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-
hexahydro-
(1
α
,4
α
,4a
β
,5
α
,8
α
,8a
β
)-
S
S
8080
S
8270
S
S
0.05
S
10.
S
S
Allyl chloride
S
S
107-05-1
S
S
1-Propene, 3-chloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
100.
S
S
4-Aminobiphenyl
S
S
92-67-1
S
S
[1,1'-Biphenyl]-4-amine
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Aniline
S
S
62-53-3
S
S
Benzenamine
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Anthracene
S
S
120-12-7
S
S
Anthracene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Antimony
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Antimony
S
S
6010
S
7040
S
7041
S
S
300.
S
2000.
S
30.
S
S
Aramite
S
S
140-57-8
S
S
Sulfurous acid, 2-chloro-
ethyl 2-[4-(1,1-dimethyl-
ethyl)phenoxy]-1-methyl-
ethyl ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Arsenic
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Arsenic
S
S
6010
S
7060
S
7061
S
S
500.
S
10.
S
20.
S
S
Barium
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Barium
S
S
6010
S
7080
S
S
20.
S
1000.
S
478
S
Benzene
S
S
71-43-2
S
S
Benzene
S
S
8020
S
8240
S
S
2.
S
5.
S
S
Benzo[a]anthracene; Benz-
anthracene
S
S
56-55-3
S
S
Benz[a]anthracene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Benzo[b]fluoranthene
S
S
205-99-2
S
S
Benz[e]acephenanthrylene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Benzo[k]fluoranthene
S
S
207-08-9
S
S
Benzo[k]fluoranthene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Benzo[ghi]perylene
S
S
191-24-2
S
S
Benzo[ghi]perylene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Benzo[a]pyrene
S
S
50-32-8
S
S
Benzo[a]pyrene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Benzyl alcohol
S
S
100-51-6
S
S
Benzenemethanol
S
S
8270
S
S
20.
S
S
Beryllium
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Beryllium
S
S
6010
S
7090
S
7091
S
S
3.
S
50.
S
2.
S
S
α
-BHC
S
S
319-84-6
S
S
Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-
hexachloro-,
(1
α
,2
α
,3
β
,4
α
,5
β
,6
β
)-
S
S
8080
S
8250
S
S
0.05
S
10.
S
S
β
-BHC
S
S
319-85-7
S
S
Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-
hexachloro-,
(1
α
,2
β
,3
α
,4
β
,5
α
,6
β
)-
S
S
8080
S
8250
S
S
0.05
S
40.
S
S
δ
-BHC
S
S
319-86-8
S
S
Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-
hexachloro-,
(1
α
,2
α
,3
α
,4
β
,5
α
,6
β
)-
S
S
8080
S
8250
S
S
0.1
S
30.
S
S
γ
-BHC; Lindane
S
S
58-89-9
S
S
Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-
hexachloro-,
(1
α
,2
α
,3
β
,4
α
,5
α
,6
β
)-
S
S
8080
S
8250
S
S
0.05
S
10.
S
S
Bis(2-chloroethoxy)-
methane
S
S
111-91-1
S
S
Ethane, 1,1'-[methylenebis-
(oxy)]bis[2-chloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Bis(2-chloroethyl)ether
S
S
111-44-4
S
S
Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis[2-
chloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
479
S
Bis(2-chloro-1-methylethyl)
ether; 2,2'-Dichlorodiiso-
propyl ether
S
S
108-60-1
S
S
Propane, 2,2'-oxybis[1-
chloro-
S
S
8010
S
8270
S
S
100.
S
10.
S
S
Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate
S
S
117-81-7
S
S
1,2
-Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester
S
S
8060
S
8270
S
S
20.
S
10.
S
S
Bromodichloromethane
S
S
75-27-4
S
S
Methane, bromodichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
1.
S
5.
S
S
Bromoform; Tribromo-
methane
S
S
75-25-2
S
S
Methane, tribromo-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
2.
S
5.
S
S
4-Bromophenyl phenyl
ether
S
S
101-55-3
S
S
Benzene, 1-bromo-4-
phenoxy-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Butyl benzyl phthalate;
Benzyl butyl phthalate
S
S
85-68-7
S
S
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, butyl phenylmethyl
ester
S
S
8060
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
Cadmium
S
S
Total
S
S
Cadmium
S
S
6010
S
7130
S
7131
S
S
40.
S
50.
S
1.
S
S
Carbon disulfide
S
S
75-15-0
S
S
Carbon disulfide
S
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
S
Carbon tetrachloride
S
S
56-23-5
S
S
Methane, tetrachloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
1.
S
5.
S
S
Chlordane
S
S
57-74-9
S
S
4,7-Methano-1H-
indene,1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octa-
chloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexa-
hydro-
S
S
8080
S
8250
S
S
0.1
S
10.
S
S
p-Chloroaniline
S
S
106-47-8
S
S
Benzeneamine, 4-chloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
20.
S
S
Chlorobenzene
S
S
108-90-7
S
S
Benzene, chloro-
S
S
8010
S
8020
S
8240
S
S
2.
S
2.
S
5.
S
S
Chlorobenzilate
S
S
510-15-6
S
S
Benzeneacetic acid, 4-
chloro-
α
-
(4-chlorophenyl)-
α
-hydroxy-, ethylf ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
480
S
p-Chloro-m-cresol
S
S
59-50-7
S
S
Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl-
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
20.
S
S
Chloroethane; Ethyl
chloride
S
S
75-00-3
S
S
Ethane, chloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
Chloroform
S
S
67-66-3
S
S
Methane, trichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
0.5
S
5.
S
S
2-Chloronapthalene
S
S
91-58-7
S
S
Naphthalene, 2-chloro-
S
S
8120
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
10.
S
S
2-Chlorophenol
S
S
95-57-8
S
S
Phenol, 2-chloro-
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
4-Chlorophenyl phenyl
ether
S
S
7005-72-3
S
S
Benzene, 1-chloro-4-
phenoxy-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Chloroprene
S
S
126-99-8
S
S
1,3-Butadiene, 2-chloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
50.
S
5.
S
S
Chromium
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Chromium
S
S
6010
S
7190
S
7191
S
S
70.
S
500.
S
10.
S
S
Chrysene
S
S
218-01-9
S
S
Chrysene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Cobalt
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Cobalt
S
S
6010
S
7200
S
7201
S
S
70.
S
500.
S
10.
S
S
Copper
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Copper
S
S
6010
S
7210
S
S
60.
S
200.
S
S
m-Cresol
S
S
108-39-4
S
S
Phenol, 3-methyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
o-Cresol
S
S
95-48-7
S
S
Phenol, 2-methyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
p-Cresol
S
S
106-44-5
S
S
Phenol, 4-methyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Cyanide
S
S
57-12-5
S
S
Cyanide
S
S
9010
S
S
40.
S
S
2,4-D; 2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid
S
S
94-75-7
S
S
Acetic acid, (2,4-dichloro-
phenoxy)-
S
S
8150
S
S
10.
S
481
S
4,4'-DDD
S
S
72-54-8
S
S
Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2-dichloro-
ethylidene)bis[4-chloro-
S
S
8080
S
8270
S
S
0.1
S
10.
S
S
4,4'-DDE
S
S
72-55-9
S
S
Benzene, 1,1'-(dichloro-
ethylidene)bis[4-chloro-
S
S
8080
S
8270
S
S
0.05
S
10.
S
S
4,4'-DDT
S
S
50-29-3
S
S
Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-tri-
chloroethylidene)bis[4-
chloro-
S
S
8080
S
8270
S
S
0.1
S
10.
S
S
Diallate
S
S
2303-16-4
S
S
Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-
methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-di-
chloro--2-propenyl) ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Dibenz[a,h]anthracene
S
S
53-70-3
S
S
Dibenz[a,h]anthracene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Dibenzofuran
S
S
132-64-9
S
S
Dibenzofuran
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Dibromochloromethane;
Chlorodibromomethane
S
S
124-48-1
S
S
Methane, dibromochloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
1.
S
5.
S
S
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloro-
propane; DBCP
S
S
96-12-8
S
S
Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-
chloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
8270
S
S
100.
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
1,2-Dibromoethane;
Ethylene dibromide
S
S
106-93-4
S
S
Ethane, 1,2-dibromo-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
10.
S
5.
S
S
Di-n-butyl phthalate
S
S
84-74-2
S
S
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, dibutyl ester
S
S
8060
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
o-Dichlorobenzene
S
S
95-50-1
S
S
Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8020
S
8120
S
8270
S
S
2.
S
5.
S
10.
S
10.
S
S
m-Dichlorobenzene
S
S
541-73-1
S
S
Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8020
S
8120
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
5.
S
10.
S
10.
S
482
S
p-Dichlorobenzene
S
S
106-46-7
S
S
Benzene, 1,4-dichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8020
S
8120
S
8270
S
S
2.
S
5.
S
15.
S
10.
S
S
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine
S
S
91-94-1
S
S
[1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-di-
amine, 3,3'-dichloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
20.
S
S
trans-1,4-Dichloro-2-butene
S
S
110-57-6
S
S
2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-,
(E)-
S
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
S
Dichlorodifluoromethane
S
S
75-71-8
S
S
Methane, dichlorodifluoro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
10.
S
5.
S
S
1,1-Dichloroethane
S
S
75-34-3
S
S
Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
1.
S
5.
S
S
1,2-Dichloroethane;
Ethylene dichloride
S
S
107-06-2
S
S
Ethane, 1,2-dichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
0.5
S
5.
S
S
1,1-Dichloroethylene;
Vinylidene chloride
S
S
75-35-4
S
S
Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
1.
S
5.
S
S
trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene
S
S
156-60-5
S
S
Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
1.
S
5.
S
S
2,4-Dichlorophenol
S
S
120-83-2
S
S
Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
2,6-Dichlorophenol
S
S
87-65-0
S
S
Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
1,2-Dichloropropane
S
S
78-87-5
S
S
Propane, 1,2-dichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
0.5
S
5.
S
S
cis-1,3-Dichloropropene
S
S
10061-01-5
S
S
1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-,
(Z)-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
20.
S
5.
S
S
trans-1,3-Dichloropropene
S
S
10061-02-6
S
S
1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-,
(E)-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
5.
S
483
S
Dieldrin
S
S
60-57-1
S
S
2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth-
[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-
hexachloro-
1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octa-
hydro-
,(1a
α
,2
β
,2a
α
,3
β
,6
β
,6a
α
,7
β
,
7a
α
)-
S
S
8080
S
8270
S
S
0.05
S
10.
S
S
Diethyl phthalate
S
S
84-66-2
S
S
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, diethyl ester
S
S
8060
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
O,O-Diethyl O-2-pyrazinyl
phosphorothioate;
Thionazin
S
S
297-97-2
S
S
Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-
diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Dimethoate
S
S
60-51-5
S
S
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methyl-
amino)-2-oxoethyl] ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
p-(Dimethylamino)-
azobenzene
S
S
60-11-7
S
S
Benzenamine, N,N-di-
methyl-4-(phenylazo)-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]-
anthracene
S
S
57-97-6
S
S
Benz[a]anthracene,7,12-di-
methyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine
S
S
119-93-7
S
S
[1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-di-
amine, 3,3'-dimethyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
α
,
α
-Dimethylphenethyl-
amine
S
S
122-09-8
S
S
Benzeneethanamine,
α
,
α
-
dimethyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
2,4-Dimethylphenol
S
S
105-67-9
S
S
Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
Dimethyl phthalate
S
S
131-11-3
S
S
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, dimethyl ester
S
S
8060
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
m-Dinitrobenzene
S
S
99-65-0
S
S
Benzene, 1,3-dinitro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol
S
S
534-52-1
S
S
Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-di-
nitro-
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
150.
S
50.
S
S
2,4-Dinitrophenol
S
S
51-28-5
S
S
Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
150.
S
50.
S
484
S
2,4-Dinitrotoluene
S
S
121-14-2
S
S
Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-di-
nitro-
S
S
8090
S
8270
S
S
0.2
S
10.
S
S
2,6-Dinitrotoluene
S
S
606-20-2
S
S
Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-di-
nitro-
S
S
8090
S
8270
S
S
0.1
S
10.
S
S
Dinoseb; DNBP; 2-sec-
Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol
S
S
88-85-7
S
S
Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-
4,6-dinitro-
S
S
8150
S
8270
S
S
1.
S
10.
S
S
Di-n-octyl phthalate
S
S
117-84-0
S
S
1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, dioctyl ester
S
S
8060
S
8270
S
S
30.
S
10.
S
S
1,4-Dioxane
S
S
123-91-1
S
S
1,4-Dioxane
S
S
8015
S
S
150.
S
S
Diphenylamine
S
S
122-39-4
S
S
Benzeneamine, N-phenyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Disulfoton
S
S
298-04-4
S
S
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethyl-
thio)ethyl] ester
S
S
8140
S
8270
S
S
2.
S
10.
S
S
Endosulfan I
S
S
959-98-8
S
S
6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodi-
oxathiepin,6,7,8,9,10,10-
hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-
hexahydro-, 3-oxide,
(3
α
,5a
β
,6
α
,9
α
,9a
β
)-
S
S
8080
S
8250
S
S
0.1
S
10.
S
S
Endosulfan II
S
S
33213-65-9
S
S
6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodi-
oxathiepin,6,7,8,9,10,10-
hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-
hexahydro-, 3-oxide,
(3
α
,5a
α
,6
β
,9
β
,9a
α
)-
S
S
8080
S
S
0.05
S
S
Endosulfan sulfate
S
S
1031-07-8
S
S
6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodi-
oxathiepin,6,7,8,9,10,10-
hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-
hexahydro-,3,3-dioxide
S
S
8080
S
8270
S
S
0.5
S
10.
S
S
Endrin
S
S
72-20-8
S
S
2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth-
[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-
hexachloro-
1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octa-
hydro-,
(1a
α
,2
β
,2a
β
,3
α
,6
α
,6a
β
,7
β
,
7a
α
)-
S
S
8080
S
8250
S
S
0.1
S
10.
S
485
S
Endrin aldehyde
S
S
7421-93-4
S
S
1,2,4-Methanocyclopenta-
[cd]pentalene-5-carbox-
aldehyde, 2,2a,3,3,4,7-hexa-
chlorodecahydro-,
(1
α
,2
β
,2a
β
,4
β
,4a
β
,5
β
,6a
β
,6
b
β
,7R)-
S
S
8080
S
8270
S
S
0.2
S
10.
S
S
Ethylbenzene
S
S
100-41-4
S
S
Benzene, ethyl-
S
S
8020
S
8240
S
S
2.
S
5.
S
S
Ethyl methacrylate
S
S
97-63-2
S
S
2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-
, ethyl ester
S
S
8015
S
8240
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
Ethyl methanesulfonate
S
S
62-50-0
S
S
Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl
ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Famphur
S
S
52-85-7
S
S
Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-
[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]-
phenyl]-O,O-dimethyl ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Fluoranthene
S
S
206-44-0
S
S
Fluoranthene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Fluorene
S
S
86-73-7
S
S
9H-Fluorene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Heptachlor
S
S
76-44-8
S
S
4,7-Methano-1H-indene,
1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-
3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-
S
S
8080
S
8270
S
S
0.05
S
10.
S
S
Heptachlor epoxide
S
S
1024-57-3
S
S
2,5-Methano-2H-indeno-
[1,2-b]oxirene,
2,3,4,5,6,7,7-heptachloro-
1a,1b,5,5a,6,6a-hexahydro-,
(1a
α
,1b
β
,2
α
,5
α
,5a
β
,6
β
,6a
α
)-
S
S
8080
S
8270
S
S
1.
S
10.
S
S
Hexachlorobenzene
S
S
118-74-1
S
S
Benzene, hexachloro-
S
S
8120
S
8270
S
S
0.5
S
10.
S
S
Hexachlorobutadiene
S
S
87-68-3
S
S
1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-
hexachloro-
S
S
8120
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
486
S
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene
S
S
77-47-4
S
S
1,3-Cyclopentadiene,
1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro-
S
S
8120
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
Hexachloroethane
S
S
67-72-1
S
S
Ethane, hexachloro-
S
S
8120
S
8270
S
S
0.5
S
10.
S
S
Hexachlorophene
S
S
70-30-4
S
S
Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis-
[3,4,6-trichloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Hexachloropropene
S
S
1888-71-7
S
S
1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-
hexachloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
2-Hexanone
S
S
591-78-6
S
S
2-Hexanone
S
S
8240
S
S
50.
S
S
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene
S
S
193-39-5
S
S
Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Isobutyl alcohol
S
S
78-83-1
S
S
1-Propanol, 2-methyl-
S
S
8015
S
S
50.
S
S
Isodrin
S
S
465-73-6
S
S
1,4,5,8-Dimethano-
naphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-
hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-
hexahydro-
(1
α
,4
α
,4a
β
,5
β
,8
β
,8a
β
)-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Isophorone
S
S
78-59-1
S
S
2-Cyclohexen-1-one, 3,5,5-
trimethyl-
S
S
8090
S
8270
S
S
60.
S
10.
S
S
Isosafrole
S
S
120-58-1
S
S
1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-
propenyl)-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Kepone
S
S
143-50-0
S
S
1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclo-
buta-[c,d]pentalen-2-one,
1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-
decachlorooctahydro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Lead
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Lead
S
S
6010
S
7420
S
7421
S
S
40.
S
1000.
S
10.
S
S
Mercury
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Mercury
S
S
7470
S
S
2.
S
S
Methacrylonitrile
S
S
126-96-7
S
S
2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl-
S
S
8015
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
5.
S
487
S
Methapyrilene
S
S
91-80-5
S
S
1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-di-
methyl-N'-2-pyridinyl-N'-
(2-thienylmethyl)-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Methoxychlor
S
S
72-43-5
S
S
Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-tri-
chloroethylidene)bis[4-
methoxy-
S
S
8080
S
8270
S
S
2.
S
10.
S
S
Methyl bromide; Bromo-
methane
S
S
74-83-9
S
S
Methane, bromo-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
20.
S
10.
S
S
Methyl chloride; Chloro-
methane
S
S
74-87-3
S
S
Methane, chloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
1.
S
10.
S
S
3-Methylcholanthrene
S
S
56-49-5
S
S
Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-
dihydro-3-methyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Methylene bromide; Di-
bromomethane
S
S
74-95-3
S
S
Methane, dibromo-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
15.
S
5.
S
S
Methylene chloride; Di-
chloromethane
S
S
75-09-2
S
S
Methane, dichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
5.
S
S
Methyl ethyl ketone; MEK
S
S
78-93-3
S
S
2-Butanone
S
S
8015
S
8240
S
S
10.
S
100.
S
S
Methyl iodide; Iodomethane
S
S
74-88-4
S
S
Methane, iodo-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
40.
S
5.
S
S
Methyl methacrylate
S
S
80-62-6
S
S
2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-
, methyl ester
S
S
8015
S
8240
S
S
2.
S
5.
S
S
Methyl methanesulfonate
S
S
66-27-3
S
S
Methanesulfonic acid,
methyl ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
2-Methylnaphthalene
S
S
91-57-6
S
S
Naphthylene, 2-methyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Methyl parathion; Parathion
methyl
S
S
298-00-0
S
S
Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-
dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl)
ester
S
S
8140
S
8270
S
S
0.5
S
10.
S
S
4-Methyl-2-pentanone;
Methyl isobutyl ketone
S
S
108-10-1
S
S
2-Pentanone, 4-methyl-
S
S
8015
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
50.
S
488
S
Naphthalene
S
S
91-20-3
S
S
Naphthalene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
1,4-Naphthoquinone
S
S
130-15-4
S
S
1,4-Naphthalenedione
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
1-Naphthylamine
S
S
134-32-7
S
S
1-Naphthalenamine
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
2-Naphthylamine
S
S
91-59-8
S
S
2-Naphthalenamine
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Nickel
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Nickel
S
S
6010
S
7520
S
S
50.
S
400.
S
S
o-Nitroaniline
S
S
88-74-4
S
S
Benzenamine, 2-nitro-
S
S
8270
S
S
50.
S
S
m-Nitroaniline
S
S
99-09-2
S
S
Benzenamine, 3-nitro-
S
S
8270
S
S
50.
S
S
p-Nitroaniline
S
S
100-01-6
S
S
Benzenamine, 4-nitro-
S
S
8270
S
S
50.
S
S
Nitrobenzene
S
S
98-95-3
S
S
Benzene, nitro-
S
S
8090
S
8270
S
S
40.
S
10.
S
S
o-Nitrophenol
S
S
88-75-5
S
S
Phenol, 2-nitro-
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
p-Nitrophenol
S
S
100-02-7
S
S
Phenol, 4-nitro-
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
50.
S
S
4-Nitroquinoline 1-oxide
S
S
56-57-5
S
S
Quinoline, 4-nitro-, 1-oxide
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine
S
S
924-16-3
S
S
1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-
nitroso-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
N-Nitrosodiethylamine
S
S
55-18-5
S
S
Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-
nitroso-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
N-Nitrosodimethylamine
S
S
62-75-9
S
S
Methanamine, N-methyl-N-
nitroso-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
N-Nitrosodiphenylamine
S
S
86-30-6
S
S
Benzenamine, N-nitroso-N-
phenyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
N-Nitrosodipropylamine;
Di-n-propylnitrosamine
S
S
621-64-7
S
S
1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-
N-propyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
489
S
N-Nitrosomethylethylamine
S
S
10595-95-6
S
S
Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-
nitroso-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
N-Nitrosomorpholine
S
S
59-89-2
S
S
Morpholine, 4-nitroso-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
N-Nitrosopiperidene
S
S
100-75-4
S
S
Piperidene, 1-nitroso-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine
S
S
930-55-2
S
S
Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
5-Nitro-o-toluidine
S
S
99-55-8
S
S
Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-
nitro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Parathion
S
S
56-38-2
S
S
Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-
diethyl-O-(4-nitrophenyl)
ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Polychlorinated biphenyls;
PCBs
S
S
See (g)
S
S
1,1'-Biphenyl, chloro
derivatives
S
S
8080
S
8250
S
S
50.
S
100.
S
S
Polychlorinated dibenzo-p-
dioxins; PCDDs
S
S
See (h)
S
S
Dibenzo[b,e][1,4]dioxin,
chloro derivatives
S
S
8280
S
S
0.01
S
S
Polychlorinated di-
benzofurans; PCDFs
S
S
See (i)
S
S
Bibenzofuran, chloro
derivatives
S
S
8280
S
S
0.01
S
S
Pentachlorobenzene
S
S
608-93-5
S
S
Benzene, pentachloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Pentachloroethane
S
S
76-01-7
S
S
Ethane, pentachloro-
S
S
8240
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
Pentachloronitrobenzene
S
S
82-68-8
S
S
Benzene, pentachloronitro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Pentachlorophenol
S
S
87-86-5
S
S
Phenol, pentachloro-
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
50.
S
S
Phenacetin
S
S
62-44-2
S
S
Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxy-
phenyl)
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Phenanthrene
S
S
85-01-8
S
S
Phenanthrene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Phenol
S
S
108-95-2
S
S
Phenol
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
1.
S
10.
S
S
p-Phenylenediamine
S
S
106-50-3
S
S
1,4-Benzenediamine
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
490
S
Phorate
S
S
298-02-2
S
S
Phosphorodithioic acid,
O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)-
methyl] ester
S
S
8140
S
8270
S
S
2.
S
10.
S
S
2-Picoline
S
S
109-06-8
S
S
Pyridine, 2-methyl-
S
S
8240
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
Pronamide
S
S
23950-58-5
S
S
Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-
(1,1-dimethyl-2-propenyl)-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Propionitrile; Ethyl cyanide
S
S
107-12-0
S
S
Propanenitrile
S
S
8015
S
8240
S
S
60.
S
5.
S
S
Pyrene
S
S
129-00-0
S
S
Pyrene
S
S
8100
S
8270
S
S
200.
S
10.
S
S
Pyridine
S
S
110-86-1
S
S
Pyridine
S
S
8240
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
Safrole
S
S
94-59-7
S
S
1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-
propenyl)-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Selenium
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Selenium
S
S
6010
S
7740
S
7741
S
S
750.
S
20.
S
20.
S
S
Silver
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Silver
S
S
6010
S
7760
S
S
70.
S
100.
S
S
Silvex; 2,4,5-TP
S
S
93-72-1
S
S
Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-tri-
chlorophenoxy)-
S
S
8150
S
S
2.
S
S
Styrene
S
S
100-42-5
S
S
Benzene, ethenyl-
S
S
8020
S
8240
S
S
1.
S
5.
S
S
Sulfide
S
S
18496-25-8
S
S
Sulfide
S
S
9030
S
S
10000.
S
S
2,4,5-T; 2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid
S
S
93-76-5
S
S
Acetic acid, (2,4,5-tri-
chlorophenoxy)-
S
S
8150
S
S
2.
S
S
2,3,7,8-TCDD; 2,3,7,8-
Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-
dioxin
S
S
1746-01-8
S
S
Dibenzo[b,e][1,4]dioxin,
2,3,7,8-tetrachloro-
S
S
8280
S
S
0.005
S
491
S
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene
S
S
95-94-3
S
S
Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetra-
chloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane
S
S
630-20-6
S
S
Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
5.
S
S
1,1,2,2,-Tetrachloroethane
S
S
79-34-5
S
S
Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
0.5
S
5.
S
S
Tetrachloroethylene;
Perchloroethylene; Tetra-
chloroethene
S
S
127-18-4
S
S
Ethene, tetrachloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
0.5
S
5.
S
S
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol
S
S
58-90-2
S
S
Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Tetraethyl dithiopyro-
phosphate; Sulfotepp
S
S
3689-24-5
S
S
Thiodiphosphoric acid
([(HO)2P(S)]2O), tetraethyl
ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Thallium
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Thallium
S
S
6010
S
7840
S
7841
S
S
400.
S
1000.
S
10.
S
S
Tin
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Tin
S
S
7870
S
S
8000.
S
S
Toluene
S
S
108
-88-3
S
S
Benzene, methyl-
S
S
8020
S
8240
S
S
2.
S
5.
S
S
o-Toluidine
S
S
95-53-4
S
S
Benzenamine, 2-methyl-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Toxaphene
S
S
8001-35-2
S
S
Toxaphene
S
S
8080
S
8250
S
S
2.
S
10.
S
S
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene
S
S
120-82-1
S
S
Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
1,1,1-Trichloroethane;
Methyl chloroform
S
S
71-55-6
S
S
Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-
S
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
S
1,1,2-Trichloroethane
S
S
79-00-5
S
S
Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
0.2
S
5.
S
S
Trichloroethylene; Tri-
chloroethene
S
S
79-01-6
S
S
Ethene, trichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
1.
S
5.
S
492
S
Trichlorofluoromethane
S
S
75-69-4
S
S
Methane, trichlorofluoro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
10.
S
5.
S
S
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol
S
S
95-96-4
S
S
Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol
S
S
88-06-2
S
S
Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro-
S
S
8040
S
8270
S
S
5.
S
10.
S
S
1,2,3-Trichloropropane
S
S
96-18-4
S
S
Propane, 1,2,3-trichloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
10.
S
5.
S
S
O,O,O-Triethyl
phosphorothioate
S
S
126-68-1
S
S
Phosphorothioic acid,
O,O,O-triethyl ester
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
sym-Trinitrobenzene
S
S
99-35-4
S
S
Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro-
S
S
8270
S
S
10.
S
S
Vanadium
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Vanadium
S
S
6010
S
7910
S
7911
S
S
80.
S
2000.
S
40.
S
S
Vinyl acetate
S
S
108-05-4
S
S
Acetic acid, ethenyl ester
S
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
S
Vinyl chloride
S
S
75-01-4
S
S
Ethene, chloro-
S
S
8010
S
8240
S
S
2.
S
10.
S
S
Xylene (total)
S
S
1330-20-7
S
S
Benzene, dimethyl-
S
S
8020
S
8240
S
S
5.
S
5.
S
S
Zinc
S
S
(Total)
S
S
Zinc
S
S
6010
S
7950
S
S
20.
S
50.
S
Common Name CAS RN Chemical Abstracts Service Index Name
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 Acenaphthylene, 1,2-dihydro-
Acenaphthylene 208-96-8 Acenaphthylene
Acetone 67-64-1 2-Propanone
Acetophenone 98-86-2 Ethanone, 1-phenyl-
Acetonitrile; Methyl
cyanide
75-05-8 Acetonitrile
2-Acetylaminofluorene; 2-
AAF
53-96-3 Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl-
Acrolein 107-02-8 2-Propenal
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 2-Propenenitrile
Aldrin 309-00-2 1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-
hexahydro- (1
α
,4
α
,4a
β
,5
α
,8
α
,8a
β
)-
Allyl chloride 107-05-1 1-Propene, 3-chloro-
493
4-Aminobiphenyl 92-67-1 (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4-amine
Aniline 62-53-3 Benzenamine
Anthracene 120-12-7 Anthracene
Antimony (Total) Antimony
Aramite 140-57-8 Sulfurous acid, 2-chloroethyl 2-(4-(1,1-
dimethylethyl)phenoxy)-1-methylethyl
ester
Arsenic (Total) Arsenic
Barium (Total) Barium
Benzene 71-43-2 Benzene
Benzo(a)anthracene; Benz-
anthracene
56-55-3 Benz(a)anthracene
Benzo(b)fluoranthene 205-99-2 Benz(e)acephenanthrylene
Benzo(k)fluoranthene 207-08-9 Benzo(k)fluoranthene
Benzo(ghi)perylene 191-24-2 Benzo(ghi)perylene
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 Benzo(a)pyrene
Benzyl alcohol 100-51-6 Benzenemethanol
Beryllium (Total) Beryllium
α
-BHC
319-84-6 Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-,
(1
α
,2
α
,3
β
,4
α
,5
β
,6
β
)-
β
-BHC
319-85-7 Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-,
(1
α
,2
β
,3
α
,4
β
,5
α
,6
β
)-
δ
-BHC
319-86-8 Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-,
(1
α
,2
α
,3
α
,4
β
,5
α
,6
β
)-
γ
-BHC; Lindane
58-89-9 Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-,
(1
α
,2
α
,3
β
,4
α
,5
α
,6
β
)-
Bis(2-chloroethoxy)-
methane
111-91-1 Ethane, 1,1'-(methylenebis(oxy))bis(2-
chloro-
Bis(2-chloroethyl) ether 111-44-4 Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis(2-chloro-
Bis(2-chloro-1-methylethyl)
ether; 2,2'-Dichlorodiiso-
propyl ether
108-60-1 Propane, 2,2'-oxybis(1-chloro-
Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethyl-
hexyl) ester
Bromodichloromethane 75-27-4 Methane, bromodichloro-
Bromoform; Tribromo-
methane
75-25-2 Methane, tribromo-
4-Bromophenyl phenyl
ether
101-55-3 Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy-
Butyl benzyl phthalate;
Benzyl butyl phthalate
85-68-7 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, butyl
phenylmethyl ester
Cadmium Total Cadmium
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 Carbon disulfide
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 Methane, tetrachloro-
Chlordane 57-74-9 4,7-Methano-1H-indene,1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-
octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro-
494
p-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 Benzeneamine, 4-chloro-
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 Benzene, chloro-
Chlorobenzilate 510-15-6
Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-
α
-(4-chloro-
phenyl)-
α
-hydroxy-, ethylf ester
p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl-
Chloroethane; Ethyl
chloride
75-00-3 Ethane, chloro-
Chloroform 67-66-3 Methane, trichloro-
2-Chloronapthalene 91-58-7 Naphthalene, 2-chloro-
2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 Phenol, 2-chloro-
4-Chlorophenyl phenyl
ether
7005-72-3 Benzene, 1-chloro-4-phenoxy-
Chloroprene 126-99-8 1,3-Butadiene, 2-chloro-
Chromium (Total) Chromium
Chrysene 218-01-9 Chrysene
Cobalt (Total) Cobalt
Copper (Total) Copper
m-Cresol 108-39-4 Phenol, 3-methyl-
o-Cresol 95-48-7 Phenol, 2-methyl-
p-Cresol 106-44-5 Phenol, 4-methyl-
Cyanide 57-12-5 Cyanide
2,4-D; 2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid
94-75-7 Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-
4,4'-DDD 72-54-8 Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis-
(4-chloro-
4,4'-DDE 72-55-9 Benzene, 1,1'-(dichloroethylidene)bis(4-
chloro-
4,4'-DDT 50-29-3 Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)-
bis(4-chloro-
Diallate 2303-16-4 Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-,
S-(2,3-dichloro--2-propenyl) ester
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 Dibenz(a,h)anthracene
Dibenzofuran 132-64-9 Dibenzofuran
Dibromochloromethane;
Chlorodibromomethane
124-48-1 Methane, dibromochloro-
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloro-
propane; DBCP
96-12-8 Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-
1,2-Dibromoethane;
Ethylene dibromide
106-93-4 Ethane, 1,2-dibromo-
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl
ester
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 Benzene, 1,4-dichloro-
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine 91-94-1 (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro-
trans-1,4-Dichloro-2-butene 110-57-6 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-, (E)-
495
Dichlorodifluoromethane 75-71-8 Methane, dichlorodifluoro-
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-
1,2-Dichloroethane;
Ethylene dichloride
107-06-2 Ethane, 1,2-dichloro-
1,1-Dichloroethylene;
Vinylidene chloride
75-35-4 Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-
trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene 156-60-5 Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)-
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-
2,6-Dichlorophenol 87-65-0 Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 Propane, 1,2-dichloro-
cis-1,3-Dichloropropene 10061-01-5 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-, (Z)-
trans-1,3-Dichloropropene 10061-02-6 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-, (E)-
Dieldrin 60-57-1 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth(2,3-b)oxirene,
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-
octahydro-
,(1a
α
,2
β
,2a
α
,3
β
,6
β
,6a
α
,7
β
,7a
α
)-
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester
O,O-Diethyl O-2-pyrazinyl
phosphorothioate;
Thionazin
297-97-2 Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyra-
zinyl ester
Dimethoate 60-51-5 Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-
(2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl) ester
p-(Dimethylamino)-
azobenzene
60-11-7 Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenyl-
azo)-
7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)-
anthracene
57-97-6 Benz(a)anthracene,7,12-dimethyl-
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine 119-93-7 (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-
dimethyl-
α
,
α
-Dimethylphenethyl-
amine
122-09-8
Benzeneethanamine,
α
,
α
-dimethyl-
2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl
ester
m-Dinitrobenzene 99-65-0 Benzene, 1,3-dinitro-
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 534-52-1 Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro-
Dinoseb; DNBP; 2-sec-
Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol
88-85-7 Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro-
Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester
1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 1,4-Dioxane
Diphenylamine 122-39-4 Benzeneamine, N-phenyl-
Disulfoton 298-04-4 Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-(2-
(ethylthio)ethyl) ester
496
Endosulfan I 959-98-8 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-
benzodioxathiepin,6,7,8,9,10,10-hexa-
chloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide,
(3
α
,5a
β
,6
α
,9
α
,9a
β
)-
Endosulfan II 33213-65-9 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-
benzodioxathiepin,6,7,8,9,10,10-hexa-
chloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide,
(3
α
,5a
α
,6
β
,9
β
,9a
α
)-
Endosulfan sulfate 1031-07-8 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-
benzodioxathiepin,6,7,8,9,10,10-hexa-
chloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-,3,3-
dioxide
Endrin 72-20-8 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth(2,3-b)oxirene,
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-
octahydro-,
(1a
α
,2
β
,2a
β
,3
α
,6
α
,6a
β
,7
β
,7a
α
)-
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-4 1,2,4-Methanocyclopenta(cd)pentalene-5-
carboxaldehyde, 2,2a,3,3,4,7-hexachloro-
decahydro-,
(1
α
,2
β
,2a
β
,4
β
,4a
β
,5
β
,6a
β
,6b
β
,7R)-
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 Benzene, ethyl-
Ethyl methacrylate 97-63-2 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester
Ethyl methanesulfonate 62-50-0 Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester
Famphur 52-85-7 Phosphorothioic acid, O-(4-((dimethyl-
amino)sulfonyl)phenyl)-O,O-dimethyl
ester
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 Fluoranthene
Fluorene 86-73-7 9H-Fluorene
Heptachlor 76-44-8 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-
heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 2,5-Methano-2H-indeno(1,2-b)oxirene,
2,3,4,5,6,7,7-heptachloro-1a,1b,5,5a,6,6a-
hexahydro-, (1a
α
,1b
β
,2
α
,5
α
,5a
β
,6
β
,6a
α
)-
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 Benzene, hexachloro-
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro-
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexa-
chloro-
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 Ethane, hexachloro-
Hexachlorophene 70-30-4 Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis(3,4,6-trichloro-
Hexachloropropene 1888-71-7 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro-
2-Hexanone 591-78-6 2-Hexanone
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 193-39-5 Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 1-Propanol, 2-methyl-
Isodrin 465-73-6 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-
hexahydro-(1
α
,4
α
,4a
β
,5
β
,8
β
,8a
β
)-
497
Isophorone 78-59-1 2-Cyclohexen-1-one, 3,5,5-trimethyl-
Isosafrole 120-58-1 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)-
Kepone 143-50-0 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta-(c,d)penta-
len-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-deca-
chlorooctahydro-
Lead (Total) Lead
Mercury (Total) Mercury
Methacrylonitrile 126-96-7 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl-
Methapyrilene 91-80-5 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N'-2-
pyridinyl-N'-(2-thienylmethyl)-
Methoxychlor 72-43-5 Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)-
bis(4-methoxy-
Methyl bromide; Bromo-
methane
74-83-9 Methane, bromo-
Methyl chloride; Chloro-
methane
74-87-3 Methane, chloro-
3-Methylcholanthrene 56-49-5 Benz(j)aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-
methyl-
Methylene bromide;
Dibromomethane
74-95-3 Methane, dibromo-
Methylene chloride;
Dichloromethane
75-09-2 Methane, dichloro-
Methyl ethyl ketone; MEK 78-93-3 2-Butanone
Methyl iodide; Iodomethane 74-88-4 Methane, iodo-
Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester
Methyl methanesulfonate 66-27-3 Methanesulfonic acid, methyl ester
2-Methylnaphthalene 91-57-6 Naphthylene, 2-methyl-
Methyl parathion; Parathion
methyl
298-00-0 Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-(4-
nitrophenyl) ester
4-Methyl-2-pentanone;
Methyl isobutyl ketone
108-10-1 2-Pentanone, 4-methyl-
Naphthalene 91-20-3 Naphthalene
1,4-Naphthoquinone 130-15-4 1,4-Naphthalenedione
1-Naphthylamine 134-32-7 1-Naphthalenamine
2-Naphthylamine 91-59-8 2-Naphthalenamine
Nickel (Total) Nickel
o-Nitroaniline 88-74-4 Benzenamine, 2-nitro-
m-Nitroaniline 99-09-2 Benzenamine, 3-nitro-
p-Nitroaniline 100-01-6 Benzenamine, 4-nitro-
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 Benzene, nitro-
o-Nitrophenol 88-75-5 Phenol, 2-nitro-
p-Nitrophenol 100-02-7 Phenol, 4-nitro-
4-Nitroquinoline 1-oxide 56-57-5 Quinoline, 4-nitro-, 1-oxide
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine 924-16-3 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso-
N-Nitrosodiethylamine 55-18-5 Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-
N-Nitrosodimethylamine 62-75-9 Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
498
N-Nitrosodiphenylamine 86-30-6 Benzenamine, N-nitroso-N-phenyl-
N-Nitrosodipropylamine;
Di-n-propylnitrosamine
621-64-7 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl-
N-Nitrosomethylethylamine 10595-95-6 Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
N-Nitrosomorpholine 59-89-2 Morpholine, 4-nitroso-
N-Nitrosopiperidene 100-75-4 Piperidene, 1-nitroso-
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine 930-55-2 Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso-
5-Nitro-o-toluidine 99-55-8 Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro-
Parathion 56-38-2 Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl-O-(4-
nitrophenyl) ester
Polychlorinated biphenyls;
PCBs
See (g) 1,1'-Biphenyl, chloro derivatives
Polychlorinated dibenzo-p-
dioxins; PCDDs
See (h) Dibenzo(b,e)(1,4)dioxin, chloro
derivatives
Polychlorinated
dibenzofurans; PCDFs
See (i) Bibenzofuran, chloro derivatives
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 Benzene, pentachloro-
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 Ethane, pentachloro-
Pentachloronitrobenzene 82-68-8 Benzene, pentachloronitro-
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 Phenol, pentachloro-
Phenacetin 62-44-2 Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 Phenanthrene
Phenol 108-95-2 Phenol
p-Phenylenediamine 106-50-3 1,4-Benzenediamine
Phorate 298-02-2 Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-
((ethylthio)methyl) ester
2-Picoline 109-06-8 Pyridine, 2-methyl-
Pronamide 23950-58-5 Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-
2-propenyl)-
Propionitrile; Ethyl cyanide 107-12-0 Propanenitrile
Pyrene 129-00-0 Pyrene
Pyridine 110-86-1 Pyridine
Safrole 94-59-7 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)-
Selenium (Total) Selenium
Silver (Total) Silver
Silvex; 2,4,5-TP 93-72-1 Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichloro-
phenoxy)-
Styrene 100-42-5 Benzene, ethenyl-
Sulfide 18496-25-8 Sulfide
2,4,5-T; 2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid
93-76-5 Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-
2,3,7,8-TCDD; 2,3,7,8-
Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-
dioxin
1746-01-8 Dibenzo(b,e)(1,4)dioxin, 2,3,7,8-tetra-
chloro-
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro-
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane 630-20-6 Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro-
499
1,1,2,2,-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-5 Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-
Tetrachloroethylene;
Perchloroethylene; Tetra-
chloroethene
127-18-4 Ethene, tetrachloro-
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol 58-90-2 Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro-
Tetraethyl dithiopyro-
phosphate; Sulfotepp
3689-24-5 Thiodiphosphoric acid (((HO)
B
2
B
P(S))
B
2
B
O),
tetraethyl ester
Thallium (Total) Thallium
Tin (Total) Tin
Toluene 108-88-3 Benzene, methyl-
o-Toluidine 95-53-4 Benzenamine, 2-methyl-
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 Toxaphene
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro-
1,1,1-Trichloroethane;
Methyl chloroform
71-55-6 Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-
1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-
Trichloroethylene; Tri-
chloroethene
79-01-6 Ethene, trichloro-
Trichlorofluoromethane 75-69-4 Methane, trichlorofluoro-
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-96-4 Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro-
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro-
1,2,3-Trichloropropane 96-18-4 Propane, 1,2,3-trichloro-
O,O,O-Triethyl phosphoro-
thioate
126-68-1 Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,O-triethyl ester
sym-Trinitrobenzene 99-35-4 Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro-
Vanadium (Total) Vanadium
Vinyl acetate 108-05-4 Acetic acid, ethenyl ester
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 Ethene, chloro-
Xylene (total) 1330-20-7 Benzene, dimethyl-
Zinc (Total) Zinc
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 725
INTERIM STATUS STANDARDS FOR OWNERS AND OPERATORS OF
HAZARDOUS WASTE TREATMENT, STORAGE, AND DISPOSAL
FACILITIES
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
725.101 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
500
725.104 Imminent Hazard Action
SUBPART B: GENERAL FACILITY STANDARDS
Section
725.110 Applicability
725.111 USEPA Identification Number
725.112 Required Notices
725.113 General Waste Analysis
725.114 Security
725.115 General Inspection Requirements
725.116 Personnel Training
725.117 General Requirements for Ignitable, Reactive, or Incompatible Wastes
725.118 Location Standards
725.119 Construction Quality Assurance Program
SUBPART C: PREPAREDNESS AND PREVENTION
Section
725.130 Applicability
725.131 Maintenance and Operation of Facility
725.132 Required Equipment
725.133 Testing and Maintenance of Equipment
725.134 Access to Communications or Alarm System
725.135 Required Aisle Space
725.137 Arrangements with Local Authorities
SUBPART D: CONTINGENCY PLAN AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Section
725.150 Applicability
725.151 Purpose and Implementation of Contingency Plan
725.152 Content of Contingency Plan
725.153 Copies of Contingency Plan
725.154 Amendment of Contingency Plan
725.155 Emergency Coordinator
725.156 Emergency Procedures
SUBPART E: MANIFEST SYSTEM, RECORDKEEPING, AND REPORTING
Section
725.170 Applicability
725.171 Use of Manifest System
725.172 Manifest Discrepancies
725.173 Operating Record
725.174 Availability, Retention, and Disposition of Records
725.175 Annual Report
725.176 Unmanifested Waste Report
725.177 Additional Reports
501
SUBPART F: GROUNDWATER MONITORING
Section
725.190 Applicability
725.191 Groundwater Monitoring System
725.192 Sampling and Analysis
725.193 Preparation, Evaluation, and Response
725.194 Recordkeeping and Reporting
SUBPART G: CLOSURE AND POST-CLOSURE CARE
Section
725.210 Applicability
725.211 Closure Performance Standard
725.212 Closure Plan; Amendment of Plan
725.213 Closure; Time Allowed for Closure
725.214 Disposal or Decontamination of Equipment, Structures, and Soils
725.215 Certification of Closure
725.216 Survey Plat
725.217 Post-Closure Care and Use of Property
725.218 Post-Closure Care Plan; Amendment of Plan
725.219 Post-Closure Notices
725.220 Certification of Completion of Post-Closure Care
725.221 Alternative Post-Closure Care Requirements
SUBPART H: FINANCIAL REQUIREMENTS
Section
725.240 Applicability
725.241 Definitions of Terms as Used in this Subpart H
725.242 Cost Estimate for Closure
725.243 Financial Assurance for Closure
725.244 Cost Estimate for Post-Closure Care
725.245 Financial Assurance for Post-Closure Monitoring and Maintenance
725.246 Use of a Mechanism for Financial Assurance of Both Closure and Post-Closure
Care
725.247 Liability Requirements
725.248 Incapacity of Owners or Operators, Guarantors, or Financial Institutions
725.251 Promulgation of Forms (Repealed)
SUBPART I: USE AND MANAGEMENT OF CONTAINERS
Section
725.270 Applicability
725.271 Condition of Containers
725.272 Compatibility of Waste with Containers
725.273 Management of Containers
725.274 Inspections
725.276 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Wastes
725.277 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
502
725.278 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART J: TANK SYSTEMS
Section
725.290 Applicability
725.291 Assessment of Existing Tank System Integrity
725.292 Design and Installation of New Tank Systems or Components
725.293 Containment and Detection of Releases
725.294 General Operating Requirements
725.295 Inspections
725.296 Response to Leaks or Spills and Disposition of Tank Systems
725.297 Closure and Post-Closure Care
725.298 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Wastes
725.299 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
725.300 Waste Analysis and Trial Tests
725.301 Generators of 100 to 1,000 Kilograms of Hazardous Waste Per Month
725.302 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART K: SURFACE IMPOUNDMENTS
Section
725.320 Applicability
725.321 Design and Operating Requirements
725.322 Action Leakage Rate
725.323 Response Actions
725.324 Containment System
725.325 Waste Analysis and Trial Tests
725.326 Monitoring and Inspections
725.328 Closure and Post-Closure Care
725.329 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Wastes
725.330 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
725.331 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART L: WASTE PILES
Section
725.350 Applicability
725.351 Protection from Wind
725.352 Waste Analysis
725.353 Containment
725.354 Design and Operating Requirements
725.355 Action Leakage Rates
725.356 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Wastes
725.357 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
725.358 Closure and Post-Closure Care
725.359 Response Actions
725.360 Monitoring and Inspections
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SUBPART M: LAND TREATMENT
Section
725.370 Applicability
725.372 General Operating Requirements
725.373 Waste Analysis
725.376 Food Chain Crops
725.378 Unsaturated Zone (Zone of Aeration) Monitoring
725.379 Recordkeeping
725.380 Closure and Post-Closure Care
725.381 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Wastes
725.382 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
SUBPART N: LANDFILLS
Section
725.400 Applicability
725.401 Design Requirements
725.402 Action Leakage Rate
725.403 Response Actions
725.404 Monitoring and Inspections
725.409 Surveying and Recordkeeping
725.410 Closure and Post-Closure Care
725.412 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Wastes
725.413 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
725.414 Special Requirements for Liquid Wastes
725.415 Special Requirements for Containers
725.416 Disposal of Small Containers of Hazardous Waste in Overpacked Drums (Lab
Packs)
SUBPART O: INCINERATORS
Section
725.440 Applicability
725.441 Waste Analysis
725.445 General Operating Requirements
725.447 Monitoring and Inspections
725.451 Closure
725.452 Interim Status Incinerators Burning Particular Hazardous Wastes
SUBPART P: THERMAL TREATMENT
Section
725.470 Other Thermal Treatment
725.473 General Operating Requirements
725.475 Waste Analysis
725.477 Monitoring and Inspections
725.481 Closure
725.482 Open Burning; Waste Explosives
725.483 Interim Status Thermal Treatment Devices Burning Particular Hazardous Wastes
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SUBPART Q: CHEMICAL, PHYSICAL, AND BIOLOGICAL TREATMENT
Section
725.500 Applicability
725.501 General Operating Requirements
725.502 Waste Analysis and Trial Tests
725.503 Inspections
725.504 Closure
725.505 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Wastes
725.506 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
SUBPART R: UNDERGROUND INJECTION
Section
725.530 Applicability
SUBPART W: DRIP PADS
Section
725.540 Applicability
725.541 Assessment of Existing Drip Pad Integrity
725.542 Design and Installation of New Drip Pads
725.543 Design and Operating Requirements
725.544 Inspections
725.545 Closure
SUBPART AA: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR PROCESS VENTS
Section
725.930 Applicability
725.931 Definitions
725.932 Standards: Process Vents
725.933 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and Control Devices
725.934 Test Methods and Procedures
725.935 Recordkeeping Requirements
SUBPART BB: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR EQUIPMENT LEAKS
Section
725.950 Applicability
725.951 Definitions
725.952 Standards: Pumps in Light Liquid Service
725.953 Standards: Compressors
725.954 Standards: Pressure Relief Devices in Gas/Vapor Service
725.955 Standards: Sampling Connecting Systems
725.956 Standards: Open-Ended Valves or Lines
725.957 Standards: Valves in Gas/Vapor or Light Liquid Service
725.958 Standards: Pumps, Valves, Pressure Relief Devices, Flanges, and Other
Connectors
725.959 Standards: Delay of Repair
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725.960 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and Control Devices
725.961 Percent Leakage Alternative for Valves
725.962 Skip Period Alternative for Valves
725.963 Test Methods and Procedures
725.964 Recordkeeping Requirements
SUBPART CC: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR TANKS, SURFACE
IMPOUNDMENTS, AND CONTAINERS
Section
725.980 Applicability
725.981 Definitions
725.982 Schedule for Implementation of Air Emission Standards
725.983 Standards: General
725.984 Waste Determination Procedures
725.985 Standards: Tanks
725.986 Standards: Surface Impoundments
725.987 Standards: Containers
725.988 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and Control Devices
725.989 Inspection and Monitoring Requirements
725.990 Recordkeeping Requirements
725.991 Alternative Tank Emission Control Requirements (Repealed)
SUBPART DD: CONTAINMENT BUILDINGS
Section
725.1100 Applicability
725.1101 Design and Operating Standards
725.1102 Closure and Post-Closure Care
SUBPART EE: HAZARDOUS WASTE MUNITIONS AND EXPLOSIVES
STORAGE
Section
725.1200 Applicability
725.1201 Design and Operating Standards
725.1202 Closure and Post-Closure Care
725.Appendix A Recordkeeping Instructions
725.Appendix B EPA Report Form and Instructions (Repealed)
725.Appendix C USEPA Interim Primary Drinking Water Standards
725.Appendix D Tests for Significance
725.Appendix E Examples of Potentially Incompatible Wastes
725.Appendix F Compounds with Henry’s Law Constant Less Than 0.1 Y/X (at 25°C)
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 7.2 and 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/7.2, 22.4, and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R81-22 at 5 Ill. Reg. 9781, effective May 17, 1982; amended and
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codified in R81-22 at 6 Ill. Reg. 4828, effective May 17, 1982; amended in R82-18 at 7 Ill. Reg.
2518, effective February 22, 1983; amended in R82-19 at 7 Ill. Reg. 14034, effective October 12,
1983; amended in R84-9 at 9 Ill. Reg. 11869, effective July 24, 1985; amended in R85-22 at 10
Ill. Reg. 1085, effective January 2, 1986; amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill. Reg. 14069, effective
August 12, 1986; amended in R86-28 at 11 Ill. Reg. 6044, effective March 24, 1987; amended in
R86-46 at 11 Ill. Reg. 13489, effective August 4, 1987; amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg. 19338,
effective November 10, 1987; amended in R87-26 at 12 Ill. Reg. 2485, effective January 15,
1988; amended in R87-39 at 12 Ill. Reg. 13027, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R88-16 at
13 Ill. Reg. 437, effective December 28, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18354, effective
November 13, 1989; amended in R90-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 14447, effective August 22, 1990;
amended in R90-10 at 14 Ill. Reg. 16498, effective September 25, 1990; amended in R90-11 at
15 Ill. Reg. 9398, effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-1 at 15 Ill. Reg. 14534, effective
October 1, 1991; amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9578, effective June 9, 1992; amended in
R92-1 at 16 Ill. Reg. 17672, effective November 6, 1992; amended in R92-10 at 17 Ill. Reg.
5681, effective March 26, 1993; amended in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20620, effective November 22,
1993; amended in R93-16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6771, effective April 26, 1994; amended in R94-7 at 18
Ill. Reg. 12190, effective July 29, 1994; amended in R94-17 at 18 Ill. Reg. 17548, effective
November 23, 1994; amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9566, effective June 27, 1995; amended in
R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 11078, effective August 1, 1996; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22
Ill. Reg. 369, effective December 16, 1997; amended in R98-12 at 22 Ill. Reg. 7620, effective
April 15, 1998; amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 17620, effective September 28,
1998; amended in R98-21/R99-2/R99-7 at 23 Ill. Reg. 1850, effective January 19, 1999;
amended in R99-15 at 23 Ill. Reg. 9168, effective July 26, 1999; amended in R00-5 at 24 Ill.
Reg. 1076, effective January 6, 2000; amended in R00-13 at 24 Ill. Reg. 9575, effective June 20,
2000; amended in R03-7 at 27 Ill. Reg. 4187, effective February 14, 2003; amended in R05-8 at
29 Ill. Reg. 6028, effective April 13, 2005; amended in R05-2 at 29 Ill. Reg. 6389, effective
April 22, 2005; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section 725.101 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
a) The purpose of this Part is to establish minimum standards that define the
acceptable management of hazardous waste during the period of interim status and
until certification of final closure or, if the facility is subject to post-closure care
requirements, until post-closure care responsibilities are fulfilled.
b) Except as provided in Section 725.980(b), the standards in this Part and 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.652 through 724.654 apply to owners and operators of facilities that
treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste and which have fully complied with the
requirements for interim status under Section 3005(e) of the Resource Conservation
and Recovery Act (RCRA) (42 USC 6925(e)) and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703, until
either a permit is issued under Section 3005 of the Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act (42 USC 6905) or Section 21(f) of the Environmental Protection Act
[415 ILCS 5/21(f)], or until applicable closure and post-closure care responsibilities
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under this Part are fulfilled, and to those owners and operators of facilities in
existence on November 19, 1980, that have failed to provide timely notification as
required by Section 3010(a) of RCRA (42 USC 6910(a)) or that have failed to file
Part A of the Permit Application, as required by federal 40 CFR 270.10(e) and (g)
or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.150 and 703.152. These standards apply to all treatment,
storage, or disposal of hazardous waste at these facilities after November 19, 1980,
except as specifically provided otherwise in this Part or in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
BOARD NOTE: As stated in Section 3005(a) of RCRA (42 USC 6905(a)), after
the effective date of regulations under that Section (i.e., 40 CFR 270 and 124) the
treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste is prohibited except in
accordance with a permit. Section 3005(e) of RCRA (42 USC 6905(e)) provides
for the continued operation of an existing facility that meets certain conditions until
final administrative disposition of the owner’s and operator’s permit application is
made.
c) The requirements of this Part do not apply to any of the following:
1) A person disposing of hazardous waste by means of ocean disposal subject
to a permit issued under the federal Marine Protection, Research and
Sanctuaries Act (33 USC 1401 et seq.);
BOARD NOTE: This Part applies to the treatment or storage of hazardous
waste before it is loaded into an ocean vessel for incineration or disposal at
sea, as provided in subsection (b) of this Section.
2) This subsection (c)(2) corresponds with 40 CFR 265.1(c)(2), marked
“reserved” by USEPA. This statement maintains structural consistency
with USEPA rules;
3) The owner or operator of a POTW (publicly owned treatment works) that
treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous waste;
BOARD NOTE: The owner or operator of a facility under subsections
(c)(1) and (c)(3) is subject to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 to
the extent they are included in a permit by rule granted to such a person
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702 and 703 or are required by Subpart F of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 704.
4) This subsection (c)(4) corresponds with 40 CFR 265.1(c)(4), which
pertains exclusively to the applicability of the federal regulations in
authorized states. There is no need for a parallel provision in the Illinois
regulations. This statement maintains structural consistency with USEPA
rules;
5) The owner or operator of a facility permitted, licensed, or registered by
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Illinois to manage municipal or industrial solid waste, if the only hazardous
waste the facility treats, stores, or disposes of is excluded from regulation
under this Part by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.105;
6) The owner or operator of a facility managing recyclable materials described
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.106(a)(2) through (a)(4), except to the extent that
requirements of this Part are referred to in Subpart C, F, G, or H of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739;
7) A generator accumulating waste on-site in compliance with 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.134, except to the extent the requirements are included in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722.134;
8) A farmer disposing of waste pesticides from the farmer’s own use in
compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.170;
9) The owner or operator of a totally enclosed treatment facility, as defined in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110;
10) The owner or operator of an elementary neutralization unit or a wastewater
treatment unit, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, provided that if the
owner or operator is diluting hazardous ignitable (D001) wastes (other than
the D001 High TOC Subcategory defined in Table T of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728) or reactive (D003) waste in order to remove the characteristic before
land disposal, the owner or operator must comply with the requirements set
forth in Section 725.117(b);
11) Immediate response.
A) Except as provided in subsection (c)(11)(B) of this Section, a person
engaged in treatment or containment activities during immediate
response to any of the following situations:
i) A discharge of a hazardous waste;
ii) An imminent and substantial threat of a discharge of a
hazardous waste;
iii) A discharge of a material that becomes a hazardous waste
when discharged; or
iv) An immediate threat to human health, public safety,
property, or the environment from the known or suspected
presence of military munitions, other explosive material, or
an explosive device, as determined by an explosives or
munitions emergency response specialist as defined in 35
509
Ill. Adm. Code 720.110.
B) An owner or operator of a facility otherwise regulated by this Part
must comply with all applicable requirements of Subparts C and D
of this Part.
C) Any person that is covered by subsection (c)(11)(A) of this Section
that continues or initiates hazardous waste treatment or containment
activities after the immediate response is over is subject to all
applicable requirements of this Part and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703,
and 705 for those activities;
D) In the case of an explosives or munitions emergency response, if a
federal, state, or local official acting within the scope of his or her
official responsibilities or an explosives or munitions emergency
response specialist determines that immediate removal of the
material or waste is necessary to protect human health or the
environment, that official or specialist may authorize the removal
of the material or waste by transporters that do not have USEPA
identification numbers and without the preparation of a manifest.
In the case of emergencies involving military munitions, the
responding military emergency response specialist’s organizational
unit must retain records for three years identifying the dates of the
response, the responsible persons responding, the type and
description of material addressed, and its disposition;
12) A transporter storing manifested shipments of hazardous waste in containers
meeting the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.130 at a transfer facility
for a period of ten days or less;
13) The addition of absorbent material to waste in a container (as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.110) or the addition of waste to the absorbent material in
a container, provided that these actions occur at the time that the waste is
first placed in the containers and Sections 725.117(b), 725.271, and 725.272
are complied with;
14) A universal waste handler or universal waste transporter (as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.110) that handles any of the wastes listed below is
subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733 when handling the
following universal wastes:
A) Batteries, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.102;
B) Pesticides, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.103;
C) Thermostats, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.104;
S
and
S
510
D) Lamps, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.105
S
.
S
; and
E) Mercury-containing equipment as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.106.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (c)(14)(E) of this Section was added
pursuant to Sections 3.283, 3.284, and 22.23b of the Act [415
ILCS 5/3.283, 3.284, and 22.23b] (See P.A. 93-964, effective
August 20, 2004).
d) The following hazardous wastes must not be managed at facilities subject to
regulation under this Part: hazardous waste numbers F020, F021, F022, F023,
F026, or F027, unless the following conditions are fulfilled:
1) The wastewater treatment sludge is generated in a surface impoundment as
part of the plant’s wastewater treatment system;
2) The waste is stored in tanks or containers;
3) The waste is stored or treated in waste piles that meet the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.350(c) and all other applicable requirements of Subpart
L of this Part;
4) The waste is burned in incinerators that are certified pursuant to the
standards and procedures in Section 725.452; or
5) The waste is burned in facilities that thermally treat the waste in a device
other than an incinerator and that are certified pursuant to the standards and
procedures in Section 725.483.
e) This Part applies to owners and operators of facilities that treat, store, or dispose of
hazardous wastes referred to in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728, and the 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728 standards are considered material conditions or requirements of the interim
status standards of this Part.
f) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.505 identifies when the requirements of this Part apply to
the storage of military munitions classified as solid waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.302. The treatment and disposal of hazardous waste military munitions are
subject to the applicable permitting, procedural, and technical standards in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, 705, 720 through 726, and 728.
g) Other bodies of regulations may apply to a person, facility, or activity, such as 35
Ill. Adm. Code 809 (special waste hauling), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 807 or 810 through
817 (solid waste landfills), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 848 or 849 (used and scrap tires), or
35 Ill. Adm. Code 1420 through 1422 (potentially infectious medical waste),
511
depending on the provisions of those other regulations.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART D: CONTINGENCY PLAN AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Section 725.156 Emergency Procedures
a) Whenever there is an imminent or actual emergency situation, the emergency
coordinator (or his designee when the emergency coordinator is on call) must
immediately do the following:
1)
S
Activate
S
He or she must activate internal facility alarms or communication
systems, where applicable, to notify all facility personnel; and
2)
S
Notify
S
He or she must notify appropriate State or local agencies with
designated response roles if their help is needed.
b) Whenever there is a release, fire, or explosion, the emergency coordinator must
immediately identify the character, exact source, amount, and a real extent of any
released materials. He or she may do this by observation or review of facility
records or manifests and, if necessary, by chemical analysis.
c) Concurrently, the emergency coordinator must assess possible hazards to human
health or the environment that may result from the release, fire, or explosion.
This assessment must consider both direct and indirect effects of the release, fire,
or explosion (e.g., the effects of any toxic, irritating, or asphyxiating gases that
are generated, or the effects of any hazardous surface water runoffs from water or
chemical agents used to control fire and heat-induced explosions).
d) If the emergency coordinator determines that the facility has had a release, fire, or
explosion that could threaten human health or the environment outside the
facility, he or she must report his findings as follows:
1) If his assessment indicates that evacuation of local areas may be advisable,
the emergency coordinator must immediately notify appropriate local
authorities. He or she must be available to help appropriate officials
decide whether local areas should be evacuated; and
2) The emergency coordinator must immediately notify either the
government official designated as the on-scene coordinator for that
geographical area (in the applicable regional contingency plan under
federal 40 CFR 300), or the National Response Center (using their 24-
hour toll free number 800-424-8802). The report must include the
following:
512
A) The name and telephone number of reporter;
B) The name and address of facility;
C) The time and type of incident (e.g., release, fire, etc.);
D) The name and quantity of materials involved, to the extent known;
E) The extent of injuries, if any; and
F) The possible hazards to human health or the environment outside
the facility.
e) During an emergency the emergency coordinator must take all reasonable
measures necessary to ensure that fires, explosions, and releases do not occur,
recur, or spread to other hazardous waste at the facility. These measures must
include, where applicable, stopping processes and operations, collecting and
containing released waste, and removing or isolating containers.
f) If the facility stops operations in response to a fire, explosion or release, the
emergency coordinator must monitor for leaks, pressure buildup, gas generation,
or ruptures in valves, pipes, or other equipment, wherever this is appropriate.
g) Immediately after an emergency, the emergency coordinator must provide for
treating, storing, or disposing of recovered waste, contaminated soil, or surface
water, or any other material that results from a release, fire, or explosion at the
facility.
BOARD NOTE: Unless the owner or operator can demonstrate in accordance
with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(d) or (e) that the recovered material is not a
hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a generator of hazardous waste
and must manage it in accordance with all applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722, 723, and 725.
h) The emergency coordinator must ensure that, in the affected areas of the facility,
the following occur:
1) No waste that may be incompatible with the released material is treated,
stored, or disposed of until cleanup procedures are completed; and
2) All emergency equipment listed in the contingency plan is cleaned and fit
for its intended use before operations are resumed.
i) The owner or operator must notify the Agency and other appropriate State and
local authorities that the facility is in compliance with subsection (h) of this
Section before operations are resumed in the affected areas of the facility.
513
j) The owner or operator must note in the operating record the time, date, and details
of any incident that requires implementing the contingency plan. Within 15 days
after the incident, it must submit a written report on the incident to the Agency.
The report must include the following information:
1) The name, address, and telephone number of the owner or operator;
2) The name, address, and telephone number of the facility;
3) The date, time, and type of incident (e.g., fire, explosion, etc.);
4) The name and quantity of materials involved;
5) The extent of injuries, if any;
6) An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the
environment, where this is applicable; and
7) The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered material that resulted
from the incident.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART E: MANIFEST SYSTEM, RECORDKEEPING, AND REPORTING
Section 725.170 Applicability
The regulations in this Subpart E apply to owners and operators of both on-site and off-site
facilities, except as Section 725.101 provides otherwise. Sections 725.171, 725.172, and
725.176 do not apply to owners and operators of on-site facilities that do not receive any
hazardous waste from off-site sources, nor do they apply to owners and operators of off-site
facilities with respect to waste military munitions exempted from manifest requirements under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.303(a).
BOARD NOTE: This Section corresponds with 40 CFR 265.70(a) (2005), effective September
5, 2006. The Board omitted 40 CFR 265.70(b), as added at 70 Fed. Reg. 10776 (March 4, 2005),
since that provision only stated the September 5, 2006 effective date for the newer manifest
requirements.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.171 Use of Manifest System
a) Receipt of manifested hazardous waste.
514
S
a
S
1) The following requirements apply until September 5, 2006: If a facility
receives hazardous waste accompanied by a manifest, the owner or
operator or its agent must do each of the following:
S
1
S
A)
S
Sign
S
It must sign and date each copy of the manifest to certify that
the hazardous waste covered by the manifest was received;
S
2
S
B)
S
Note
S
It must note any significant discrepancies in the manifest, as
defined in Section 725.172(a), on each copy of the manifest;
BOARD NOTE: An owner or operator of a facility whose
procedures under Section 725.113(c) include waste analysis need
not perform that analysis before signing the manifest and giving it
to the transporter. Section 725.172(b), however, requires the
owner or operator to report any unreconciled discrepancy
discovered during later analysis.
S
3
S
C)
S
Immediately
S
It must immediately give the transporter at least one
copy of the signed manifest;
S
4
S
D)
S
Send
S
It must send a copy of the manifest to the generator and the
Agency within 30 days of the date of delivery; and
S
5
S
E)
S
Retain
S
It must retain at the facility a copy of each manifest for at
least three years
S
from
S
after the date of delivery.
2) The following requirements apply effective September 5, 2006:
A) If a facility receives hazardous waste accompanied by a manifest,
the owner, operator, or its agent must sign and date the manifest, as
indicated in subsection (a)(2)(B) of this Section, to certify that the
hazardous waste covered by the manifest was received, that the
hazardous waste was received except as noted in the discrepancy
space of the manifest, or that the hazardous waste was rejected as
noted in the manifest discrepancy space.
B) If a facility receives a hazardous waste shipment accompanied by a
manifest, the owner, operator, or its agent must do the following:
i) It must sign and date, by hand, each copy of the manifest;
ii) It must note any discrepancies (as defined in Section
725.172(b)) on each copy of the manifest;
iii) It must immediately give the transporter at least one copy
of the manifest;
515
iv) It must send a copy of the manifest to the generator within
30 days after delivery; and
v) It must retain at the facility a copy of each manifest for at
least three years after the date of delivery.
C) If a facility receives hazardous waste imported from a foreign
source, the receiving facility must mail a copy of the manifest to
the following address within 30 days after delivery: International
Compliance Assurance Division, OFA/OECA (2254A), U.S.
Environmental Protection Agency, Ariel Rios Building, 1200
Pennsylvania Avenue, NW, Washington, DC 20460.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (a)(1) of this Section corresponds with 40 CFR
265.71(a) (2004), effective until September 5, 2006. Subsection (a)(2) of this
Section corresponds with 40 CFR 265.71(a) (2005), effective September 5, 2006.
b) If a facility receives from a rail or water (bulk shipment) transporter hazardous
waste that is accompanied by a shipping paper containing all the information
required on the manifest (excluding the USEPA identification numbers, generator
certification, and signatures), the owner or operator or its agent must do each of
the following:
1)
S
Sign
S
It must sign and date each copy of the manifest or shipping paper (if
the manifest has not been received) to certify that the hazardous waste
covered by the manifest or shipping paper was received;
2)
S
Note
S
It must note any significant discrepancies, as defined in Section
725.172(a), in the manifest or shipping paper (if the manifest has not been
received) on each copy of the manifest or shipping paper;
BOARD NOTE: The owner or operator of a facility whose procedures
under Section 725.113(c) include waste analysis need not perform that
analysis before signing the shipping paper and giving it to the transporter.
Section 725.172(b), however, requires reporting an unreconciled
discrepancy discovered during later analysis.
3)
S
Immediately
S
It must immediately give the rail or water (bulk shipment)
transporter at least one copy of the manifest or shipping paper (if the
manifest has not been received);
4) Forwarding copies of the manifest.
S
4
S
A) Until September 5, 2006: The facility owner or operator must send
a copy of the signed and dated manifest to the generator and to the
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Agency within 30 days after the delivery; however, if the manifest
has not been received within 30 days after delivery, the owner or
operator, or its agent, must send a copy of the shipping paper
signed and dated to the generator;
S
and
S
or
B) Effective September 5, 2006: The owner or operator must send a
copy of the signed and dated manifest or a signed and dated copy
of the shipping paper (if the manifest has not been received within
30 days after delivery) to the generator within 30 days after the
delivery; and
BOARD NOTE: 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.123(c) requires the generator to
send three copies of the manifest to the facility when hazardous waste is
sent by rail or water (bulk shipment). Subsection (b)(4)(A) is derived
from 40 CFR 265.74(b)(4) (2004), effective until September 5, 2006.
Subsection (b)(4)(B) is derived from 40 CFR 265.74(b)(4) (2005),
effective September 5, 2006.
5) Retain at the facility a copy of the manifest and shipping paper (if signed
in lieu of the manifest at the time of delivery) for at least three years from
the date of delivery.
c) Whenever a shipment of hazardous waste is initiated from a facility, the owner or
operator of that facility must comply with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.
BOARD NOTE: The provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134 are applicable to
the on-site accumulation of hazardous wastes by generators. Therefore, the
provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134 apply only to owners or operators that
are shipping hazardous waste which they generated at that facility.
d) Within three working days of the receipt of a shipment subject to Subpart H of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 722, the owner or operator of the facility must provide a copy of
the tracking document bearing all required signatures to the notifier; to the Office
of Enforcement and Compliance Assurance, Office of Compliance, Enforcement
Planning, Targeting and Data Division (2222A), Environmental Protection
Agency, 401 M St., SW, Washington, DC 20460; to the Bureau of Land, Division
of Land Pollution Control, Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, P.O. Box
19276, Springfield, IL 62794-9276; and to competent authorities of all other
concerned countries. The original copy of the tracking document must be
maintained at the facility for at least three years from the date of signature.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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Section 725.172 Manifest Discrepancies
a) The following requirements apply until September 5, 2005:
S
a
S
1) Manifest discrepancies are differences between the quantity or type of
hazardous waste designated on the manifest or shipping paper and the
quantity or type of hazardous waste a facility actually receives.
S
b
S
2) Significant discrepancies in quantity are defined as follows:
S
1
S
A) For bulk waste, variations greater than 10 percent in weight, and
S
2
S
B) For batch waste, any variation in piece count, such as a
discrepancy of one drum in a truckload.
S
c
S
3) Significant discrepancies in type are obvious differences that can be
discovered by inspection or waste analysis, such as waste solvent
substituted for waste acid or toxic constituents not reported on the
manifest or shipping paper.
S
d
S
4) Upon discovering a significant discrepancy, the owner or operator must
attempt to reconcile the discrepancy with the waste generator or
transporter (e.g., with telephone conversations). If the discrepancy is not
resolved within 15 days after receiving the waste, the owner or operator
must immediately submit to the Agency a letter describing the discrepancy
and attempts to reconcile it and a copy of the manifest or shipping paper at
issue.
b) The following requirements apply effective September 5, 2005:
1) “Manifest discrepancies” are defined as any one of the following:
A) Significant differences (as defined by subsection (b)(2) of this
Section) between the quantity or type of hazardous waste
designated on the manifest or shipping paper, and the quantity and
type of hazardous waste a facility actually receives;
B) Rejected wastes, which may be a full or partial shipment of
hazardous waste that the treatment, storage, or disposal facility
cannot accept; or
C) Container residues, which are residues that exceed the quantity
limits for empty containers set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.107(b).
2) “Significant differences in quantity” are defined as the appropriate of the
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following: for bulk waste, variations greater than 10 percent in weight; or,
for batch waste, any variation in piece count, such as a discrepancy of one
drum in a truckload. “Significant differences in type” are defined as
obvious differences that can be discovered by inspection or waste
analysis, such as waste solvent substituted for waste acid, or as toxic
constituents not reported on the manifest or shipping paper.
3) Upon discovering a significant difference in quantity or type, the owner or
operator must attempt to reconcile the discrepancy with the waste
generator or transporter (e.g.
,
with telephone conversations). If the
discrepancy is not resolved within 15 days after receiving the waste, the
owner or operator must immediately submit to the Agency a letter
describing the discrepancy and attempts to reconcile it, and a copy of the
manifest or shipping paper at issue.
4) Rejection of hazardous waste.
A) Upon rejecting waste or identifying a container residue that
exceeds the quantity limits for empty containers set forth in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.107(b), the facility must consult with the generator
prior to forwarding the waste to another facility that can manage
the waste. If it is impossible to locate an alternative facility that
can receive the waste, the facility may return the rejected waste or
residue to the generator. The facility must send the waste to the
alternative facility or to the generator within 60 days after the
rejection or the container residue identification.
B) While the facility is making arrangements for forwarding rejected
wastes or residues to another facility under this Section, it must
ensure that either the delivering transporter retains custody of the
waste, or the facility must provide for secure, temporary custody of
the waste, pending delivery of the waste to the first transporter
designated on the manifest prepared under subsection (b)(5) or
(b)(6) of this Section.
5) Except as provided in subsection (b)(5)(G) of this Section, for full or
partial load rejections and residues that are to be sent off-site to an
alternate facility, the facility is required to prepare a new manifest in
accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.120(a) and the following
instructions:
A) Write the generator’s USEPA identification number in Item 1 of
the new manifest. Write the generator’s name and mailing address
in Item 5 of the new manifest. If the mailing address is different
from the generator’s site address, then write the generator’s site
address in the designated space in Item 5.
519
B) Write the name of the alternate designated facility and the
facility’s USEPA identification number in the designated facility
block (Item 8) of the new manifest.
C) Copy the manifest tracking number found in Item 4 of the old
manifest to the Special Handling and Additional Information
Block of the new manifest, and indicate that the shipment is a
residue or rejected waste from the previous shipment.
D) Copy the manifest tracking number found in Item 4 of the new
manifest to the manifest reference number line in the Discrepancy
Block of the old manifest (Item 18a).
E) Write the USDOT description for the rejected load or the residue
in Item 9 (USDOT Description) of the new manifest and write the
container types, quantity, and volumes of waste.
F) Sign the Generator’s/Offeror’s Certification to certify, as the
offeror of the shipment, that the waste has been properly packaged,
marked and labeled and is in proper condition for transportation.
G) For full load rejections that are made while the transporter remains
present at the facility, the facility may forward the rejected
shipment to the alternate facility by completing Item 18b of the
original manifest and supplying the information on the next
destination facility in the Alternate Facility space. The facility
must retain a copy of this manifest for its records, and then give
the remaining copies of the manifest to the transporter to
accompany the shipment. If the original manifest is not used, then
the facility must use a new manifest and comply with subsections
(b)(5)(A) through (b)(5)(F) of this Section.
6) Except as provided in subsection (b)(6)(G) of this Section, for rejected
wastes and residues that must be sent back to the generator, the facility is
required to prepare a new manifest in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.120(a) and the following instructions:
A) Write the facility’s USEPA identification number in Item 1 of the
new manifest. Write the generator’s name and mailing address in
Item 5 of the new manifest. If the mailing address is different from
the generator’s site address, then write the generator’s site address
in the designated space for Item 5.
B) Write the name of the initial generator and the generator’s USEPA
identification number in the designated facility block (Item 8) of
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the new manifest.
C) Copy the manifest tracking number found in Item 4 of the old
manifest to the Special Handling and Additional Information
Block of the new manifest, and indicate that the shipment is a
residue or rejected waste from the previous shipment.
D) Copy the manifest tracking number found in Item 4 of the new
manifest to the manifest reference number line in the Discrepancy
Block of the old manifest (Item 18a).
E) Write the USDOT description for the rejected load or the residue
in Item 9 (USDOT Description) of the new manifest and write the
container types, quantity, and volumes of waste.
F) Sign the Generator’s/Offeror’s Certification to certify, as offeror of
the shipment, that the waste has been properly packaged, marked
and labeled and is in proper condition for transportation.
G) For full load rejections that are made while the transporter remains
at the facility, the facility may return the shipment to the generator
with the original manifest by completing Item 18b of the manifest
and supplying the generator’s information in the Alternate Facility
space. The facility must retain a copy for its records and then give
the remaining copies of the manifest to the transporter to
accompany the shipment. If the original manifest is not used, then
the facility must use a new manifest and comply with subsections
(b)(6)(A) through (b)(6)(F) of this Section.
7) If a facility rejects a waste or identifies a container residue that exceeds
the quantity limits for empty containers set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.107(b) after it has signed, dated, and returned a copy of the manifest
to the delivering transporter or to the generator, the facility must amend its
copy of the manifest to indicate the rejected wastes or residues in the
discrepancy space of the amended manifest. The facility must also copy
the manifest tracking number from Item 4 of the new manifest to the
Discrepancy space of the amended manifest, and must re-sign and date the
manifest to certify to the information as amended. The facility must retain
the amended manifest for at least three years from the date of amendment,
and must within 30 days, send a copy of the amended manifest to the
transporter and generator that received copies prior to their being
amended.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (a) is derived from 40 CFR 265.72 (2004), effective until
September 5, 2006. Subsection (b) is derived from 40 CFR 265.72 (2005), effective September
5, 2006.
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(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.176 Unmanifested Waste Report
a) The following requirements apply until September 5, 2005: If a facility accepts
for treatment, storage, or disposal any hazardous waste from an off-site source
without an accompanying manifest or without an accompanying shipping paper,
as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 723.120(e)(2), and, if the waste is not excluded
from the manifest requirement by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.105, then the owner or
operator must prepare and submit a single copy of a report to the Agency within
15 days after receiving the waste. The unmanifested waste report must be
submitted on USEPA form 8700-13B. Such report must be designated
“Unmanifested Waste Report” and must include the following information:
S
a
S
1) The USEPA identification number, name, and address of the facility;
S
b
S
2) The date the facility received the waste;
S
c
S
3) The USEPA identification number, name, and address of the generator
and the transporter, if available;
S
d
S
4) A description and the quantity of each unmanifested hazardous waste the
facility received;
S
e
S
5) The method of treatment, storage, or disposal for each hazardous waste;
S
f
S
6) The certification signed by the owner or operator of the facility or its
authorized representative; and
S
g
S
7) A brief explanation of why the waste was unmanifested, if known.
b) The following requirements apply effective September 5, 2005: If a facility
accepts for treatment, storage, or disposal any hazardous waste from an off-site
source without an accompanying manifest, or without an accompanying shipping
paper, as described by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 723.120(e), and if the waste is not
excluded from the manifest requirement by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 260 through 265,
then the owner or operator must prepare and submit a letter to the Agency within
15 days after receiving the waste. The unmanifested waste report must contain
the following information:
1) The USEPA identification number, name, and address of the facility;
2) The date the facility received the waste;
3) The USEPA identification number, name, and address of the generator
522
and the transporter, if available;
4) A description and the quantity of each unmanifested hazardous waste the
facility received;
5) The method of treatment, storage, or disposal for each hazardous waste;
6) The certification signed by the owner or operator of the facility or its
authorized representative; and
7) A brief explanation of why the waste was unmanifested, if known.
S
(
S
BOARD NOTE: Small quantities of hazardous waste are excluded from regulation under this
Part and do not require a manifest. Where a facility received unmanifested hazardous waste,
S
the
Board suggests
S
USEPA has suggested that the owner or operator obtain from each generator a
certification that the waste qualifies for exclusion. Otherwise,
S
the Board suggests
S
USEPA has
suggested that the owner or operator file an unmanifested waste report for the hazardous waste
movement. Subsection (a) is derived from 40 CFR 265.76 (2004), effective until September 5,
2006. Subsection (b) is derived from 40 CFR 265.76 (2005), effective September 5, 2006.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART F: GROUNDWATER MONITORING
Section 725.190 Applicability
a) The owner or operator of a surface impoundment, landfill, or land treatment
facility that is used to manage hazardous waste must implement a groundwater
monitoring program capable of determining the facility’s impact on the quality of
groundwater in the uppermost aquifer underlying the facility, except as Section
725.101 and subsection (c) of this Section provide otherwise.
b) Except as subsections (c) and (d) of this Section provide otherwise, the owner or
operator must install, operate, and maintain a groundwater monitoring system that
meets the requirements of Section 725.191 and must comply with Sections
725.192 through 725.194. This groundwater monitoring program must be carried
out during the active life of the facility and for disposal facilities during the post-
closure care period as well.
c) All or part of the groundwater monitoring requirements of this Subpart F may be
waived if the owner or operator can demonstrate that there is a low potential for
migration of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents from the facility via
the uppermost aquifer to water supply wells (domestic, industrial, or agricultural)
or to surface water. This demonstration must be in writing and must be kept at
the facility. This demonstration must be certified by a qualified geologist or
geotechnical engineer and must establish the following:
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1) The potential for migration of hazardous waste or hazardous waste
constituents from the facility to the uppermost aquifer by an evaluation of
the following information:
A) A water balance of precipitation, evapotranspiration, runoff, and
infiltration; and
B) Unsaturated zone characteristics (i.e., geologic materials, physical
properties, and depth to ground water); and
2) The potential for hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents that
enter the uppermost aquifer to migrate to a water supply well or surface
water by an evaluation of the following information:
A) Saturated zone characteristics (i.e., geologic materials, physical
properties, and rate of groundwater flow); and
B) The proximity of the facility to water supply wells or surface
water.
d) If an owner or operator assumes (or knows) that groundwater monitoring of
indicator parameters in accordance with Sections 725.191 and 725.192 would
show statistically significant increases (or decreases in the case of pH) when
evaluated under Section 725.193(b), it may install, operate, and maintain an
alternate groundwater monitoring system (other than the one described in
Sections 725.191 and 725.192). If the owner or operator decides to use an
alternate groundwater monitoring system it must have done as follows:
1) By November 19, 1981, the owner or operator must have submitted to the
USEPA Region 5 a specific plan, certified by a qualified geologist or
geotechnical engineer, that satisfies the requirements of federal 40 CFR
265.93(d)(3) for an alternate groundwater monitoring system;
2) By November 19, 1981, the owner or operator must have initiated the
determinations specified in federal 40 CFR 265.93(d)(4);
3) The owner or operator must have prepared and submitted a written report
in accordance with Section 725.193(d)(5);
4) The owner or operator must continue to make the determinations specified
in Section 725.193(d)(4) on a quarterly basis until final closure of the
facility; and
5) The owner or operator must comply with the recordkeeping and reporting
requirements in Section 725.194(b).
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e) The groundwater monitoring requirements of this Subpart F may be waived with
respect to any surface impoundment of which the following is true:
1) The impoundment is used to neutralize wastes that are hazardous solely
because they exhibit the corrosivity characteristic under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.122 or which are listed as hazardous wastes in Subpart D of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721 only for this reason; and
2) The impoundment contains no other hazardous wastes, if the owner or
operator can demonstrate that there is no potential for migration of
hazardous wastes from the impoundment. The demonstration must
establish, based upon consideration of the characteristics of the wastes and
the impoundment, that the corrosive wastes will be neutralized to the
extent that they no longer meet the corrosivity characteristic before they
can migrate out of the impoundment. The demonstration must be in
writing and must be certified by a qualified professional.
f) A permit or enforceable document can contain alternative requirements for
groundwater monitoring that replace all or part of the requirements of this Subpart F
applicable to a regulated unit (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.190), as provided
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.161, where the Board has determined by an adjusted
standard granted pursuant to Section 28.1 of the Act [415 ILCS 5/28.1] and
Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 104 the following:
1) The regulated unit is situated among solid waste management units (or areas
of concern), a release has occurred, and both the regulated unit and one or
more solid waste management units (or areas of concern) are likely to have
contributed to the release; and
2) It is not necessary to apply the groundwater monitoring requirements of this
Subpart F because the alternative requirements will protect human health
and the environment. The alternative standards for the regulated unit must
meet the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.201(a).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.192 Sampling and Analysis
a) The owner or operator must obtain and analyze samples from the installed
groundwater monitoring system. The owner or operator must develop and follow
a groundwater sampling and analysis plan. The owner or operator must keep this
plan at the facility. The plan must include procedures and techniques for each of
the following:
1) Sample collection;
525
2) Sample preservation and shipment;
3) Analytical procedures; and
4) Chain of custody control.
BOARD NOTE: See “Procedures Manual For
S
Groundwater
S
Ground Water
Monitoring At Solid Waste Disposal Facilities,” USEPA document number EPA-
530/SW-611, and “Methods for Chemical Analysis of Water and Wastes,”
USEPA document number EPA-600/4-79-020, incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), for discussions of sampling and analysis procedures.
b) The owner or operator must determine the concentration or value of the following
parameters in groundwater samples in accordance with subsections (c) and (d) of
this Section:
1) Parameters characterizing the suitability of the groundwater as a drinking
water supply, as specified in Appendix C to this Part.
2) The following parameters establishing groundwater quality:
A) Chloride,
B) Iron,
C) Manganese,
D) Phenols,
E) Sodium, and
F) Sulfate.
BOARD NOTE: These parameters are to be used as a basis for
comparison in the event a groundwater quality assessment is required
under Section 725.193(d).
3) The following parameters used as indicators of groundwater
contamination:
A) pH,
B) Specific Conductance,
C) Total Organic Carbon, and
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D) Total Organic Halogen.
c) Establishing background concentrations.
1) For all monitoring wells, the owner or operator must establish initial
background concentrations or values of all parameters specified in
subsection (b) of this Section. The owner or operator must do this
quarterly for one year.
2) For each of the indicator parameters specified in subsection (b)(3) of this
Section, the owner or operator must obtain at least four replicate
measurements for each sample and determine the initial background
arithmetic mean and variance by pooling the replicate measurements for
the respective parameter concentrations or values in samples obtained
from upgradient wells during the first year.
d) After the first year, the owner or operator must sample all monitoring wells and
analyze the samples with the following frequencies:
1) Samples collected to establish groundwater quality must be obtained and
analyzed for the parameters specified in subsection (b)(2) of this Section
at least annually.
2) Samples collected to indicate groundwater contamination must be
obtained and analyzed for the parameters specified in subsection (b)(3) of
this Section at least semi-annually.
e) The owner or operator must determine the elevation of the groundwater surface at
each monitoring well each time a sample is obtained.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART H: FINANCIAL REQUIREMENTS
Section 725.243 Financial Assurance for Closure
An owner or operator of each facility must establish financial assurance for closure of the
facility. The owner or operator must choose from the options specified in subsections (a)
through (e) of this Section.
a) Closure trust fund.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
establishing a closure trust fund that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection and submitting an original, signed duplicate of the trust
527
agreement to the Agency. The trustee must be an entity that has the
authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and
examined by a federal or State agency.
2) The wording of the trust agreement must be as specified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.251 and the trust agreement must be accompanied by a formal
certification of acknowledgment as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.251. Schedule A of the trust agreement must be updated within 60
days after a change in the amount of the current closure cost estimate
covered by the agreement.
3) Payments into the trust fund must be made annually by the owner or
operator over the 20 years beginning May 19, 1981, or over the remaining
operating life of the facility as estimated in the closure plan, whichever
period is shorter; this period is hereafter referred to as the “pay-in period.”
The payments into the closure trust fund must be made as follows:
A) The first payment must be made before May 19, 1981, except as
provided in subsection (a)(5) of this Section. The first payment
must be at least equal to the current closure cost estimate, except
as provided in subsection (f) of this Section, divided by the number
of years in the pay-in period.
B) Subsequent payments must be made no later than 30 days after
each anniversary date of the first payment. The amount of each
subsequent payment must be determined by this formula:
Y
CV
CE
nt
Next Payme
−
=
Where:
CE
S
is
S
=
the current closure cost estimate
S
,
S
CV
S
is
S
= the current value of the trust fund
S
, and
S
Y
S
is
S
= the number of years remaining in the pay-in period.
4) The owner or operator may accelerate payments into the trust fund or may
deposit the full amount of the current closure cost estimate at the time the
fund is established. However, the owner or operator must maintain the
value of the fund at no less than the value that the fund would have if
annual payments were made as specified in subsection (a)(3) of this
Section.
5) If the owner or operator establishes a closure trust fund after having used
one or more alternate mechanisms specified in this Section, the owner or
operator’s first payment must be in at least the amount that the fund would
528
contain if the trust fund were established initially and annual payments
made as specified in subsection (a)(3) of this Section.
6) After the pay-in period is completed, whenever the current closure cost
estimate changes, the owner or operator must compare the new estimate
with the trustee’s most recent annual valuation of the trust fund. If the
value of the fund is less than the amount of the new estimate, the owner or
operator, within 60 days after the change in the cost estimate, must either
deposit an amount into the fund so that its value after this deposit at least
equals the amount of the current closure cost estimate, or obtain other
financial assurance, as specified in this Section, to cover the difference.
7) If the value of the trust fund is greater than the total amount of the current
closure cost estimate, the owner or operator may submit a written request
to the Agency for release of the amount in excess of the current closure
cost estimate.
8) If an owner or operator substitutes other financial assurance, as specified
in this Section, for all or part of the trust fund, the owner or operator may
submit a written request to the Agency for release of the amount in excess
of the current closure cost estimate covered by the trust fund.
9) Within 60 days after receiving a request from the owner or operator for
release of funds as specified in subsection (a)(7) or (a)(8) of this Section,
the Agency must instruct the trustee to release to the owner or operator
such funds as the Agency specifies in writing.
10) After beginning partial or final closure, an owner or operator or another
person authorized to conduct partial or final closure may request
reimbursement for closure expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the
Agency. The owner or operator may request reimbursement for partial
closure only if sufficient funds are remaining in the trust fund to cover the
maximum costs of closing the facility over its remaining operating life.
Within 60 days after receiving bills for partial or final closure activities,
the Agency must instruct the trustee to make reimbursement in those
amounts as the Agency specifies in writing if the Agency determines that
the partial or final closure expenditures are in accordance with the
approved closure plan, or otherwise justified. If the Agency determines
that the maximum cost of closure over the remaining life of the facility
will be significantly greater than the value of the trust fund, it must
withhold reimbursement of such amounts as it deems prudent until it
determines, in accordance with subsection (h) of this Section, that the
owner or operator is no longer required to maintain financial assurance for
final closure of the facility. If the Agency does not instruct the trustee to
make such reimbursements, the Agency must provide the owner or
operator a detailed written statement of reasons.
529
11) The Agency must agree to termination of the trust when either of the
following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (h) of this Section.
b) Surety bond guaranteeing payment into a closure trust fund.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining a surety bond that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection (b) and submitting the bond to the Agency. The surety
company issuing the bond must, at a minimum, be among those listed as
acceptable sureties on federal bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S.
Department of the Treasury.
BOARD NOTE: The U.S. Department of Treasury updates Circular 570,
“Companies Holding Certificates of Authority as Acceptable Sureties on
Federal Bonds and as Acceptable Reinsuring Companies,” on an annual
basis pursuant to 31 CFR 223.16. Circular 570 is available on the Internet
from the following website: http://www.fms.treas.gov/c570/.
2) The wording of the surety bond must be as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.251.
3) The owner or operator that uses a surety bond to satisfy the requirements
of this Section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms
of the bond, all payments made thereunder will be deposited by the surety
directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from
the Agency. This standby trust fund must meet the requirements specified
in subsection (a) of this Section, except as follows:
A) An original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be
submitted to the Agency with the surety bond; and
B) Until the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements
of this Section, the following are not required by these regulations:
i) Payments into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a);
ii) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (see
S
40 CFR
264.251(a))
S
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251(a)) to show current
closure cost estimates;
530
iii) Annual valuations, as required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment, as required by the trust agreement.
4) The bond must guarantee that the owner or operator will:
A) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum of
the bond before the beginning of final closure of the facility;
B) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum
within 15 days after an order to begin final closure is issued by the
Board or a court of competent jurisdiction; or
C) Provide alternate financial assurance, as specified in this Section,
and obtain the Agency’s written approval of the assurance
provided, within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or
operator and the Agency of a notice of cancellation of the bond
from the surety.
5) Under the terms of the bond, the surety will become liable on the bond
obligation when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by
the bond.
6) The penal sum of the bond must be in an amount at least equal to the
current closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection (f) of this
Section.
7) Whenever the current closure cost estimate increases to an amount greater
than the penal sum, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the
increase, must either cause the penal sum to be increased to an amount at
least equal to the current closure cost estimate and submit evidence of
such increase to the Agency, or obtain other financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, to cover the increase. Whenever the current
closure cost estimate decreases, the penal sum may be reduced to the
amount of the current closure cost estimate following written approval by
the Agency.
8) Under the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending
notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the
Agency. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days
beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the
owner or operator and the Agency, as evidenced by the return receipts.
9) The owner or operator may cancel the bond if the Agency has given prior
written consent based on its receipt of evidence of alternate financial
531
assurance, as specified in this Section.
c) Closure letter of credit.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining an irrevocable standby letter of credit that conforms to the
requirements of this subsection (c) and submitting the letter to the Agency.
The issuing institution must be an entity that has the authority to issue
letters of credit and whose letter-of-credit operations are regulated and
examined by a federal or State agency.
2) The wording of the letter of credit must be as specified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.251.
3) An owner or operator that uses a letter of credit to satisfy the requirements
of this Section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms
of the letter of credit, all amounts paid pursuant to a draft by the Agency
must be deposited by the issuing institution directly into the standby trust
fund in accordance with instructions from the Agency. This standby trust
fund must meet the requirements of the trust fund specified in subsection
(a) of this Section, except as follows:
A) An original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be
submitted to the Agency with the letter of credit; and
B) Unless the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the
requirements of this Section, the following are not required by
these regulations:
i) Payments into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a)
of this Section;
ii) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (as specified
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251) to show current closure cost
estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment as required by the trust agreement.
4) The letter of credit must be accompanied by a letter from the owner or
operator referring to the letter of credit by number, issuing institution, and
date and providing the following information: the USEPA identification
number, name, and address of the facility, and the amount of funds
assured for closure of the facility by the letter of credit.
532
5) The letter of credit must be irrevocable and issued for a period of at least
one year. The letter of credit must provide that the expiration date will be
automatically extended for a period of at least one year unless, at least 120
days before the current expiration date, the issuing institution notifies both
the owner or operator and the Agency by certified mail of a decision not to
extend the expiration date. Under the terms of the letter of credit, the 120
days will begin on the date when both the owner or operator and the
Agency have received the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts.
6) The letter of credit must be issued in an amount at least equal to the
current closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection (f) of this
Section.
7) Whenever the current closure cost estimate increases to an amount greater
than the amount of the credit, the owner or operator, within 60 days after
the increase, must either cause the amount of the credit to be increased so
that it at least equals the current closure cost estimate and submit evidence
of such increase to the Agency, or obtain other financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, to cover the increase. Whenever the current
closure cost estimate decreases, the amount of the credit may be reduced
to the amount of the current closure cost estimate following written
approval by the Agency.
8) Following a final judicial determination or Board order finding that the
owner or operator has failed to perform final closure in accordance with
the approved closure plan when required to do so, the Agency may draw
on the letter of credit.
9) If the owner or operator does not establish alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, and obtain written approval of such alternate
assurance from the Agency within 90 days after receipt by both the owner
or operator and the Agency of a notice from issuing institution that it has
decided not to extend the letter of credit beyond the current expiration
date, the Agency must draw on the letter of credit. The Agency may delay
the drawing if the issuing institution grants an extension of the term of the
credit. During the last 30 days of any such extension the Agency must
draw on the letter of credit if the owner or operator has failed to provide
alternate financial assurance, as specified in this Section, and obtain
written approval of such assurance from the Agency.
10) The Agency must return the letter of credit to the issuing institution for
termination when one of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
533
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (h) of this Section.
d) Closure insurance.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining closure insurance that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection and submitting a certificate of such insurance to the Agency.
At a minimum, the insurer must be licensed to transact the business of
insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines
insurer, in one or more States.
2) The wording of the certificate of insurance must be as specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.251.
3) The closure insurance policy must be issued for a face amount at least
equal to the current closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection
(f) of this Section. The term “face amount” means the total amount the
insurer is obligated to pay under the policy. Actual payments by the
insurer will not change the face amount, although the insurer’s future
liability will be lowered by the amount of the payments.
4) The closure insurance policy must guarantee that funds will be available
to close the facility whenever final closure occurs. The policy must also
guarantee that, once final closure begins, the insurer will be responsible
for paying out funds, up to an amount equal to the face amount of the
policy, upon the direction of the Agency to such party or parties as the
Agency specifies.
5) After beginning partial or final closure, an owner or operator or any other
person authorized to conduct closure may request reimbursement for
closure expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the Agency. The
owner or operator may request reimbursement for partial closure only if
the remaining value of the policy is sufficient to cover the maximum costs
of closing the facility over its remaining operating life. Within 60 days
after receiving bills for closure activities, the Agency must instruct the
insurer to make reimbursement in such amounts as the Agency specifies in
writing if the Agency determines that the partial or final closure
expenditures are in accordance with the approved closure plan or
otherwise justified. If the Agency determines that the maximum cost of
closure over the remaining life of the facility will be significantly greater
than the face amount of the policy, it must withhold reimbursement of
such amounts as it deems prudent until it determines, in accordance with
subsection (h) of this Section, that the owner or operator is no longer
required to maintain financial assurance for final closure of the particular
facility. If the Agency does not instruct the insurer to make such
534
reimbursements, the Agency must provide the owner or operator with a
detailed written statement of reasons.
6) The owner or operator must maintain the policy in full force and effect
until the Agency consents to termination of the policy by the owner or
operator as specified in subsection (d)(10) of this Section. Failure to pay
the premium, without substitution of alternate financial assurance as
specified in this Section, will constitute a significant violation of these
regulations, warranting such remedy as the Board may impose pursuant to
the Environmental Protection Act. Such violation will be deemed to begin
upon receipt by the Agency of a notice of future cancellation, termination,
or failure to renew due to nonpayment of the premium, rather than upon
the date of expiration.
7) Each policy must contain a provision allowing assignment of the policy to
a successor owner or operator. Such assignment may be conditional upon
consent of the insurer, provided such consent is not unreasonably refused.
8) The policy must provide that the insurer may not cancel, terminate, or fail
to renew the policy except for failure to pay the premium. The automatic
renewal of the policy must, at a minimum, provide the insured with the
option of renewal at the face amount of the expiring policy. If there is a
failure to pay the premium, the insurer may elect to cancel, terminate, or
fail to renew the policy by sending notice by certified mail to the owner or
operator and the Agency. Cancellation, termination, or failure to renew
may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning with the date of
receipt of the notice by both the Agency and the owner or operator, as
evidenced by the return receipts. Cancellation, termination, or failure to
renew may not occur and the policy will remain in full force and effect in
the event that, on or before the date of expiration, one of the following
occurs:
A) The Agency deems the facility abandoned;
B) Interim status is terminated or revoked;
C) Closure is ordered by the Board or a court of competent
jurisdiction;
D) The owner or operator is named as debtor in a voluntary or
involuntary proceeding under 11
S
U.S.C.
S
USC (Bankruptcy); or
E) The premium due is paid.
9) Whenever the current closure cost estimate increases to an amount greater
than the face amount of the policy, the owner or operator, within 60 days
535
after the increase, must either cause the face amount to be increased to an
amount at least equal to the current closure cost estimate and submit
evidence of such increase to the Agency, or obtain other financial
assurance as specified in this Section to cover the increase. Whenever the
current closure cost estimate decreases, the face amount may be reduced
to the amount of the current closure cost estimate following written
approval by the Agency.
10) The Agency must give written consent to the owner or operator that the
owner or operator may terminate the insurance policy when either of the
following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (h) of this Section.
e) Financial test and corporate guarantee for closure.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
demonstrating that the owner or operator passes a financial test as
specified in this subsection. To pass this test the owner or operator must
meet the criteria of either subsection (e)(1)(A) or (e)(1)(B) of this Section:
A) The owner or operator must have all of the following:
i) Two of the following three ratios: a ratio of total liabilities
to net worth less than 2.0; a ratio of the sum of net income
plus depreciation, depletion and amortization to total
liabilities greater than 0.1; and a ratio of current assets to
current liabilities greater than 1.5;
ii) Net working capital and tangible net worth each at least six
times the sum of the current closure and post-closure cost
estimates and the current plugging and abandonment cost
estimates;
iii) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
iv) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90
percent of total assets or at least six times the sum of the
current closure and post-closure cost estimates and the
current plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
B) The owner or operator must have all of the following:
536
i) A current rating for its most recent bond issuance of AAA,
AA, A, or BBB, as issued by Standard and Poor’s, or Aaa,
Aa, A, or Baa, as issued by Moody’s;
ii) Tangible net worth at least six times the sum of the current
closure and post-closure cost estimates and the current
plugging and abandonment cost estimates;
iii) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
iv) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90
percent of total assets or at least six times the sum of the
current closure and post-closure cost estimates and the
current plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
2) The phrase “current closure and post-closure cost estimates,” as used in
subsection (e)(1) of this Section, refers to the cost estimates required to be
shown in subsections 1 through 4 of the letter from the owner’s or
operator’s chief financial officer (
S
40 CFR 264.151(f)) (incorporated by
reference in
S
see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251). The phrase “current
plugging and abandonment cost estimates,” as used in subsection (e)(1) of
this Section, refers to the cost estimates required to be shown in
subsections 1 through 4 of the letter from the owner’s or operator’s chief
financial officer (
S
40 CFR 144.70(f)), incorporated by reference in
S
see 35
Ill. Adm. Code 704.240).
3) To demonstrate that the owner or operator meets this test, the owner or
operator must submit each of the following items to the Agency:
A) A letter signed by the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer
and worded as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251;
B) A copy of the independent certified public accountant’s report on
examination of the owner’s or operator’s financial statements for
the latest completed fiscal year; and
C) A special report from the owner’s or operator’s independent
certified public accountant to the owner or operator stating the
following:
i) That the accountant has compared the data that the letter
from the chief financial officer specifies as having been
derived from the independently audited, year-end financial
statements for the latest fiscal year with the amounts in
such financial statements; and
537
ii) In connection with that procedure, that no matters came to
the accountant’s attention which caused the accountant to
believe that the specified data should be adjusted.
4) This subsection (e)(4) corresponds with 40 CFR 265.143(e)(4), a federal
provision relating to an extension of the time to file the proofs of financial
assurance required by this subsection (e) granted by USEPA. This
statement maintains structural consistency with the corresponding federal
regulations.
5) After the initial submission of items specified in subsection (e)(3) of this
Section, the owner or operator must send updated information to the
Agency within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year. This
information must consist of all three items specified in subsection (e)(3) of
this Section.
6) If the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of subsection
(e)(1) of this Section, the owner or operator must send notice to the
Agency of intent to establish alternate financial assurance as specified in
this Section. The notice must be sent by certified mail within 90 days
after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show
that the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements. The owner
or operator must provide the alternate financial assurance within 120 days
after the end of such fiscal year.
7) The Agency may, based on a reasonable belief that the owner or operator
may no longer meet the requirements of subsection (e)(1) of this Section,
require reports of financial condition at any time from the owner or
operator in addition to those specified in subsection (e)(3) of this Section.
If the Agency finds, on the basis of such reports or other information, that
the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of subsection
(e)(1) of this Section, the owner or operator must provide alternate
financial assurance as specified in this Section within 30 days after
notification of such a finding.
8) The Agency may disallow use of this test on the basis of qualifications in
the opinion expressed by the independent certified public accountant in
the accountant’s report on examination of the owner’s or operator’s
financial statements (see subsection (e)(3)(B) of this Section). An adverse
opinion or a disclaimer of opinion will be cause for disallowance. The
Agency must evaluate other qualifications on an individual basis. The
owner or operator must provide alternate financial assurance as specified
in this Section within 30 days after notification of the disallowance.
9) The owner or operator is no longer required to submit the items specified
538
in subsection (e)(3) of this Section when either of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (h) of this Section.
10) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this Section by
obtaining a written guarantee, hereafter referred to as “corporate
guarantee.” The guarantor must be the direct or higher-tier parent
corporation of the owner or operator, a firm whose parent corporation is
also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, or a firm with a
“substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator. The
guarantor must meet the requirements for owners or operators in
subsections (e)(1) through (e)(8) of this Section, and must comply with the
terms of the corporate guarantee. The wording of the corporate guarantee
must be identical to the wording specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251.
The corporate guarantee must accompany the items sent to the Agency as
specified in subsection (e)(3) of this Section. One of these items must be
the letter from the guarantor’s chief financial officer. If the guarantor’s
parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator,
the letter must describe the value received in consideration of the
guarantee. If the guarantor is a firm with a “substantial business
relationship” with the owner or operator, this letter must describe this
substantial business relationship” and the value received in consideration
of the guarantee. The terms of the corporate guarantee must provide the
following:
A) That, if the owner or operator fails to perform final closure of a
facility covered by the corporate guarantee in accordance with the
closure plan and other interim status requirements whenever
required to do so, the guarantor will do so or establish a trust fund
as specified in subsection (a) of this Section, in the name of the
owner or operator.
B) That the corporate guarantee will remain in force unless the
guarantor sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the
owner or operator and to the Agency. Cancellation may not occur,
however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of
the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the
Agency, as evidenced by the return receipts.
C) That, if the owner or operator fails to provide alternate financial
assurance as specified in this Section and obtain the written
approval of such alternate assurance from the Agency within 90
539
days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Agency of
a notice of cancellation of the corporate guarantee from the
guarantor, the guarantor will provide such alternate financial
assurance in the name of the owner or operator.
f) Use of multiple financial mechanisms. An owner or operator may satisfy the
requirements of this Section by establishing more than one financial mechanism
per facility. These mechanisms are limited to trust funds, surety bonds, letters of
credit, and insurance. The mechanisms must be as specified in subsections (a)
through (d) of this Section, respectively, except that it is the combination of
mechanisms, rather than the single mechanism, that must provide financial
assurance for an amount at least equal to the current closure cost estimate. If an
owner or operator uses a trust fund in combination with a surety bond or a letter
of credit, the owner or operator may use the trust fund as the standby trust fund
for the other mechanisms. A single standby trust fund may be established for two
or more mechanisms. The Agency may use any or all of the mechanisms to
provide for closure of the facility.
g) Use of a financial mechanism for multiple facilities. An owner or operator may
use a financial assurance mechanism specified in this Section to meet the
requirements of this Section for more than one facility. Evidence of financial
assurance submitted to the Agency must include a list showing, for each facility,
the USEPA identification number, name, address, and the amount of funds for
closure assured by the mechanism. The amount of funds available through the
mechanism must be no less than the sum of funds that would be available if a
separate mechanism had been established and maintained for each facility. The
amount of funds available to the Agency must be sufficient to close all of the
owner or operator’s facilities. In directing funds available through the mechanism
for closure of any of the facilities covered by the mechanism, the Agency may
direct only the amount of funds designated for that facility, unless the owner or
operator agrees to the use of additional funds available under the mechanism.
h) Release of the owner or operator from the requirements of this Section. Within
60 days after receiving certifications from the owner or operator and an
independent registered professional engineer that final closure has been
completed in accordance with the approved closure plan, the Agency must notify
the owner or operator in writing that the owner or operator is no longer required
by this Section to maintain financial assurance for closure of the facility, unless
the Agency determines that closure has not been in accordance with the approved
closure plan. The Agency must provide the owner or operator a detailed written
statement of any such determination that closure has not been in accordance with
the approved closure plan.
i) Appeal. The following Agency actions are deemed to be permit modifications or
refusals to modify for purposes of appeal to the Board (35 Ill. Adm. Code
702.184(e)(3)):
540
1) An increase in, or a refusal to decrease the amount of, a bond, letter of
credit, or insurance; or
2) Requiring alternate assurance upon a finding that an owner or operator or
parent corporation no longer meets a financial test.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.245 Financial Assurance for Post-Closure Monitoring and Maintenance
An owner or operator of a facility with a hazardous waste disposal unit must establish financial
assurance for post-closure care of the disposal units. The owner or operator must choose from
the following options:
a) Post-closure trust fund.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
establishing a post-closure trust fund that conforms to the requirements of
this subsection and submitting an original, signed duplicate of the trust
agreement to the Agency. The trustee must be an entity that has the
authority to act as a trustee and whose trust operations are regulated and
examined by a federal or State agency.
2) The wording of the trust agreement must be as specified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.251 and the trust agreement must be accompanied by a formal
certification of acknowledgment (as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.251). Schedule A of the trust agreement must be updated within 60
days after a change in the amount of the current post-closure cost estimate
covered by the agreement.
3) Payments into the trust fund must be made annually by the owner or
operator over the 20 years beginning May 19, 1981, or over the remaining
operating life of the facility as estimated in the closure plan, whichever
period is shorter; this period is hereafter referred to as the “pay-in period.”
The payments into the post-closure trust fund must be made as follows:
A) The first payment must have been made before May 19, 1981,
except as provided in subsection (a)(5) of this Section. The first
payment must be at least equal to the current post-closure cost
estimate, except as provided in subsection (f) of this Section,
divided by the number of years in the pay-in period.
B) Subsequent payments must be made no later than 30 days after
each anniversary date of the first payment. The amount of each
subsequent payment must be determined by this formula:
541
Y
CV
CE
nt
Next Payme
−
=
Where:
CE
S
is
S
=
the current closure cost estimate
S
,
S
CV
S
is
S
= the current value of the trust fund
S
, and
S
Y
S
is
S
= the number of years remaining in the pay-in period.
4) The owner or operator may accelerate payments into the trust fund or may
deposit the full amount of the current post-closure cost estimate at the time
the fund is established. However, the owner or operator must maintain the
value of the fund at no less than the value that the fund would have if
annual payments were made as specified in subsection (a)(3) of this
Section.
5) If the owner or operator establishes a post-closure trust fund after having
used one or more alternate mechanisms specified in this Section, the
owner or operator’s first payment must be in at least the amount that the
fund would contain if the trust fund were established initially and annual
payments made as specified in subsection (a)(3) of this Section.
6) After the pay-in period is completed, whenever the current post-closure
cost estimate changes during the operating life of the facility, the owner or
operator must compare the new estimate with the trustee’s most recent
annual valuation of the trust fund. If the value of the fund is less than the
amount of the new estimate, the owner or operator, within 60 days after
the change in the cost estimate, must either deposit an amount into the
fund so that its value after this deposit at least equals the amount of the
current post-closure cost estimate, or obtain other financial assurance as
specified in this Section to cover the difference.
7) During the operating life of the facility, if the value of the trust fund is
greater than the total amount of the current post-closure cost estimate, the
owner or operator may submit a written request to the Agency for release
of the amount in excess of the current post-closure cost estimate.
8) If an owner or operator substitutes other financial assurance as specified in
this Section for all or part of the trust fund, owner or operator may submit
a written request to the Agency for release of the amount in excess of the
current post-closure cost estimate covered by the trust fund.
9) Within 60 days after receiving a request from the owner or operator for
release of funds as specified in subsection (a)(7) or (a)(8) of this Section,
the Agency must instruct the trustee to release to the owner or operator
542
such funds as the Agency specifies in writing.
10) During the period of post-closure care, the Agency must approve a release
of funds if the owner or operator demonstrates to the Agency that the
value of the trust fund exceeds the remaining cost of post-closure care.
11) An owner or operator or any other person authorized to perform post-
closure care may request reimbursement for post-closure care
expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the Agency. Within 60 days
after receiving bills for post-closure activities, the Agency must instruct
the trustee to make reimbursement in those amounts as the Agency
specifies in writing if the Agency determines that the post-closure care
expenditures are in accordance with the approved post-closure plan or
otherwise justified. If the Agency does not instruct the trustee to make
such reimbursements, the Agency must provide the owner or operator with
a detailed written statement of reasons.
12) The Agency must agree to termination of a trust when either of the
following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (h) of this Section.
b) Surety bond guaranteeing payment into a post-closure trust fund.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining a surety bond that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection (b) and submitting the bond to the Agency. The surety
company issuing the bond must, at a minimum, be among those listed as
acceptable sureties on
S
Federal
S
federal bonds in Circular 570 of the U.S.
Department of the Treasury.
BOARD NOTE: The U.S. Department of Treasury updates Circular 570,
“Companies Holding Certificates of Authority as Acceptable Sureties on
Federal Bonds and as Acceptable Reinsuring Companies,” on an annual
basis pursuant to 31 CFR 223.16. Circular 570 is available on the Internet
from the following website: http://www.fms.treas.gov/c570/.
2) The wording of the surety bond must be as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.251.
3) The owner or operator that uses a surety bond to satisfy the requirements
of this Section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms
543
of the bond, all payments made thereunder will be deposited by the surety
directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from
the Agency. This standby trust fund must meet the requirements specified
in subsection (a) of this Section, except as follows:
A) An original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be
submitted to the Agency with the surety bond; and
B) Until the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements
of this Section, the following are not required by these regulations:
i) Payments into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a)
of this Section;
ii) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (as specified
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251) to show current post-closure
cost estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment, as required by the trust agreement.
4) The bond must guarantee that the owner or operator will perform the
following acts:
A) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum of
the bond before the beginning of final closure of the facility; or
B) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum
within 15 days after an order to begin closure is issued by the
Board or a court of competent jurisdiction; or
C) Provide alternate financial assurance, as specified in this Section,
and obtain the Agency’s written approval of the assurance
provided, within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or
operator and the Agency of a notice of cancellation of the bond
from the surety.
5) Under the terms of the bond, the surety will become liable on the bond
obligation when the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by
the bond.
6) The penal sum of the bond must be in an amount at least equal to the
current post-closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection (f) of
this Section.
544
7) Whenever the current post-closure cost estimate increases to an amount
greater than the penal sum, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the
increase, must either cause the penal sum to be increased to an amount at
least equal to the current post-closure cost estimate and submit evidence
of such increase to the Agency or obtain other financial assurance as
specified in this Section to cover the increase. Whenever the current post-
closure cost estimate decreases, the penal sum may be reduced to the
amount of the current post-closure cost estimate following written
approval by the Agency.
8) Under the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending
notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the
Agency. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the 120 days
beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the
owner or operator and the Agency, as evidenced by the return receipts.
9) The owner or operator may cancel the bond if the Agency has given prior
written consent based on its receipt of evidence of alternate financial
assurance as specified in this Section.
c) Post-closure letter of credit.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining an irrevocable standby letter of credit that conforms to the
requirements of this subsection (c) and submitting the letter to the Agency.
The issuing institution must be an entity that has the authority to issue
letters of credit and whose letter-of-credit operations are regulated and
examined by a federal or State agency.
2) The wording of the letter of credit must be as specified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.251.
3) An owner or operator that uses a letter of credit to satisfy the requirements
of this Section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms
of the letter of credit, all amounts paid pursuant to a draft by the Agency
must be deposited by the issuing institution directly into the standby trust
fund in accordance with instructions from the Agency. This standby trust
fund must meet the requirements of the trust fund specified in subsection
(a) of this Section, except as follows:
A) An original, signed duplicate of the trust agreement must be
submitted to the Agency with the letter of credit; and
B) Unless the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the
requirements of this Section, the following are not required by
these regulations:
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i) Payments into the trust fund, as specified in subsection (a)
of this Section;
ii) Updating of Schedule A of the trust agreement (as specified
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.151) to show current post-closure
cost estimates;
iii) Annual valuations, as required by the trust agreement; and
iv) Notices of nonpayment, as required by the trust agreement.
4) The letter of credit must be accompanied by a letter from the owner or
operator referring to the letter of credit by number, issuing institution, and
date and providing the following information: the USEPA identification
number, name, and address of the facility, and the amount of funds
assured for post-closure care of the facility by the letter of credit.
5) The letter of credit must be irrevocable and issued for a period of at least
one year. The letter of credit must provide that the expiration date will be
automatically extended for a period of at least one year unless, at least 120
days before the current expiration date, the issuing institution notifies both
the owner or operator and the Agency by certified mail of a decision not to
extend the expiration date. Under the terms of the letter of credit, the 120
days will begin on the date when both the owner or operator and the
Agency have received the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts.
6) The letter of credit must be issued in an amount at least equal to the
current post-closure cost estimate, except as provided in subsection (f) of
this Section.
7) Whenever the current post-closure cost estimate increases to an amount
greater than the amount of the credit during the operating life of the
facility, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase, must
either cause the amount of the credit to be increased so that it at least
equals the current post-closure cost estimate and submit evidence of such
increase to the Agency, or obtain other financial assurance, as specified in
this Section, to cover the increase. Whenever the current cost estimate
decreases during the operating life of the facility, the amount of the credit
may be reduced to the amount of the current post-closure cost estimate
following written approval by the Agency.
8) During the period of post-closure care, the Agency must approve a
decrease in the amount of the letter of credit if the owner or operator
demonstrates to the Agency that the amount exceeds the remaining cost of
post-closure care.
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9) Following a final judicial determination or Board order finding that the
owner or operator has failed to perform post-closure care in accordance
with the approved post-closure plan and other interim status requirements,
the Agency may draw on the letter of credit.
10) If the owner or operator does not establish alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, and obtain written approval of such alternate
assurance from the Agency within 90 days after receipt by both the owner
or operator and the Agency of a notice from the issuing institution that it
has decided not to extend the letter of credit beyond the current expiration
date, the Agency must draw on the letter of credit. The Agency may delay
the drawing if the issuing institution grants an extension of the term of the
credit. During the last 30 days after any such extension the Agency must
draw on the letter of credit if the owner or operator has failed to provide
alternate financial assurance, as specified in this Section, and obtain
written approval of such assurance from the Agency.
11) The Agency must return the letter of credit to the issuing institution for
termination when either of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (h) of this Section.
d) Post-closure insurance.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
obtaining post-closure insurance that conforms to the requirements of this
subsection and submitting a certificate of such insurance to the Agency.
At a minimum, the insurer must be licensed to transact the business of
insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines
insurer, in one or more states.
2) The wording of the certificate of insurance must be as specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.251.
3) The post-closure insurance policy must be issued for a face amount at
least equal to the current post-closure estimate, except as provided in
subsection (f) of this Section. The term “face amount” means the total
amount the insurer is obligated to pay under the policy. Actual payments
by the insurer’s will not change the face amount, although the insurer’s
future liability will be lowered by the amount of the payments.
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4) The post-closure insurance policy must guarantee that funds will be
available to provide post-closure care of facility whenever the post-closure
period begins. The policy must also guarantee that, once post-closure care
begins, the insurer will be responsible for paying out funds, up to an
amount equal to the face amount of the policy, upon the direction of the
Agency, to such party or parties as the Agency specifies.
5) An owner or operator or any other person authorized to perform post-
closure care may request reimbursement for post-closure care
expenditures by submitting itemized bills to the Agency. Within 60 days
after receiving bills for post-closure activities, the Agency must instruct
the insurer to make reimbursement in such amounts as the Agency
specifies in writing, if the Agency determines that the post-closure care
expenditures are in accordance with the approved post-closure plan or
otherwise justified. If the Agency does not instruct the insurer to make
such reimbursements, the Agency must provide the owner or operator with
a detailed written statement of reasons.
6) The owner or operator must maintain the policy in full force and effect
until the Agency consents to termination of the policy by the owner or
operator, as specified in subsection (d)(11) of this Section. Failure to pay
the premium, without substitution of alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section, will constitute a significant violation of these
regulations, warranting such remedy as the Board may impose pursuant to
the Environmental Protection Act. Such violation will be deemed to begin
upon receipt by the Agency of a notice of future cancellation, termination,
or failure to renew due to nonpayment of the premium, rather than upon
the date of expiration.
7) Each policy must contain a provision allowing assignment of the policy to
a successor owner or operator. Such assignment may be conditional upon
consent of the insurer, provided such consent is not unreasonably refused.
8) The policy must provide that the insurer may not cancel, terminate, or fail
to renew the policy except for failure to pay the premium. The automatic
renewal of the policy must, at a minimum, provide the insured with the
option of renewal at the face amount of the expiring policy. If there is a
failure to pay the premium, the insurer may elect to cancel, terminate, or
fail to renew the policy by sending notice by certified mail to the owner or
operator and the Agency. Cancellation, termination, or failure to renew
may not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning with the date of
receipt of the notice by both the Agency and the owner or operator, as
evidenced by the return receipts. Cancellation, termination, or failure to
renew may not occur, and the policy will remain in full force and effect in
the event that, on or before the date of expiration, one of the following
occurs:
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A) The Agency deems the facility abandoned;
B) Interim status is terminated or revoked;
C) Closure is ordered by the Board or a court of competent
jurisdiction;
D) The owner or operator is named as debtor in a voluntary or
involuntary proceeding under 11 USC (Bankruptcy); or
E) The premium due is paid.
9) Whenever the current post-closure cost estimate increases to an amount
greater than the face amount of the policy during the operating life of the
facility, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase, must
either cause the face amount to be increased to an amount at least equal to
the current post-closure cost estimate and submit evidence of such
increase to the Agency, or obtain other financial assurance, as specified in
this Section, to cover the increase. Whenever the current post-closure cost
estimate decreases during the operating life of the facility, the face amount
may be reduced to the amount of the current post-closure cost estimate
following written approval by the Agency.
10) Commencing on the date that liability to make payments pursuant to the
policy accrues, the insurer must thereafter annually increase the face
amount of the policy. Such increase must be equivalent to the face
amount of the policy, less any payments made, multiplied by an amount
equivalent to 85 percent of the most recent investment rate or of the
equivalent coupon-issue yield announced by the U.S. Treasury for 26-
week Treasury securities.
11) The Agency must give written consent to the owner or operator that the
owner or operator may terminate the insurance policy when either of the
following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (h) of this Section.
e) Financial test and corporate guarantee for post-closure care.
1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Section by
demonstrating that the owner or operator passes a financial test, as
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specified in this subsection (e). To pass this test the owner or operator
must meet the criteria of either subsection (e)(1)(A) or (e)(1)(B) of this
Section:
A) The owner or operator must have each of the following:
i) Two of the following three ratios: a ratio of total liabilities
to net worth less than 2.0; a ratio of the sum of net income
plus depreciation, depletion and amortization to total
liabilities greater than 0.1; and a ratio of current assets to
current liabilities greater than 1.5;
ii) Net working capital and tangible net worth each at least six
times the sum of the current closure and post-closure cost
estimates and the current plugging and abandonment cost
estimates;
iii) Tangible new worth of at least $10 million; and
iv) Assets in the United States amounting to at least 90 percent
of total assets or at least six times the sum of the current
closure and post-closure cost estimates and the plugging
and abandonment cost estimates.
B) The owner or operator must have each of the following:
i) A current rating for its most recent bond issuance of AAA,
AA, A, or BBB, as issued by Standard and Poor’s, or Aaa,
Aa, A, or Baa, as issued by Moody’s;
ii) Tangible net worth at least six times the sum of the current
closure and post-closure cost estimates and the current
plugging and abandonment cost estimates;
iii) Tangible net worth of at least $10 million; and
iv) Assets located in the United States amounting to at least 90
percent of its total assets or at least six times the sum of the
current closure and post-closure cost estimates and the
current plugging and abandonment cost estimates.
2) The phrase “current closure and post-closure cost estimates,” as used in
subsection (e)(1) of this Section, refers to the cost estimates required to be
shown in subsections 1 through 4 of the letter from the owner’s or
operator’s chief financial officer (
S
40 CFR 264.151(f)) (incorporated by
reference in
S
see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251). The phrases “current
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plugging and abandonment cost estimates,” as used in subsection (e)(1) of
this Section, refers to the cost estimates required to be shown in
subsections 1 through 4 of the letter from the owner’s or operator’s chief
financial officer (
S
40 CFR 144.70(f)), incorporated by reference in
S
see 35
Ill. Adm. Code 704.240).
3) To demonstrate that it meets this test, the owner or operator must submit
each of the following items to the Agency:
A) A letter signed by the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer
and worded as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251;
B) A copy of the independent certified public accountant’s report on
examination of the owner’s or operator’s financial statements for
the latest completed fiscal year; and
C) A special report from the owner’s or operator’s independent
certified public accountant to the owner or operator stating both of
the following:
i) That the accountant has compared the data that the letter
from the chief financial officer specifies as having been
derived from the independently audited, year-end financial
statements for the latest fiscal year with the amounts in
such financial statements; and
ii) In connection with that procedure, that no matters came to
the accountant’s attention that caused the accountant to
believe that the specified data should be adjusted.
4) This subsection (e)(4) corresponds with 40 CFR 265.143(e)(4), a federal
provision relating to an extension of the time to file the proofs of financial
assurance required by this subsection (e) granted by USEPA. This
statement maintains structural consistency with the corresponding federal
regulations.
5) After the initial submission of items specified in subsection (e)(3) of this
Section, the owner or operator must send updated information to the
Agency within 90 days after the close of each succeeding fiscal year. This
information must consist of all three items specified in subsection (e)(3) of
this Section.
6) If the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of subsection
(e)(1) of this Section, the owner or operator must send notice to the
Agency of intent to establish alternate financial assurance, as specified in
this Section. The notice must be sent by certified mail within 90 days
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after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show
that the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements. The owner
or operator must provide the alternate financial assurance within 120 days
after the end of such fiscal year.
7) The Agency may, based on a reasonable belief that the owner or operator
may no longer meet the requirements of subsection (e)(1) of this Section,
require reports of financial condition at any time from the owner or
operator in addition to those specified in subsection (e)(3) of this Section.
If the Agency finds, on the basis of such reports or other information, that
the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of subsection
(e)(1) of this Section, the owner or operator must provide alternate
financial assurance, as specified in this Section, within 30 days after
notification of such a finding.
8) The Agency may disallow use of this test on the basis of qualifications in
the opinion expressed by the independent certified public accountant in
the accountant’s report on examination of the owner’s or operator’s
financial statements (see subsection (e)(3)(B) of this Section). An adverse
opinion or a disclaimer of opinion will be cause for disallowance. The
Agency must evaluate other qualifications on an individual basis. The
owner or operator must provide alternate financial assurance, as specified
in this Section, within 30 days after notification of the disallowance.
9) During the period of post-closure care, the Agency must approve a
decrease in the current post-closure cost estimate for which this test
demonstrates financial assurance if the owner or operator demonstrates to
the Agency that the amount of the cost estimate exceeds the remaining
cost of post-closure care.
10) The owner or operator is no longer required to submit the items specified
in subsection (e)(3) of this Section when either of the following occurs:
A) An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance, as
specified in this Section; or
B) The Agency releases the owner or operator from the requirements
of this Section in accordance with subsection (h) of this Section.
11) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this Section by
obtaining a written guarantee, hereafter referred to as “corporate
guarantee.” The guarantor must be the direct or higher-tier parent
corporation of the owner or operator, a firm whose parent corporation is
also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, or a firm with a
“substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator. The
guarantor must meet the requirements for owners or operators in
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subsections (e)(1) through (e)(9) of this Section, and must comply with the
terms of the corporate guarantee. The wording of the corporate guarantee
must be identical to the wording specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251.
The corporate guarantee must accompany the items sent to the Agency as
specified in subsection (e)(3) of this Section. One of these items must be
the letter from the guarantor’s chief financial officer. If the guarantor’s
parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator,
the letter must describe the value received in consideration of the
guarantee. If the guarantor is a firm with a “substantial business
relationship” with the owner or operator, this letter must describe this
substantial business relationship” and the value received in consideration
of the guarantee. The terms of the corporate guarantee must provide as
follows:
A) That, if the owner or operator fails to perform post-closure care of
a facility covered by the corporate guarantee in accordance with
the post-closure plan and other interim status requirements
whenever required to do so, the guarantor will do so or establish a
trust fund as specified in subsection (a) of this Section, in the name
of the owner or operator.
B) That the corporate guarantee will remain in force unless the
guarantor sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the
owner or operator and to the Agency. Cancellation may not occur,
however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of
the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the
Agency, as evidenced by the return receipts.
C) That, if the owner or operator fails to provide alternate financial
assurance, as specified in this Section, and obtain the written
approval of such alternate assurance from the Agency within 90
days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Agency of
a notice of cancellation of the corporate guarantee from the
guarantor, the guarantor will provide such alternate financial
assurance in the name of the owner or operator.
f) Use of multiple financial mechanisms. An owner or operator may satisfy the
requirements of this Section by establishing more than one financial mechanism
per facility. These mechanisms are limited to trust funds, surety bonds, letters of
credit, and insurance. The mechanisms must be as specified in subsections (a)
through (d) of this Section, respectively, except that it is the combination of
mechanisms, rather than the single mechanism, that must provide financial
assurance for an amount at least equal to the current post-closure cost estimate. If
an owner or operator uses a trust fund in combination with a surety bond or a
letter of credit, it may use the trust fund as the standby trust fund for the other
mechanisms. A single standby trust fund may be established for two or more
553
mechanisms. The Agency may use any or all of the mechanisms to provide for
post-closure care of the facility.
g) Use of a financial mechanism for multiple facilities. An owner or operator may
use a financial assurance mechanism specified in this Section to meet the
requirements of this Section for more than one facility. Evidence of financial
assurance submitted to the Agency must include a list showing, for each facility,
the USEPA Identification Number, name, address, and the amount of funds for
post-closure care assured by the mechanism. The amount of funds available
through the mechanism must be no less than the sum of funds that would be
available if a separate mechanism had been established and maintained for each
facility. The amount of funds available to the Agency must be sufficient to
provide post-closure care for all of the owner or operator’s facilities. In directing
funds available through the mechanism for post-closure care of any of the
facilities covered by the mechanism, the Agency may direct only the amount of
funds designated for that facility, unless the owner or operator agrees to the use of
additional funds available under the mechanism.
h) Release of the owner or operator from the requirements of this Section. Within
60 days after receiving certifications from the owner or operator and an
independent registered professional engineer that the post-closure care period has
been completed in accordance with the approved post-closure plan, the Agency
must notify the owner or operator in writing that the owner or operator is no
longer required by this Section to maintain financial assurance for post-closure
care of that unit, unless the Agency determines that post-closure care has not been
in accordance with the approved post-closure plan. The Agency must provide the
owner or operator a detailed written statement of any such determination that
post-closure care has not been in accordance with the approved post-closure plan.
i) Appeal. The following Agency actions are deemed to be permit modifications or
refusals to modify for purposes of appeal to the Board (35 Ill. Adm. Code
702.184(e)(3)):
1) An increase in, or a refusal to decrease the amount of, a bond, letter of
credit, or insurance; or
2) Requiring alternate assurance upon a finding that an owner or operator or
parent corporation no longer meets a financial test.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.248 Incapacity of Owners or Operators, Guarantors, or Financial Institutions
a) An owner or operator must notify the Agency by certified mail of the
commencement of a voluntary or involuntary proceeding under 11 USC
(Bankruptcy) naming the owner or operator as debtor, within 10 days after
554
commencement of the proceeding. A guarantor of a corporate guarantee as
specified in Sections 725.243(e) and 725.245(e) must make such a notification if
the guarantor is named as a debtor, as required under the terms of the corporate
guarantee (see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.251).
b) An owner or operator that fulfills the requirements of Sections 725.243, 725.245
or 725.247 by obtaining a trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance
policy will be deemed to be without the required financial assurance or liability
coverage in the event of bankruptcy of the trustee or issuing institution, or a
suspension or revocation of the authority of the trustee institution to act as trustee
or of the institution issuing the surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy to
issue such instruments. The owner or operator must establish other financial
assurance or liability coverage within 60 days after such an event.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART I: USE AND MANAGEMENT OF CONTAINERS
Section 725.273 Management of Containers
a) A container holding hazardous waste must always be closed during storage,
except when it is necessary to add or remove waste.
b) A container holding hazardous waste must not be opened, handled, or stored in a
manner that may rupture the container or cause it to leak.
BOARD NOTE: Re-use of containers in transportation is governed by
S
U.S. Department of
Transportation
S
USDOT regulations, including those set forth in 49 CFR 173.28 (Reuse,
Reconditioning, and Remanufacture of Packagings), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.277 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
a) Incompatible wastes or incompatible wastes and materials (see
S
Appendix
S
appendix V of 40 CFR 265 (Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), for examples) must
not be placed in the same container, unless Section 725.117(b) is complied with.
b) Hazardous waste must not be placed in an unwashed container that previously
held an incompatible waste or material (see
S
Appendix
S
appendix V of 40 CFR 265
S
,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
, for examples), unless
Section 725.117(b) is complied with.
c) A storage container holding a hazardous waste that is incompatible with any
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waste or other materials stored nearby in other containers, piles, open tanks, or
surface impoundments must be separated from the other materials or protected
from them by means of a dike, berm, wall, or other device.
BOARD NOTE: The purpose of this is to prevent fires, explosions, gaseous emissions, leaching,
or other discharge or hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents that could result from the
mixing of incompatible wastes or materials if containers break or leak.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART J: TANK SYSTEMS
Section 725.290 Applicability
The regulations of this Subpart J apply to owners and operators of facilities that use tank systems
for storing or treating hazardous waste, except as otherwise provided in
S
subsections
S
subsection
(a), (b), or (c) of this Section or in Section 725.101.
a) Tank systems that are used to store or treat hazardous waste that contains no free
liquids and that are situated inside a building with an impermeable floor are
exempted from the requirements in Section 725.293. To demonstrate the absence
or presence of free liquids in the stored or treated waste, the following test must
be used: USEPA Method
S
9095
S
9095B (Paint Filter Liquids Test), as described in
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Wastes, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA
S
Publication No.
S
publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
)
S
, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
b) Tank systems, including sumps, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, that
serve as part of a secondary containment system to collect or contain releases of
hazardous wastes are exempted from the requirements in Section 725.293(a).
c) Tanks, sumps, and other collection devices used in conjunction with drip pads, as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110 and regulated under Subpart W of this Part,
must meet the requirements of this Subpart J.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.291 Assessment of Existing Tank System Integrity
a) For each existing tank system that does not have secondary containment meeting
the requirements of Section 725.293, the owner or operator must determine either
that the tank system is not leaking or that it is unfit for use. Except as provided in
subsection (c), the owner or operator
S
shall
S
must, after January 12, 1988, obtain
and keep on file at the facility a written assessment reviewed and certified by an
independent, qualified, registered professional engineer in accordance with 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702.126(d), that attests to the tank system’s integrity.
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b) This assessment must determine whether the tank system is adequately designed
and has sufficient structural strength and compatibility with the wastes to be
stored or treated to ensure that it will not collapse, rupture, or fail. At a minimum,
this assessment must consider the following:
1) Design standards, if available, according to which the tank and ancillary
equipment were constructed;
2) Hazardous characteristics of the wastes that have been or will be handled;
3) Existing corrosion protection measures;
4) Documented age of the tank system, if available, (otherwise, an estimate
of the age); and
5) Results of a leak test, internal inspection, or other tank integrity
examination, such that the following conditions are met:
A) For non-enterable underground tanks, this assessment must consist
of a leak test that is capable of taking into account the effects of
temperature variations, tank end deflection, vapor pocket, and high
water table effects.
B) For other than non-enterable underground tanks and for ancillary
equipment, this assessment must be either a leak test, as described
above, or an internal inspection or other tank integrity examination
certified by an independent, qualified, registered professional
engineer in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.126(d), that
addresses cracks, leaks, corrosion, and erosion.
BOARD NOTE: The practices described in the American Petroleum
Institute (API) Publication, “Guide for Inspection of Refinery
Equipment,” Chapter XIII, “Atmospheric and Low-Pressure Storage
Tanks,” incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), may
be used, where applicable, as guidelines in conducting the integrity
examination of an other than non-enterable underground tank system.
c) Tank systems that store or treat materials that become hazardous wastes
subsequent to July 14, 1986 must conduct this assessment within 12 months after
the date that the waste becomes a hazardous waste.
d) If, as a result of the assessment conducted in accordance with subsection (a) of
this Section, a tank system is found to be leaking or unfit for use, the owner or
operator must comply with the requirements of Sections 725.296.
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(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.292 Design and Installation of New Tank Systems or Components
a) An owner or operator of a new tank system or component must ensure that the
foundation, structural support, seams, connections, and pressure controls (if
applicable) are adequately designed and that the tank system has sufficient
structural strength, compatibility with the wastes to be stored or treated, and
corrosion protection so that it will not collapse, rupture, or fail. The owner or
operator must obtain a written assessment reviewed and certified by an
independent, qualified, registered professional engineer in accordance with 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702.126(d), attesting that the system has sufficient structural integrity
and is acceptable for the storing and treating of hazardous waste. This assessment
must include, at a minimum, the following information:
1) Design standards according to which the tanks and ancillary equipment is
or will be constructed.
2) Hazardous characteristics of the wastes to be handled.
3) For new tank systems or components in which the external shell of a metal
tank or any external metal component of the tank system is or will be in
contact with the soil or with water, a determination by a corrosion expert
of the following:
A) Factors affecting the potential for corrosion, including but not
limited to the following:
i) Soil moisture content;
ii) Soil pH;
iii) Soil sulfides level;
iv) Soil resistivity;
v) Structure to soil potential;
vi) Influence of nearby underground metal structures (e.g.,
piping);
vii) Stray electric current;
viii) Existing corrosion-protection measures (e.g., coating,
cathodic protection, etc.); and
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B) The type and degree of external corrosion protection that are
needed to ensure the integrity of the tank system during the use of
the tank system or component, consisting of one or more of the
following:
i) Corrosion-resistant materials of construction such as
special alloys, or fiberglass-reinforced plastic;
ii) Corrosion-resistant coating (such as epoxy, fiberglass, etc.)
with cathodic protection (e.g., impressed current or
sacrificial anodes); and
iii) Electrical isolation devices such as insulating joints and
flanges, etc.
BOARD NOTE: The practices described in the National
Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) Standard
S
.
S
,
S
“Recommended Practice (RP-02-85)
S
“Control of External
Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged
Liquid Storage Systems,” NACE Recommended Practice RP0285,
and
S
API Publication 1632,
S
“Cathodic Protection of Underground
Petroleum Storage Tanks and Piping Systems,” API
Recommended Practice 1632, each incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), may be used, where applicable, as
guidelines in providing corrosion protection for tank systems.
4) For underground tank system components that are likely to be affected by
vehicular traffic, a determination of design or operational measures that
will protect the tank system against potential damage; and
5) Design considerations to ensure the following:
A) Tank foundations will maintain the load of a full tank;
B) Tank systems will be anchored to prevent flotation or
dislodgement where the tank system is placed in a saturated zone,
or is located within a seismic fault zone; and
C) Tank systems will withstand the effects of frost heave.
b) The owner and operator of a new tank system must ensure that proper handling
procedures are adhered to in order to prevent damage to the system during
installation. Prior to covering, enclosing or placing a new tank system or
component in use, an independent, qualified installation inspector or an
independent, qualified, registered professional engineer, either of whom is trained
and experienced in the proper installation of tank systems or components, must
559
inspect the system or component for the presence of any of the following items:
1) Weld breaks;
2) Punctures;
3) Scrapes of protective coatings;
4) Cracks;
5) Corrosion; and
6) Other structural damage or inadequate construction or installation. All
discrepancies must be remedied before the tank system is covered,
enclosed, or placed in use.
c) New tank systems or components and piping that are placed underground and
which are backfilled must be provided with a backfill material that is a
noncorrosive, porous, and homogeneous substance which is carefully installed so
that the backfill is placed completely around the tank and compacted to ensure
that the tank and piping are fully and uniformly supported.
d) All new tanks and ancillary equipment must be tested for tightness prior to being
covered, enclosed or placed in use. If a tank system is found not to be tight, all
repairs necessary to remedy the leaks in the system must be performed prior to the
tank system being covered, enclosed, or placed in use.
e) Ancillary equipment must be supported and protected against physical damage
and excessive stress due to settlement, vibration, expansion, or contraction.
BOARD NOTE: The piping system installation procedures described in
S
API
Publication 1615,
S
“Installation of Underground Petroleum Storage Systems,” API
Recommended Practice 1615, or
S
ANSI Standard B31.3,
S
“Chemical Plant and
Petroleum Refinery Piping,” ASME/ANSI Standard B31.3-1987, as
supplemented by B31.3a-1988 and B31.3b-1988, each incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), may be used where applicable, as guidelines for
proper installation of piping systems.
f) The owner and operator must provide the type and degree of corrosion protection
necessary, based on the information provided under subsection (a)(3) of this
Section, to ensure the integrity of the tank system during use of the tanks system.
An independent corrosion expert must supervise the installation of a corrosion
protection system that is field fabricated to ensure proper installation.
g) The owner and operator must obtain and keep on file at the facility written
statements by those persons required to certify the design of the tank system and
560
supervise the installation of the tank system in accordance with the requirements
of subsections (b) through (f) of this Section to attest that the tank system was
properly designed and installed and that repairs, pursuant to subsections (b) and
(d) of this Section were performed. These written statements must also include
the certification statement, as required in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.126(d).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.293 Containment and Detection of Releases
a) In order to prevent the release of hazardous waste or hazardous constituents to the
environment, secondary containment that meets the requirements of this Section
must be provided (except as provided in subsections (f) and (g) of this Section).
1) For a new tank system or component, prior to its being put into service;
2) For all existing tanks used to store or treat USEPA Hazardous Waste
Numbers F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027, as defined in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.131, within two years after January 12, 1987;
3) For those existing tank systems of known and documentable age, within
two years after January 12, 1987, or when the tank systems have reached
15 years of age, whichever come later;
4) For those existing tank systems for which the age cannot be documented,
within eight years of January 12, 1987; but if the age of the facility is
greater than seven years, secondary containment must be provided by the
time the facility reaches 15 years of age or within two years of January 12,
1987, whichever comes later; and
5) For tank systems that store or treat materials that become hazardous
wastes subsequent to January 12, 1987, within the time intervals required
in subsections (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this Section, except that the date
that a material becomes a hazardous waste must be used in place of
January 12, 1987.
b) Secondary containment systems must be as follows:
1) Designed, installed, and operated to prevent any migration of wastes or
accumulated liquid out of the system to the soil, groundwater, or surface
water at any time during the use of the tank system; and
2) Capable of detecting and collecting releases and accumulated liquids until
the collected material is removed.
c) To meet the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section, secondary
561
containment systems must be at a minimum as follows:
1) Constructed of or lined with materials that are compatible with the wastes
to be placed in the tank system and of sufficient strength and thickness to
prevent failure due to pressure gradients (including static head and
external hydrological forces), physical contact with the waste to which
they are exposed, climatic conditions, the stress of installation, and the
stress of daily operation (including stresses from nearby vehicular traffic);
2) Placed on a foundation or base capable of providing support to the
secondary containment system and resistance to pressure gradients above
and below the system and capable of preventing failure due to settlement,
compression, or uplift;
3) Provided with a leak detection system that is designed and operated so that
it will detect the failure of either the primary and secondary containment
structure or any release of hazardous waste or accumulated liquid in the
secondary containment system within 24 hours, or as otherwise provided
in the RCRA permit if the operator has demonstrated to the Agency, by
way of permit application, that the existing detection technology or site
conditions will not allow detection of a release within 24 hours;
4) Sloped or otherwise designed or operated to drain and remove liquids
resulting from leaks, spills, or precipitation. Spilled or leaked waste and
accumulated precipitation must be removed from the secondary
containment system within 24 hours, or as otherwise provided in the
RCRA permit if the operator has demonstrated to the Agency, by way of
permit application, that removal of the released waste or accumulated
precipitation cannot be accomplished within 24 hours.
BOARD NOTE: If the collected material is a hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721, it is subject to management as a hazardous waste in accordance with all
applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722 through 725. If the collected
material is discharged through a point source to waters of the State, it is subject to
the NPDES permit requirement of Section 12(f) of the Environmental Protection
Act and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 309. If discharged to a Publicly Owned Treatment
Works (POTW), it is subject to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 307 and
310. If the collected material is released to the environment, it may be subject to
the reporting requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 750.410 and federal 40 CFR
302.6
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
.
d) Secondary containment for tanks must include one or more of the following
devices:
1) A liner (external to the tank);
562
2) A vault;
3) A double-walled tank; or
4) An equivalent device as approved by the Board in an adjusted standards
proceeding.
e) In addition to the requirements of subsections (b), (c), and (d), secondary
containment systems must satisfy the following requirements:
1) External liner systems must be as follows:
A) Designed or operated to contain 100 percent of the capacity of the
largest tank within the liner system’s boundary;
B) Designed or operated to prevent run-on or infiltration of
precipitation into the secondary containment system, unless the
collection system has sufficient excess capacity to contain run-on
or infiltration. Such additional capacity must be sufficient to
contain precipitation from a 25-year, 24-hour rainfall event;
C) Free of cracks or gaps; and
D) Designed and installed to completely surround the tank and to
cover all surrounding earth likely to come into contact with the
waste if released from the tanks (i.e., capable of preventing lateral
as well as vertical migration of the waste).
2) Vault systems must be as follows:
A) Designed or operated to contain 100 percent of the capacity of the
largest tank within the vault system’s boundary;
B) Designed or operated to prevent run-on or infiltration of
precipitation into the secondary containment system, unless the
collection system has sufficient excess capacity to contain run-on
or infiltration. Such additional capacity must be sufficient to
contain precipitation from a 25-year, 24-hour rainfall event;
C) Constructed with chemical-resistant water stops in place at all
joints (if any);
D) Provided with an impermeable interior coating or lining that is
compatible with the stored waste and that will prevent migration of
waste into the concrete;
563
E) Provided with a means to protect against the formation of and
ignition of vapors within the vault, if the waste being stored or
treated:
i) Meets the definition of ignitable waste under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.121; or
ii) Meets the definition of reactive waste under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.123 and may form an ignitable or explosive
vapor; and
F) Provided with an exterior moisture barrier or be otherwise
designed or operated to prevent migration of moisture into the
vault if the vault is subject to hydraulic pressure.
3) Double-walled tanks must be as follows:
A) Designed as an integral structure (i.e., an inner tank within an outer
shell) so that any release from the inner tank is contained by the
outer shell;
B) Protected, if constructed of metal, from both corrosion of the
primary tank interior and the external surface of the outer shell;
and
C) Provided with a built-in continuous leak detection system capable
of detecting a release within 24 hours or as otherwise provided in
the RCRA permit if the operator has demonstrated to the Agency,
by way of permit application, that the existing leak detection
technology or site conditions will not allow detection of a release
within 24 hours.
BOARD NOTE: The provisions outlined in the Steel Tank Institute (STI)
document “Standard for Dual Wall Underground Steel Storage Tanks,”
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), may be used
as guidelines for aspects of the design of underground steel double-walled
tanks.
f) Ancillary equipment must be provided with full secondary containment (e.g.,
trench, jacketing, double-walled piping, etc.) that meets the requirements of
subsections (c) and (h) of this Section, except for the following:
1) Aboveground piping (exclusive of flanges, joints, valves, and
connections) that are visually inspected for leaks on a daily basis;
2) Welded flanges, welded joints, and welded connections that are visually
564
inspected for leaks on a daily basis;
3) Sealless or magnetic coupling pumps and sealless valves that are visually
inspected for leaks on a daily basis; and
4) Pressurized aboveground piping systems with automatic shut-off devices
(e.g., excess flow check valves, flow metering shutdown devices, loss of
pressure actuated shut-off devices, etc.) that are visually inspected for
leaks on a daily basis.
g) Pursuant to Section 28.1 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/28.1],
and in accordance with Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 104, an adjusted standard
will be granted by the Board regarding alternative design and operating practices
only if the Board finds either that the alternative design and operating practices,
together with location characteristics, will prevent the migration of any hazardous
waste or hazardous constituents into the groundwater or surface water at least as
effectively as secondary containment during the active life of the tank system, or
that in the event of a release that does migrate to groundwater or surface water, no
substantial present or potential hazard will be posed to human health or the
environment. New underground tank systems may not receive an adjusted
standard from the secondary containment requirements of this Section through a
justification in accordance with subsection (g)(2) of this Section.
1) When determining whether to grant alternative design and operating
practices based on a demonstration of equivalent protection of
groundwater and surface water, the Board will consider whether the
petitioner has justified an adjusted standard based on the following
factors:
A) The nature and quantity of the waste;
B) The proposed alternate design and operation;
C) The hydrogeologic setting of the facility, including the thickness of
soils between the tank system and groundwater; and
D) All other factors that would influence the quality and mobility of
the hazardous constituents and the potential for them to migrate to
groundwater or surface water.
2) In deciding whether to grant alternative design and operating practices
based on a demonstration of no substantial present or potential hazard, the
Board will consider whether the petitioner has justified an adjusted
standard based on the following factors:
A) The potential adverse effects on groundwater, surface water, and
565
land quality taking the following into account:
i) The physical and chemical characteristics of the waste in
the tank system, including its potential for migration;
ii) The hydrogeological characteristics of the facility and
surrounding land;
iii) The potential for health risks caused by human exposure to
waste constituents;
iv) The potential for damage to wildlife; crops, vegetation, and
physical structures caused by exposure to waste
constituents; and
v) The persistence and permanence of the potential adverse
effects;
B) The potential adverse effects of a release on groundwater quality,
taking the following into account:
i) The quantity and quality of groundwater and the direction
of groundwater flow;
ii) The proximity and withdrawal rates of water in the area;
iii) The current and future uses of groundwater in the area; and
iv) The existing quality of groundwater, including other
sources of contamination and their cumulative impact on
the groundwater quality;
C) The potential adverse effects of a release on surface water quality,
taking the following into account:
i) The quantity and quality of groundwater and the direction
of groundwater flow;
ii) The patterns of rainfall in the region;
iii) The proximity of the tank system to surface waters;
iv) The current and future uses of surface waters in the area
and water quality standards established for those surface
waters; and
566
v) The existing quality of surface water, including other
sources of contamination and the cumulative impact on
surface water quality; and
D) The potential adverse effects of a release on the land surrounding
the tank system, taking the following into account:
i) The patterns of rainfall in the region; and
ii) The current and future uses of the surrounding land.
3) The owner or operator of a tank system, for which alternative design and
operating practices had been granted in accordance with the requirements
of subsection (g)(1), at which a release of hazardous waste has occurred
from the primary tank system but has not migrated beyond the zone of
engineering control (as established in the alternative design and operating
practices), must fulfill the following requirements:
A) It must comply with the requirements of Section 725.296, except
Section 725.296(d); and
B) It must decontaminate or remove contaminated soil to the extent
necessary to assure the following:
i) It must enable the tank system, for which alternative design
and operating practices were granted, to resume operation
with the capability for the detection of and response to
releases at least equivalent to the capability it had prior to
the release; and
ii) It must prevent the migration of hazardous waste or
hazardous constituents to groundwater or surface water.
C) If contaminated soil cannot be removed or decontaminated in
accordance with subsection (g)(3)(B), it must comply with the
requirements of Section 725.297(b).
4) The owner or operator of a tank system, for which alternative design and
operating practices had been granted in accordance with the requirements
of subsection (g)(1) of this Section, at which a release of hazardous waste
has occurred from the primary tank system and has migrated beyond the
zone of engineering control (as established in the alternative design and
operating practices, must fulfill the following requirements:
A) It must comply with the requirements of Section 725.296(a), (b),
(c), and (d); and
567
B) It must prevent the migration of hazardous waste or hazardous
constituents to groundwater or surface water, if possible, and
decontaminate or remove contaminated soil. If contaminated soil
cannot be decontaminated or removed, or if groundwater has been
contaminated, the owner or operator must comply with the
requirements of Section 725.297(b);
C) If repairing, replacing, or reinstalling the tank system, it must
provide secondary containment in accordance with the
requirements of subsections (a) through (f) of this Section, or make
the alternative design and operating practices demonstration to the
Board again with respect to secondary containment and meet the
requirements for new tank systems in Section 725.292 if the tank
system is replaced. The owner or operator must comply with these
requirements even if contaminated soil is decontaminated or
removed, and groundwater or surface water has not been
contaminated.
h) In order to make an alternative design and operating practices demonstration, the
owner or operator must follow the following procedures, in addition to those
specified in Section 28.1 of the Act [415 ILCS 5/28.1] and Subpart D of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 104:
1) The owner or operator must file a petition for approval of alternative
design and operating practices according to the following schedule:
A) For existing tank systems, at least 24 months prior to the date that
secondary containment must be provided in accordance with
subsection (a) of this Section; and
B) For new tank systems, at least 30 days prior to entering into a
contract for installation of the tank system.
2) As part of the petition, the owner or operator must also submit the
following to the Board:
A) A description of the steps necessary to conduct the demonstration
and a timetable for completing each of the steps. The
demonstration must address each of the factors listed in subsection
(g)(1) or (g)(2) of this Section; and
B) The portion of the Part B permit application specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.202.
3) The owner or operator must complete its showing within 180 days after
568
filing its petition for approval of alternative design and operating
practices.
4) The Agency must issue or modify the RCRA permit so as to require the
permittee to construct and operate the tank system in the manner that was
provided in any Board order approving alternative design and operating
practices.
i) All tank systems, until such time as secondary containment meeting the
requirements of this Section is provided, must comply with the following:
1) For non-enterable underground tanks, a leak test that meets the
requirements of Section 725.291(b)(5) must be conducted at least
annually.
2) For other than non-enterable underground tanks and for all ancillary
equipment, an annual leak test, as described in subsection (i)(1) of this
Section, or an internal inspection or other tank integrity examination, by
an independent, qualified, registered professional engineer, that addresses
cracks, leaks, corrosion and erosion must be conducted at least annually.
The owner or operator must remove the stored waste from the tank, if
necessary, to allow the condition of all internal tank surfaces to be
assessed.
BOARD NOTE: The practices described in API Publication
S
,
S
“Guide for
Inspection of
S
Refining
S
Refinery Equipment,” Chapter XIII, “Atmospheric
and Low Pressure Storage Tanks,” incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a), may be used, when applicable, as guidelines for
assessing the overall condition of the tank system.
3) The owner or operator must maintain on file at the facility a record of the
results of the assessments conducted in accordance with subsections (i)(1)
through (i)(3) of this Section.
4) If a tank system or component is found to be leaking or unfit for use as a
result of the leak test or assessment in subsections (i)(1) through (i)(3) of
this Section, the owner or operator must comply with the requirements of
Section 725.296.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.295 Inspections
a) The owner or operator must inspect the following, where present, at least once
each operating day:
569
1) Overfill/spill control equipment (e.g., waste-feed cutoff systems, bypass
systems, and drainage systems) to ensure that it is in good working order;
2) The aboveground portion of the tank system, if any, to detect corrosion or
releases of waste;
3) Data gathered from monitoring equipment (e.g., pressure and temperature
gauges, monitoring wells, etc.) to ensure that the tank system is being
operated according to its design; and
4) The construction materials and the area immediately surrounding the
externally accessible portion of the tank system including secondary
containment structures (e.g., dikes) to detect erosion or signs of releases of
hazardous waste (e.g., wet spots, dead vegetation, etc.);
BOARD NOTE: Section 725.115(c) requires the owner or operator to remedy
any deterioration or malfunction the owner or operator finds. Section 725.296
requires the owner or operator to notify the Agency within 24 hours of confirming
a release. Also, federal 40 CFR 302
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b),
S
may require the owner or operator to notify the National
Response Center of a release.
b) The owner or operator must inspect cathodic protection systems, if present,
according to, at a minimum, the following schedule to ensure that they are
functioning properly:
1) The proper operation of the cathodic protection system must be confirmed
within six months after initial installation, and annually thereafter; and
2) All sources of impressed current must be inspected or tested, as
appropriate, at least every other month.
BOARD NOTE: The practices described in
S
NACE Standard, “Recommended
Practice (RP-02-85),
S
“Control of External Corrosion on Metallic Buried, Partially
Buried, or Submerged Liquid Storage Systems,” NACE Recommended Practice
RP0285-85, or
S
API Publication 1632,
S
“Cathodic Protection of Underground
Petroleum Storage Tanks and Piping Systems,” API Recommended Practice
1632, each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), may be
used, where applicable, as guidelines in maintaining and inspecting cathodic
protection systems.
c) The owner or operator must document in the operating record of the facility an
inspection of those items in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
570
Section 725.296 Response to Leaks or Spills and Disposition of Tank Systems
A tank system or secondary containment system from which there has been a leak or spill, or
which is unfit for use, must be removed from service immediately. The owner or operator must
satisfy the following requirements:
a) Cease using; prevent flow or addition of wastes. The owner or operator must
immediately stop the flow of hazardous waste into the tank system or secondary
containment system and inspect the system to determine the cause of the release.
b) Removal of waste from tank system or secondary containment system.
1) If the release was from the tank system, the owner or operator must,
within 24 hours after detection of the leak, remove as much of the waste as
is necessary to prevent further release of hazardous waste to the
environment and to allow inspection and repair of the tank system to be
performed.
2) If the release was to a secondary containment system, all released
materials must be removed within 24 hours to prevent harm to human
health and the environment.
c) Containment of visible releases to the environment. The owner or operator must
immediately conduct a visual inspection of the release and, based upon that
inspection, do the following:
1) Prevent further migration of the leak or spill to soils or surface water; and
2) Remove and properly dispose of any visible contamination of the soil or
surface water.
d) Notifications; reports.
1) Any release to the environment, except as provided in subsection (d)(2) of
this Section, must be reported to the Agency within 24 hours after
detection.
2) A leak or spill of hazardous waste is exempted from the requirements of
this subsection (d) if the following occur:
A) The spill is less than or equal to a quantity of one pound; and
B) The spill is immediately contained and cleaned-up.
3) Within 30 days after detection of a release to the environment, a report
containing the following information must be submitted to the Agency:
571
A) Likely route of migration of the release;
B) Characteristics of the surrounding soil (soil composition, geology,
hydrogeology, climate, etc.);
C) Results of any monitoring or sampling conducted in connection
with the release (if available). If sampling or monitoring data
relating to the release are not available within 30 days, these data
must be submitted to the Agency as soon as they become available;
D) Proximity to downgradient drinking water, surface water, and
population areas; and
E) Description of response actions taken or planned.
e) Provision of secondary containment, repair, or closure.
1) Unless the owner or operator satisfies the requirements of subsections
(e)(2) through (e)(4) of this Section, the tank system must be closed in
accordance with Section 725.297.
2) If the cause of the release was a spill that has not damaged the integrity of
the system, the owner or operator may return the system to service as soon
as the released waste is removed and repairs, if necessary, are made.
3) If the cause of the release was a leak from the primary tank system into the
secondary containment system, the system must be repaired prior to
returning the tank system to service.
4) If the source of the release was a leak to the environment from a
component of a tank system without secondary containment, the owner or
operator must provide the component of the system from which the leak
occurred with secondary containment that satisfies the requirements of
Section 725.293 before it is returned to service, unless the source of the
leak is an aboveground portion of a tank system. If the source is an
aboveground component that can be inspected visually, the component
must be repaired and may be returned to service without secondary
containment as long as the requirements of subsection (f) of this Section
are satisfied. If a component is replaced to comply with the requirements
of this subsection (e)(4), that component must satisfy the requirements for
new tank systems or components in Sections 725.292 and 725.293.
Additionally, if a leak has occurred in any portion of a tank system
component that is not readily accessible for visual inspection (e.g., the
bottom of an inground or onground tank), the entire component must be
provided with secondary containment in accordance with Section 725.293
572
prior to being returned to use.
f) Certification of major repairs. If the owner or operator has repaired a tank system
in accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, and the repair has been
extensive (e.g., installation of an internal liner, repair of a ruptured primary
containment or secondary containment vessel, etc.), the tank system must not be
returned to service unless the owner or operator has obtained a certification by an
independent qualified, registered professional engineer in accordance with 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702.126(d) that the repaired system is capable of handling hazardous
wastes without release for the intended life of the system. This certification must
be submitted to the Agency within seven days after returning the tank system to
use.
BOARD NOTE: See Section 725.115(c) for the requirements necessary to remedy a failure.
Also, federal 40 CFR 302.6
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b),
S
requires
the owner or operator to notify the National Response Center of a release of any “reportable
quantity.”
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.298 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Wastes
a) Ignitable or reactive waste must not be placed in a tank system, unless either of
the following conditions is fulfilled:
1) The waste is treated, rendered or mixed before or immediately after
placement in the tank system so that the following two conditions are
fulfilled:
A) The resulting waste, mixture, or dissolved material no longer meets
the definition of ignitable or reactive waste under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.121 or 721.123; and
B) Section 725.117(b) is complied with;
2) The waste is stored or treated in such a way that it is protected from any
material or conditions that may cause the waste to ignite or react; or
3) The tank system is used solely for emergencies.
b) The owner or operator of a facility where ignitable or reactive waste is stored or
tested in tanks must comply with the requirements for the maintenance of
protective distances between the waste management area and any public ways,
streets, alleys, or an adjoining property line that can be built upon as required in
Tables 2-1 through 2-6 of
S
the National Fire Protection Association’s
S
“Flammable
and Combustible Liquids Code,” NFPA 30, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
573
Adm. Code 720.111(a).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.301 Generators of 100 to 1,000 Kilograms of Hazardous Waste Per Month
a) The requirements of this Section apply to small quantity generators that generate
more than 100 kg but less than 1,000 kg of hazardous waste in a calendar month,
that accumulate hazardous waste in tanks for less than 180 days (or 270 days if
the generator must ship the waste greater than 200 miles), and that do not
accumulate over 6,000 kg on-site at any time.
b) A generator of between 100 and 1,000 kg/mo hazardous waste must comply with
the following general operating requirements:
1) Treatment or storage of hazardous waste in tanks must comply with
Section 725.117(b);
2) Hazardous wastes or treatment reagents must not be placed in a tank if
they could cause the tank or its inner liner to rupture, leak, corrode, or
otherwise fail before the end of its intended life;
3) Uncovered tanks must be operated to ensure at least 60 centimeters (2
feet) of freeboard unless the tank is equipped with a containment structure
(e.g., dike or trench), a drainage control system, or a diversion structure
(e.g., standby tank) with a capacity that equals or exceeds the volume of
the top 60 centimeters (2 feet) of the tank; and
4) Where hazardous waste is continuously fed into a tank, the tank must be
equipped with a means to stop this inflow (e.g., waste feed cutoff system
or by-pass system to a stand-by tank).
BOARD NOTE: These systems are intended to be used in the event of a
leak or overflow from the tank due to a system failure (e.g., a malfunction
in the treatment process, a crack in the tank, etc.).
c) A generator of between 100 and 1,000 kg/mo accumulating hazardous waste in
tanks must inspect the following, where present:
1) Discharge control equipment (e.g., waste feed cutoff systems, by-pass
systems, and drainage systems) at least once each operating day, to ensure
that it is in good working order;
2) Data gathered from monitoring equipment (e.g., pressure and temperature
gauges) at least once each operating day to ensure that the tank is being
operated according to its design;
574
3) The level of waste in the tank at least once each operating day to ensure
compliance with subsection (b)(3) of this Section;
4) The construction materials of the tank at least weekly to detect corrosion
or leaking of fixtures or seams; and
5) The construction materials of and the area immediately surrounding
discharge confinement structures (e.g., dikes) at least weekly to detect
erosion or obvious signs of leakage (e.g., wet spots or dead vegetation).
BOARD NOTE: As required by Section 725.115(c), the owner or
operator must remedy any deterioration or malfunction the owner or
operator finds.
d) A generator of between 100 and 1,000 kg/mo accumulating hazardous waste in
tanks must, upon closure of the facility, remove all hazardous waste from tanks,
discharge control equipment, and discharge confinement structures.
BOARD NOTE: At closure, as throughout the operating period, unless the owner
or operator demonstrates, in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(d) or (e),
that any solid waste removed from the tank is not a hazardous waste, the owner or
operator becomes a generator of hazardous waste and must manage it in
accordance with all applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722, 723, and
725.
e) A generator of between 100 and 1,000 kg/mo must comply with the following
special requirements for ignitable or reactive waste:
1) Ignitable or reactive waste must not be placed in a tank unless one of the
following conditions are fulfilled:
A) The waste is treated, rendered, or mixed before or immediately
after placement in a tank so that the following is true of the waste:
i) The resulting waste, mixture, or dissolution of material no
longer meets the definition of ignitable or reactive waste
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121 or 721.123, and
ii) Section 725.117(b) is complied with;
B) The waste is stored or treated in such a way that it is protected
from any material or conditions that may cause the waste to ignite
or react; or
C) The tank is used solely for emergencies.
575
2) The owner or operator of a facility that treats or stores ignitable or reactive
waste in covered tanks must comply with the buffer zone requirements for
tanks contained in Tables 2-1 through 2-6 of
S
the National Fire Protection
Association’s
S
“Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code,” NFPA 30,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
f) A generator of between 100 and 1,000 kg/mo must comply with the following
special requirements for incompatible wastes:
1) Incompatible wastes or incompatible wastes and materials (see
S
Appendix
E
S
appendix V of 40 CFR 265 (Examples of Potentially Incompatible
Waste), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), for
examples) must not be placed in the same tank unless Section 725.117(b)
is complied with.
2) Hazardous waste must not be placed in an unwashed tank that previously
held an incompatible waste or material unless Section 725.117(b) is
complied with.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART K: SURFACE IMPOUNDMENTS
Section 725.324 Containment System
An earthen dike must have a protective cover, such as grass, shale, or rock to minimize wind and
water erosion and to preserve its structural integrity.
BOARD NOTE: Two versions of 40 CFR 265.223 exist in the federal regulations. USEPA
added the second at 57 Fed. Reg. 3486, January 29, 1992. Section 725.324 is derived from the
original version of 40 CFR 265.223.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.330 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
Incompatible wastes, or incompatible waste and materials (see
S
Appendix
S
appendix V of 40 CFR
265 (Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b), for examples) must not be placed in the same surface impoundment, unless
Section 725.117(b) is complied with.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
576
SUBPART L: WASTE PILES
Section 725.357 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
a) Incompatible wastes, or incompatible wastes and materials (see
S
Appendix
S
appendix V of 40 CFR 265 (Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), for examples) must
not be placed in the same pile, unless Section 725.117(b) is complied with.
b) A pile of hazardous waste that is incompatible with any waste or other material
stored nearby in other containers, piles, open tanks, or surface impoundments
must be separated from the other materials or protected from them by means of a
dike, berm, wall, or other device.
BOARD NOTE: The purpose of this is to prevent fires, explosions, gaseous
emissions, leaching, or other discharge of hazardous waste or hazardous waste
constituents that could result from the contact or mixing of incompatible wastes
or materials.
c) Hazardous waste must not be piled on the same area where incompatible wastes
or materials were previously piled, unless that area has been decontaminated
sufficiently to ensure compliance with Section 725.117(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART M: LAND TREATMENT
Section 725.382 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
Incompatible wastes or incompatible wastes and materials (see
S
Appendix
S
appendix V of 40 CFR
265 (Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b), for examples) must not be placed in the same land treatment area unless
Section 725.117(b) is complied with.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART N: LANDFILLS
Section 725.413 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
Incompatible wastes or incompatible wastes and materials (see
S
Appendix
S
appendix V of 40 CFR
265 (Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b), for examples) must not be placed in the same landfill cell, unless Section
725.117(b) is complied with.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
577
Section 725.414 Special Requirements for Liquid Wastes
a) This subsection (a) corresponds with 40 CFR 265.314(a), which pertains to the
placement of bulk or non-containerized liquid waste or waste containing free
liquids in a landfill prior to May 8, 1985. This statement maintains structural
consistency with USEPA rules.
b) The placement of bulk or non-containerized liquid hazardous waste or hazardous
waste containing free liquids (whether or not sorbents have been added) in any
landfill is prohibited.
c) Containers holding free liquids must not be placed in a landfill unless one of the
following conditions is fulfilled:
1) One of the following occurs with regard to all free-standing liquid:
A) It has been removed by decanting or other methods;
B) It has been mixed with sorbent or solidified so that free-standing
liquid is no longer observed; or
C) It has been otherwise eliminated;
2) The container is very small, such as an ampule;
3) The container is designed to hold free liquids for use other than storage,
such as a battery or capacitor; or
4) The container is a lab pack, as defined in Section 724.416, and is disposed
of in accordance with Section 724.416.
d) To demonstrate the absence or presence of free liquids in either a containerized or
a bulk waste, the following test must be used: Method
S
9095
S
9095B (Paint Filter
Liquids Test), as described in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Wastes,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication No.
S
publication number EPA-
530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
e) The placement of any liquid that is not a hazardous waste in a landfill is
prohibited (35 Ill. Adm. Code 729.311).
f) Sorbents used to treat free liquids to be disposed of in landfills must be
nonbiodegradable. Nonbiodegradable sorbents are one of the following:
materials listed or described in subsection (f)(1) of this Section; materials that
pass one of the tests in subsection (f)(2) of this Section; or materials that are
determined by the Board to be nonbiodegradable through the adjusted standard
578
procedure of Section 28.1 of the Act [415 ILCS 5/28.1] and Subpart D of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 104.
1) Nonbiodegradable sorbents are the following:
A) Inorganic minerals, other inorganic materials, and elemental
carbon (e.g., aluminosilicates, clays, smectites, Fuller’s earth,
bentonite, calcium bentonite, montmorillonite, calcined
montmorillonite, kaolinite, micas (illite), vermiculites, zeolites,
calcium carbonate (organic free limestone), oxides/hydroxides,
alumina, lime, silica (sand), diatomaceous earth, perlite (volcanic
glass), expanded volcanic rock, volcanic ash, cement kiln dust, fly
ash, rice hull ash, activated charcoal/activated carbon, etc.); or
B) High molecular weight synthetic polymers (e.g., polyethylene,
high density polyethylene (HDPE), polypropylene, polystyrene,
polyurethane, polyacrylate, polynorborene, polyisobutylene,
ground synthetic rubber, cross-linked allylstyrene, and tertiary
butyl copolymers). This does not include polymers derived from
biological material or polymers specifically designed to be
degradable; or
C) Mixtures of these nonbiodegradable materials.
2) Tests for nonbiodegradable sorbents.
A) The sorbent material is determined to be nonbiodegradable under
ASTM Method G21-70 (1984a)
S
--“
S
(Standard Practice for
Determining Resistance of Synthetic Polymer Materials to
Fungi),
S
”
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(a);
B) The sorbent material is determined to be nonbiodegradable under
ASTM Method G22-76 (1984b)
S
--“
S
(Standard Practice for
Determining Resistance of Plastics to Bacteria),
S
”
S
incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a); or
C) The sorbent material is determined to be non-biodegradable under
OECD
S
test
S
Guideline for Testing of Chemicals, Method 301B
(CO
B
2
B
Evolution (Modified Sturm Test)), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
579
Section 725.416 Disposal of Small Containers of Hazardous Waste in Overpacked Drums
(Lab Packs)
Small containers of hazardous waste in overpacked drums (lab packs) may be placed in a landfill
if the following requirements are met:
a) Hazardous waste must be packaged in non-leaking inside containers. The inside
containers must be of a design and constructed of a material that will not react
dangerously with, be decomposed by, or be ignited by the waste held therein.
Inside containers must be tightly and securely sealed. The inside containers must
be of the size and type specified in the USDOT hazardous materials regulations
S
,
S
(49 CFR 173 (Shippers--General Requirements for Shipments and Packages), 178
(Specifications for Packagings), and 179 (Specifications for Tank Cars), each
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)), if those regulations
specify a particular inside container for the waste.
b) The inside containers must be overpacked in an open head USDOT-specification
metal shipping container
S
,
S
(49 CFR 178 (Specifications for Packagings) and 179
(Specifications for Tank Cars)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b)
S
, of no more than 416 liter (110 gallon) capacity and surrounded by, at
a minimum, a sufficient quantity of sorbent material, determined to be
nonbiodegradable in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.414(f) to completely
sorb all of the liquid contents of the inside containers. The metal outer container
must be full after packing with inside containers and sorbent material.
c) The sorbent material used must not be capable of reacting dangerously with,
being decomposed by, or being ignited by the contents of the inside containers, in
accordance with Section 725.117(b).
d) Incompatible wastes, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, must not be placed
in the same outside container.
e) Reactive waste, other than cyanide- or sulfide-bearing waste, as defined in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.123(a)(5), must be treated or rendered non-reactive prior to
packaging in accordance with subsections (a) through (d) of this Section.
Cyanide- or sulfide-bearing reactive waste may be packaged in accordance with
subsections (a) through (d) of this Section without first being treated or rendered
non-reactive.
f) Such disposal is in compliance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.
Persons that incinerate lab packs according to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.142(c)(1) may use fiber drums in place of metal outer containers. Such
fiber drums must meet the USDOT specifications in 49 CFR 173.12 (Exceptions
for Shipments of Waste Materials), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b), and be overpacked according to subsection (b) of this Section.
580
g) Pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 729.312, the use of labpacks for disposal of liquid
wastes or wastes containing free liquids allowed under this Section is restricted to
labwaste and non-periodic waste, as those terms are defined in that Part.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART O: INCINERATORS
Section 725.440 Applicability
a) The regulations in this Subpart O apply to owners or operators of hazardous waste
incinerators (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110), except as 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.101 provides otherwise.
b) Integration of the MACT standards.
1) Except as provided by subsections (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this Section, the
standards of this Part no longer apply when an owner or operator
demonstrates compliance with the maximum achievable control
technology (MACT) requirements of subpart EEE of 40 CFR 63 (National
Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Hazardous Waste
Combustors), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b),
by conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting to the
Agency a Notification of Compliance, under 40 CFR 63.1207(j) and
63.1210(b), documenting compliance with the requirements of subpart
EEE of 40 CFR 63.
2) The MACT standards of subpart EEE of 40 CFR 63 do not replace the
closure requirements of Section 724.451 or the applicable requirements of
Subparts A through H, BB, and CC of this Part.
3) Section 725.445, generally prohibiting burning of hazardous waste during
startup and shutdown, remains in effect if the owner or operator elects to
comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.320(b)(1)(A) to minimize emissions
of toxic compounds from startup and shutdown.
BOARD NOTE: Operating conditions used to determine effective treatment of
hazardous waste remain effective after the owner or operator demonstrates
compliance with the standards of subpart EEE of 40 CFR 63. Sections 9.1 and
39.5 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/9.1 and 39.5] make the
federal MACT standards directly applicable to entities in Illinois and authorize
the Agency to issue permits based on the federal standards.
c) An owner or operator of an incinerator that burns hazardous waste is exempt from
all of the requirements of this Subpart O, except Section 725.451 (Closure),
provided that the owner or operator has documented, in writing, that the waste
581
would not reasonably be expected to contain any of the hazardous constituents
listed in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 and such documentation is
retained at the facility, if the waste to be burned is one of the following:
1) It is listed as a hazardous waste in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721,
solely because it is ignitable (Hazard Code I), corrosive (Hazard Code C),
or both;
2) It is listed as a hazardous waste in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721,
solely because it is reactive (Hazard Code R) for characteristics other than
those listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(4) and (a)(5), and will not be
burned when other hazardous wastes are present in the combustion zone;
3) It is a hazardous waste solely because it possesses the characteristic of
ignitability, corrosivity, or both, as determined by the tests for
characteristics of hazardous wastes under Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721; or
4) It is a hazardous waste solely because it possesses the reactivity
characteristics described by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.123 (a)(1), (a)(2),
(a)(3), (a)(6), (a)(7), or (a)(8) and will not be burned when other
hazardous wastes are present in the combustion zone.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART W: DRIP PADS
Section 725.543 Design and Operating Requirements
a) Drip pads must fulfill the following requirements:
1) Not be constructed of earthen materials, wood, or asphalt, unless the
asphalt is structurally supported;
2) Be sloped to free-drain to the associated collection system treated wood
drippage, rain, other waters, or solutions of drippage and water or other
wastes;
3) Have a curb or berm around the perimeter;
4) In addition, the drip pad must fulfill the following requirements:
A) Have a hydraulic conductivity of less than or equal to 1
×
10
P
-7
P
centimeters per second, e.g., existing concrete drip pads must be
sealed, coated, or covered with a surface material with a hydraulic
conductivity of less than or equal to 1
×
10
P
-7
P
centimeters per
582
second such that the entire surface where drippage occurs or may
run across is capable of containing such drippage and mixtures of
drippage and precipitation, materials, or other wastes while being
routed to an associated collection system. This surface material
must be maintained free of cracks and gaps that could adversely
affect its hydraulic conductivity, and the material must be
chemically compatible with the preservatives that contact the drip
pad. The requirements of this provision apply only to the existing
drip pads and those drip pads for which the owner or operator
elects to comply with Section 725.542(a) instead of Section
725.542(b).
B) The owner or operator must obtain and keep on file at the facility a
written assessment of the drip pad, reviewed and certified by an
independent qualified registered professional engineer that attests
to the results of the evaluation. The assessment must be reviewed,
updated, and recertified annually. The evaluation must document
the extent to which the drip pad meets the design and operating
standards of this Section, except for in subsection (b) of this
Section.
5) Be of sufficient structural strength and thickness to prevent failure due to
physical contact, climatic conditions, the stress of installation, and the
stress of daily operations, e.g., variable and moving loads such as vehicle
traffic, movement of wood, etc.
BOARD NOTE: In judging the structural integrity requirement of this subsection
(a), the Agency should generally consider applicable standards established by
professional organizations generally recognized by the industry, including ACI
318-83 (Building Code Requirements for Reinforced Concrete) or
S
ASTM
C94
S
ASTM C 94-90, (Standard Specification for Ready-Mixed Concrete),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
b) If an owner or operator elects to comply with Section 725.542(b) instead of
Section 725.542(a), the drip pad must have the following features:
1) A synthetic liner installed below the drip pad that is designed, constructed,
and installed to prevent leakage from the drip pad into the adjacent
subsurface soil or groundwater or surface water at any time during the
active life (including the closure period) of the drip pad. The liner must
be constructed of materials that will prevent waste from being absorbed
into the liner and to prevent releases into the adjacent subsurface soil or
groundwater or surface water during the active life of the facility. The
liner must be constructed as follows:
A) Constructed of materials that have appropriate chemical properties
583
and sufficient strength and thickness to prevent failure due to
pressure gradients (including static head and external
hydrogeologic forces), physical contact with the waste or drip pad
leakage to which they are exposed, climatic conditions, the stress
of installation, and the stress of daily operation (including stresses
from vehicular traffic on the drip pad);
B) Placed upon a foundation or base capable of providing support to
the liner and resistance to pressure gradients above and below the
liner to prevent failure of the liner due to settlement, compression,
or uplift; and
C) Installed to cover all surrounding earth that could come in contact
with the waste or leakage; and
2) A leakage detection system immediately above the liner that is designed,
constructed, maintained, and operated to detect leakage from the drip pad.
The leakage detection system must be constructed as follows:
A) Constructed of materials that fulfill the following requirements:
i) They are chemically resistant to the waste managed in the
drip pad and the leakage that might be generated; and
ii) They are of sufficient strength and thickness to prevent
collapse under the pressures exerted by overlaying
materials and by any equipment used at the drip pad; and
B) Designed and operated to function without clogging through the
scheduled closure of the drip pad; and
C) Designed so that it will detect the failure of the drip pad or the
presence of a release of hazardous waste or accumulated liquid at
the earliest practicable time.
3) A leakage collection system immediately above the liner that is designed,
constructed, maintained, and operated to collect leakage from the drip pad
such that it can be removed from below the drip pad. The date, time, and
quantity of any leakage collected in this system and removed must be
documented in the operating log.
c) Drip pads must be maintained such that they remain free of cracks, gaps,
corrosion, or other deterioration that could cause hazardous waste to be released
from the drip pad.
BOARD NOTE: See subsection (m) of this Section for remedial action required if
584
deterioration or leakage is detected.
d) The drip pad and associated collection system must be designed and operated to
convey, drain and collect liquid resulting from drippage or precipitation in order
to prevent run-off.
e) Unless the drip pad is protected by a structure, as described in Section 725.540(b),
the owner or operator must design, construct, operate, and maintain a run-on
control system capable of preventing flow onto the drip pad during peak
discharge from at least a 24-hour, 25-year storm, unless the system has sufficient
excess capacity to contain any run-on that might enter the system.
f) Unless the drip pad is protected by a structure or cover, as described in Section
725.540(b), the owner or operator must design, construct, operate, and maintain a
run-off management system to collect and control at least the water volume
resulting from a 24-hour, 25-year storm.
g) The drip pad must be evaluated to determine that it meets the requirements of
subsections (a) through (f) of this Section. The owner or operator must obtain a
statement from an independent, qualified, registered professional engineer
certifying that the drip pad design meets the requirements of this Section.
h) Drippage and accumulated precipitation must be removed from the associated
collection system as necessary to prevent overflow onto the drip pad.
i) The drip pad surface must be cleaned thoroughly at least once every seven days
using an appropriate and effective cleaning technique, including but not limited
to, rinsing, washing with detergents or other appropriate solvents, or steam
cleaning, with residues being properly managed, such that accumulated residues
of hazardous waste or other materials are removed as to allow weekly inspections
of the entire drip pad surface without interference or hindrance from accumulated
residues of hazardous waste or other materials on the drip pad. The owner or
operator must document, in the facility’s operating log, the date and time of each
cleaning and the cleaning procedure.
j) Drip pads must be operated and maintained in a manner to minimize tracking of
hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents off the drip pad as a result of
activities by personnel or equipment.
k) After being removed from the treatment vessel, treated wood from pressure and
non-pressure processes must be held on the drip pad until drippage has ceased.
The owner or operator must maintain records sufficient to document that all
treated wood is held on the pad, in accordance with this Section, following
treatment.
l) Collection and holding units associated with run-on and run-off control systems
585
must be emptied or otherwise managed as soon as possible after storms to
maintain design capacity of the system.
m) Throughout the active life of the drip pad, if the owner or operator detects a
condition that may have caused or has caused a release of hazardous waste, the
condition must be repaired within a reasonably prompt period of time following
discovery, in accordance with the following procedures:
1) Upon detection of a condition that may have caused or has caused a
release of hazardous waste (e.g., upon detection of leakage in the leak
detection system), the owner or operator must perform the following acts:
A) Enter a record of the discovery in the facility operating log;
B) Immediately remove from service the portion of the drip pad
affected by the condition;
C) Determine what steps must be taken to repair the drip pad, clean up
any leakage from below the drip pad, and establish a schedule for
accomplishing the clean up and repairs;
D) Within 24 hours after discovery of the condition, notify the
Agency of the condition and, within 10 working days, provide
written notice to the Agency with a description of the steps that
will be taken to repair the drip pad and clean up any leakage, and
the schedule for accomplishing this work.
2) The Agency must: review the information submitted; make a
determination regarding whether the pad must be removed from service
completely or partially until repairs and clean up are complete; and notify
the owner or operator of the determination and the underlying rationale in
writing.
3) Upon completing all repairs and clean up, the owner or operator must
notify the Agency in writing and provide a certification, signed by an
independent, qualified, registered professional engineer, that the repairs
and clean up have been completed according to the written plan submitted
in accordance with subsection (m)(1)(D) of this Section.
n) The owner or operator must maintain, as part of the facility operating log,
documentation of past operating and waste handling practices. This must include
identification of preservative formulations used in the past, a description of
drippage management practices and a description of treated wood storage and
handling practices.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
586
SUBPART AA: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR PROCESS VENTS
Section 725.933 Standards: Closed-Vent Systems and Control Devices
a) Compliance Required.
1) Owners or operators of closed-vent systems and control devices used to
comply with provisions of this Part must comply with the provisions of
this Section.
2) Implementation Schedule.
A) The owner or operator of an existing facility that cannot install a
closed-vent system and control device to comply with the
provisions of this Subpart AA on the effective date that the facility
becomes subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA must prepare
an implementation schedule that includes dates by which the
closed-vent system and control device will be installed and in
operation. The controls must be installed as soon as possible, but
the implementation schedule may allow up to 30 months after the
effective date that the facility becomes subject to this Subpart AA
for installation and startup.
B) Any unit that begins operation after December 21, 1990, and
which is subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA when
operation begins, must comply with the rules immediately (i.e.,
must have control devices installed and operating on startup of the
affected unit); the 30-month implementation schedule does not
apply.
C) The owner or operator of any facility in existence on the effective
date of a statutory or regulatory amendment that renders the
facility subject to this Subpart AA must comply with all
requirements of this Subpart AA as soon as practicable but no later
than 30 months after the effective date of the amendment. When
control equipment required by this Subpart AA
S
can not
S
cannot be
installed and begin operation by the effective date of the
amendment, the facility owner or operator must prepare an
implementation schedule that includes the following information:
specific calendar dates for award of contracts or issuance of
purchase orders for the control equipment, initiation of on-site
installation of the control equipment, completion of the control
equipment installation, and performance of any testing to
demonstrate that the installed equipment meets the applicable
standards of this Subpart AA. The owner or operator must enter
587
the implementation schedule in the operating record or in a
permanent, readily available file located at the facility.
D) An owner or operator of a facility or unit that becomes newly
subject to the requirements of this Subpart AA after December 8,
1997, due to an action other than those described in subsection
(a)(2)(iii) of this Section must comply with all applicable
requirements immediately (i.e., the facility or unit must have
control devices installed and operating on the date the facility or
unit becomes subject to this Subpart AA; the 30-month
implementation schedule does not apply).
b) A control device involving vapor recovery (e.g., a condenser or adsorber) must be
designed and operated to recover the organic vapors vented to it with an
efficiency of 95 weight percent or greater unless the total organic emission limits
of Section 725.932(a)(1) for all affected process vents is attained at an efficiency
less than 95 weight percent.
c) An enclosed combustion device (e.g., a vapor incinerator, boiler, or process
heater) must be designed and operated to reduce the organic emissions vented to
it by 95 weight percent or greater; to achieve a total organic compound
concentration of 20 ppmv, expressed as the sum of the actual compounds, not
carbon equivalents, on a dry basis corrected to three percent oxygen; or to provide
a minimum residence time of 0.50 seconds at a minimum temperature of 760
degrees Celsius (° C). If a boiler or process heater is used as the control device,
then the vent stream must be introduced into the flame combustion zone of the
boiler or process heater.
d) Flares.
1) A flare must be designed for and operated with no visible emissions as
determined by the methods specified in subsection (e)(1) of this Section
except for periods not to exceed a total of five minutes during any two
consecutive hours.
2) A flare must be operated with a flame present at all times, as determined
by the methods specified in subsection (f)(2)(c) of this Section.
3) A flare must be used only if the net heating value of the gas being
combusted is 11.2 MJ/scm (300 Btu/scf) or greater if the flare is steam-
assisted or air-assisted, or if the net heating value of the gas being
combusted is 7.45 MJ/scm (200 Btu/scf) or greater if the flare is
nonassisted. The net heating value of the gas being combusted must be
determined by the methods specified in subsection (e)(2) of this Section.
4) Exit Velocity.
588
A) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare must be designed for and
operated with an exit velocity, as determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(3) of this Section, less than 18.3 m/s (60
ft/s), except as provided in subsections (d)(4)(B) and (d)(4)(C) of
this Section.
B) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare designed for and operated
with an exit velocity, as determined by the methods specified in
subsection (e)(3) of this Section, equal to or greater than 18.3 m/s
(60 ft/s) but less than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is allowed if the net
heating value of the gas being combusted is greater than 37.3
MJ/scm (1,000 Btu/scf).
C) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare designed for and operated
with an exit velocity, as determined by the methods specified in
subsection (e)(3) of this Section, less than the velocity, V as
determined by the method specified in subsection (e)(4) and less
than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is allowed.
5) An air-assisted flare must be designed and operated with an exit velocity
less than the velocity, V, as determined by the method specified in
subsection (e)(5) of this Section.
6) A flare used to comply with this Section must be steam-assisted, air-
assisted, or nonassisted.
e) Compliance determination and equations.
1) Reference Method 22 (Visual Determination of Fugitive Emissions from
Material Sources and Smoke Emissions from Flares) in appendix A to 40
CFR 60 (Test Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b), must be used to determine the compliance of a flare with the
visible emission provisions of this Subpart AA. The observation period is
two hours and must be used according to Method 22.
2) The net heating value of the gas being combusted in a flare must be
calculated using the following equation:
T
i
i
i
1
n
H
= K C H
××
=
∑
Where:
H
B
T
B
S
is
S
= the net heating value of the sample in MJ/scm; where the
589
net enthalpy per mole of offgas is based on combustion at
25° C and 760 mm Hg, but the standard temperature for
determining the volume corresponding to 1 mole is 20° C
S
;
S
K = 1.74
×
10
P
-7
P
(1/ppm)(g mol/scm)(MJ/kcal) where the standard
temperature for (g mol/scm) is 20° C
S
;
S
Σ
X
B
i
B
S
means
S
=
the sum of the values of X for each component i,
from i=1 to n
S
;
S
C
B
i
B
S
is
S
= the concentration of sample component i in ppm on a wet
basis, as measured for organics by Reference Method 18
(Measurement of Gaseous Organic Compound Emissions
by Gas Chromatography) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60
(Test Methods), and for carbon monoxide, by ASTM D
1946-90 (Standard Practice for Analysis of Reformed Gas
by Gas Chromatography), each incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111(a)
S
720.111
S
; and
S
H
B
i
B
is the net heat of combustion of sample component i, kcal/gmol
at 25° C and 760 mm Hg. The heats of combustion must be
determined using ASTM D 2382-88 (Standard Test Method for
Heat of Combustion of Hydrocarbon Fuels by Bomb Calorimeter
(High Precision Method)), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a), if published values are not available or
cannot be calculated.
3) The actual exit velocity of a flare must be determined by dividing the
volumetric flow rate (in units of standard temperature and pressure), as
determined by Reference Methods 2 (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity
and Volumetric Flow Rate (Type S Pitot Tube)), 2A (Direct Measurement
of Gas Volume through Pipes and Small Ducts), 2C (Determination of Gas
Velocity and Volumetric Flow Rate in Small Stacks or Ducts (Standard
Pitot Tube)), or 2D (Measurement of Gas Volume Flow Rates in Small
Pipes and Ducts) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), as appropriate,
by the unobstructed (free) cross-sectional area of the flare tip.
4) The maximum allowed velocity in m/s, V for a flare complying with
subsection (d)(4)(C) of this Section must be determined by the following
equation:
()
log V
H 28.8
31.7
10 max
T
=
+
590
Where:
log
B
10
B
S
means
S
= logarithm to the base 10
S
; and
S
H
B
T
B
S
is
S
= the net heating value as determined in subsection (e)(2) of
this Section.
5) The maximum allowed velocity in m/s, V, for an air-assisted flare must be
determined by the following equation:
V = 8 .7 0 6 + 0 .7 0 8 4 H T
Where:
H
B
T
B
S
is
S
= the net heating value as determined in subsection (e)(2) of
this Section.
f) The owner or operator must monitor and inspect each control device required to
comply with this Section to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the
control device by implementing the following requirements:
1) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate according to the manufacturer’s
specifications a flow indicator that provides a record of vent stream flow
from each affected process vent to the control device at least once every
hour. The flow indicator sensor must be installed in the vent stream at the
nearest feasible point to the control device inlet but before being
combined with other vent streams.
2) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate according to the manufacturer’s
specifications a device to continuously monitor control device operation,
as specified below:
A) For a thermal vapor incinerator, a temperature monitoring device
equipped with a continuous recorder. The device must have
accuracy of ±1 percent of the temperature being monitored in ° C
or ± 0.5° C, whichever is greater. The temperature sensor must be
installed at a location in the combustion chamber downstream of
the combustion zone.
B) For a catalytic vapor incinerator, a temperature monitoring device
equipped with a continuous recorder. The device must be capable
of monitoring temperature at two locations and have an accuracy
of ±1 percent of the temperature being monitored in ° C or ± 0.5°
C, whichever is greater. One temperature sensor must be installed
in the vent stream at the nearest feasible point to the catalyst bed
inlet and a second temperature sensor must be installed in the vent
591
stream at the nearest feasible point to the catalyst bed outlet.
C) For a flare, a heat sensing monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder that indicates the continuous ignition of the
pilot flame.
D) For a boiler or process heater having a design heat input capacity
less than 44 MW, a temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must have an accuracy of ±1
percent of the temperature being monitored in ° C or ± 0.5° C,
whichever is greater. The temperature sensor must be installed at a
location in the furnace downstream of the combustion zone.
E) For a boiler or process heater having a design heat input capacity
greater than or equal to 44 MW, a monitoring device equipped
with a continuous recorder to measure parameters that indicate
good combustion operating practices are being used.
F) For a condenser, either of the following:
i) A monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder
to measure the concentration level of the organic
compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the condenser;
or
ii) A temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must be capable of
monitoring temperature with an accuracy of ±1 percent of
the temperature being monitored in degrees Celsius (° C) or
±0.5° C, whichever is greater. The temperature sensor
must be installed at a location in the exhaust vent stream
from the condenser exit (i.e., product side).
G) For a carbon adsorption system, such as a fixed-bed carbon
adsorber that regenerates the carbon bed directly in the control
device, either of the following:
i) A monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder
to measure the concentration level of the organic
compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the carbon bed;
or
ii) A monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder
to measure a parameter that indicates the carbon bed is
regenerated on a regular, predetermined time cycle.
592
3) Inspect the readings from each monitoring device required by subsections
(f)(1) and (f)(2) of this Section at least once each operating day to check
control device operation and, if necessary, immediately implement the
corrective measures necessary to ensure the control device operates in
compliance with the requirements of this Section.
g) An owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system such as a fixed-bed
carbon adsorber that regenerates the carbon bed directly onsite in the control
device must replace the existing carbon in the control device with fresh carbon at
a regular, predetermined time interval that is no longer than the carbon service life
established as a requirement of Section 725.935(b)(4)(C)(vi).
h) An owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system, such as a carbon canister,
that does not regenerate the carbon bed directly onsite in the control device must
replace the existing carbon in the control device with fresh carbon on a regular
basis by using one of the following procedures:
1) Monitor the concentration level of the organic compounds in the exhaust
vent stream from the carbon adsorption system on a regular schedule, and
replace the existing carbon with fresh carbon immediately when carbon
breakthrough is indicated. The monitoring frequency must be daily or at
an interval no greater than 20 percent of the time required to consume the
total carbon working capacity established as a requirement of Section
725.935(b)(4)(C)(vii), whichever is longer.
2) Replace the existing carbon with fresh carbon at a regular, predetermined
time interval that is less than the design carbon replacement interval
established as a requirement of Section 725.935(b)(4)(C)(vii).
i) An owner or operator of an affected facility seeking to comply with the provisions
of this Part by using a control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator,
catalytic vapor incinerator, flare, boiler, process heater, condenser, or carbon
adsorption system is required to develop documentation including sufficient
information to describe the control device operation and identify the process
parameter or parameters that indicate proper operation and maintenance of the
control device.
j) A closed-vent system must meet either of the following design requirements:
1) A closed-vent system must be designed to operate with no detectable
emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less than 500 ppmv
above background, as determined by the methods specified at Section
725.934(b), and by visual inspections; or
2) A closed-vent system must be designed to operate at a pressure below
atmospheric pressure. The system must be equipped with at least one
593
pressure gauge or other pressure measurement device that can be read
from a readily accessible location to verify that negative pressure is being
maintained in the closed-vent system when the control device is operating.
k) The owner or operator must monitor and inspect each closed-vent system required
to comply with this Section to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the
closed-vent system by implementing the following requirements:
1) Each closed-vent system that is used to comply with subsection (j)(1) of
this Section must be inspected and monitored in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) An initial leak detection monitoring of the closed-vent system must
be conducted by the owner or operator on or before the date that
the system becomes subject to this Section. The owner or operator
must monitor the closed-vent system components and connections
using the procedures specified in Section 725.934(b) to
demonstrate that the closed-vent system operates with no
detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less
than 500 ppmv above background.
B) After initial leak detection monitoring required in subsection
(k)(1)(A) of this Section, the owner or operator must inspect and
monitor the closed-vent system as follows:
i) Closed-vent system joints, seams, or other connections that
are permanently or semi-permanently sealed (e.g., a welded
joint between two sections of hard piping or a bolted and
gasketed ducting flange) must be visually inspected at least
once per year to check for defects that could result in air
pollutant emissions. The owner or operator must monitor a
component or connection using the procedures specified in
Section 725.934(b) to demonstrate that it operates with no
detectable emissions following any time the component is
repaired or replaced (e.g., a section of damaged hard piping
is replaced with new hard piping) or the connection is
unsealed (e.g., a flange is unbolted).
ii) Closed-vent system components or connections other than
those specified in subsection (k)(1)(B)(i) of this Section
must be monitored annually and at other times as requested
by the Agency, except as provided for in subsection (n) of
this Section, using the procedures specified in Section
725.934(b) to demonstrate that the components or
connections operate with no detectable emissions.
594
C) In the event that a defect or leak is detected, the owner or operator
must repair the defect or leak in accordance with the requirements
of subsection (k)(3) of this Section.
D) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection
and monitoring in accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 725.935.
2) Each closed-vent system that is used to comply with subsection (j)(2) of
this Section must be inspected and monitored in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) The closed-vent system must be visually inspected by the owner or
operator to check for defects that could result in air pollutant
emissions. Defects include, but are not limited to, visible cracks,
holes, or gaps in ductwork or piping or loose connections.
B) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of the
closed-vent system on or before the date that the system becomes
subject to this Section. Thereafter, the owner or operator must
perform the inspections at least once every year.
C) In the event that a defect or leak is detected, the owner or operator
must repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of
subsection (k)(3) of this Section.
D) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection
and monitoring in accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 725.935.
3) The owner or operator must repair all detected defects as follows:
A) Detectable emissions, as indicated by visual inspection or by an
instrument reading greater than 500 ppmv above background, must
be controlled as soon as practicable, but not later than 15 calendar
days after the emission is detected, except as provided for in
subsection (k)(3)(C) of this Section.
B) A first attempt at repair must be made no later than five calendar
days after the emission is detected.
C) Delay of repair of a closed-vent system for which leaks have been
detected is allowed if the repair is technically infeasible without a
process unit shutdown, or if the owner or operator determines that
emissions resulting from immediate repair would be greater than
the fugitive emissions likely to result from delay of repair. Repair
595
of such equipment must be completed by the end of the next
process unit shutdown.
D) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the defect repair
in accordance with the requirements specified in Section 725.935.
l) A closed-vent system or control device used to comply with provisions of this
Subpart AA must be operated at all times when emissions may be vented to it.
m) The owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system to control air pollutant
emissions must document that all carbon removed that is a hazardous waste and
that is removed from the control device is managed in one of the following
manners, regardless of the volatile organic concentration of the carbon:
1) It is regenerated or reactivated in a thermal treatment unit that meets one
of the following:
A) The owner or operator of the unit has been issued a final permit
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements the
requirements of Subpart X of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724; or
B) The unit is equipped with and operating air emission controls in
accordance with the applicable requirements of Subparts AA and
CC of this Part or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724; or
C) The unit is equipped with and operating air emission controls in
accordance with a federal national emission standard for hazardous
air pollutants under 40 CFR 61 (National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants) or
S
40 CFR
S
63 (National Emission
Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories),
each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
2) It is incinerated in a hazardous waste incinerator for which the owner or
operator has done either of the following:
A) The owner or operator has been issued a final permit under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements the requirements of
Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724
S
,
S
; or
B) The owner or operator has designed and operates the incinerator in
accordance with the interim status requirements of Subpart O of
this Part.
3) It is burned in a boiler or industrial furnace for which the owner or
operator has done either of the following:
596
A) The owner or operator has been issued a final permit under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements the requirements of
Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726
S
,
S
; or
B) The owner or operator has designed and operates the boiler or
industrial furnace in accordance with the interim status
requirements of Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.
n) Any components of a closed-vent system that are designated, as described in
Section 725.935(c)(9), as unsafe to monitor are exempt from the requirements of
subsection (k)(1)(B)(ii) of this Section if both of the following conditions are
fulfilled:
1) The owner or operator of the closed-vent system has determined that the
components of the closed-vent system are unsafe to monitor because
monitoring personnel would be exposed to an immediate danger as a
consequence of complying with subsection (k)(1)(B)(ii) of this Section;
and
2) The owner or operator of the closed-vent system adheres to a written plan
that requires monitoring the closed-vent system components using the
procedure specified in subsection (k)(1)(B)(ii) of this Section as
frequently as practicable during safe-to-monitor times.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.934 Test Methods and Procedures
a) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA must comply
with the test methods and procedures requirements provided in this Section.
b) When a closed-vent system is tested for compliance with no detectable emissions,
as required in Section 725.933(k), the test must comply with the following
requirements:
1) Monitoring must comply with Reference Method 21 (Determination of
Volatile Organic Compound Leaks) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test
Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
2) The detection instrument must meet the performance criteria of Reference
Method 21.
3) The instrument must be calibrated before use on each day of its use by the
procedures specified in Reference Method 21.
4) Calibration gases must be:
597
A) Zero air (less than 10 ppm of hydrocarbon in air).
B) A mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a concentration of
approximately, but less than, 10,000 ppm methane or n-hexane.
5) The background level must be determined as set forth in Reference
Method 21.
6) The instrument probe must be traversed around all potential leak
interfaces as close to the interface as possible, as described in Reference
Method 21.
7) The arithmetic difference between the maximum concentration indicated
by the instrument and the background level is compared with 500 ppm for
determining compliance.
c) Performance tests to determine compliance with Section 725.932(a) and with the
total organic compound concentration limit of Section 725.933(c) must comply
with the following:
1) Performance tests to determine total organic compound concentrations and
mass flow rates entering and exiting control devices must be conducted
and data reduced in accordance with the following reference methods and
calculation procedures:
A) Method 2 (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity and Volumetric
Flow Rate (Type S Pitot Tube)) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test
Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b), for velocity and volumetric flow rate.
B) Method 18 (Measurement of Gaseous Organic Compound
Emissions by Gas Chromatography) or 25A (Determination of
Total Gaseous Organic Concentration Using a Flame Ionization
Analyzer) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test Methods),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), for
organic content. If Method 25A is used, the organic hazardous air
pollutant (HAP) used as the calibration gas must be the single HAP
that represents the largest percent by volume of the emissions. The
use of Method 25A is acceptable if the response from the high-
level calibration gas is at least 20 times the standard deviation of
the response from the zero calibration gas when the instrument is
zeroed on the most sensitive scale.
C) Each performance test must consist of three separate runs, each run
conducted for at least 1 hour under the conditions that exist when
598
the hazardous waste management unit is operating at the highest
load or capacity level reasonably expected to occur. For the
purpose of determining total organic compound concentrations and
mass flow rates, the average of results of all runs applies. The
average must be computed on a time-weighed basis.
D) Total organic mass flow rates must be determined by the following
equation:
i) For a source utilizing Method 18:
h
2sd
i
i
-6
E
= Q
x(
n
i = 1
C x MW )x0.0416x10
∑
Where:
E
B
h
B
= The total organic mass flow rate, kg/h;
Q
B
2sd
B
= The volumetric flow rate of gases entering
or exiting control device, dscm/h, as
determined by Method 2
S
in 40 CFR 60,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b);
S
n = The number of organic compounds in the
vent gas
S
;
S
C
B
i
B
= The organic concentration in ppm, dry basis,
of compound i in the vent gas, as determined
by Method 18
S
in 40 CFR 60, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b);
S
MW
B
i
B
= The molecular weight of organic compound
i in the vent gas, kg/kg-mol
S
;
S
0.0416 = The conversion factor for molar volume,
kg-mol/m
P
3
P
, at 293 K and 760 mm Hg
S
; and
S
10
P
-6
P
= The conversion factor from ppm.
ii) For a source utilizing Method 25A:
599
6
h
10
0416
.
0
MW
C
Q
=
E
−
×
×
×
×
Where:
E
B
h
B
= The total organic mass flow rate, kg/h
Q = The volumetric flow rate of gases entering
or exiting control device, dscm/h, as
determined by Method 2
C = The organic concentration in ppm, dry basis,
of compound i in the vent gas, as determined
by Method 25A
MW = The molecular weight of propane, 44 kg/kg-
mol
0.0416 = The conversion factor for molar volume,
kg-mol/m
P
3
P
, at 293 K and 760 mm Hg
10
P
-6
P
= The conversion factor from ppm.
E) The annual total organic emission rate must be determined by the
following equation:
A = F
×
H
Where:
A
S
is
S
= total organic emission rate, kg/y
S
;
S
F
S
is
S
=
the total organic mass flow rate, kg/h, as calculated
in subsection (c)(1)(D) of this Section
S
; and
S
H
S
is
S
= the total annual hours of operation for the affected
unit.
F) Total organic emissions from all affected process vents at the
facility must be determined by summing the hourly total organic
mass emissions rates (F, as determined in subsection (c)(1)(D) of
this Section) and by summing the annual total organic mass
emission rates (A, as determined in subsection (c)(1)(E) of this
Section) for all affected process vents at the facility.
600
2) The owner or operator must record such process information as is
necessary to determine the conditions of the performance tests.
Operations during periods of startup, shutdown, and malfunction do not
constitute representative conditions for the purpose of a performance test.
3) The owner or operator of an affected facility must provide, or cause to be
provided, performance testing facilities as follows:
A) Sampling ports adequate for the test methods specified in
subsection (c)(1) of this Section.
B) Safe sampling platforms.
C) Safe access to sampling platforms.
D) Utilities for sampling and testing equipment.
4) For the purpose of making compliance determinations, the time-weighted
average of the results of the three runs must apply. In the event that a
sample is accidentally lost or conditions occur in which one of the three
runs must be discontinued because of forced shutdown, failure of an
irreplaceable portion of the sample train, extreme meteorological
conditions, or other circumstances beyond the owner or operator’s control,
compliance may, upon the Agency’s approval, be determined using the
average of the results of the two other runs.
d) To show that a process vent associated with a hazardous waste distillation,
fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping
operation is not subject to the requirements of this Subpart AA, the owner or
operator must make an initial determination that the time-weighted, annual
average total organic concentration of the waste managed by the waste
management unit is less than 10 ppmw using one of the following two methods:
1) Direct measurement of the organic concentration of the waste using the
following procedures:
A) The owner or operator must take a minimum of four grab samples
of waste for each wastestream managed in the affected unit under
process conditions expected to cause the maximum waste organic
concentration.
B) For waste generated onsite, the grab samples must be collected at a
point before the waste is exposed to the atmosphere, such as in an
enclosed pipe or other closed system that is used to transfer the
waste after generation to the first affected distillation,
fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or
601
steam stripping operation. For waste generated offsite, the grab
samples must be collected at the inlet to the first waste
management unit that receives the waste provided the waste has
been transferred to the facility in a closed system such as a tank
truck and the waste is not diluted or mixed with other waste.
C) Each sample must be analyzed and the total organic concentration
of the sample must be computed using Method
S
9060
S
9060A (Total
Organic Carbon)
S
or 8260
S
of “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(a), or analyzed for its individual constituents.
D) The arithmetic mean of the results of the analyses of the four
samples apply for each wastestream managed in the unit in
determining the time-weighted, annual average total organic
concentration of the waste. The time-weighted average is to be
calculated using the annual quantity of each waste stream
processed and the mean organic concentration of each wastestream
managed in the unit.
2) Using knowledge of the waste to determine that its total organic
concentration is less than 10 ppmw. Documentation of the waste
determination is required. Examples of documentation that must be used
to support a determination under this subsection (d)(2) include the
following:
A) Production process information documenting that no organic
compounds are used;
B) Information that the waste is generated by a process that is
identical to a process at the same or another facility that has
previously been demonstrated by direct measurement to generate a
wastestream having a total organic content less than 10 ppmw; or
C) Prior speciation analysis results on the same wastestream where it
is documented that no process changes have occurred since that
analysis that could affect the waste total organic concentration.
e) The determination that distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent
extraction, or air or steam stripping operations that manage hazardous wastes with
time-weighted, annual average total organic concentrations less than 10 ppmw
must be made as follows:
1) By the effective date that the facility becomes subject to the provisions of
this Subpart AA or by the date when the waste is first managed in a waste
602
management unit, whichever is later; and
2) For continuously generated waste, annually; or
3) Whenever there is a change in the waste being managed or a change in the
process that generates or treats the waste.
f) When an owner or operator and the Agency do not agree on whether a distillation,
fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping
operation manages a hazardous waste with organic concentrations of at least 10
ppmw based on knowledge of the waste, the
S
procedures in Method 8260 in SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), must be used to
resolve the dispute
S
dispute may be resolved using direct measurement, as
specified in subsection (d)(1) of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.935 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Compliance Required.
1) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA must
comply with the recordkeeping requirements of this Section.
2) An owner or operator of more than one hazardous waste management unit
subject to the provisions of this Subpart AA may comply with the
recordkeeping requirements for these hazardous waste management units
in one recordkeeping system if the system identifies each record by each
hazardous waste management unit.
b) Owners and operators must record the following information in the facility
operating record:
1) For facilities that comply with the provisions of Section 725.933(a)(2), an
implementation schedule that includes dates by which the closed-vent
system and control device will be installed and in operation. The schedule
must also include a rationale of why the installation cannot be completed
at an earlier date. The implementation schedule must be in the facility
operating record by the effective date that the facility becomes subject to
the provisions of this Subpart AA.
2) Up-to-date documentation of compliance with the process vent standards
in Section 725.932, including the following:
A) Information and data identifying all affected process vents, annual
throughput and operating hours of each affected unit, estimated
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emission rates for each affected vent and for the overall facility
(i.e., the total emissions for all affected vents at the facility), and
the approximate location within the facility of each affected unit
(e.g., identify the hazardous waste management units on a facility
plot plan).
B) Information and data supporting determination of vent emissions
and emission reductions achieved by add-on control devices based
on engineering calculations or source tests. For the purpose of
determining compliance, determinations of vent emissions and
emission reductions must be made using operating parameter
values (e.g., temperatures, flow rates, or vent stream organic
compounds and concentrations) that represent the conditions that
result in maximum organic emissions, such as when the waste
management unit is operating at the highest load or capacity level
reasonably expected to occur. If the owner or operator takes any
action (e.g., managing a waste of different composition or
increasing operating hours of affected waste management units)
that would result in an increase in total organic emissions from
affected process vents at the facility, then a new determination is
required.
3) Where an owner or operator chooses to use test date to determine the
organic removal efficiency or total organic compound concentration
achieved by the control device, a performance test plan. The test plan
must include the following:
A) A description of how it is determined that the planned test is going
to be conducted when the hazardous waste management unit is
operating at the highest load or capacity level reasonably expected
to occur. This must include the estimated or design flow rate and
organic content of each vent stream and define the acceptable
operating ranges of key process and control device parameters
during the test program.
B) A detailed engineering description of the closed-vent system and
control device including the following:
i) Manufacturer’s name and model number of control device;
ii) Type of control device;
iii) Dimensions of the control device;
iv) Capacity; and
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v) Construction materials.
C) A detailed description of sampling and monitoring procedures,
including sampling and monitoring locations in the system, the
equipment to be used, sampling and monitoring frequency, and
planned analytical procedures for sample analysis.
4) Documentation of compliance with Section 725.933 must include the
following information:
A) A list of all information references and sources used in preparing
the documentation;
B) Records, including the dates of each compliance test required by
Section 725.933(j);
C) If engineering calculations are used, a design analysis,
specifications, drawings, schematics, and piping and
instrumentation diagrams based on the appropriate sections of
“APTI Course 415:
S
(
S
Control of Gaseous Emissions,” USEPA
publication number EPA-450/2-81-005, incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a)
S
)
S
, or other engineering texts,
approved by the Agency, that present basic control device design
information. Documentation provided by the control device
manufacturer or vendor that describes the control device design in
accordance with subsections (b)(4)(C)(i) through (b)(4)(C)(vii) of
this Section may be used to comply with this requirement. The
design analysis must address the vent stream characteristics and
control device operation parameters as specified below.
i) For a thermal vapor incinerator, the design analysis must
consider the vent stream composition, constituent
concentrations, and flow rate. The design analysis must
also establish the design minimum and average temperature
in the combustion zone and the combustion zone residence
time.
ii) For a catalytic vapor incinerator, the design analysis must
consider the vent stream composition, constituent
concentrations, and flow rate. The design analysis must
also establish the design minimum and average
temperatures across the catalyst bed inlet and outlet.
iii) For a boiler or process heater, the design analysis must
consider the vent stream composition, constituent
concentrations, and flow rate. The design analysis must
605
also establish the design minimum and average flame zone
temperatures, combustion zone residence time and
description of method and location where the vent stream is
introduced into the combustion zone.
iv) For a flare, the design analysis must consider the vent
stream composition, constituent concentrations, and flow
rate. The design analysis must also consider the
requirements specified in Section 725.933(d).
v) For a condenser, the design analysis must consider the vent
stream composition, constituent concentrations, flow rate,
relative humidity, and temperature. The design analysis
must also establish the design outlet organic compound
concentration level, design average temperature of the
condenser exhaust vent stream and design average
temperatures of the coolant fluid at the condenser inlet and
outlet.
vi) For a carbon adsorption system, such as a fixed-bed
adsorber that regenerates the carbon bed directly onsite in
the control device, the design analysis must consider the
vent stream composition, constituent concentrations, flow
rate, relative humidity and temperature. The design
analysis must also establish the design exhaust vent stream
organic compound concentration level, number and
capacity of carbon beds, type and working capacity of
activated carbon used for carbon beds, design total steam
flow over the period of each complete carbon bed
regeneration cycle, duration of the carbon bed steaming and
cooling/drying cycles, design carbon bed temperature after
regeneration, design carbon bed regeneration time and
design service life of carbon.
vii) For a carbon adsorption system, such as a carbon canister
that does not regenerate the carbon bed directly onsite in
the control device, the design analysis must consider the
vent stream composition, constituent concentrations, flow
rate, relative humidity and temperature. The design
analysis must also establish the design outlet organic
concentration level, capacity of carbon bed, type and
working capacity of activated carbon used for carbon bed
and design carbon replacement interval based on the total
carbon working capacity of the control device and source
operating schedule;
606
D) A statement signed and dated by the owner or operator certifying
that the operating parameters used in the design analysis
reasonably represent the conditions that exist when the hazardous
waste management unit is or would be operating at the highest load
or capacity level reasonably expected to occur;
E) A statement signed and dated by the owner or operator certifying
that the control device is designed to operate at an efficiency of 95
percent or greater unless the total organic concentration limit of
Section 725.932(a) is achieved at an efficiency less than 95 weight
percent or the total organic emission limits of Section 725.932(a)
for affected process vents at the facility are attained by a control
device involving vapor recovery at an efficiency less than 95
weight percent. A statement provided by the control device
manufacturer or vendor certifying that the control equipment meets
the design specifications may be used to comply with this
requirement; and
F) If performance tests are used to demonstrate compliance, all test
results.
c) Design documentation and monitoring operating and inspection information for
each closed-vent system and control device required to comply with the
provisions of this Part must be recorded and kept up-to-date in the facility
operating record. The information must include the following:
1) Description and date of each modification that is made to the closed-vent
system or control device design;
2) Identification of operating parameter, description of monitoring device,
and diagram of monitoring sensor location or locations used to comply
with Section 725.933(f)(1) and (f)(2);
3) Monitoring, operating and inspection information required by Section
725.933(f) through (k);
4) Date, time, and duration of each period that occurs while the control
device is operating when any monitored parameter exceeds the value
established in the control device design analysis, as specified below:
A) For a thermal vapor incinerator designed to operate with a
minimum residence time of 0.50 second at a minimum temperature
of 760
°
C, any period when the combustion temperature is below
760
°
C.
B) For a thermal vapor incinerator designed to operate with an
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organic emission reduction efficiency of 95 percent or greater, any
period when the combustion zone temperature is more than 28° C
below the design average combustion zone temperature established
as a requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(i) of this Section.
C) For a catalytic vapor incinerator, any period when either of the
following occurs:
i) Temperature of the vent stream at the catalyst bed inlet is
more than 28° C below the average temperature of the inlet
vent stream established as a requirement of subsection
(b)(4)(C)(ii) of this Section; or
ii) Temperature difference across the catalyst bed is less than
80 percent of the design average temperature difference
established as a requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(ii) of
this Section.
D) For a boiler or process heater, any period when either of the
following occurs:
i) Flame zone temperature is more than 28° C below the
design average flame zone temperature established as a
requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(iii) of this Section; or
ii) Position changes where the vent stream is introduced to the
combustion zone from the location established as a
requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(iii) of this Section.
E) For a flare, period when the pilot flame is not ignited.
F) For a condenser that complies with Section 725.933(f)(2)(F)(i),
any period when the organic compound concentration level or
readings of organic compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the
condenser are more than 20 percent greater than the design outlet
organic compound concentration level established as a requirement
of subsection (b)(4)(C)(v) of this Section.
G) For a condenser that complies with Section 725.933(f)(2)(F)(ii),
any period when either of the following occurs:
i) Temperature of the exhaust vent stream from the condenser
is more than 6° C above the design average exhaust vent
stream temperature established as a requirement of
subsection (b)(4)(C)(v) of this Section; or
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ii) Temperature of the coolant fluid exiting the condenser is
more than 6° C above the design average coolant fluid
temperature at the condenser outlet established as a
requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(v) of this Section.
H) For a carbon adsorption system such as a fixed-bed carbon
adsorber that regenerates the carbon bed directly onsite in the
control device and complies with Section 725.933(f)(2)(G)(i), any
period when the organic compound concentration level or readings
of organic compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the carbon
bed are more than 20 percent greater than the design exhaust vent
stream organic compound concentration level established as a
requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(vi) of this Section.
I) For a carbon adsorption system such as a fixed-bed carbon
adsorber that regenerates the carbon bed directly onsite in the
control device and complies with Section 725.933(f)(2)(G)(ii), any
period when the vent stream continues to flow through the control
device beyond the predetermined carbon bed regeneration time
established as a requirement of subsection (b)(4)(C)(vi) of this
Section;
5) Explanation for each period recorded under subsection (c)(4) of this
Section of the cause for control device operating parameter exceeding the
design value and the measures implemented to correct the control device
operation;
6) For carbon adsorption systems operated subject to requirements specified
in Section 725.933(g) or (h)(2), any date when existing carbon in the
control device is replaced with fresh carbon;
7) For carbon adsorption systems operated subject to requirements specified
in Section 725.933(h)(1), a log that records:
A) Date and time when control device is monitored for carbon
breakthrough and the monitoring device reading.
B) Date when existing carbon in the control device is replaced with
fresh carbon;
8) Date of each control device startup and shutdown;
9) An owner or operator designating any components of a closed-vent system
as unsafe to monitor pursuant to Section 725.933(n) must record in a log
that is kept in the facility operating record the identification of closed-vent
system components that are designated as unsafe to monitor in accordance
609
with the requirements of Section 725.933(n), an explanation for each
closed-vent system component stating why the closed-vent system
component is unsafe to monitor, and the plan for monitoring each closed-
vent system component; and
10) When each leak is detected, as specified in Section 725.933(k), the
following information must be recorded:
A) The instrument identification number, the closed-vent system
component identification number, and the operator name, initials,
or identification number;
B) The date the leak was detected and the date of first attempt to
repair the leak;
C) The date of successful repair of the leak;
D) Maximum instrument reading measured by Method 21
(Determination of Volatile Organic Compound Leaks) of appendix
A to 40 CFR 60
S
, appendix A
S
(Test Methods), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), after it is successfully
repaired or determined to be nonrepairable; and
E) “Repair delayed” and the reason for the delay if a leak is not
repaired within 15 calendar days after discovery of the leak.
i) The owner or operator may develop a written procedure
that identifies the conditions that justify a delay of repair.
In such cases, reasons for delay of repair may be
documented by citing the relevant sections of the written
procedure.
ii) If delay of repair was caused by depletion of stocked parts,
there must be documentation that the spare parts were
sufficiently stocked on-site before depletion and the reason
for depletion; and
d) Records of the monitoring, operating and inspection information required by
subsections (c)(3) through (c)(10) of this Section must be maintained by the
owner or operator for at least three years following the date of each occurrence,
measurement, corrective action, or record.
e) For a control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator, catalytic vapor
incinerator, flare, boiler, process heater, condenser or carbon adsorption system,
monitoring and inspection information indicating proper operation and
maintenance of the control device must be recorded in the facility operating
610
record.
f) Up-to-date information and data used to determine whether or not a process vent
is subject to the requirements in Section 725.932, including supporting
documentation as required by Section 725.934(d)(2), when application of the
knowledge of the nature of the hazardous wastestream or the process by which it
was produced is used, must be recorded in a log that is kept in the facility
operating record.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART BB: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR EQUIPMENT LEAKS
Section 725.950 Applicability
a) The regulations in this Subpart BB apply to owners and operators of facilities that
treat, store, or dispose of hazardous wastes (except as provided in Section
725.101).
b) Except as provided in Section 725.964(k), this Subpart BB applies to equipment
that contains or contacts hazardous wastes with organic concentrations of at least
10 percent by weight that are managed in one of the following:
1) A unit that is subject to the RCRA permitting requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, and 705;
2) A unit (including a hazardous waste recycling unit) that is not exempt
from permitting under the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134(a)
(i.e., a hazardous waste recycling unit that is not a “90-day” tank or
container) and that is located at a hazardous waste management facility
otherwise subject to the permitting requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702,
703, and 705; or
3) A unit that is exempt from permitting under the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.134(a) (i.e., a “90-day” tank or container) and which is not a
recycling unit under the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.106.
c) Each piece of equipment to which this Subpart BB applies must be marked in
such a manner that it can be distinguished readily from other pieces of equipment.
d) Equipment that is in vacuum service is excluded from the requirements of
Sections 725.952 to 725.960, if it is identified as required in Section
725.964(g)(5).
e) Equipment that contains or contacts hazardous waste with an organic
concentration of at least 10 percent by weight for less than 300 hours per calendar
611
year is excluded from the requirements of Sections 725.952 through 725.960 if it
is identified as required in Section 725.964(g)(6).
f) This subsection (f) corresponds with 40 CFR 265.1050(f), which relates
exclusively to a facility outside Illinois. This statement maintains structural
consistency with the corresponding federal regulations.
g) Purged coatings and solvents from surface coating operations subject to the
federal national emission standards for hazardous air pollutants (NESHAPs) for
the surface coating of automobiles and light-duty trucks at
S
Subpart
S
subpart IIII of
40 CFR 63
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b),
S
(National
Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants: Surface Coating of
Automobiles and Light-Duty Trucks) are not subject to the requirements of this
Subpart BB.
BOARD NOTE: The requirements of Sections 725.952 through 725.964 apply to equipment
associated with hazardous waste recycling units previously exempt under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.106(c)(1). Other exemptions under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.104 and 725.101(e) are not
affected by these requirements.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.963 Test Methods and Procedures
a) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Subpart BB must comply
with the test methods and procedures requirements provided in this Section.
b) Leak detection monitoring, as required in Sections 725.952 through 725.962,
must comply with the following requirements:
1) Monitoring must comply with Reference Method 21 (Determination of
Volatile Organic Compound Leaks) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60 (Test
Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b);
2) The detection instrument must meet the performance criteria of Reference
Method 21;
3) The instrument must be calibrated before use on each day of its use by the
procedures specified in Reference Method 21;
4) Calibration gases must be as follows:
A) Zero air (less than 10 ppm of hydrocarbon in air);
B) A mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a concentration of
approximately, but less than, 10,000 ppm methane or n-hexane;
612
and
5) The instrument probe must be traversed around all potential leak
interfaces as close to the interface as possible as described in Reference
Method 21.
c) When equipment is tested for compliance with no detectable emissions, as
required in Sections 725.952(e), 725.953(i), 725.954, and 725.957(f), the test
must comply with the following requirements:
1) The requirements of subsections (b)(1) through (b)(4) of this Section
apply;
2) The background level must be determined as set forth in Reference
Method 21;
3) The instrument probe must be traversed around all potential leak
interfaces as close to the interface as possible as described in Reference
Method 21; and
4) This arithmetic difference between the maximum concentration indicated
by the instrument and the background level is compared with 500 ppm for
determining compliance.
d) In accordance with the waste analysis plan required by Section 725.113(b), an
owner or operator of a facility must determine, for each piece of equipment,
whether the equipment contains or contacts a hazardous waste with organic
concentration that equals or exceeds 10 percent by weight using the following:
1) Methods described in ASTM Methods D 2267-88 (Standard Test Method
for Aromatics in Light Naphthas and Aviation Gasolines by Gas
Chromatography), E 168-88 (Standard Practices for General Techniques
of Infrared Quantitative Analysis), E 169-87 (Standard Practices for
General Techniques of Ultraviolet-Visible Quantitative Analysis), or E
260-85 (Standard Practice for Packed Column Gas Chromatography), each
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a);
2) Method
S
9060
S
9060A (Total Organic Carbon)
S
or 8260
S
of “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a), or analyzed for its individual organic constituents;
or
3) Application of the knowledge of the nature of the hazardous wastestream
or the process by which it was produced. Documentation of a waste
determination by knowledge is required. Examples of documentation that
613
must be used to support a determination under this provision include
production process information documenting that no organic compounds
are used, information that the waste is generated by a process that is
identical to a process at the same or another facility that has previously
been demonstrated by direct measurement to have a total organic content
less than 10 percent, or prior speciation analysis results on the same
wastestream where it is also documented that no process changes have
occurred since that analysis that could affect the waste total organic
concentration.
e) If an owner or operator determines that a piece of equipment contains or contacts
a hazardous waste with organic concentrations at least 10 percent by weight, the
determination can be revised only after following the procedures in subsection
(d)(1) or (d)(2) of this Section.
f) When an owner or operator and the Agency do not agree on whether a piece of
equipment contains or contacts a hazardous waste with organic concentrations at
least 10 percent by weight, the procedures in subsection (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this
Section must be used to resolve the dispute.
g) Samples used in determining the percent organic content must be representative
of the highest total organic content hazardous waste that is expected to be
contained in or contact the equipment.
h) To determine if pumps or valves are in light liquid service, the vapor pressures of
constituents must either be obtained from standard reference texts or be
determined by ASTM D 2879-92 (Standard Test Method for Vapor Pressure-
Temperature Relationship and Initial Decomposition Temperature of Liquids by
Isoteniscope), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
i) Performance tests to determine if a control device achieves 95 weight percent
organic emission reduction must comply with the procedures of Section
725.934(c)(1) through (c)(4).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.964 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Lumping Units.
1) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of this Subpart BB must
comply with the recordkeeping requirements of this Section.
2) An owner or operator of more than one hazardous waste management unit
subject to the provisions of this Subpart BB may comply with the
recordkeeping requirements for these hazardous waste management units
614
in one recordkeeping system if the system identifies each record by each
hazardous waste management unit.
b) Owners and operators must record the following information in the facility
operating record:
1) For each piece of equipment to which this Subpart BB applies, the
following:
A) Equipment identification number and hazardous waste
management unit identification;
B) Approximate locations within the facility (e.g., identify the
hazardous waste management unit on a facility plot plan);
C) Type of equipment (e.g., a pump or pipeline valve);
D) Percent-by-weight total organics in the hazardous wastestream at
the equipment;
E) Hazardous waste state at the equipment (e.g., gas/vapor or liquid);
and
F) Method of compliance with the standard (e.g., “monthly leak
detection and repair” or “equipped with dual mechanical seals”);
2) For facilities that comply with the provisions of Section 725.933(a)(2), an
implementation schedule, as specified in that Section;
3) Where an owner or operator chooses to use test data to demonstrate the
organic removal efficiency or total organic compound concentration
achieved by the control device, a performance test plan, as specified in
Section 725.935(b)(3); and
4) Documentation of compliance with Section 725.960, including the
detailed design documentation or performance test results specified in
Section 725.935(b)(4).
c) When each leak is detected, as specified in Section 725.952, 725.953, 725.957, or
725.958, the following requirements apply:
1) A weatherproof and readily visible identification, marked with the
equipment identification number, the date evidence of a potential leak was
found in accordance with Section 725.958(a), and the date the leak was
detected, must be attached to the leaking equipment;
615
2) The identification on equipment except on a valve, may be removed after
it has been repaired; and
3) The identification on a valve may be removed after it has been monitored
for two successive months as specified in Section 725.957(c) and no leak
has been detected during those two months.
d) When each leak is detected, as specified in Sections 725.952, 725.953, 725.957,
or 725.958, the following information must be recorded in an inspection log and
must be kept in the facility operating record:
1) The instrument and operator identification numbers and the equipment
identification number;
2) The date evidence of a potential leak was found in accordance with
Section 725.958(a);
3) The date the leak was detected and the dates of each attempt to repair the
leak;
4) Repair methods applied in each attempt to repair the leak;
5) “Above 10,000,” if the maximum instrument reading measured by the
methods specified in Section 725.963(b) after each repair attempt is equal
to or greater than 10,000 ppm;
6) “Repair delayed” and the reason for the delay if a leak is not repaired
within 15 calendar days after discovery of the leak;
7) Documentation supporting the delay of repair of a valve in compliance
with Section 725.959(c);
8) The signature of the owner or operator (or designate) whose decision it
was that repair could not be effected without a hazardous waste
management unit shutdown;
9) The expected date of successful repair of the leak if a leak is not repaired
within 15 calendar days; and
10) The date of successful repair of the leak.
e) Design documentation and monitoring, operating, and inspection information for
each closed-vent system and control device required to comply with the
provisions of Section 725.960 must be recorded and kept up-to-date in the facility
operating record as specified in Section 725.935(c)(1) and (c)(2), and monitoring,
operating and inspection information in Section 725.935(c)(3) through (c)(8).
616
f) For a control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator, catalytic vapor
incinerator, flare, boiler, process heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption system,
monitoring and inspection information indicating proper operation and
maintenance of the control device must be recorded in the facility operating
record.
g) The following information pertaining to all equipment subject to the requirements
in Sections 725.952 through 725.960 must be recorded in a log that is kept in the
facility operating record:
1) A list of identification numbers for equipment (except welded fittings)
subject to the requirements of this Subpart BB.
2) List of Equipment.
A) A list of identification numbers for equipment that the owner or
operator elects to designate for no detectable emissions, as
indicated by an instrument reading of less than 500 ppm above
background, under the provisions of Sections 725.952(e),
725.953(i), and 725.957(f).
B) The designation of this equipment as subject to the requirements of
Section 725.952(e), 725.953(i), or 725.957(f) must be signed by
the owner or operator.
3) A list of equipment identification numbers for pressure relief devices
required to comply with Section 725.954(a).
4) Compliance tests.
A) The dates of each compliance test required in Sections 725.952(e),
725.953(i), 725.954, and 725.957(f).
B) The background level measured during each compliance test.
C) The maximum instrument reading measured at the equipment
during each compliance test.
5) A list of identification numbers for equipment in vacuum service.
6) Identification, either by list or location (area or group) of equipment that
contains or contacts hazardous waste with an organic concentration of at
least 10 percent by weight for less than 300 hours per year.
h) The following information pertaining to all valves subject to the requirements of
617
Section 725.957(g) and (h) must be recorded in a log that is kept in the facility
operating record:
1) A list of identification numbers for valves that are designated as unsafe to
monitor, an explanation for each valve stating why the valve is unsafe to
monitor, and the plan for monitoring each valve; and
2) A list of identification numbers for valves that are designated as difficult
to monitor, an explanation for each valve stating why the valve is difficult
to monitor, and the planned schedule for monitoring each valve.
i) The following information must be recorded in the facility operating record for
valves complying with Section 725.962:
1) A schedule of monitoring; and
2) The percent of valves found leaking during each monitoring period.
j) The following information must be recorded in a log that is kept in the facility
operating record:
1) Criteria required in Sections 725.952(d)(5)(B) and 725.953(e)(2) and an
explanation of the criteria; and
2) Any changes to these criteria and the reasons for the changes.
k) The following information must be recorded in a log that is kept in the facility
operating record for use in determining exemptions, as provided in Section
725.950 and other specific Subparts:
1) An analysis determining the design capacity of the hazardous waste
management unit;
2) A statement listing the hazardous waste influent to and effluent from each
hazardous waste management unit subject to the requirements in Section
725.960 and an analysis determining whether these hazardous wastes are
heavy liquids; and
3) An up-to-date analysis and the supporting information and data used to
determine whether or not equipment is subject to the requirements in
Sections 725.952 through 725.960. The record must include supporting
documentation, as required by Section 725.963(d)(3), when application of
the knowledge of the nature of the hazardous wastestream or the process
by which it was produced is used. If the owner or operator takes any
action (e.g., changing the process that produced the waste) that could
result in an increase in the total organic content of the waste contained in
618
or contacted by equipment determined not to be subject to the
requirements in Sections 725.952 through 725.960, then a new
determination is required.
l) Records of the equipment leak information required by subsection (d) of this
Section and the operating information required by subsection (e) of this Section
need be kept only three years.
m) The owner or operator of any facility with equipment that is subject to this
Subpart and to federal regulations at 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63
S
, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b),
S
may elect to determine compliance
with this Subpart BB by documentation of compliance either pursuant to Section
725.964 or by documentation of compliance with the regulations at 40 CFR 60
(Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources), 61 (National Emission
Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants), or 63 (National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source Categories), pursuant to the relevant
provisions of 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63, each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(b). The documentation of compliance under the regulation
at 40 CFR 60, 61, or 63 must be kept with or made readily available with the
facility operating record.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART CC: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR TANKS, SURFACE
IMPOUNDMENTS, AND CONTAINERS
Section 725.980 Applicability
a) The requirements of this Subpart CC apply to owners and operators of all
facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste in tanks, surface
impoundments, or containers that are subject to Subpart I, J, or K of this Part,
except as Section 725.101 and subsection (b) of this Section provide otherwise.
b) The requirements of this Subpart CC do not apply to the following waste
management units at the facility:
1) A waste management unit that holds hazardous waste placed in the unit
before December 6, 1996, and in which no hazardous waste is added to the
unit on or after December 6, 1996;
2) A container that has a design capacity less than or equal to 0.1 m
P
3
P
(3.5 ft
P
3
P
or 26.4 gal);
3) A tank in which an owner or operator has stopped adding hazardous waste
and the owner or operator has begun implementing or completed closure
pursuant to an approved closure plan;
619
4) A surface impoundment in which an owner or operator has stopped adding
hazardous waste (except to implement an approved closure plan) and the
owner or operator has begun implementing or completed closure pursuant
to an approved closure plan;
5) A waste management unit that is used solely for on-site treatment or
storage of hazardous waste that is placed in the unit as a result of
implementing remedial activities required pursuant to the Act or Board
regulations or under the corrective action authorities of RCRA sections
3004(u), 3004(v), or 3008(h); CERCLA authorities; or similar federal or
State authorities;
6) A waste management unit that is used solely for the management of
radioactive mixed waste in accordance with all applicable regulations
under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 USC 2011 et
seq.) and the Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 (42 USC 10101 et seq.);
7) A hazardous waste management unit that the owner or operator certifies is
equipped with and operating air emission controls in accordance with the
requirements of an applicable federal Clean Air Act regulation codified
under 40 CFR 60 (Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources),
61 (National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants), or 63
(National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source
Categories)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
.
For the purpose of complying with this subsection (b)(7), a tank for which
the air emission control includes an enclosure, as opposed to a cover, must
be in compliance with the enclosure and control device requirements of
Section 725.985(i), except as provided in Section 725.983(c)(5); and
8) A tank that has a process vent, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.931.
c) For the owner and operator of a facility subject to this Subpart CC that has
received a final RCRA permit prior to December 6, 1996, the following
requirements apply:
1) The requirements of Subpart CC of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 must be
incorporated into the permit when the permit is reissued, renewed, or
modified in accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703
and 705.
2) Until the date when the permit is reissued, renewed, or modified in
accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703 and 705, the
owner and operator is subject to the requirements of this Subpart CC.
d) The requirements of this Subpart CC, except for the recordkeeping requirements
620
specified in Section 725.990(i), are stayed for a tank or container used for the
management of hazardous waste generated by organic peroxide manufacturing
and its associated laboratory operations, when the owner or operator of the unit
meets all of the following conditions:
1) The owner or operator identifies that the tank or container receives
hazardous waste generated by an organic peroxide manufacturing process
producing more than one functional family of organic peroxides or
multiple organic peroxides within one functional family, that one or more
of these organic peroxides could potentially undergo self-accelerating
thermal decomposition at or below ambient temperatures, and that organic
peroxides are the predominant products manufactured by the process. For
the purposes of this subsection, “organic peroxide” means an organic
compound that contains the bivalent -O-O- structure and which may be
considered to be a structural derivative of hydrogen peroxide where one or
both of the hydrogen atoms has been replaced by an organic radical;
2) The owner or operator prepares documentation, in accordance with
Section 725.990(i), explaining why an undue safety hazard would be
created if air emission controls specified in Sections 725.985 through
725.988 are installed and operated on the tanks and containers used at the
facility to manage the hazardous waste generated by the organic peroxide
manufacturing process or processes meeting the conditions of subsection
(d)(1) of this Section; and
3) The owner or operator notifies the Agency in writing that hazardous waste
generated by an organic peroxide manufacturing process or processes
meeting the conditions of subsection (d)(1) of this Section are managed at
the facility in tanks or containers meeting the conditions of subsection
(d)(2) of this Section. The notification must state the name and address of
the facility and be signed and dated by an authorized representative of the
facility owner or operator.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.981 Definitions
As used in this Subpart CC and in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724, all terms not defined herein will have
the meanings given to them in the Act and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 726.
“Average volatile organic concentration” or “average VO concentration” means
the mass-weighted average volatile organic concentration of a hazardous waste,
as determined in accordance with the requirements of Section 725.984.
“Closure device” means a cap, hatch, lid, plug, seal, valve, or other type of fitting
that blocks an opening in a cover so that when the device is secured in the closed
621
position it prevents or reduces air pollutant emissions to the atmosphere. Closure
devices include devices that are detachable from the cover (e.g., a sampling port
cap), manually operated (e.g., a hinged access lid or hatch), or automatically
operated (e.g., a spring-loaded pressure relief valve).
“Continuous seal” means a seal that forms a continuous closure that completely
covers the space between the edge of the floating roof and the wall of a tank. A
continuous seal may be a vapor-mounted seal, liquid-mounted seal, or metallic
shoe seal. A continuous seal may be constructed of fastened segments so as to
form a continuous seal.
“Cover” means a device that provides a continuous barrier over the hazardous
waste managed in a unit to prevent or reduce air emissions to the atmosphere. A
cover may have openings (such as access hatches, sampling ports, and gauge
wells) that are necessary for operation, inspection, maintenance, or repair of the
unit on which the cover is used. A cover may be a separate piece of equipment
that can be detached and removed from the unit or a cover may be formed by
structural features permanently integrated into the design of the unit.
“Enclosure” means a structure that surrounds a tank or container, captures organic
vapors emitted from the tank or container, and vents the captured vapors through
a closed-vent system to a control device.
“External floating roof” means a pontoon-type or double-deck type cover that
rests on the surface of a hazardous waste being managed in a tank with no fixed
roof.
“Fixed roof” means a cover that is mounted on a unit in a stationary position and
does not move with fluctuations in the level of the material managed in the unit.
“Floating membrane cover” means a cover consisting of a synthetic flexible
membrane material that rests upon and is supported by the hazardous waste being
managed in a surface impoundment.
“Floating roof” means a cover consisting of a double-deck, pontoon single-deck,
or internal floating cover that rests upon and is supported by the material being
contained, and is equipped with a continuous seal.
“Hard-piping” means pipe or tubing that is manufactured and properly installed in
accordance with relevant standards and good engineering practices.
“In light material service” means that the container is used to manage a material
for which both of the following conditions apply: the vapor pressure of one or
more of the organic constituents in the material is greater than 0.3 kilopascals
(kPa) at 20°C (1.2 inches H
B
2
B
O at 68°F); and the total concentration of the pure
organic constituents having a vapor pressure greater than 0.3 kPa at 20°C (1.2
622
inches H
B
2
B
O at 68°F) is equal to or greater than 20 percent by weight.
“Internal floating roof” means a cover that rests or floats on the material surface
(but not necessarily in complete contact with it) inside a tank that has a fixed roof.
“Liquid-mounted seal” means a foam or liquid-filled primary seal mounted in
contact with the hazardous waste between the tank wall and the floating roof,
continuously around the circumference of the tank.
“Malfunction” means any sudden, infrequent, and not reasonably preventable
failure of air pollution control equipment, process equipment, or a process to
operate in a normal or usual manner. A failure that is caused in part by poor
maintenance or careless operation is not a malfunction.
“Maximum organic vapor pressure” means the sum of the individual organic
constituent partial pressures exerted by the material contained in a tank at the
maximum vapor pressure-causing conditions (i.e., temperature, agitation, pH
effects of combining wastes, etc.) reasonably expected to occur in the tank. For
the purpose of this Subpart CC, maximum organic vapor pressure is determined
using the procedures specified in Section 725.984(c).
“Metallic shoe seal” means a continuous seal that is constructed of metal sheets
that are held vertically against the wall of the tank by springs, weighted levers, or
other mechanisms and which is connected to the floating roof by braces or other
means. A flexible coated fabric (envelope) spans the annular space between the
metal sheet and the floating roof.
“No detectable organic emissions” means no escape of organics to the
atmosphere, as determined using the procedure specified in Section 725.984(d).
“Point of waste origination” means as follows:
When the facility owner or operator is the generator of the hazardous
waste, the “point of waste origination” means the point where a solid
waste produced by a system, process, or waste management unit is
determined to be a hazardous waste, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
BOARD NOTE: In this case, this term is being used in a manner similar
to the use of the term “point of generation” in air standards established for
waste management operations under authority of the federal Clean Air Act
in 40 CFR 60 (Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources), 61
(National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants), and 63
(National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Source
Categories)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
.
When the facility owner and operator are not the generator of the
623
hazardous waste, “point of waste origination” means the point where the
owner or operator accepts delivery or takes possession of the hazardous
waste.
“Point of waste treatment” means the point where a hazardous waste to be treated
in accordance with Section 725.983(c)(2) exits the treatment process. Any waste
determination must be made before the waste is conveyed, handled, or otherwise
managed in a manner that allows the waste to volatilize to the atmosphere.
“Safety device” means a closure device, such as a pressure relief valve, frangible
disc, fusible plug, or any other type of device that functions exclusively to prevent
physical damage or permanent deformation to a unit or its air emission control
equipment by venting gases or vapors directly to the atmosphere during unsafe
conditions resulting from an unplanned, accidental, or emergency event. For the
purpose of this Subpart CC, a safety device is not used for routine venting of
gases or vapors from the vapor headspace underneath a cover such as during
filling of the unit or to adjust the pressure in this vapor headspace in response to
normal daily diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations. A safety device is
designed to remain in a closed position during normal operations and open only
when the internal pressure, or another relevant parameter, exceeds the device
threshold setting applicable to the air emission control equipment as determined
by the owner or operator based on manufacturer recommendations, applicable
regulations, fire protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes and
practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of flammable, ignitable,
explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
“Single-seal system” means a floating roof having one continuous seal. This seal
may be vapor-mounted, liquid-mounted, or a metallic shoe seal.
“Vapor-mounted seal” means a continuous seal that is mounted so that there is a
vapor space between the hazardous waste in the unit and the bottom of the seal.
“Volatile organic concentration” or “VO concentration” means the fraction by
weight of organic compounds contained in a hazardous waste expressed in terms
of parts per million (ppmw), as determined by direct measurement or by
knowledge of the waste, in accordance with the requirements of Section 725.984.
For the purpose of determining the VO concentration of a hazardous waste,
organic compounds with a Henry’s law constant value of at least 0.1 mole-
fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in-the-liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) (which can
also be expressed as 1.8
×
10
P
-6
P
atmospheres/gram-mole/m
P
3
P
) at 25° C (77° F) must
be included. Appendix F of this Part presents a list of compounds known to have
a Henry’s law constant value less than the cutoff level.
“Waste determination” means performing all applicable procedures in accordance
with the requirements of Section 725.984 to determine whether a hazardous waste
meets standards specified in this Subpart CC. Examples of a waste determination
624
include performing the procedures in accordance with the requirements of Section
725.984 to determine the average VO concentration of a hazardous waste at the
point of waste origination, determining the average VO concentration of a
hazardous waste at the point of waste treatment and comparing the results to the
exit concentration limit specified for the process used to treat the hazardous
waste, the organic reduction efficiency and the organic biodegradation efficiency
for a biological process used to treat a hazardous waste and comparing the results
to the applicable standards, or determining the maximum volatile organic vapor
pressure for a hazardous waste in a tank and comparing the results to the
applicable standards.
“Waste stabilization process” means any physical or chemical process used to
either reduce the mobility of hazardous constituents in a hazardous waste or
eliminate free liquids as determined by Test Method
S
9095
S
9095B (Paint Filter
Liquids Test) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a). A waste stabilization process includes
mixing the hazardous waste with binders or other materials and curing the
resulting hazardous waste and binder mixture. Other synonymous terms used to
refer to this process are “waste fixation” or “waste solidification.” This does not
include the addition of absorbent materials to the surface of a waste to absorb free
liquid without mixing, agitation, or subsequent curing.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.983 Standards: General
a) This Section applies to the management of hazardous waste in tanks, surface
impoundments, and containers subject to this Subpart CC.
b) The owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from each hazardous
waste management unit in accordance with the standards specified in Sections
725.985 through 725.988, as applicable to the hazardous waste management unit,
except as provided for in subsection (c) of this Section.
c) A tank, surface impoundment, or container is exempted from standards specified
in Sections 725.985 through 725.988, provided that all hazardous waste placed in
the waste management unit is one of the following:
1) A tank, surface impoundment, or container for which all hazardous waste
entering the unit has an average VO concentration at the point of waste
origination of less than 500 parts per million by weight (ppmw). The
average VO concentration must be determined by the procedures specified
in Section 725.984(a). The owner or operator must review and update, as
necessary, this determination at least once every 12 months following the
date of the initial determination for the hazardous waste streams entering
625
the unit;
2) A tank, surface impoundment, or container for which the organic content
of all the hazardous waste entering the waste management unit has been
reduced by an organic destruction or removal process that achieves any
one of the following conditions:
A) The process removes or destroys the organics contained in the
hazardous waste to such a level that the average VO concentration
of the hazardous waste at the point of waste treatment is less than
the exit concentration limit (C
B
t
B
) established for the process. The
average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the point of
waste treatment and the exit concentration limit for the process
must be determined using the procedures specified in Section
725.984(b);
B) The process removes or destroys the organics contained in the
hazardous waste to such a level that the organic reduction
efficiency (R) for the process is equal to or greater than 95 percent,
and the average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the
point of waste treatment is less than 100 ppmw. The organic
reduction efficiency for the process and the average VO
concentration of the hazardous waste at the point of waste
treatment must be determined using the procedures specified in
Section 725.984(b);
C) The process removes or destroys the organics contained in the
hazardous waste to such a level that the actual organic mass
removal rate (MR) for the process is equal to or greater than the
required organic mass removal rate (RMR) established for the
process. The required organic mass removal rate and the actual
organic mass removal rate for the process must be determined
using the procedures specified in Section 725.984(b);
D) The process is a biological process that destroys or degrades the
organics contained in the hazardous waste so that either of the
following conditions is met:
i) The organic reduction efficiency (R) for the process is
equal to or greater than 95 percent, and the organic
biodegradation efficiency (R
B
bio
B
) for the process is equal to
or greater than 95 percent. The organic reduction
efficiency and the organic biodegradation efficiency for the
process must be determined using the procedures specified
in Section 725.984(b); and
626
ii) The total actual organic mass biodegradation rate (MR
B
bio
B
)
for all hazardous waste treated by the process is equal to or
greater than the required organic mass removal rate (RMR).
The required organic mass removal rate and the actual
organic mass biodegradation rate for the process must be
determined using the procedures specified in Section
725.984(b);
E) The process is one that removes or destroys the organics contained
in the hazardous waste and meets all of the following conditions:
i) From the point of waste origination through the point
where the hazardous waste enters the treatment process, the
hazardous waste is continuously managed in waste
management units that use air emission controls in
accordance with the standards specified in Section 725.985
through Section 725.988, as applicable to the waste
management unit;
ii) From the point of waste origination through the point
where the hazardous waste enters the treatment process,
any transfer of the hazardous waste is accomplished
through continuous hard-piping or other closed system
transfer that does not allow exposure of the waste to the
atmosphere;
BOARD NOTE: The USEPA considers a drain system that
meets the requirements of federal subpart RR of 40 CFR
63
S
,
S
S
“
S
(National Emission Standards for Individual Drain
Systems)
S
,”
S
to be a closed system.
iii) The average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at
the point of waste treatment is less than the lowest average
VO concentration at the point of waste origination
determined for each of the individual hazardous waste
streams entering the process or 500 ppmw, whichever value
is lower. The average VO concentration of each individual
hazardous waste stream at the point of waste origination
must be determined using the procedures specified in
Section 725.984(a). The average VO concentration of the
hazardous waste at the point of waste treatment must be
determined using the procedures specified in Section
725.984(b);
F) A process that removes or destroys the organics contained in the
hazardous waste to a level such that the organic reduction
627
efficiency (R) for the process is equal to or greater than 95 percent
and the owner or operator certifies that the average VO
concentration at the point of waste origination for each of the
individual waste streams entering the process is less than 10,000
ppmw. The organic reduction efficiency for the process and the
average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the point of
waste origination must be determined using the procedures
specified in Section 724.983(b) and Section 724.983(a),
respectively;
G) A hazardous waste incinerator for which either of the following
conditions is true:
i) The owner or operator has been issued a final permit under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements the
requirements of Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724; or
ii) The owner or operator has designed and operates the
incinerator in accordance with the interim status
requirements of Subpart O of this Part;
H) A boiler or industrial furnace for which either of the following
conditions is true:
i) The owner or operator has been issued a final permit under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705 that implements the
requirements of Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726; or
ii) The owner or operator has designed and operates the
industrial furnace or incinerator in accordance with the
interim status requirements of Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726; and
I) For the purpose of determining the performance of an organic
destruction or removal process in accordance with the conditions
in each of subsections (c)(2)(A) through (c)(2)(F) of this Section,
the owner or operator must account for VO concentrations
determined to be below the limit of detection of the analytical
method by using the following VO concentration:
i) If Method 25D (Determination of the Volatile Organic
Concentration of Waste Samples) in appendix A to 40 CFR
60
S
, appendix A
S
(Test Methods), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), is used for the analysis,
one-half the blank value determined in the method at
Section 4.4 of Method 25D or a value of 25 ppmw,
628
whichever is less; and
ii) If any other analytical method is used, one-half the sum of
the limits of detection established for each organic
constituent in the waste that has a Henry’s law constant
value at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-
fraction-in-the-liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) (which can also be
expressed as 1.8 x 10
P
-6
P
atmospheres/gram-mole/m
P
3
P
) at 25°
C;
3) A tank or surface impoundment used for biological treatment of hazardous
waste in accordance with the requirements of subsection (c)(2)(D) of this
Section;
4) A tank, surface impoundment, or container for which all hazardous waste
placed in the unit fulfills either of the following two conditions:
A) It meets the numerical concentration limits for organic hazardous
constituents, applicable to the hazardous waste, as specified in
Table T to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728; or
B) The organic hazardous constituents in the waste have been treated
by the treatment technology established by USEPA for the waste,
as set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.142(a), or treated by an
equivalent method of treatment approved by the Agency pursuant
to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.142(b); or
5) A tank used for bulk feed of hazardous waste to a waste incinerator, and
all of the following conditions are met:
A) The tank is located inside an enclosure vented to a control device
that is designed and operated in accordance with all applicable
requirements specified under federal subpart FF of 40 CFR 61
S
,
S
S
“
S
(National Emission Standards for Benzene Waste Operations),
S
”
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111(a)
S
720.111(b), for a facility at which the total annual benzene
quantity from the facility waste is equal to or greater than 10
megagrams (11 tons) per year;
B) The enclosure and control device serving the tank were installed
and began operation prior to November 25, 1996; and
C) The enclosure is designed and operated in accordance with the
criteria for a permanent total enclosure as specified in “Procedure
T—Criteria for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary
Total Enclosure” under appendix B to 40 CFR 52.741
S
, appendix B
S
629
(VOM Measurement Techniques for Capture Efficiency),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b). The
enclosure may have permanent or temporary openings to allow
worker access; passage of material into or out of the enclosure by
conveyor, vehicles, or other mechanical or electrical equipment; or
to direct air flow into the enclosure. The owner or operator must
perform the verification procedure for the enclosure as specified in
Section 5.0 to “Procedure T—Criteria for and Verification of a
Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure” annually.
d) The Agency may at any time perform or request that the owner or operator
perform a waste determination for a hazardous waste managed in a tank, surface
impoundment, or container that is exempted from using air emission controls
under the provisions of this Section as follows:
1) The waste determination for average VO concentration of a hazardous
waste at the point of waste origination must be performed using direct
measurement in accordance with the applicable requirements of Section
725.984(a). The waste determination for a hazardous waste at the point of
waste treatment must be performed in accordance with the applicable
requirements of Section 725.984(b);
2) In performing a waste determination pursuant to subsection (d)(1) of this
Section, the sample preparation and analysis must be conducted as
follows:
A) In accordance with the method used by the owner or operator to
perform the waste analysis, except in the case specified in
subsection (d)(2)(B) of this Section; and
B) If the Agency determines that the method used by the owner or
operator was not appropriate for the hazardous waste managed in
the tank, surface impoundment, or container, then the Agency may
choose an appropriate method;
3) Where the owner or operator is requested to perform the waste
determination, the Agency may elect to have an authorized representative
observe the collection of the hazardous waste samples used for the
analysis;
4) Where the results of the waste determination performed or requested by
the Agency do not agree with the results of a waste determination
performed by the owner or operator using knowledge of the waste, then
the results of the waste determination performed in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (d)(1) of this Section must be used to establish
compliance with the requirements of this Subpart CC; and
630
5) Where the owner or operator has used an averaging period greater than
one hour for determining the average VO concentration of a hazardous
waste at the point of waste origination, the Agency may elect to establish
compliance with this Subpart CC by performing or requesting that the
owner or operator perform a waste determination using direct
measurement, based on waste samples collected within a 1-hour period as
follows:
A) The average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the point
of waste origination must be determined by direct measurement in
accordance with the requirements of Section 725.984(a);
B) Results of the waste determination performed or requested by the
Agency showing that the average VO concentration of the
hazardous waste at the point of waste origination is equal to or
greater than 500 ppmw must constitute noncompliance with this
Subpart CC, except in a case as provided for in subsection
(d)(4)(C) of this Section; and
C) Where the average VO concentration of the hazardous waste at the
point of waste origination previously has been determined by the
owner or operator using an averaging period greater than one hour
to be less than 500 ppmw but because of normal operating process
variations the VO concentration of the hazardous waste determined
by direct measurement for any given 1-hour period may be equal
to or greater than 500 ppmw, information that was used by the
owner or operator to determine the average VO concentration of
the hazardous waste (e.g., test results, measurements, calculations,
and other documentation) and recorded in the facility records in
accordance with the requirements of Sections 725.984(a) and
725.990 must be considered by the Agency together with the
results of the waste determination performed or requested by the
Agency in establishing compliance with this Subpart CC.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.984 Waste Determination Procedures
a) Waste determination procedure for volatile organic (VO) concentration of a
hazardous waste at the point of waste origination.
1) An owner or operator must determine the average VO concentration at the
point of waste origination for each hazardous waste placed in a waste
management unit exempted under the provisions of Section 725.983(c)(1)
from using air emission controls in accordance with standards specified in
631
Section 725.985 through Section 725.988, as applicable to the waste
management unit.
A) An owner or operator must make an initial determination of the
average VO concentration of the waste stream before the first time
any portion of the material in the hazardous waste stream is placed
in a waste management unit exempted under the provisions of
Section 725.983(c)(1) from using air emission controls. Thereafter,
an owner or operator must make an initial determination of the
average VO concentration of the waste stream for each averaging
period that a hazardous waste is managed in the unit.
B) An owner or operator must perform a new waste determination
whenever changes to the source generating the waste stream are
reasonably likely to cause the average VO concentration of the
hazardous waste to increase to a level that is equal to or greater than
the VO concentration limits specified in Section 725.983(c)(1).
2) For a waste determination that is required by subsection (a)(1) of this
Section, the average VO concentration of a hazardous waste at the point of
waste origination must be determined using either direct measurement, as
specified in subsection (a)(3) of this Section, or by knowledge of the
waste, as specified in subsection (a)(4) of this Section.
3) Direct measurement to determine average VO concentration of a
hazardous waste at the point of waste origination.
A) Identification. The owner or operator must identify and record the
point of waste origination for the hazardous waste.
B) Sampling. Samples of the hazardous waste stream must be
collected at the point of waste origination in such a manner that
volatilization of organics contained in the waste and in the
subsequent sample is minimized and an adequately representative
sample is collected and maintained for analysis by the selected
method.
i) The averaging period to be used for determining the
average VO concentration for the hazardous waste stream
on a mass-weighted average basis must be designated and
recorded. The averaging period can represent any time
interval that the owner or operator determines is
appropriate for the hazardous waste stream but must not
exceed one year.
ii) A sufficient number of samples, but no fewer than four
632
samples, must be collected for a hazardous waste
determination. All of the samples for a given waste
determination must be collected within a one-hour period.
The average of the four or more sample results constitutes a
waste determination for the waste stream. One or more
waste determinations may be required to represent the
complete range of waste compositions and quantities that
occur during the entire averaging period due to normal
variations in the operating conditions for the source or
process generating the hazardous waste stream. Examples
of such normal variations are seasonal variations in waste
quantity or fluctuations in ambient temperature.
iii) All samples must be collected and handled in accordance
with written procedures prepared by the owner or operator
and documented in a site sampling plan. This plan must
describe the procedure by which representative samples of
the hazardous waste stream are collected so that a
minimum loss of organics occurs throughout the sample
collection and handling process, and by which sample
integrity is maintained. A copy of the written sampling
plan must be maintained on-site in the facility operating
records. An example of an acceptable sampling plan
includes a plan incorporating sample collection and
handling procedures
S
in accordance with the requirements
specified in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(a), or
S
in Method 25D (Determination of the
Volatile Organic Concentration of Waste Samples) in
appendix A to 40 CFR 60
S
, appendix A
S
(Test Methods),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
iv) Sufficient information, as specified in the “site sampling
plan” required under subsection (a)(3)(B)(iii) of this Section,
must be prepared and recorded to document the waste
quantity represented by the samples and, as applicable, the
operating conditions for the source or process generating the
hazardous waste represented by the samples.
C) Analysis. Each collected sample must be prepared and analyzed in
accordance with
S
one or more of the methods listed in subsections
(a)(3)(C)(i) through (a)(3)(C)(ix) of this Section, including the
appropriate quality assurance and quality control (QA/QC) checks
and use of target compounds for calibration. If
S
Method 25D in
appendix A to 40 CFR 60
S
, appendix A, incorporated by reference
633
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), is not used, then one or more
methods should be chosen that are appropriate to ensure that the
waste determination
S
for the total concentration of volatile organic
constituents or using one or more methods when the individual
organic compound concentrations are identified and summed and
the summed waste concentration accounts for and reflects all
organic compounds in the waste with Henry’s law constant values
at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in-the-
liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) (which can also be expressed as 1.8
×
10
P
-6
P
atmospheres/gram-mole/m
P
3
P
) at 25° C (77° F).
S
Each of the
analytical methods listed in subsections (a)(3)(C)(ii) through
(a)(3)(C)(vii) of this Section has an associated list of approved
chemical compounds for which USEPA considers the method
appropriate for measurement. If an owner or operator uses USEPA
Method 624, 625, 1624, or 1625 in 40 CFR 136, appendix A,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), to
analyze one or more compounds that are not on that method’s
published list, the Alternative Test Procedure contained in 40 CFR
136.4 and 136.5, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b), must be followed. If an owner or operator uses
USEPA Method 8260 or 8270 in “Test Methods for Evaluating
Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication
SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(a), to analyze one or more compounds that are not on that
method’s published list, the procedures in subsection
(a)(3)(C)(viii) of this Section must be followed.
S
At the owner’s or
operator’s discretion, the owner or operator may adjust test data
measured by
S
a
S
any appropriate method
S
other than Method 25D to
the corresponding average VO concentration value that would
have been obtained, had the waste samples been analyzed using
Method 25D
S
to discount any contribution to the total volatile
organic concentration that is a result of including a compound with
a Henry’s law constant value of less than 0.1 Y/X at 25° C (77° F).
To adjust these data, the measured concentration of each individual
chemical constituent contained in the waste is multiplied by the
constituent-specific adjustment factor (f
B
m25D
B
). If the owner or
operator elects to adjust test data, the adjustment must be made to all
individual chemical constituents with a Henry's law constant value
greater than or equal to 0.1 Y/X at 25° C contained in the waste.
Constituent-specific adjustment factors (f
B
m25D
B
) can be obtained by
contacting the USEPA, Waste and Chemical Processes Group,
Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Research Triangle
Park, NC 27711. Other test methods may be used if they meet the
requirements in subsection (a)(3)(C)(i) or (a)(3)(C)(ii) of this
Section and provided the requirement is met to reflect all organic
compounds in the waste with Henry’s law constant values greater
634
than or equal to 0.1 Y/X (which can also be expressed as 1.8 x 10
P
-6
P
atmospheres/gram-mole/m
B
3
B
) at 25
°
C.
S
i)
Method 25D in 40 CFR 60, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
S
ii)
Method 624 in 40 CFR 136, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
S
iii)
Method 625 in 40 CFR 136, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b). Perform
corrections to the compounds for which the analysis is
being conducted based on the “accuracy as recovery” using
the factors in Table 7 of the method.
S
iv)
Method 1624 in 40 CFR 136, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
S
v)
Method 1625 in 40 CFR 136, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
S
vi)
Method 8260 in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(a). Maintain a formal quality assurance program
consistent with the requirements of Method 8260. The
quality assurance program must include the elements set
forth in subsection (a)(3)(F) of this Section.
S
vii)
Method 8270 in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(a). Maintain a formal quality assurance program
consistent with the requirements of Method 8270. The
quality assurance program must include the elements set
forth in subsection (a)(3)(F) of this Section.
S
viii)
Any other USEPA standard method that has been validated
in accordance with “Alternative Validation Procedure for
USEPA Waste and Wastewater Methods,” 40 CFR 63,
appendix D, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b). As an alternative, other USEPA standard
methods may be validated by the procedure specified in
subsection (a)(3)(C)(ix) of this Section.
S
ix)
Any other analysis method that has been validated in
635
accordance with the procedures specified in Section 5.1 or
Section 5.3, and the corresponding calculations in Section
6.1 or Section 6.3, of Method 301 in 40 CFR 63, appendix
A, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b). The data are acceptable if they meet the
criteria specified in Section 6.1.5 or Section 6.3.3 of
Method 301. If correction is required under Section 6.3.3
of Method 301, the data are acceptable if the correction
factor is within the range 0.7 to 1.30. Other Sections of
Method 301 are not required.
i) Any USEPA standard method that has been validated in
accordance with appendix D to 40 CFR 63 (Alternative
Validation Procedure for EPA Waste and Wastewater
Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b); or
ii) Any other analysis method that has been validated in
accordance with the procedures specified in Section 5.1 or
5.3, and the corresponding calculations in Section 6.1 or
6.3, of Method 301 (Field Validation of Pollutant
Measurement Methods from Various Waste Media) in
appendix A to 40 CFR 63 (Test Methods), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b). The data are
acceptable if they meet the criteria specified in Section
6.1.5 or 6.3.3 of Method 301. If correction is required
under Section 6.3.3 of Method 301, the data are acceptable
if the correction factor is within the range 0.7 to 1.30.
Other sections of Method 301 are not required.
D) Calculations.
i) The average VO concentration ( C ) on a mass-weighted
basis must be calculated by using the results for all waste
determinations conducted in accordance with subsections
(a)(3)(B) and (a)(3)(C) of this Section and the following
equation:
C=
1
Q
x
n
i = 1
(Q x C )
T
i
i
∑
Where:
C = Average VO concentration of the hazardous
636
waste at the point of waste origination on a
mass-weighted basis, in ppmw
S
;
S
i = Individual waste determination “i” of the
hazardous waste
S
;
S
n = Total number of waste determinations of the
hazardous waste conducted for the
averaging period (not to exceed one year)
S
;
S
Q
B
i
B
= Mass quantity of the hazardous waste stream
represented by C
B
i
B
, in kg/hr
S
;
S
Q
B
T
B
= Total mass quantity of the hazardous waste
during the averaging period, in kg/hr
S
; and
S
C
B
i
B
= Measured VO concentration of waste
determination “i,” as determined in
accordance with subsection (a)(3)(C) of this
Section (i.e., the average of the four or
more samples specified in subsection
(a)(3)(B)(ii) of this Section), in ppmw.
ii) For the purpose of determining C
B
i
B
, for individual waste
samples analyzed in accordance with subsection (a)(3)(C)
of this Section, the owner or operator must account for VO
concentrations determined to be below the limit of
detection of the analytical method by using the VO
concentration determined according to subsection (a)(3)(G)
of this Section.
E) Provided that the test method is appropriate for the waste as
required under subsection (a)(3)(C) of this Section, the Agency
must determine compliance based on the test method used by the
owner or operator as recorded pursuant to Section 725.990(f)(1).
F) The quality assurance program elements required under
subsections (a)(3)(C)(vi) and (a)(3)(C)(vii) of this Section are as
follows:
i) Documentation of site-specific procedures to minimize the
loss of compounds due to volatilization, biodegradation,
reaction, or sorption during the sample collection, storage,
preparation, introduction, and analysis steps.
ii) Measurement of the overall accuracy and precision of the
637
specific procedures.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (a)(3)(F)(i) and (a)(3)(F)(ii) are
derived from 40 CFR 265.984(a)(3)(iii)(F)(1), (a)(3)(iii)(F)(2),
(a)(3)(iii)(G)(1), and (a)(3)(iii)(G)(2), which the Board has
codified here to comport with Illinois Administrative Code format
requirements.
G) VO concentrations below the limit of detection must be considered
to be as follows:
i) If Method 25D
S
in 40 CFR 60, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b),
S
is used for the
analysis, the VO concentration must be considered to be
one-half the blank value determined in the method at
Section 4.4 of Method 25D
S
in 40 CFR 60, appendix A
S
.
ii) If any other analytical method is used, the VO
concentration must be considered to be one-half the sum of
the limits of detection established for each organic
constituent in the waste that has a Henry’s law constant
value at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-
fraction-in-the-liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) (which can also be
expressed as 1.8 x 10
P
-6
P
atmospheres/gram-mole/m
P
3
P
) at 25°
C.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (a)(3)(G)(i) and (a)(3)(G)(ii) are
derived from 40 CFR 265.984(a)(3)(iv)(A)(1) and (a)(3)(iv)(A)(2),
which the Board has codified here to comport with Illinois
Administrative Code format requirements.
4) Use of owner or operator knowledge to determine average VO
concentration of a hazardous waste at the point of waste origination.
A) Documentation must be prepared that presents the information
used as the basis for the owner’s or operator’s knowledge of the
hazardous waste stream’s average VO concentration. Examples of
information that may be used as the basis for knowledge include
the following: material balances for the source or process
generating the hazardous waste stream; constituent-specific
chemical test data for the hazardous waste stream from previous
testing that are still applicable to the current waste stream;
previous test data for other locations managing the same type of
waste stream; or other knowledge based on information included in
manifests, shipping papers, or waste certification notices.
638
B) If test data are used as the basis for knowledge, then the owner or
operator must document the test method, sampling protocol, and
the means by which sampling variability and analytical variability
are accounted for in the determination of the average VO
concentration. For example, an owner or operator may use organic
concentration test data for the hazardous waste stream that are
validated in accordance with Method 301
S
in 40 CFR 63, appendix
A, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b),
S
as
the basis for knowledge of the waste.
C) An owner or operator using chemical constituent-specific
concentration test data as the basis for knowledge of the hazardous
waste may adjust the test data to the corresponding average VO
concentration value that would have been obtained had the waste
samples been analyzed using Method 25D
S
in 40 CFR 60, appendix
A, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
. To
adjust these data, the measured concentration for each individual
chemical constituent contained in the waste is multiplied by the
appropriate constituent-specific adjustment factor (f
B
m25D
B
).
D) In the event that the Agency and the owner or operator disagree on
a determination of the average VO concentration for a hazardous
waste stream using knowledge, then the results from a
determination of average VO concentration using direct
measurement, as specified in subsection (a)(3) of this Section,
must be used to establish compliance with the applicable
requirements of this Subpart CC. The Agency may perform or
request that the owner or operator perform this determination using
direct measurement. The owner or operator may choose one or
more appropriate methods to analyze each collected sample in
accordance with the requirements of subsection (a)(3)(C) of this
Section.
b) Waste determination procedures for treated hazardous waste.
1) An owner or operator must perform the applicable waste determination for
each treated hazardous waste placed in a waste management unit
exempted under the provisions of Section 725.983(c)(2)(A) through
(c)(2)(F) from using air emission controls in accordance with the
standards specified in Sections 725.985 through 725.988, as applicable to
the waste management unit.
A) An owner or operator must make an initial determination of the
average VO concentration of the waste stream before the first time
any portion of the material in the treated waste stream is placed in
the waste management unit exempt under Section 725.983(c)(2),
639
(c)(3), or (c)(4) from using air emission controls. Thereafter, an
owner or operator must update the information used for the waste
determination at least once every 12 months following the date of
the initial waste determination.
B) An owner or operator must perform a new waste determination
whenever changes to the process generating or treating the waste
stream are reasonably likely to cause the average VO concentration
of the hazardous waste to increase to such a level that the applicable
treatment conditions specified in Section 725.983 (c)(2), (c)(3), or
(c)(4) are not achieved.
2) The owner or operator must designate and record the specific provision in
Section 725.983(c)(2) under which the waste determination is being
performed. The waste determination for the treated hazardous waste must
be performed using the applicable procedures specified in subsections
(b)(3) through (b)(9) of this Section.
3) Procedure to determine the average VO concentration of a hazardous
waste at the point of waste treatment.
A) Identification. The owner or operator must identify and record the
point of waste treatment for the hazardous waste.
B) Sampling. Samples of the hazardous waste stream must be
collected at the point of waste treatment in such a manner that
volatilization of organics contained in the waste and in the
subsequent sample is minimized and an adequately representative
sample is collected and maintained for analysis by the selected
method.
i) The averaging period to be used for determining the
average VO concentration for the hazardous waste stream
on a mass-weighted average basis must be designated and
recorded. The averaging period can represent any time
interval that the owner or operator determines is
appropriate for the hazardous waste stream but must not
exceed one year.
ii) A sufficient number of samples, but no fewer than four
samples, must be collected and analyzed for a hazardous
waste determination. All of the samples for a given waste
determination must be collected within a one-hour period.
The average of the four or more sample results constitutes a
waste determination for the hazardous waste stream. One
or more waste determinations may be required to represent
640
the complete range of waste compositions and quantities
that occur during the entire averaging period due to normal
variations in the operating conditions for the process
generating or treating the hazardous waste stream.
Examples of such normal variations are seasonal variations
in waste quantity or fluctuations in ambient temperature.
iii) All samples must be collected and handled in accordance
with written procedures prepared by the owner or operator
and documented in a site sampling plan. This plan must
describe the procedure by which representative samples of
the hazardous waste stream are collected so that a
minimum loss of organics occurs throughout the sample
collection and handling process, and by which sample
integrity is maintained. A copy of the written sampling
plan must be maintained on-site in the facility operating
records. An example of an acceptable
S
sampling plan
includes a plan incorporating sample collection and
handling procedures in accordance with the requirements
specified in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication No. SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(a), or
S
sample collection and handling procedures
for a total organic constituent concentration may be found
in Method 25D
S
in 40 CFR 60, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
.
iv) Sufficient information, as specified in the “site sampling
plan” required under subsection (a)(3)(B)(iii) of this Section,
must be prepared and recorded to document the waste
quantity represented by the samples and, as applicable, the
operating conditions for the process treating the hazardous
waste represented by the samples.
C) Analysis. Each collected sample must be prepared and analyzed in
accordance with
S
one or more of the methods listed in subsections
(b)(3)(C)(i) through (b)(3)(C)(ix) of this Section, including
appropriate quality assurance and quality control (QA/QC) checks
and use of target compounds for calibration
S
Method 25D for the
total concentration of volatile organic constituents or using one or
more methods when the individual organic compound
concentrations are identified and summed, and the summed waste
concentration accounts for and reflects all organic compounds in
the waste with Henry’s law constant values at least 0.1 mole-
fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in-the-liquid-phase (0.1
Y/X) (which can also be expressed as 1.8 × 10
P
-6
P
641
atmospheres/gram-mole/m
P
3
P
) at 25°C (75° F). When the owner or
operator is making a waste determination for a treated hazardous
waste that is to be compared to an average VO concentration at the
point of waste origination or the point of waste entry to the
treatment system, to determine if the conditions of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.982(c)(2)(A) through (c)(2)(F) or Section
725.983(c)(2)(A) through (c)(2)(F) are met, then the waste samples
must be prepared and analyzed using the same method or methods
as were used in making the initial waste determinations at the point
of waste origination or at the point of entry to the treatment
system.
S
If Method 25D in 40 CFR 60, appendix A is not used,
then one or more methods should be chosen that are appropriate to
ensure that the waste determination accounts for and reflects all
organic compounds in the waste with Henry’s law constant values
at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in-the-
liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) (which can also be expressed as 1.8
×
10
SP
S
-6
S
P
S
atmospheres/gram-mole/m
SP
S
3
S
P
S
) at 25 degrees Celsius. Each of the
analytical methods listed in subsections (b)(3)(C)(ii) through
(b)(3)(C)(vii) of this Section has an associated list of approved
chemical compounds, for which USEPA considers the method
appropriate for measurement. If an owner or operator uses USEPA
Method 624, 625, 1624, or 1625 in 40 CFR 136, appendix A,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), to
analyze one or more compounds that are not on that method’s
published list, the Alternative Test Procedure contained in 40 CFR
136.4 and 136.5, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b), must be followed. If an owner or operator uses
USEPA Method 8260 or 8270 in “Test Methods for Evaluating
Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication
SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(a), to analyze one or more compounds that are not on that
method’s published list, the procedures in subsection
(b)(3)(C)(viii) of this Section must be followed.
S
At the owner’s or
operator’s discretion, the owner or operator may adjust test data
S
measured
S
obtained by
S
a
S
any appropriate method
S
other than Method
25D to the corresponding average VO concentration value that
would have been obtained, had the waste samples been analyzed
using Method 25D
S
to discount any contribution to the total volatile
organic concentration that is a result of including a compound with
a Henry’s law constant value less than 0.1 Y/X at 25° C. To adjust
these data, the measured concentration of each individual chemical
constituent contained in the waste is multiplied by the constituent-
specific adjustment factor (f
B
m25D
B
). If the owner or operator elects to
adjust test data, the adjustment must be made to all individual
chemical constituents with a Henry's law constant value greater than
or equal to 0.1 Y/X at 25° C contained in the waste. Constituent-
642
specific adjustment factors (f
B
m25D
B
) can be obtained by contacting
the USEPA, Waste and Chemical Processes Group, Office of Air
Quality Planning and Standards, Research Triangle Park, NC
27711. Other test methods may be used if they meet the
requirements in subsection (a)(3)(C)(i) or (a)(3)(C)(ii) of this
Section and provided the requirement is met to reflect all organic
compounds in the waste with Henry’s law constant values greater
than or equal to 0.1 Y/X (which can also be expressed as 1.8 x 10
P
-6
P
atmospheres/gram-mole/m
P
3
P
) at 25° C.
S
i)
Method 25D in 40 CFR 60, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
S
ii)
Method 624 in 40 CFR 136, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
S
iii)
Method 625 in 40 CFR 136, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b). Perform
corrections to the compounds for which the analysis is
being conducted based on the “accuracy as recovery” using
the factors in Table 7 of the method.
S
iv)
Method 1624 in 40 CFR 136, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
S
v)
Method 1625 in 40 CFR 136, appendix A, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
S
vi)
Method 8260 in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(a). Maintain a formal quality assurance program
consistent with the requirements of Method 8260. The
quality assurance program must include the elements set
forth in subsection (b)(3)(E) of this Section.
S
vii)
Method 8270 in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(a). Maintain a formal quality assurance program
consistent with the requirements of Method 8270. The
quality assurance program must include the elements set
forth in subsection (b)(3)(E) of this Section.
S
viii)
Any other USEPA standard method that has been validated
in accordance with “Alternative Validation Procedure for
643
EPA Waste and Wastewater Methods,” 40 CFR 63,
appendix D, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b). As an alternative, other USEPA standard
methods may be validated by the procedure specified in
subsection (b)(3)(C)(ix) of this Section.
S
ix)
Any other analysis method that has been validated in
accordance with the procedures specified in Section 5.1 or
Section 5.3, and the corresponding calculations in Section
6.1 or Section 6.3, of Method 301 in 40 CFR 63, appendix
A, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b). The data are acceptable if they meet the
criteria specified in Section 6.1.5 or Section 6.3.3 of
Method 301. If correction is required under Section 6.3.3
of Method 301, the data are acceptable if the correction
factor is within the range 0.7 to 1.30. Other Sections of
Method 301 are not required.
i) Any USEPA standard method that has been validated in
accordance with appendix D to 40 CFR 63; or
ii) Any other analysis method that has been validated in
accordance with the procedures specified in Section 5.1 or
5.3, and the corresponding calculations in Section 6.1 or
6.3, of Method 301. The data are acceptable if they meet
the criteria specified in Section 6.1.5 or 6.3.3 of Method
301. If correction is required under Section 6.3.3 of
Method 301, the data are acceptable if the correction factor
is within the range 0.7 to 1.30. Other sections of Method
301 are not required.
D) Calculations. The average VO concentration ( C ) on a mass-
weighted basis must be calculated by using the results for all
samples analyzed in accordance with subsection (b)(3)(C) of this
Section and the following equation:
C=
1
Q
x
n
i = 1
(Q xC )
T
i
i
∑
Where:
C = Average VO concentration of the hazardous waste
at the point of waste treatment on a mass-weighted
basis, in ppmw
S
;
S
644
i = Individual determination “i” of the hazardous
waste
S
;
S
n = Total number of waste determinations of the
hazardous waste collected for the averaging period
(not to exceed one year)
S
;
S
Q
B
i
B
= Mass quantity of the hazardous waste stream
represented by C
B
i
B
, in kg/hr
S
;
S
Q
B
T
B
= Total mass quantity of hazardous waste during the
averaging period, in kg/hr
S
; and
S
C
B
i
B
= Measured VO concentration of waste
determinations “i,” as determined in accordance
with the requirements of subsection (b)(3)(C) of this
Section (i.e., the average of the four or more
samples specified in subsection (b)(3)(B)(ii) of this
Section), in ppmw.
E) Provided that the test method is appropriate for the waste as
required under subsection (b)(3)(C) of this Section, compliance
must be determined based on the test method used by the owner or
operator as recorded pursuant to Section 725.990(f)(1).
4) Procedure to determine the exit concentration limit (C
B
t
B
) for a treated
hazardous waste.
A) The point of waste origination for each hazardous waste treated by
the process at the same time must be identified.
B) If a single hazardous waste stream is identified in subsection
(b)(4)(A) of this Section, then the exit concentration limit (C
B
t
B
)
must be 500 ppmw.
C) If more than one hazardous waste stream is identified in subsection
(b)(4)(A) of this Section, then the average VO concentration of
each hazardous waste stream at the point of waste origination must
be determined in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(a) of this Section. The exit concentration limit (C
B
t
B
) must be
calculated by using the results determined for each individual
hazardous waste stream and the following equation:
645
t
x
x
y
x
y
C
=
m
x = 1
(Q
xC
)+
n
y = 1
(Q
x500ppmw)
m
x = 1
Q
+
n
y = 1
Q
∑∑
∑∑
Where:
C
B
t
B
= Exit concentration limit for treated hazardous waste,
in ppmw
S
;
S
x = Individual hazardous waste stream “x” that has an
average VO concentration less than 500 ppmw at
the point of waste origination, as determined in
accordance with the requirements of subsection (a)
of this Section
S
;
S
y = Individual hazardous waste stream “y” that has an
average VO concentration equal to or greater than
500 ppmw at the point of waste origination, as
determined in accordance with the requirements of
subsection (a) of this Section
S
;
S
m = Total number of “x” hazardous waste streams
treated by process
S
;
S
n = Total number of “y” hazardous waste streams
treated by process
S
;
S
Q
B
x
B
= Annual mass quantity of hazardous waste stream
“x,” in kg/yr
S
;
S
Q
B
y
B
= Annual mass quantity of hazardous waste stream
“y,” in kg/yr
S
; and
S
C
x
= Average VO concentration of hazardous waste
stream “x” at the point of waste origination, as
determined in accordance with the requirements of
subsection (a) of this Section, in ppmw.
5) Procedure to determine the organic reduction efficiency (R) for a treated
hazardous waste.
646
A) The organic reduction efficiency (R) for a treatment process must
be determined based on results for a minimum of three consecutive
runs.
B) All hazardous waste streams entering the process and all hazardous
waste streams exiting the treatment process must be identified.
The owner or operator must prepare a sampling plan for measuring
these streams that accurately reflects the retention time of the
hazardous waste in the process.
C) For each run, information must be determined for each hazardous
waste stream identified in subsection (b)(5)(B) of this Section,
using the following procedures:
i) The mass quantity of each hazardous waste stream entering
the process (Q
B
b
B
) and the mass quantity of each hazardous
waste stream exiting the process (Q
B
a
B
) must be determined;
and
ii) The average VO concentration at the point of waste
origination of each hazardous waste stream entering the
process (C
B
b
B
) during the run must be determined in
accordance with the requirements of subsection (a)(3) of
this Section. The average VO concentration at the point of
waste treatment of each hazardous waste stream exiting the
process (C
B
a
B
) during the run must be determined in
accordance with the requirements of subsection (b)(3) of
this Section.
D) The waste volatile organic mass flow entering the process (E
B
b
B
) and
the waste volatile organic mass flow exiting the process (E
B
a
B
) must
be calculated by using the results determined in accordance with
subsection (b)(5)(C) of this Section and the following equations:
b
6
bj
bj
E
=
1
10
m
j=1
(Q
xC
)
∑
a
6
aj
aj
E
=
1
10
m
j = 1
(Q
xC
)
∑
Where:
647
E
B
a
B
= Waste volatile organic mass flow exiting the
process, in kg/hr
S
;
S
E
B
b
B
= Waste volatile organic mass flow entering the
process, in kg/hr
S
;
S
m = Total number of runs (at least 3);
j = Individual run “j”
S
;
S
Q
B
bj
B
= Mass quantity of hazardous waste entering the
process during run “j,” in kg/hr
S
;
S
Q
B
aj
B
= Average mass quantity of waste exiting the process
during run “j,” in kg/hr
S
;
S
aj
C
= Average VO concentration of hazardous waste
exiting the process during run “j,” as determined in
accordance with the requirements of subsection
(b)(3) of this Section, in ppmw
S
; and
S
bj
C
= Average VO concentration of hazardous waste
entering the process during run “j,” as determined in
accordance with the requirements of subsection
725.984 (a)(3) of this Section, in ppmw.
E) The organic reduction efficiency of the process must be calculated
by using the results determined in accordance with subsection
(b)(5)(D) of this Section and the following equation:
R=
E
- E
E
x100%
b
a
b
Where:
R = Organic reduction efficiency, in percent
S
;
S
E
B
b
B
= Waste volatile organic mass flow entering the
process, as determined in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (b)(5)(D) of this
Section, in kg/hr
S
; and
S
E
B
a
B
= Waste volatile organic mass flow exiting the
process, as determined in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (b)(5)(D) of this
648
Section, in kg/hr.
6) Procedure to determine the organic biodegradation efficiency (R
B
bio
B
) for a
treated hazardous waste.
A) The fraction of organics biodegraded (F
B
bio
B
) must be determined
using the procedure specified in appendix C to 40 CFR 63
S
,
appendix C
S
(Determination of the Fraction Biodegraded (F
B
bio
B
) in a
Biological Treatment Unit), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(b).
B) The organic biodegradation efficiency (R
B
bio
B
) must be calculated by
using the following equation:
bio bio
R
= F
x100%
Where:
R
B
bio
B
= Organic biodegradation efficiency, in percent
S
; and
S
F
B
bio
B
= Fraction of organic biodegraded, as determined in
accordance with the requirements of subsection
(b)(6)(A) of this Section.
7) Procedure to determine the required organic mass removal rate (RMR) for
a treated hazardous waste.
A) All of the hazardous waste streams entering the treatment process
must be identified.
B) The average VO concentration of the hazardous waste stream at
the point of waste origination must be determined in accordance
with the requirements of subsection (a) of this Section.
C) For each individual hazardous waste stream that has an average
volatile organic concentration equal to or greater than 500 ppmw at
the point of waste origination, the average volumetric flow rate of
hazardous waste and the density of the hazardous waste stream at
the point of waste origination must be determined.
D) The required organic mass removal rate (RMR) for the hazardous
waste must be calculated by using the average VO concentration,
average volumetric flow rate, and density determined for each
individual hazardous waste stream, and the following equation:
649
RMR =
n
y = 1
V
x k
x
(C
- 500ppmw)
10
y
y
y
6
∑
⎡
⎣
⎢
⎤
⎦
⎥
Where:
RMR = Required organic mass removal rate, in kg/hr
S
;
S
y = Individual hazardous waste stream “y” that has an
average volatile organic (VO) concentration equal
to or greater than 500 ppmw at the point of waste
origination, as determined in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (a) of this Section
S
;
S
n = Total number of “y” hazardous waste streams
treated by process
S
;
S
V
B
y
B
= Average volumetric flow rate of hazardous waste
stream “y” at the point of waste origination, in
m
P
3
P
/hr
S
;
S
k
B
y
B
= Density of hazardous waste stream “y,” in kg/m
P
3
PS
;
and
S
Cy = Average VO concentration of hazardous waste
stream “y” at the point of waste origination, as
determined in accordance with the requirements of
subsection (a) of this Section, in ppmw.
8) Procedure to determine the actual organic mass removal rate (MR) for a
treated hazardous waste.
A) The actual organic mass removal rate (MR) must be determined
based on results for a minimum of three consecutive runs. The
sampling time for each run must be one hour.
B) The waste volatile organic mass flow entering the process (E
B
b
B
) and
the waste volatile organic mass flow exiting the process (E
B
a
B
) must
be determined in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(b)(5)(D) of this Section.
C) The actual organic mass removal rate (MR) must be calculated by
using the mass flow rate determined in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (b)(8)(B) of this Section and the
following equation:
650
MR = E
- E
b
a
Where:
MR = Actual organic mass removal rate, in kg/hr
S
;
S
E
B
b
B
= Waste volatile organic mass flow entering the
process, as determined in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (b)(5)(D) of this
Section, in kg/hr
S
; and
S
E
B
a
B
= Waste volatile organic mass flow exiting the
process, as determined in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (b)(5)(D) of this
Section, in kg/hr.
9) Procedure to determine the actual organic mass biodegradation rate
(MR
B
bio
B
) for a treated hazardous waste.
A) The actual organic mass biodegradation rate (MR
B
bio
B
) must be
determined based on results for a minimum of three consecutive
runs. The sampling time for each run must be one hour.
B) The waste organic mass flow entering the process (E
B
b
B
) must be
determined in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(b)(5)(D) of this Section.
C) The fraction of organic biodegraded (F
B
bio
B
) must be determined
using the procedure specified in appendix C to 40 CFR 63
S
,
appendix C, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b)
S
(Determination of the Fraction Biodegraded (F
B
bio
B
) in a
Biological Treatment Unit).
D) The actual organic mass biodegradation rate (MR
B
bio
B
) must be
calculated by using the mass flow rates and fraction of organic
biodegraded, as determined in accordance with the requirements of
subsections (b)(9)(B) and (b)(9)(C) of this Section, respectively,
and the following equation:
bio b bio
MR
= E
xF
Where:
MR
B
bio
B
= Actual organic mass biodegradation rate, in kg/hr
S
;
S
651
E
B
b
B
= Waste organic mass flow entering the process, as
determined in accordance with the requirements of
subsection (b)(5)(D) of this Section, in kg/hr
S
; and
S
F
B
bio
B
= Fraction of organic biodegraded, as determined in
accordance with the requirements of subsection
(b)(9)(C) of this Section.
c) Procedure to determine the maximum organic vapor pressure of a hazardous
waste in a tank.
1) An owner or operator must determine the maximum organic vapor
pressure for each hazardous waste placed in a tank using Tank Level 1
controls in accordance with standards specified in Section 725.985(c).
2) An owner or operator must use either direct measurement, as specified in
subsection (c)(3) of this Section, or knowledge of the waste, as specified
by subsection (c)(4) of this Section, to determine the maximum organic
vapor pressure that is representative of the hazardous waste composition
stored or treated in the tank.
3) Direct measurement to determine the maximum organic vapor pressure of
a hazardous waste.
A) Sampling. A sufficient number of samples must be collected to be
representative of the waste contained in the tank. All samples
must be conducted and handled in accordance with written
procedures prepared by the owner or operator and documented in a
site sampling plan. This plan must describe the procedure by
which representative samples of the hazardous waste are collected
so that a minimum loss of organics occurs throughout the sample
collection and handling process and by which sample integrity is
maintained. A copy of the written sampling plan must be
maintained on-site in the facility operating records. An example of
S
an
S
acceptable
S
sampling plan includes a plan incorporating
S
sample
collection and handling procedures
S
in accordance with the
requirements specified in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication No. SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a), or
S
may be found in Method 25D
S
in 40 CFR 60, appendix A,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
.
B) Analysis. Any appropriate one of the following methods may be
used to analyze the samples and compute the maximum organic
vapor pressure of the hazardous waste:
652
i) Method 25E (Determination of Vapor Phase Organic
Concentration in Waste Samples) in appendix A to 40 CFR
60
S
, appendix A
S
(Test Methods), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b);
ii) Methods described in
S
American Petroleum Institute
Publication
S
API publication 2517 (Evaporative Loss from
External Floating-Roof Tanks), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a);
iii) Methods obtained from standard reference texts;
iv) ASTM Method D 2879-92 (Standard Test Method for
Vapor Pressure-Temperature Relationship and Initial
Decomposition Temperature of Liquids by Isoteniscope),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a);
or
v) Any other method approved by the Agency.
4) Use of knowledge to determine the maximum organic vapor pressure of
the hazardous waste. Documentation must be prepared and recorded that
presents the information used as the basis for the owner’s or operator’s
knowledge that the maximum organic vapor pressure of the hazardous
waste is less than the maximum vapor pressure limit listed in Section
725.985(b)(1)(A) for the applicable tank design capacity category. An
example of information that may be used is documentation that the
hazardous waste is generated by a process for which at other locations it
previously has been determined by direct measurement that the waste
maximum organic vapor pressure is less than the maximum vapor pressure
limit for the appropriate tank design capacity category.
d) The procedure for determining no detectable organic emissions for the purpose of
complying with this Subpart CC is as follows:
1) The test must be conducted in accordance with the procedures specified in
Method 21 (Determination of Volatile Organic Compound Leaks) of
appendix A to 40 CFR 60
S
, appendix A
S
(Test Methods), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b). Each potential leak interface
(i.e., a location where organic vapor leakage could occur) on the cover and
associated closure devices must be checked. Potential leak interfaces that
are associated with covers and closure devices include, but are not limited
to, any of the following: the interface of the cover and its foundation
mounting, the periphery of any opening on the cover and its associated
closure device, and the sealing seat interface on a spring-loaded pressure
relief valve.
653
2) The test must be performed when the unit contains a hazardous waste
having an organic concentration representative of the range of
concentrations for the hazardous waste expected to be managed in the
unit. During the test, the cover and closure devices must be secured in the
closed position.
3) The detection instrument must meet the performance criteria of Method 21
S
of 40 CFR 60, appendix A, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b)
S
, except the instrument response factor criteria in Section
3.1.2(a) of Method 21 must be for the average composition of the organic
constituents in the hazardous waste placed in the waste management unit,
not for each individual organic constituent.
4) The detection instrument must be calibrated before use on each day of its
use by the procedures specified in Method 21
S
of 40 CFR 60, appendix A,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
.
5) Calibration gases must be as follows:
A) Zero air (less than 10 ppmv hydrocarbon in air), and
B) A mixture of methane or n-hexane in air at a concentration of
approximately, but less than, 10,000 ppmv methane or n-hexane.
6) The background level must be determined according to the procedures in
Method 21
S
of 40 CFR 60, appendix A, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
.
7) Each potential leak interface must be checked by traversing the instrument
probe around the potential leak interface as close to the interface as
possible, as described in Method 21
S
of 40 CFR 60, appendix A,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
. In the case
when the configuration of the cover or closure device prevents a complete
traverse of the interface, all accessible portions of the interface must be
sampled. In the case when the configuration of the closure device
prevents any sampling at the interface and the device is equipped with an
enclosed extension or horn (e.g., some pressure relief devices), the
instrument probe inlet must be placed at approximately the center of the
exhaust area to the atmosphere.
8) The arithmetic difference between the maximum organic concentration
indicated by the instrument and the background level must be compared
with the value of 500 ppmv except when monitoring a seal around a
rotating shaft that passes through a cover opening, in which case the
comparison must be as specified in subsection (d)(9) of this Section. If
654
the difference is less than 500 ppmv, then the potential leak interface is
determined to operate with no detectable organic emissions.
9) For the seals around a rotating shaft that passes through a cover opening,
the arithmetic difference between the maximum organic concentration
indicated by the instrument and the background level must be compared
with the value of 10,000 ppmw. If the difference is less than 10,000
ppmw, then the potential leak interface is determined to operate with no
detectable organic emissions.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.985 Standards: Tanks
a) The provisions of this Section apply to the control of air pollutant emissions from
tanks for which Section 725.983(b) references the use of this Section for such air
emission control.
b) The owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from each tank subject
to this Section in accordance with the following requirements, as applicable:
1) For a tank that manages hazardous waste that meets all of the conditions
specified in subsections (b)(1)(A) through (b)(1)(C) of this Section, the
owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from the tank in
accordance with the Tank Level 1 controls specified in subsection (c) of
this Section or the Tank Level 2 controls specified in subsection (d) of this
Section.
A) The hazardous waste in the tank has a maximum organic vapor
pressure that is less than the maximum organic vapor pressure
limit for the tank’s design capacity category, as follows:
i) For a tank design capacity equal to or greater than 151 m
P
3
P
(5333 ft
P
3
P
or 39,887 gal), the maximum organic vapor
pressure limit for the tank is 5.2 kPa (0.75 psia or 39 mm
Hg);
ii) For a tank design capacity equal to or greater than 75 m
P
3
P
(2649 ft
P
3
P
or 19,810 gal) but less than 151 m
P
3
P
(5333 ft
P
3
P
or
39,887 gal), the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for
the tank is 27.6 kPa (4.0 psia or 207 mm Hg); or
iii) For a tank design capacity less than 75 m
P
3
P
(2649 ft
P
3
P
or
19,810 gal), the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for
the tank is 76.6 kPa (11.1 psia or 574 mm Hg).
655
B) The hazardous waste in the tank is not heated by the owner or
operator to a temperature that is greater than the temperature at
which the maximum organic vapor pressure of the hazardous waste
is determined for the purpose of complying with subsection
(b)(1)(A) of this Section.
C) The hazardous waste in the tank is not treated by the owner or
operator using a waste stabilization process, as defined in Section
725.981.
2) For a tank that manages hazardous waste that does not meet all of the
conditions specified in subsections (b)(1)(A) through (b)(1)(C) of this
Section, the owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from
the tank by using Tank Level 2 controls in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (d) of this Section. Examples of tanks required
to use Tank Level 2 controls include the following: a tank used for a
waste stabilization process and a tank for which the hazardous waste in the
tank has a maximum organic vapor pressure that is equal to or greater than
the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank’s design capacity
category, as specified in subsection (b)(1)(A) of this Section.
c) An owner or operator controlling air pollutant emissions from a tank using Tank
Level 1 controls must meet the requirements specified in subsections (c)(1)
through (c)(4) of this Section:
1) The owner or operator must determine the maximum organic vapor
pressure for a hazardous waste to be managed in the tank using Tank
Level 1 controls before the first time the hazardous waste is placed in the
tank. The maximum organic vapor pressure must be determined using the
procedures specified in Section 725.984(c). Thereafter, the owner or
operator must perform a new determination whenever changes to the
hazardous waste managed in the tank could potentially cause the
maximum organic vapor pressure to increase to a level that is equal to or
greater than the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank design
capacity category specified in subsection (b)(1)(A) of this Section, as
applicable to the tank.
2) The tank must be equipped with a fixed roof designed to meet the
following specifications:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be designed to form a
continuous barrier over the entire surface area of the hazardous
waste in the tank. The fixed roof may be a separate cover installed
on the tank (e.g., a removable cover mounted on an open-top tank)
or may be an integral part of the tank structural design (e.g., a
horizontal cylindrical tank equipped with a hatch).
656
B) The fixed roof must be installed in such a manner that there are no
visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces between roof
section joints or between the interface of the roof edge and the tank
wall.
C) Either of the following must be true of each opening in the fixed
roof and of any manifold system associated with the fixed roof
must be either:
i) The opening or manifold system is equipped with a closure
device designed to operate so that when the closure device
is secured in the closed position there are no visible cracks,
holes, gaps, or other open spaces in the closure device or
between the perimeter of the opening and the closure
device; or
ii) The opening or manifold system is connected by a closed-
vent system that is vented to a control device. The control
device must remove or destroy organics in the vent stream,
and it must be operating whenever hazardous waste is
managed in the tank, except as provided for in subsection
(c)(2)(E).
D) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be made of suitable
materials that will minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to
the atmosphere, to the extent practical, and which will maintain the
integrity of the fixed roof and closure devices throughout their
intended service life. Factors to be considered when selecting the
materials for and designing the fixed roof and closure devices must
include the following: organic vapor permeability; the effects of
any contact with the hazardous waste or its vapors managed in the
tank; the effects of outdoor exposure to wind, moisture, and
sunlight; and the operating practices used for the tank on which the
fixed roof is installed.
E) The control device operated pursuant to subsection (c)(2)(C) of
this Section needs not remove or destroy organics in the vent
stream under the following conditions:
i) During periods when it is necessary to provide access to the
tank for performing the activities of subsection (c)(2)(E)(ii)
of this Section, venting of the vapor headspace underneath
the fixed roof to the control device is not required, opening
of closure devices is allowed, and removal of the fixed roof
is allowed. Following completion of the activity, the owner
657
or operator must promptly secure the closure device in the
closed position or reinstall the cover, as applicable, and
resume operation of the control device; and
ii) During periods of routine inspection, maintenance, or other
activities needed for normal operations, and for the removal
of accumulated sludge or other residues from the bottom of
the tank.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (c)(2)(E)(i) and (c)(2)(E)(ii) are
derived from 40 CFR 265.985(c)(2)(iii)(B)(1) and (c)(2)(iii)(B)(2),
which the Board has codified here to comport with Illinois
Administrative Code format requirements.
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the fixed roof must be
installed with each closure device secured in the closed position, except as
follows:
A) Opening of closure devices or removal of the fixed roof is allowed
at the following times:
i) To provide access to the tank for performing routine
inspection, maintenance, or other activities needed for
normal operations. Examples of such activities include
those times when a worker needs to open a port to sample
the liquid in the tank, or when a worker needs to open a
hatch to maintain or repair equipment. Following
completion of the activity, the owner or operator must
promptly secure the closure device in the closed position or
reinstall the cover, as applicable, to the tank.
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other residues from the
bottom of tank.
B) Opening of a spring-loaded pressure-vacuum relief valve,
conservation vent, or similar type of pressure relief device that
vents to the atmosphere is allowed during normal operations for
the purpose of maintaining the tank internal pressure in accordance
with the tank design specifications. The device must be designed
to operate with no detectable organic emissions when the device is
secured in the closed position. The settings at which the device
opens must be established so that the device remains in the closed
position whenever the tank internal pressure is within the internal
pressure operating range determined by the owner or operator
based on the tank manufacturer recommendations; applicable
regulations; fire protection and prevention codes; standard
658
engineering codes and practices; or other requirements for the safe
handling of flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous
materials. Examples of normal operating conditions that may
require these devices to open are during those times when the tank
internal pressure exceeds the internal pressure operating range for
the tank as a result of loading operations or diurnal ambient
temperature fluctuations.
C) Opening of a safety device, as defined in Section 725.981, is
allowed at any time conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe
condition.
4) The owner or operator must inspect the air emission control equipment in
accordance with the following requirements.
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be visually inspected
by the owner or operator to check for defects that could result in
air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but are not limited to,
visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the roof sections or between the
roof and the tank wall; broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged
seals or gaskets on closure devices; and broken or missing hatches,
access covers, caps, or other closure devices.
B) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of the
fixed roof and its closure devices on or before the date that the
tank becomes subject to this Section. Thereafter, the owner or
operator must perform the inspections at least once every year,
except under the special conditions provided for in subsection (l)
of this Section.
C) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator must
repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(k) of this Section.
D) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection in
accordance with the requirements specified in Section 725.990(b).
d) An owner or operator controlling air pollutant emissions from a tank using Tank
Level 2 controls must use one of the following tanks:
1) A fixed-roof tank equipped with an internal floating roof in accordance
with the requirements specified in subsection (e) of this Section;
2) A tank equipped with an external floating roof in accordance with the
requirements specified in subsection (f) of this Section;
659
3) A tank vented through a closed-vent system to a control device in
accordance with the requirements specified in subsection (g) of this
Section;
4) A pressure tank designed and operated in accordance with the
requirements specified in subsection (h) of this Section; or
5) A tank located inside an enclosure that is vented through a closed-vent
system to an enclosed combustion control device in accordance with the
requirements specified in subsection (i) of this Section.
e) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions from a tank using a
fixed roof with an internal floating roof must meet the requirements specified in
subsections (e)(1) through (e)(3) of this Section.
1) The tank must be equipped with a fixed roof and an internal floating roof
in accordance with the following requirements:
A) The internal floating roof must be designed to float on the liquid
surface except when the floating roof must be supported by the leg
supports.
B) The internal floating roof must be equipped with a continuous seal
between the wall of the tank and the floating roof edge that meets
either of the following requirements:
i) A single continuous seal that is either a liquid-mounted seal
or a metallic shoe seal, as defined in Section 725.981; or
ii) Two continuous seals mounted one above the other. The
lower seal may be a vapor-mounted seal.
C) The internal floating roof must meet the following specifications:
i) Each opening in a noncontact internal floating roof except
for automatic bleeder vents (vacuum breaker vents) and the
rim space vents is to provide a projection below the liquid
surface;
ii) Each opening in the internal floating roof must be equipped
with a gasketed cover or a gasketed lid except for leg
sleeves, automatic bleeder vents, rim space vents, column
wells, ladder wells, sample wells, and stub drains;
iii) Each penetration of the internal floating roof for the
purpose of sampling must have a slit fabric cover that
660
covers at least 90 percent of the opening;
iv) Each automatic bleeder vent and rim space vent must be
gasketed;
v) Each penetration of the internal floating roof that allows for
passage of a ladder must have a gasketed sliding cover; and
vi) Each penetration of the internal floating roof that allows for
passage of a column supporting the fixed roof must have a
flexible fabric sleeve seal or a gasketed sliding cover.
2) The owner or operator must operate the tank in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) When the floating roof is resting on the leg supports, the process of
filling, emptying, or refilling must be continuous and must be
completed as soon as practical;
B) Automatic bleeder vents are to be set closed at all times when the
roof is floating, except when the roof is being floated off or is
being landed on the leg supports; and
C) Prior to filling the tank, each cover, access hatch, gauge float well
or lid on any opening in the internal floating roof must be bolted or
fastened closed (i.e., no visible gaps). Rim space vents are to be
set to open only when the internal floating roof is not floating or
when the pressure beneath the rim exceeds the manufacturer’s
recommended setting.
3) The owner or operator must inspect the internal floating roof in
accordance with the procedures specified as follows:
A) The floating roof and its closure devices must be visually inspected
by the owner or operator to check for defects that could result in
air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but are not limited to, the
following: when the internal floating roof is not floating on the
surface of the liquid inside the tank; when liquid has accumulated
on top of the internal floating roof; when any portion of the roof
seals have detached from the roof rim; when holes, tears, or other
openings are visible in the seal fabric; when the gaskets no longer
close off the hazardous waste surface from the atmosphere; or
when the slotted membrane has more than 10 percent open area;
B) The owner or operator must inspect the internal floating roof
components as follows, except as provided in subsection (e)(3)(C)
661
of this Section:
i) Visually inspect the internal floating roof components
through openings on the fixed roof (e.g., manholes and roof
hatches) at least once every 12 months after initial fill, and
ii) Visually inspect the internal floating roof, primary seal,
secondary seal (if one is in service), gaskets, slotted
membranes, and sleeve seals (if any) each time the tank is
emptied and degassed and at least once every 10 years;
C) As an alternative to performing the inspections specified in
subsection (e)(3)(B) of this Section for an internal floating roof
equipped with two continuous seals mounted one above the other,
the owner or operator may visually inspect the internal floating
roof, primary and secondary seals, gaskets, slotted membranes, and
sleeve seals (if any) each time the tank is emptied and degassed
and at least every five years;
D) Prior to each inspection required by subsection (e)(3)(B) or
(e)(3)(C) of this Section, the owner or operator must notify the
Agency in advance of each inspection to provide the Agency with
the opportunity to have an observer present during the inspection.
The owner or operator must notify the Agency of the date and
location of the inspection as follows:
i) Prior to each visual inspection of an internal floating roof
in a tank that has been emptied and degassed, written
notification must be prepared and sent by the owner or
operator so that it is received by the Agency at least 30
calendar days before refilling the tank, except when an
inspection is not planned, as provided for in subsection
(e)(3)(D)(ii) of this Section; and
ii) When a visual inspection is not planned and the owner or
operator could not have known about the inspection 30
calendar days before refilling the tank, the owner or
operator must notify the Agency as soon as possible, but no
later than seven calendar days before refilling of the tank.
This notification may be made by telephone and
immediately followed by a written explanation for why the
inspection is unplanned. Alternatively, written notification,
including the explanation for the unplanned inspection,
may be sent so that it is received by the Regional
Administrator at least seven calendar days before refilling
the tank;
662
E) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator must
repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(k) of this Section; and
F) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection in
accordance with the requirements specified in Section 725.990(b).
4) Safety devices, as defined in Section 725.981, may be installed and
operated as necessary on any tank complying with the requirements of this
subsection (e).
f) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions from a tank using an
external floating roof must meet the requirements specified in subsections (f)(1)
through (f)(3) of this Section.
1) The owner or operator must design the external floating roof in
accordance with the following requirements:
A) The external floating roof must be designed to float on the liquid
surface except when the floating roof must be supported by the leg
supports;
B) The floating roof must be equipped with two continuous seals, one
above the other, between the wall of the tank and the roof edge.
The lower seal is referred to as the primary seal, and the upper seal
is referred to as the secondary seal.
i) The primary seal must be a liquid-mounted seal or a
metallic shoe seal, as defined in Section 725.981. The total
area of the gaps between the tank wall and the primary seal
must not exceed 212 square centimeters (cm
P
2
P
) per meter
(10.0 in
P
2
P
per foot) of tank diameter, and the width of any
portion of these gaps must not exceed 3.8 centimeters (cm)
(1.5 inches). If a metallic shoe seal is used for the primary
seal, the metallic shoe seal must be designed so that one
end extends into the liquid in the tank and the other end
extends a vertical distance of at least 61 centimeters (24
inches) above the liquid surface.
ii) The secondary seal must be mounted above the primary
seal and cover the annular space between the floating roof
and the wall of the tank. The total area of the gaps between
the tank wall and the secondary seal must not exceed 21.2
cm
P
2
P
per meter (1.0 in
P
2
P
per foot) of tank diameter, and the
width of any portion of these gaps must not exceed 1.3 cm
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(0.5 inch); and
C) The external floating roof must meet the following specifications:
i) Except for automatic bleeder vents (vacuum breaker vents)
and rim space vents, each opening in a noncontact external
floating roof must provide a projection below the liquid
surface;
ii) Except for automatic bleeder vents, rim space vents, roof
drains, and leg sleeves, each opening in the roof must be
equipped with a gasketed cover, seal, or lid;
iii) Each access hatch and each gauge float well must be
equipped with a cover designed to be bolted or fastened
when the cover is secured in the closed position;
iv) Each automatic bleeder vent and each rim space vent must
be equipped with a gasket;
v) Each roof drain that empties into the liquid managed in the
tank must be equipped with a slotted membrane fabric
cover that covers at least 90 percent of the area of the
opening;
vi) Each unslotted and slotted guide pole well must be
equipped with a gasketed sliding cover or a flexible fabric
sleeve seal;
vii) Each unslotted guide pole must be equipped with a
gasketed cap on the end of the pole;
viii) Each slotted guide pole must be equipped with a gasketed
float or other device that closes off the liquid surface from
the atmosphere; and
ix) Each gauge hatch and each sample well must be equipped
with a gasketed cover.
2) The owner or operator must operate the tank in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) When the floating roof is resting on the leg supports, the process of
filling, emptying, or refilling must be continuous and must be
completed as soon as practical;
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B) Except for automatic bleeder vents, rim space vents, roof drains,
and leg sleeves, each opening in the roof must be secured and
maintained in a closed position at all times except when the
closure device must be open for access;
C) Covers on each access hatch and each gauge float well must be
bolted or fastened when secured in the closed position;
D) Automatic bleeder vents must be set closed at all times when the
roof is floating, except when the roof is being floated off or is
being landed on the leg supports;
E) Rim space vents must be set to open only at those times that the
roof is being floated off the roof leg supports or when the pressure
beneath the rim seal exceeds the manufacturer’s recommended
setting;
F) The cap on the end of each unslotted guide pole must be secured in
the closed position at all times except when measuring the level or
collecting samples of the liquid in the tank;
G) The cover on each gauge hatch or sample well must be secured in
the closed position at all times except when the hatch or well must
be opened for access; and
H) Both the primary seal and the secondary seal must completely
cover the annular space between the external floating roof and the
wall of the tank in a continuous fashion except during inspections.
3) The owner or operator must inspect the external floating roof in
accordance with the procedures specified as follows:
A) The owner or operator must measure the external floating roof seal
gaps in accordance with the following requirements:
i) The owner or operator must perform measurements of gaps
between the tank wall and the primary seal within 60
calendar days after initial operation of the tank following
installation of the floating roof and, thereafter, at least once
every five years;
ii) The owner or operator must perform measurements of gaps
between the tank wall and the secondary seal within 60
calendar days after initial operation of the tank following
installation of the floating roof and, thereafter, at least once
every year;
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iii) If a tank ceases to hold hazardous waste for a period of one
year or more, subsequent introduction of hazardous waste
into the tank must be considered an initial operation for the
purposes of subsections (f)(3)(A)(i) and (f)(3)(A)(ii) of this
Section;
iv) The owner or operator must determine the total surface area
of gaps in the primary seal and in the secondary seal
individually using the procedure set forth in subsection
(f)(4)(D) of this Section;
v) In the event that the seal gap measurements do not conform
to the specifications in subsection (f)(1)(B) of this Section,
the owner or operator must repair the defect in accordance
with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section; and
vi) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the
inspection in accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 725.990(b);
B) The owner or operator must visually inspect the external floating
roof in accordance with the following requirements:
i) The floating roof and its closure devices must be visually
inspected by the owner or operator to check for defects that
could result in air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but
are not limited to any of the following: holes, tears, or
other openings in the rim seal or seal fabric of the floating
roof; a rim seal detached from the floating roof; all or a
portion of the floating roof deck being submerged below
the surface of the liquid in the tank; broken, cracked, or
otherwise damaged seals or gaskets on closure devices; and
broken or missing hatches, access covers, caps, or other
closure devices;
ii) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of
the external floating roof and its closure devices on or
before the date that the tank becomes subject to this
Section. Thereafter, the owner or operator must perform
the inspections at least once every year except for the
special conditions provided for in subsection (l) of this
Section;
iii) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator
must repair the defect in accordance with the requirements
666
of subsection (k) of this Section; and
iv) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the
inspection in accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 725.990(b);
C) Prior to each inspection required by subsection (f)(3)(A) or
(f)(3)(B) of this Section, the owner or operator must notify the
Agency in advance of each inspection to provide the Agency with
the opportunity to have an observer present during the inspection.
The owner or operator must notify the Agency of the date and
location of the inspection as follows:
i) Prior to each inspection to measure external floating roof
seal gaps as required under subsection (f)(3)(A) of this
Section, written notification must be prepared and sent by
the owner or operator so that it is received by the Agency at
least 30 calendar days before the date the measurements are
scheduled to be performed;
ii) Prior to each visual inspection of an external floating roof
in a tank that has been emptied and degassed, written
notification must be prepared and sent by the owner or
operator so that it is received by the Agency at least 30
calendar days before refilling the tank except when an
inspection is not planned, as provided for in subsection
(f)(3)(C)(iii) of this Section; and
iii) When a visual inspection is not planned and the owner or
operator could not have known about the inspection 30
calendar days before refilling the tank, the owner or
operator must notify the Agency as soon as possible, but no
later than seven calendar days before refilling of the tank.
This notification may be made by telephone and
immediately followed by a written explanation for why the
inspection is unplanned. Alternatively, written notification,
including the explanation for the unplanned inspection,
may be sent so that it is received by the Regional
Administrator at least seven calendar days before refilling
the tank;
S
and
S
D) Procedure for determining gaps in the primary seal and in the
secondary seal for the purposes of subsection (f)(3)(A)(iv) of this
Section:
i) The seal gap measurements must be performed at one or
667
more floating roof levels when the roof is floating off the
roof supports;
ii) Seal gaps, if any, must be measured around the entire
perimeter of the floating roof in each place where a 0.32-
cm (¼-inch) diameter uniform probe passes freely (without
forcing or binding against the seal) between the seal and
the wall of the tank and measure the circumferential
distance of each such location;
iii) For a seal gap measured under this subsection (f)(3), the
gap surface area must be determined by using probes of
various widths to measure accurately the actual distance
from the tank wall to the seal and multiplying each such
width by its respective circumferential distance; and
iv) The total gap area must be calculated by adding the gap
surface areas determined for each identified gap location
for the primary seal and the secondary seal individually,
and then dividing the sum for each seal type by the nominal
diameter of the tank. These total gap areas for the primary
seal and secondary seal are then compared to the respective
standards for the seal type, as specified in subsection
(f)(1)(B) of this Section; and
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (f)(3)(D)(i) through (f)(3)(D)(iv) are
derived from 40 CFR 265.1085(f)(3)(i)(D)(1) through
(f)(3)(i)(D)(4), which the Board has codified here to comport with
Illinois Administrative Code format requirements.
4) Safety devices, as defined in Section 725.981, may be installed and
operated as necessary on any tank complying with the requirements of this
subsection (f).
g) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions from a tank by venting
the tank to a control device must meet the requirements specified in subsections
(g)(1) through (g)(3) of this Section.
1) The tank must be covered by a fixed roof and vented directly through a
closed-vent system to a control device in accordance with the following
requirements:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be designed to form a
continuous barrier over the entire surface area of the liquid in the
tank;
668
B) Each opening in the fixed roof not vented to the control device
must be equipped with a closure device. If the pressure in the
vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof is less than atmospheric
pressure when the control device is operating, the closure devices
must be designed to operate so that when the closure device is
secured in the closed position there are no visible cracks, holes,
gaps, or other open spaces in the closure device or between the
perimeter of the cover opening and the closure device. If the
pressure in the vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof is equal
to or greater than atmospheric pressure when the control device is
operating, the closure device must be designed to operate with no
detectable organic emissions;
C) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be made of suitable
materials that will minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to
the atmosphere, to the extent practical, and will maintain the
integrity of the fixed roof and closure devices throughout their
intended service life. Factors to be considered when selecting the
materials for and designing the fixed roof and closure devices must
include the following: organic vapor permeability; the effects of
any contact with the liquid and its vapor managed in the tank; the
effects of outdoor exposure to wind, moisture, and sunlight; and
the operating practices used for the tank on which the fixed roof is
installed; and
D) The closed-vent system and control device must be designed and
operated in accordance with the requirements of Section 725.988.
2) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the fixed roof must be
installed with each closure device secured in the closed position and the
vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof vented to the control device
except as follows:
A) Venting to the control device is not required, and opening of
closure devices or removal of the fixed roof is allowed at the
following times:
i) To provide access to the tank for performing routine
inspection, maintenance, or other activities needed for
normal operations. Examples of such activities include
those times when a worker needs to open a port to sample
liquid in the tank, or when a worker needs to open a hatch
to maintain or repair equipment. Following completion of
the activity, the owner or operator must promptly secure
the closure device in the closed position or reinstall the
cover, as applicable, to the tank; and
669
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other residues from the
bottom of a tank; and
B) Opening of a safety device, as defined in Section 725.981, is
allowed at any time conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe
condition.
3) The owner or operator must inspect and monitor the air emission control
equipment in accordance with the following procedures:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must be visually inspected
by the owner or operator to check for defects that could result in
air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but are not limited to any
of the following: visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the roof sections
or between the roof and the tank wall; broken, cracked, or
otherwise damaged seals or gaskets on closure devices; and broken
or missing hatches, access covers, caps, or other closure devices;
B) The closed-vent system and control device must be inspected and
monitored by the owner or operator in accordance with the
procedures specified in Section 725.988;
C) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of the air
emission control equipment on or before the date that the tank
becomes subject to this Section. Thereafter, the owner or operator
must perform the inspections at least once every year except for
the special conditions provided for in subsection (l) of this Section;
D) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator must
repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(k) of this Section; and
E) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection in
accordance with the requirements specified in Section 725.990(b).
h) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions by using a pressure
tank must meet the following requirements:
1) The tank must be designed not to vent to the atmosphere as a result of
compression of the vapor headspace in the tank during filling of the tank
to its design capacity;
2) All tank openings must be equipped with closure devices designed to
operate with no detectable organic emissions as determined using the
procedure specified in Section 725.984(d); and
670
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the tank must be operated as a
closed-vent system that does not vent to the atmosphere, except under
either of the following two conditions:
A) The tank does not need to be operated as a closed-vent system at
those times when the opening of a safety device, as defined in
Section 725.981, is required to avoid an unsafe condition; and
B) The tank does not need to be operated as a closed-vent system at
those times when the purging of inerts from the tank is required and
the purge stream is routed to a closed-vent system and control device
designed and operated in accordance with the requirements of
Section 724.987.
i) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions by using an enclosure
vented through a closed-vent system to an enclosed combustion control device
must meet the requirements specified in subsections (i)(1) through (i)(4) of this
Section.
1) The tank must be located inside an enclosure. The enclosure must be
designed and operated in accordance with the criteria for a permanent total
enclosure, as specified in “Procedure T—Criteria for and Verification of a
Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure” under appendix B to 40 CFR
52.741
S
, appendix B
S
(VOM Measurement Techniques for Capture
Efficiency), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
The enclosure may have permanent or temporary openings to allow
worker access; passage of material into or out of the enclosure by
conveyor, vehicles, or other mechanical means; entry of permanent
mechanical or electrical equipment; or direct airflow into the enclosure.
The owner or operator must perform the verification procedure for the
enclosure as specified in Section 5.0 to “Procedure T—Criteria for and
Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure” initially when
the enclosure is first installed and, thereafter, annually;
2) The enclosure must be vented through a closed-vent system to an enclosed
combustion control device that is designed and operated in accordance
with the standards for either a vapor incinerator, boiler, or process heater
specified in Section 725.988;
3) Safety devices, as defined in Section 725.981, may be installed and
operated as necessary on any enclosure, closed-vent system, or control
device used to comply with the requirements of subsections (i)(1) and
(i)(2) of this Section; and
4) The owner or operator must inspect and monitor the closed-vent system
671
and control device, as specified in Section 725.988.
j) The owner or operator must transfer hazardous waste to a tank subject to this
Section in accordance with the following requirements:
1) Transfer of hazardous waste, except as provided in subsection (j)(2) of this
Section, to the tank from another tank subject to this Section or from a
surface impoundment subject to Section 725.986 must be conducted using
continuous hard-piping or another closed system that does not allow
exposure of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere. For the purpose of
complying with this provision, an individual drain system is considered to
be a closed system when it meets the requirements of subpart RR of 40
CFR 63
S
,
S
S
“
S
(National Emission Standards for Individual Drain Systems),
S
”
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b); and
2) The requirements of subsection (j)(1) of this Section do not apply when
transferring a hazardous waste to the tank under any of the following
conditions:
A) The hazardous waste meets the average VO concentration
conditions specified in Section 725.983(c)(1) at the point of waste
origination;
B) The hazardous waste has been treated by an organic destruction or
removal process to meet the requirements in Section
725.983(c)(2); and
C) The hazardous waste meets the requirements of Section
725.983(c)(4).
k) The owner or operator must repair each defect detected during an inspection
performed in accordance with the requirements of subsection (c)(4), (e)(3), (f)(3),
or (g)(3) of this Section as follows:
1) The owner or operator must make first efforts at repair of the defect no
later than five calendar days after detection, and repair must be completed
as soon as possible but no later than 45 calendar days after detection
except as provided in subsection (k)(2) of this Section; and
2) Repair of a defect may be delayed beyond 45 calendar days if the owner
or operator determines that repair of the defect requires emptying or
temporary removal from service of the tank and no alternative tank
capacity is available at the site to accept the hazardous waste normally
managed in the tank. In this case, the owner or operator must repair the
defect the next time the process or unit that is generating the hazardous
waste managed in the tank stops operation. Repair of the defect must be
672
completed before the process or unit resumes operation.
l) Following the initial inspection and monitoring of the cover as required by the
applicable provisions of this Subpart CC, subsequent inspection and monitoring
may be performed at intervals longer than one year under the following special
conditions:
1) Where inspecting or monitoring the cover would expose a worker to
dangerous, hazardous, or other unsafe conditions, then the owner or
operator may designate a cover as an “unsafe to inspect and monitor
cover” and comply with all of the following requirements:
A) Prepare a written explanation for the cover stating the reasons why
the cover is unsafe to visually inspect or to monitor, if required;
and
B) Develop and implement a written plan and schedule to inspect and
monitor the cover, using the procedures specified in the applicable
Section of this Subpart CC, as frequently as practicable during
those times when a worker can safely access the cover; and
2) In the case when a tank is buried partially or entirely underground, an
owner or operator is required to inspect and monitor, as required by the
applicable provisions of this Section, only those portions of the tank cover
and those connections to the tank (e.g., fill ports, access hatches, gauge
wells, etc.) that are located on or above the ground surface.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.986 Standards: Surface Impoundments
a) The provisions of this Section apply to the control of air pollutant emissions from
surface impoundments for which Section 725.983(b) of this Subpart CC
references the use of this Section for such air emission control.
b) The owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from the surface
impoundment by installing and operating either of the following:
1) A floating membrane cover in accordance with the provisions specified in
subsection (c) of this Section; or
2) A cover that is vented through a closed-vent system to a control device in
accordance with the requirements specified in subsection (d) of this
Section.
c) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions from a surface
673
impoundment using a floating membrane cover must meet the requirements
specified in subsections (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this Section.
1) The surface impoundment must be equipped with a floating membrane
cover designed to meet the following specifications:
A) The floating membrane cover must be designed to float on the
liquid surface during normal operations and form a continuous
barrier over the entire surface area of the liquid;
B) The cover must be fabricated from a synthetic membrane material
that is either of the following:
i) High density polyethylene (HDPE) with a thickness no less
than 2.5 millimeters (mm) (0.10 inch); or
ii) A material or a composite of different materials determined
to have both organic permeability properties that are
equivalent to those of the material listed in subsection
(c)(1)(B)(i) of this Section and chemical and physical
properties that maintain the material integrity for the
intended service life of the material;
C) The cover must be installed in a manner such that there are no
visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces between cover
section seams or between the interface of the cover edge and its
foundation mountings;
D) Except as provided for in subsection (c)(1)(E) of this Section, each
opening in the floating membrane cover must be equipped with a
closure device so designed as to operate that when the closure
device is secured in the closed position there are no visible cracks,
holes, gaps, or other open spaces in the closure device or between
the perimeter of the cover opening and the closure device;
E) The floating membrane cover may be equipped with one or more
emergency cover drains for removal of stormwater. Each
emergency cover drain must be equipped with a slotted membrane
fabric cover that covers at least 90 percent of the area of the
opening or a flexible fabric sleeve seal; and
F) The closure devices must be made of suitable materials that will
minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere, to
the extent practical, and will maintain the integrity of the closure
devices throughout their intended service life. Factors to be
considered when selecting the materials of construction and
674
designing the cover and closure devices must include the
following: the organic vapor permeability; the effects of any
contact with the liquid and its vapor managed in the surface
impoundment; the effects of outdoor exposure to wind, moisture,
and sunlight; and the operating practices used for the surface
impoundment on which the floating membrane cover is installed.
2) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the surface impoundment, the floating
membrane cover must float on the liquid and each closure device must be
secured in the closed position, except as follows:
A) Opening of closure devices or removal of the cover is allowed at
the following times:
i) To provide access to the surface impoundment for
performing routine inspection, maintenance, or other
activities needed for normal operations. Examples of such
activities include those times when a worker needs to open
a port to sample the liquid in the surface impoundment, or
when a worker needs to open a hatch to maintain or repair
equipment. Following completion of the activity, the
owner or operator must promptly replace the cover and
secure the closure device in the closed position, as
applicable; or
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other residues from the
bottom of surface impoundment; and
B) Opening of a safety device, as defined in Section 725.981, is
allowed at any time conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe
condition.
3) The owner or operator must inspect the floating membrane cover in
accordance with the following procedures:
A) The floating membrane cover and its closure devices must be
visually inspected by the owner or operator to check for defects
that could result in air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but
are not limited to, visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the cover section
seams or between the interface of the cover edge and its foundation
mountings; broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged seals or gaskets
on closure devices; and broken or missing hatches, access covers,
caps, or other closure devices;
B) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of the
floating membrane cover and its closure devices on or before the
675
date that the surface impoundment becomes subject to this Section.
Thereafter, the owner or operator must perform the inspections at
least once every year except for the special conditions provided for
in subsection (g) of this Section;
C) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator must
repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(f) of this Section; and
D) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection in
accordance with the requirements specified in Section 725.990(c).
d) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant emissions from a surface
impoundment using a cover vented to a control device must meet the
requirements specified in subsections (d)(1) through (d)(3) of this Section.
1) The surface impoundment must be covered by a cover and vented directly
through a closed-vent system to a control device in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) The cover and its closure devices must be designed to form a
continuous barrier over the entire surface area of the liquid in the
surface impoundment;
B) Each opening in the cover not vented to the control device must be
equipped with a closure device. If the pressure in the vapor
headspace underneath the cover is less than atmospheric pressure
when the control device is operating, the closure devices must be
designed to operate such that when the closure device is secured in
the closed position there are no visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other
open spaces in the closure device or between the perimeter of the
cover opening and the closure device. If the pressure in the vapor
headspace underneath the cover is equal to or greater than
atmospheric pressure when the control device is operating, the
closure device must be designed to operate with no detectable
organic emissions using the procedure specified in Section
725.984(d);
C) The cover and its closure devices must be made of suitable
materials that will minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to
the atmosphere to the extent practical and which will maintain the
integrity of the cover and closure devices throughout their intended
service life. Factors to be considered when selecting the materials
of construction and designing the cover and closure devices must
include the following: the organic vapor permeability; the effects
of any contact with the liquid or its vapors managed in the surface
676
impoundment; the effects of outdoor exposure to wind, moisture,
and sunlight; and the operating practices used for the surface
impoundment on which the cover is installed; and
D) The closed-vent system and control device must be designed and
operated in accordance with the requirements of Section 725.988.
2) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the surface impoundment, the cover
must be installed with each closure device secured in the closed position
and the vapor headspace underneath the cover vented to the control
device, except as follows:
A) Venting to the control device is not required, and opening of
closure devices or removal of the cover is allowed at the following
times:
i) To provide access to the surface impoundment for
performing routine inspection, maintenance, or other
activities needed for normal operations. Examples of such
activities include those times when a worker needs to open
a port to sample liquid in the surface impoundment, or
when a worker needs to open a hatch to maintain or repair
equipment. Following completion of the activity, the
owner or operator must promptly secure the closure device
in the closed position or reinstall the cover, as applicable,
to the surface impoundment; or
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other residues from the
bottom of the surface impoundment; and
B) Opening of a safety device, as defined in Section 725.981, is
allowed at any time conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe
condition.
3) The owner or operator must inspect and monitor the air emission control
equipment in accordance with the following procedures:
A) The surface impoundment cover and its closure devices must be
visually inspected by the owner or operator to check for defects
that could result in air pollutant emissions. Defects include, but
are not limited to, visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the cover section
seams or between the interface of the cover edge and its foundation
mountings; broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged seals or gaskets
on closure devices; and broken or missing hatches, access covers,
caps, or other closure devices;
677
B) The closed-vent system and control device must be inspected and
monitored by the owner or operator in accordance with the
procedures specified in Section 725.988;
C) The owner or operator must perform an initial inspection of the air
emission control equipment on or before the date that the surface
impoundment becomes subject to this Section. Thereafter, the
owner or operator must perform the inspections at least once every
year except for the special conditions provided for in subsection
(g) of this Section;
D) In the event that a defect is detected, the owner or operator must
repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(f) of this Section; and
E) The owner or operator must maintain a record of the inspection in
accordance with the requirements specified in Section 725.990(c).
e) The owner or operator must transfer hazardous waste to a surface impoundment
subject to this Section in accordance with the following requirements:
1) Transfer of hazardous waste, except as provided in subsection (e)(2) of
this Section, to the surface impoundment from another surface
impoundment subject to this Section or from a tank subject to Section
725.985 must be conducted using continuous hard-piping or another
closed system that does not allow exposure of the waste to the atmosphere.
For the purpose of complying with this provision, an individual drain
system is considered to be a closed system when it meets the requirements
of subpart RR of 40 CFR 63
S
,
S
S
“
S
(National Emission Standards for
Individual Drain Systems),
S
”
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b); and
2) The requirements of subsection (e)(1) of this Section do not apply when
transferring a hazardous waste to the surface impoundment under any of
the following conditions:
A) The hazardous waste meets the average VO concentration
conditions specified in Section 725.983(c)(1) at the point of waste
origination;
B) The hazardous waste has been treated by an organic destruction or
removal process to meet the requirements in Section
725.983(c)(2); or
C) The hazardous waste meets the requirements of Section
725.983(c)(4).
678
f) The owner or operator must repair each defect detected during an inspection
performed in accordance with the requirements of subsection (c)(3) or (d)(3) of
this Section as follows:
1) The owner or operator must make first efforts at repair of the defect no
later than five calendar days after detection, and repair must be completed
as soon as possible but no later than 45 calendar days after detection
except as provided in subsection (f)(2) of this Section; and
2) Repair of a defect may be delayed beyond 45 calendar days if the owner
or operator determines that repair of the defect requires emptying or
temporary removal from service of the surface impoundment and no
alternative capacity is available at the site to accept the hazardous waste
normally managed in the surface impoundment. In this case, the owner or
operator must repair the defect the next time the process or unit that is
generating the hazardous waste managed in the tank stops operation.
Repair of the defect must be completed before the process or unit resumes
operation.
g) Following the initial inspection and monitoring of the cover, as required by the
applicable provisions of this Subpart CC, subsequent inspection and monitoring
may be performed at intervals longer than one year in the case when inspecting or
monitoring the cover would expose a worker to dangerous, hazardous, or other
unsafe conditions. In this case, the owner or operator may designate the cover as
an “unsafe to inspect and monitor cover” and comply with all of the following
requirements:
1) Prepare a written explanation for the cover stating the reasons why the
cover is unsafe to visually inspect or to monitor, if required; and
2) Develop and implement a written plan and schedule to inspect and
monitor the cover using the procedures specified in the applicable Section
of this Subpart CC as frequently as practicable during those times when a
worker can safely access the cover.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.987 Standards: Containers
a) The provisions of this Section apply to the control of air pollutant emissions from
containers for which Section 725.983(b) references the use of this Section for
such air emission control.
b) General requirements.
679
1) The owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from each
container subject to this Section in accordance with the following
requirements, as applicable to the container, except when the following
special provisions for waste stabilization processes specified in subsection
(b)(2) of this Section apply to the container:
A) For a container having a design capacity greater than 0.1 m
P
3
P
(26
gal) and less than or equal to 0.46 m
P
3
P
(120 gal), the owner or
operator must control air pollutant emissions from the container in
accordance with the Container Level 1 standards specified in
subsection (c) of this Section;
B) For a container having a design capacity greater than 0.46 m
P
3
P
(120
gal) that is not in light material service, the owner or operator must
control air pollutant emissions from the container in accordance
with the Container Level 1 standards specified in subsection (c) of
this Section; and
C) For a container having a design capacity greater than 0.46 m
P
3
P
(120
gal) that is in light material service, the owner or operator must
control air pollutant emissions from the container in accordance
with the Container Level 2 standards specified in subsection (d) of
this Section.
2) When a container having a design capacity greater than 0.1 m
P
3
P
(26 gal) is
used for treatment of a hazardous waste by a waste stabilization process,
the owner or operator must control air pollutant emissions from the
container in accordance with the Container Level 3 standards specified in
subsection (e) of this Section at those times during the waste stabilization
process when the hazardous waste in the container is exposed to the
atmosphere.
c) Container Level 1 standards.
1) A container using Container Level 1 controls is one of the following:
A) A container that meets the applicable USDOT regulations on
packaging hazardous materials for transportation, as specified in
subsection (f) of this Section;
B) A container equipped with a cover and closure devices that form a
continuous barrier over the container openings so that when the
cover and closure devices are secured in the closed position there
are no visible holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the interior of
the container. The cover may be a separate cover installed on the
container (e.g., a lid on a drum or a suitably secured tarp on a roll-
680
off box) or may be an integral part of the container structural
design (e.g., a “portable tank” or bulk cargo container equipped
with a screw-type cap); and
C) An open-top container in which an organic-vapor suppressing
barrier is placed on or over the hazardous waste in the container so
that no hazardous waste is exposed to the atmosphere. One
example of such a barrier is application of a suitable organic-vapor
suppressing foam.
2) A container used to meet the requirements of subsection (c)(1)(B) or
(c)(1)(C) of this Section must be equipped with covers and closure
devices, as applicable to the container, that are composed of suitable
materials to minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere
and to maintain the equipment integrity for as long as it is in service.
Factors to be considered in selecting the materials of construction and
designing the cover and closure devices must include the following: the
organic vapor permeability; the effects of contact with the hazardous
waste or its vapor managed in the container; the effects of outdoor
exposure of the closure device or cover material to wind, moisture, and
sunlight; and the operating practices for which the container is intended to
be used.
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in a container using Container Level 1
controls, the owner or operator must install all covers and closure devices
for the container, as applicable to the container, and secure and maintain
each closure device in the closed position except as follows:
A) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of
adding hazardous waste or other material to the container, as
follows:
i) In the case when the container is filled to the intended final
level in one continuous operation, the owner or operator
must promptly secure the closure devices in the closed
position and install the covers, as applicable to the
container, upon conclusion of the filling operation; and
ii) In the case when discrete quantities or batches of material
intermittently are added to the container over a period of
time, the owner or operator must promptly secure the
closure devices in the closed position and install covers, as
applicable to the container, upon either the container being
filled to the intended final level; the completion of a batch
loading after which no additional material will be added to
the container within 15 minutes; the person performing the
681
loading operation leaving the immediate vicinity of the
container; or the shutdown of the process generating the
material being added to the container, whichever condition
occurs first;
B) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of
removing hazardous waste from the container as follows:
i) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of this
Section, an empty container, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.107(b), may be open to the atmosphere at any
time (i.e., covers and closure devices are not required to be
secured in the closed position on an empty container); and
ii) In the case when discrete quantities or batches of material
are removed from the container but the container does not
meet the conditions to be an empty container, as defined in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.107(b), the owner or operator must
promptly secure the closure devices in the closed position
and install covers, as applicable to the container, upon the
completion of a batch removal after which no additional
material will be removed from the container within 15
minutes or the person performing the unloading operation
leaves the immediate vicinity of the container, whichever
condition occurs first;
C) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed when access inside
the container is needed to perform routine activities other than
transfer of hazardous waste. Examples of such activities include
those times when a worker needs to open a port to measure the
depth of or sample the material in the container, or when a worker
needs to open a manhole hatch to access equipment inside the
container. Following completion of the activity, the owner or
operator must promptly secure the closure device in the closed
position or reinstall the cover, as applicable to the container;
D) Opening of a spring-loaded, pressure-vacuum relief valve,
conservation vent, or similar type of pressure relief device that
vents to the atmosphere is allowed during normal operations for
the purpose of maintaining the container internal pressure in
accordance with the design specifications of the container. The
device must be designed to operate with no detectable organic
emissions when the device is secured in the closed position. The
settings at which the device opens must be established so that the
device remains in the closed position whenever the internal
pressure of the container is within the internal pressure operating
682
range determined by the owner or operator based on container
manufacturer recommendations, applicable regulations, fire
protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes and
practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of
flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
Examples of normal operating conditions that may require these
devices to open are during those times when the internal pressure
of the container exceeds the internal pressure operating range for
the container as a result of loading operations or diurnal ambient
temperature fluctuations; and
E) Opening of a safety device, as defined in Section 725.981, is
allowed at any time conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe
condition.
4) The owner or operator of containers using Container Level 1 controls must
inspect the containers and their covers and closure devices as follows:
A) In the case when a hazardous waste already is in the container at
the time the owner or operator first accepts possession of the
container at the facility and the container is not emptied within 24
hours after the container is accepted at the facility (i.e., it does not
meet the conditions for an empty container as specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.107(b)), the owner or operator must visually
inspect the container and its cover and closure devices to check for
visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the interior of
the container when the cover and closure devices are secured in the
closed position. The container visual inspection must be
conducted on or before the date on which the container is accepted
at the facility (i.e., the date when the container becomes subject to
the Subpart CC container standards). For the purposes of this
requirement, the date of acceptance is the date of signature that the
facility owner or operator enters on Item 20 of the Uniform
Hazardous Waste Manifest
S
incorporated by reference in Appendix
A to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722
S
, as set forth in the appendix to 40 CFR
262 (
S
USEPA
S
Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest and Instructions
(EPA Forms 8700-22 and
S
8700-22A
S
8700–22a and Their
Instructions)), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b), as required under Section 725.171. If a defect is
detected, the owner or operator must repair the defect in
accordance with the requirements of subsection (c)(4)(C) of this
Section;
B) In the case when a container used for managing hazardous waste
remains at the facility for a period of one year or more, the owner
or operator must visually inspect the container and its cover and
683
closure devices initially and thereafter, at least once every 12
months, to check for visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open
spaces into the interior of the container when the cover and closure
devices are secured in the closed position. If a defect is detected,
the owner or operator must repair the defect in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (c)(4)(C) of this Section; and
C) When a defect is detected in the container, cover, or closure
devices, the owner or operator must make first efforts at repair of
the defect no later than 24 hours after detection, and repair must be
completed as soon as possible but no later than five calendar days
after detection. If repair of a defect cannot be completed within
five calendar days, then the hazardous waste must be removed
from the container and the container must not be used to manage
hazardous waste until the defect is repaired.
5) The owner or operator must maintain at the facility a copy of the
procedure used to determine that containers with capacity of 0.46 m
P
3
P
(120
gal) or greater which do not meet applicable USDOT regulations, as
specified in subsection (f) of this Section, are not managing hazardous
waste in light material service.
d) Container Level 2 standards.
1) A container using Container Level 2 controls is one of the following:
A) A container that meets the applicable USDOT regulations on
packaging hazardous materials for transportation as specified in
subsection (f) of this Section;
B) A container that operates with no detectable organic emissions, as
defined in Section 725.981, and determined in accordance with the
procedure specified in subsection (g) of this Section; and
C) A container that has been demonstrated within the preceding 12
months to be vapor-tight by using Method 27 (Determination of
Vapor Tightness of Gasoline Delivery Tank Using Pressure-
Vacuum Test) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60
S
, appendix A, Method
27
S
(Test Methods), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b), in accordance with the procedure specified in
subsection (h) of this Section.
2) Transfer of hazardous waste into or out of a container using Container
Level 2 controls must be conducted in such a manner as to minimize
exposure of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere, to the extent practical,
considering the physical properties of the hazardous waste and good
684
engineering and safety practices for handling flammable, ignitable,
explosive, reactive or other hazardous materials. Examples of container
loading procedures that the USEPA considers to meet the requirements of
this subsection (d)(2) include using any one of the following: a
submerged-fill pipe or other submerged-fill method to load liquids into the
container; a vapor-balancing system or a vapor-recovery system to collect
and control the vapors displaced from the container during filling
operations; or a fitted opening in the top of a container through which the
hazardous waste is filled and subsequently purging the transfer line before
removing it from the container opening.
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in a container using Container Level 2
controls, the owner or operator must install all covers and closure devices
for the container, and secure and maintain each closure device in the
closed position, except as follows:
A) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of
adding hazardous waste or other material to the container as
follows:
i) In the case when the container is filled to the intended final
level in one continuous operation, the owner or operator
must promptly secure the closure devices in the closed
position and install the covers, as applicable to the
container, upon conclusion of the filling operation; and
ii) In the case when discrete quantities or batches of material
intermittently are added to the container over a period of
time, the owner or operator must promptly secure the
closure devices in the closed position and install covers, as
applicable to the container, upon either the container being
filled to the intended final level; the completion of a batch
loading after which no additional material will be added to
the container within 15 minutes; the person performing the
loading operation leaving the immediate vicinity of the
container; or the shutdown of the process generating the
material being added to the container, whichever condition
occurs first;
B) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of
removing hazardous waste from the container as follows:
i) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of this
Section, an empty container as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.107(b) may be open to the atmosphere at any
time (i.e., covers and closure devices are not required to be
685
secured in the closed position on an empty container); and
ii) In the case when discrete quantities or batches of material
are removed from the container but the container does not
meet the conditions to be an empty container as defined in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.107(b), the owner or operator must
promptly secure the closure devices in the closed position
and install covers, as applicable to the container, upon the
completion of a batch removal after which no additional
material will be removed from the container within 15
minutes or the person performing the unloading operation
leaves the immediate vicinity of the container, whichever
condition occurs first;
C) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed when access inside
the container is needed to perform routine activities other than
transfer of hazardous waste. Examples of such activities include
those times when a worker needs to open a port to measure the
depth of or sample the material in the container, or when a worker
needs to open a manhole hatch to access equipment inside the
container. Following completion of the activity, the owner or
operator must promptly secure the closure device in the closed
position or reinstall the cover, as applicable to the container;
D) Opening of a spring-loaded, pressure-vacuum relief valve,
conservation vent, or similar type of pressure relief device that
vents to the atmosphere is allowed during normal operations for
the purpose of maintaining the internal pressure of the container in
accordance with the container design specifications. The device
must be designed to operate with no detectable organic emission
when the device is secured in the closed position. The settings at
which the device opens must be established so that the device
remains in the closed position whenever the internal pressure of
the container is within the internal pressure operating range
determined by the owner or operator based on container
manufacturer recommendations, applicable regulations, fire
protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes and
practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of
flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
Examples of normal operating conditions that may require these
devices to open are during those times when the internal pressure
of the container exceeds the internal pressure operating range for
the container as a result of loading operations or diurnal ambient
temperature fluctuations; and
E) Opening of a safety device, as defined in Section 725.981, is
686
allowed at any time conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe
condition.
4) The owner or operator of containers using Container Level 2 controls must
inspect the containers and their covers and closure devices as follows:
A) In the case when a hazardous waste already is in the container at
the time the owner or operator first accepts possession of the
container at the facility and the container is not emptied within 24
hours after the container is accepted at the facility (i.e., it does not
meet the conditions for an empty container as specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.107(b)), the owner or operator must visually
inspect the container and its cover and closure devices to check for
visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the interior of
the container when the cover and closure devices are secured in the
closed position. The container visual inspection must be
conducted on or before the date on which the container is accepted
at the facility (i.e., the date when the container becomes subject to
the Subpart CC container standards). For the purposes of this
requirement, the date of acceptance is the date of signature that the
facility owner or operator enters on Item 20 of the Uniform
Hazardous Waste Manifest, in the appendix to 40 CFR 262
S
incorporated by reference in Appendix A to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722
S
(Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest and Instructions (USEPA
Forms 8700-22 and
S
8700-22A
S
8700-22a and Their Instructions)),
as required under Section 725.171. If a defect is detected, the
owner or operator must repair the defect in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (d)(4)(C) of this Section;
B) In the case when a container used for managing hazardous waste
remains at the facility for a period of one year or more, the owner
or operator must visually inspect the container and its cover and
closure devices initially and thereafter, at least once every 12
months, to check for visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open
spaces into the interior of the container when the cover and closure
devices are secured in the closed position. If a defect is detected,
the owner or operator must repair the defect in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (d)(4)(C) of this Section; and
C) When a defect is detected in the container, cover, or closure
devices, the owner or operator must make first efforts at repair of
the defect no later than 24 hours after detection, and repair must be
completed as soon as possible but no later than five calendar days
after detection. If repair of a defect cannot be completed within
five calendar days, then the hazardous waste must be removed
from the container and the container must not be used to manage
687
hazardous waste until the defect is repaired.
e) Container Level 3 standards.
1) A container using Container Level 3 controls is one of the following:
A) A container that is vented directly through a closed-vent system to
a control device in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(e)(2)(B) of this Section; or
B) A container that is vented inside an enclosure that is exhausted
through a closed-vent system to a control device in accordance
with the requirements of subsections (e)(2)(A) and (e)(2)(B) of this
Section.
2) The owner or operator must meet the following requirements, as
applicable to the type of air emission control equipment selected by the
owner or operator:
A) The container enclosure must be designed and operated in
accordance with the criteria for a permanent total enclosure, as
specified in “Procedure T—Criteria for and Verification of a
Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure” under appendix B to 40
CFR 52.741
S
, appendix B, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(b)
S
(VOM Measurement Techniques for Capture
Efficiency). The enclosure may have permanent or temporary
openings to allow worker access; passage of containers through the
enclosure by conveyor or other mechanical means; entry of
permanent mechanical or electrical equipment; or direct airflow
into the enclosure. The owner or operator must perform the
verification procedure for the enclosure, as specified in Section 5.0
to “Procedure T—Criteria for and Verification of a Permanent or
Temporary Total Enclosure” initially when the enclosure is first
installed and, thereafter, annually; and
B) The closed-vent system and control device must be designed and
operated in accordance with the requirements of Section 725.988.
3) Safety devices, as defined in Section 725.981, may be installed and
operated as necessary on any container, enclosure, closed-vent system, or
control device used to comply with the requirements of subsection (e)(1)
of this Section.
4) Owners and operators using Container Level 3 controls in accordance with
the provisions of this Subpart CC must inspect and monitor the closed-
vent systems and control devices, as specified in Section 725.988.
688
5) Owners and operators that use Container Level 3 controls in accordance
with the provisions of this Subpart CC must prepare and maintain the
records specified in Section 725.990(d).
6) The transfer of hazardous waste into or out of a container using Container
Level 3 controls must be conducted in such a manner as to minimize
exposure of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere, to the extent practical
considering the physical properties of the hazardous waste and good
engineering and safety practices for handling flammable, ignitable,
explosive, reactive, or other hazardous materials. Examples of container
loading procedures that USEPA considers to meet the requirements of this
subsection (e)(6) include using any one of the following: the use of a
submerged-fill pipe or other submerged-fill method to load liquids into the
container; the use of a vapor-balancing system or a vapor-recovery system
to collect and control the vapors displaced from the container during filling
operations; or the use of a fitted opening in the top of a container through
which the hazardous waste is filled and subsequently purging the transfer
line before removing it from the container opening.
f) For the purpose of compliance with subsection (c)(1)(A) or (d)(1)(A) of this
Section, containers must be used that meet the applicable USDOT regulations on
packaging hazardous materials for transportation as follows:
1) The container meets the applicable requirements specified by USDOT in
49 CFR 178
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Specifications for Packaging),
S
”
S
or 49 CFR 179
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Specifications for Tank Cars),
S
”
S
S
both
S
each incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b);
2) Hazardous waste is managed in the container in accordance with the
applicable requirements specified by USDOT in subpart B of 49 CFR 107
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Exemptions
S
”;
S
), 49 CFR 172
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Hazardous Materials Table, Special
Provisions, Hazardous Materials Communications, Emergency Response
Information, and Training Requirements
S
”;
S
), 49 CFR 173
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Shippers—
General Requirements for Shipments and Packages
S
”;
S
), and 49 CFR 180
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Continuing Qualification and Maintenance of Packagings),
S
”
S
each
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b);
3) For the purpose of complying with this Subpart CC, no exceptions to the
federal 49 CFR 178 or 179 regulations are allowed, except as provided for
in subsection (f)(4) of this Section; and
4) For a lab pack that is managed in accordance with the USDOT
requirements of 49 CFR 178 (Specifications for Packagings) for the
purpose of complying with this Subpart CC, an owner or operator may
comply with the exceptions for combination packagings specified by
689
USDOT in 49 CFR 173.12(b) (Exceptions for Shipments of Waste
Materials), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
g) To determine compliance with the no detectable organic emissions requirements
of subsection (d)(1)(B) of this Section, the procedure specified in Section
725.984(d) must be used.
1) Each potential leak interface (i.e., a location where organic vapor leakage
could occur) on the container, its cover, and associated closure devices, as
applicable to the container, must be checked. Potential leak interfaces that
are associated with containers include, but are not limited to: the interface
of the cover rim and the container wall; the periphery of any opening on
the container or container cover and its associated closure device; and the
sealing seat interface on a spring-loaded pressure-relief valve.
2) The test must be performed when the container is filled with a material
having a volatile organic concentration representative of the range of
volatile organic concentrations for the hazardous wastes expected to be
managed in this type of container. During the test, the container cover and
closure devices must be secured in the closed position.
h) The procedure for determining a container to be vapor-tight using Method 27
S
of
40 CFR 60, appendix A
S
for the purpose of complying with subsection (d)(1)(C) of
this Section is as follows:
1) The test must be performed in accordance with Method 27
S
of 40 CFR 60,
appendix A, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
;
2) A pressure measurement device must be used that has a precision of ±2.5
mm (0.10 inch) water and that is capable of measuring above the pressure
at which the container is to be tested for vapor tightness; and
3) If the test results determined by Method 27 indicate that the container
sustains a pressure change less than or equal to 750 Pascals (0.11 psig)
within five minutes after it is pressurized to a minimum of 4,500 Pascals
(0.65 psig), then the container is determined to be vapor-tight.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.990 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Each owner or operator of a facility subject to the requirements in this Subpart
CC must record and maintain the information specified in subsections (b) through
(j) of this Section, as applicable to the facility. Except for air emission control
equipment design documentation and information required by subsection (j) of
this Section, records required by this Section must be maintained in the operating
690
record for a minimum of three years. Air emission control equipment design
documentation must be maintained in the operating record until the air emission
control equipment is replaced or is otherwise no longer in service. Information
required by subsections (i) and (j) of this Section must be maintained in the
operating record for as long as the waste management unit is not using air
emission controls specified in Sections 725.985 through 725.988, in accordance
with the conditions specified in Section 725.980(d) or (b)(7), respectively.
b) The owner or operator of a tank using air emission controls in accordance with
the requirements of Section 725.985 must prepare and maintain records for the
tank that include the following information:
1) For each tank using air emission controls in accordance with the
requirements of Section 725.985 of this Subpart CC, the owner or operator
must record the following information:
A) A tank identification number (or other unique identification
description as selected by the owner or operator); and
B) A record for each inspection required by Section 725.985 that
includes the following information:
i) Date inspection was conducted; and
ii) For each defect detected during the inspection, the location
of the defect, a description of the defect, the date of
detection, and corrective action taken to repair the defect.
In the event that repair of the defect is delayed in
accordance with the provisions of Section 725.985, the
owner or operator must also record the reason for the delay
and the date that completion of repair of the defect is
expected; and
2) In addition to the information required by subsection (b)(1) of this
Section, the owner or operator must record the following information, as
applicable to the tank:
A) The owner or operator using a fixed roof to comply with the Tank
Level 1 control requirements specified in Section 725.985(c) must
prepare and maintain records for each determination for the
maximum organic vapor pressure of the hazardous waste in the
tank performed in accordance with the requirements of Section
725.985(c). The records must include the date and time the
samples were collected, the analysis method used, and the analysis
results;
691
B) The owner or operator using an internal floating roof to comply
with the Tank Level 2 control requirements specified in Section
725.985(e) must prepare and maintain documentation describing
the floating roof design;
C) Owners and operators using an external floating roof to comply
with the Tank Level 2 control requirements specified in Section
725.985(f) must prepare and maintain the following records:
i) Documentation describing the floating roof design and the
dimensions of the tank; and
ii) Records for each seal gap inspection required by Section
725.985(f)(3) describing the results of the seal gap
measurements. The records must include the date that the
measurements were performed, the raw data obtained for
the measurements, and the calculations of the total gap
surface area. In the event that the seal gap measurements
do not conform to the specifications in Section
725.985(f)(1), the records must include a description of the
repairs that were made, the date the repairs were made, and
the date the tank was emptied, if necessary.
D) Each owner or operator using an enclosure to comply with the
Tank Level 2 control requirements specified in Section 725.985(i)
must prepare and maintain the following records:
i) Records for the most recent set of calculations and
measurements performed by the owner or operator to verify
that the enclosure meets the criteria of a permanent total
enclosure as specified in “Procedure T--Criteria for and
Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total Enclosure”
under appendix B to 40 CFR 52.741
S
, appendix B
S
(VOM
Measurement Techniques for Capture Efficiency),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b);
and
ii) Records required for the closed-vent system and control
device in accordance with the requirements of subsection
(e) of this Section.
c) The owner or operator of a surface impoundment using air emission controls in
accordance with the requirements of Section 725.986 must prepare and maintain
records for the surface impoundment that include the following information:
1) A surface impoundment identification number (or other unique
692
identification description as selected by the owner or operator);
2) Documentation describing the floating membrane cover or cover design,
as applicable to the surface impoundment, that includes information
prepared by the owner or operator or provided by the cover manufacturer
or vendor describing the cover design, and certification by the owner or
operator that the cover meets the specifications listed in Section
725.986(c);
3) A record for each inspection required by Section 725.986 that includes the
following information:
A) Date inspection was conducted; and
B) For each defect detected during the inspection the following
information: the location of the defect, a description of the defect,
the date of detection, and corrective action taken to repair the
defect. In the event that repair of the defect is delayed in
accordance with the provisions of Section 725.986(f), the owner or
operator must also record the reason for the delay and the date that
completion of repair of the defect is expected; and
4) For a surface impoundment equipped with a cover and vented through a
closed-vent system to a control device, the owner or operator must prepare
and maintain the records specified in subsection (e) of this Section.
d) The owner or operator of containers using Container Level 3 air emission controls
in accordance with the requirements of Section 725.987 must prepare and
maintain records that include the following information:
1) Records for the most recent set of calculations and measurements
performed by the owner or operator to verify that the enclosure meets the
criteria of a permanent total enclosure as specified in “Procedure T—
Criteria for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total
Enclosure” under appendix B to 40 CFR 52.741
S
, appendix B, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b)
S
(VOM Measurement
Techniques for Capture Efficiency); and
2) Records required for the closed-vent system and control device in
accordance with the requirements of subsection (e) of this Section.
e) The owner or operator using a closed-vent system and control device in
accordance with the requirements of Section 725.988 must prepare and maintain
records that include the following information:
1) Documentation for the closed-vent system and control device that includes
693
the following
S
documentation
S
:
A) Certification that is signed and dated by the owner or operator
stating that the control device is designed to operate at the
performance level documented by a design analysis as specified in
subsection (e)(1)(B) of this Section or by performance tests as
specified in subsection (e)(1)(C) of this Section when the tank,
surface impoundment, or container is or would be operating at
capacity or the highest level reasonably expected to occur;
B) If a design analysis is used, then design documentation, as
specified in Section 725.935(b)(4). The documentation must
include information prepared by the owner or operator or provided
by the control device manufacturer or vendor that describes the
control device design in accordance with Section 725.935(b)(4)(C)
and certification by the owner or operator that the control
equipment meets the applicable specifications;
C) If performance tests are used, then a performance test plan as
specified in Section 725.935(b)(3) and all test results;
D) Information as required by Section 725.935(c)(1) and (c)(2), as
applicable;
E) An owner or operator must record, on a semiannual basis, the
following information for those planned routine maintenance
operations that would require the control device not to meet the
requirements of Section 725.988(c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), or (c)(1)(C),
as applicable:
i) A description of the planned routine maintenance that is
anticipated to be performed for the control device during
the next six-month period. This description must include
the type of maintenance necessary, planned frequency of
maintenance, and lengths of maintenance periods; and
ii) A description of the planned routine maintenance that was
performed for the control device during the previous six-
month period. This description must include the type of
maintenance performed and the total number of hours
during those six months that the control device did not
meet the requirements of Section 725.988(c)(1)(A),
(c)(1)(B), or (c)(1)(C), as applicable, due to planned
routine maintenance;
F) An owner or operator must record the following information for
694
those unexpected control device system malfunctions that would
require the control device not to meet the requirements of Section
725.988(c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), or (c)(1)(C), as applicable:
i) The occurrence and duration of each malfunction of the
control device system;
ii) The duration of each period during a malfunction when
gases, vapors, or fumes are vented from the waste
management unit through the closed-vent system to the
control device while the control device is not properly
functioning; and
iii) Actions taken during periods of malfunction to restore a
malfunctioning control device to its normal or usual
manner of operation; and
G) Records of the management of carbon removed from a carbon
adsorption system conducted in accordance with Section
725.988(c)(3)(B).
f) The owner or operator of a tank, surface impoundment, or container exempted
from standards in accordance with the provisions of Section 725.983(c) must
prepare and maintain the following records, as applicable:
1) For tanks, surface impoundments, or containers exempted under the
hazardous waste organic concentration conditions specified in Section
725.983 (c)(1) or 725.984(c)(2)(A) through (c)(2)(F), the owner or
operator must record the information used for each waste determination
(e.g., test results, measurements, calculations, and other documentation) in
the facility operating log. If analysis results for waste samples are used
for the waste determination, then the owner or operator must record the
date, time, and location that each waste sample is collected in accordance
with the applicable requirements of Section 725.984; and
2) For tanks, surface impoundments, or containers exempted under the
provisions of Section 725.983(c)(2)(G) or (c)(2)(H), the owner or operator
must record the identification number for the incinerator, boiler, or
industrial furnace in which the hazardous waste is treated.
g) An owner or operator designating a cover as “unsafe to inspect and monitor”
pursuant to Section 725.985(l) must record in a log that is kept in the facility
operating record the following information: the identification numbers for waste
management units with covers that are designated as “unsafe to inspect and
monitor,” the explanation for each cover stating why the cover is unsafe to inspect
and monitor, and the plan and schedule for inspecting and monitoring each cover.
695
h) The owner or operator of a facility that is subject to this Subpart CC and to the
control device standards in federal subpart VV of 40 CFR 60 (Standards of
Performance for Equipment Leaks of VOC in the Synthetic Organic Chemicals
Manufacturing Industry), or subpart V of 40 CFR 61 (National Emission Standard
for Equipment Leaks (Fugitive Emission Sources), each incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 270.111, may elect to demonstrate compliance with the
applicable Sections of this Subpart by documentation either pursuant to this
Subpart CC, or pursuant to the provisions of subpart VV of 40 CFR 60 or subpart
V of 40 CFR 61, to the extent that the documentation required by 40 CFR 60 or
61 duplicates the documentation required by this Section.
i) For each tank or container not using air emission controls specified in Sections
725.985 through 725.988 in accordance with the conditions specified in Section
725.980(d), the owner or operator must record and maintain the following
information:
1) A list of the individual organic peroxide compounds manufactured at the
facility that meet the conditions specified in Section 725.980(d)(1);
2) A description of how the hazardous waste containing the organic peroxide
compounds identified pursuant to subsection (i)(1) are managed at the
facility in tanks and containers. This description must include the
following information:
A) For the tanks used at the facility to manage this hazardous waste,
sufficient information must be provided to describe each tank: a
facility identification number for the tank, the purpose and
placement of this tank in the management train of this hazardous
waste, and the procedures used to ultimately dispose of the
hazardous waste managed in the tanks; and
B) For containers used at the facility to manage this hazardous waste,
sufficient information must be provided to describe the following
for each container: a facility identification number for the
container or group of containers; the purpose and placement of this
container or group of containers in the management train of this
hazardous waste; and the procedures used to ultimately dispose of
the hazardous waste handled in the containers; and
3) An explanation of why managing the hazardous waste containing the
organic peroxide compounds identified pursuant to subsection (i)(1) of
this Section in the tanks or containers identified pursuant to subsection
(i)(2) of this Section would create an undue safety hazard if the air
emission controls specified in Sections 725.985 through 725.988 were
installed and operated on these waste management units. This explanation
696
must include the following information:
A) For tanks used at the facility to manage this hazardous waste,
sufficient information must be provided to explain: how use of the
required air emission controls on the tanks would affect the tank
design features and facility operating procedures currently used to
prevent an undue safety hazard during the management of this
hazardous waste in the tanks; and why installation of safety
devices on the required air emission controls, as allowed under this
Subpart CC, would not address those situations in which
evacuation of tanks equipped with these air emission controls is
necessary and consistent with good engineering and safety
practices for handling organic peroxides; and
B) For containers used at the facility to manage this hazardous waste,
sufficient information must be provided to explain: how use of the
required air emission controls on the containers would affect the
container design features and handling procedures currently used
to prevent an undue safety hazard during management of this
hazardous waste in the containers; and why installation of safety
devices on the required air emission controls, as allowed under this
Subpart CC, would not address those situations in which
evacuation of containers equipped with these air emission controls
is necessary and consistent with good engineering and safety
practices for handling organic peroxides.
j) For each hazardous waste management unit not using air emission controls
specified in Sections 725.985 through 725.988 in accordance with the provisions
of Section 725.980(b)(7), the owner and operator must record and maintain the
following information:
1) The certification that the waste management unit is equipped with and
operating air emission controls in accordance with the requirements of an
applicable federal Clean Air Act regulation codified under 40 CFR 60, 61,
or 63; and
2) An identification of the specific federal requirements codified under 40
CFR 60, 61, or 63 with which the waste management unit is in
compliance.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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SUBPART DD: CONTAINMENT BUILDINGS
Section 725.1101 Design and Operating Standards
a) All containment buildings must comply with the following design and operating
standards:
1) The containment building must be completely enclosed with a floor, walls,
and a roof to prevent exposure to the elements (e.g. precipitation, wind,
run on) and to assure containment of managed wastes;
2) The floor and containment walls of the unit, including the secondary
containment system if required under subsection (b) of this Section, must
be designed and constructed of materials of sufficient strength and
thickness to support themselves, the waste contents, and any personnel
and heavy equipment that operate within the unit, and to prevent failure
due to pressure gradients, settlement, compression, or uplift, physical
contact with the hazardous wastes to which they are exposed; climatic
conditions; and the stresses of daily operation, including the movement of
heavy equipment within the unit and contact of such equipment with
containment walls. The unit must be designed so that it has sufficient
structural strength to prevent collapse or other failure. All surfaces to be
in contact with hazardous wastes must be chemically compatible with
those wastes. The containment building must meet the structural integrity
requirements established by professional organizations generally
recognized by the industry such as the American Concrete Institute [ACI]
and the American Society of Testing Materials [ASTM]. If appropriate to
the nature of the waste management operation to take place in the unit, an
exception to the structural strength requirement may be made for light-
weight doors and windows that meet these criteria:
A) They provide an effective barrier against fugitive dust emissions
under subsection (c)(1)(D) of this Section; and
B) The unit is designed and operated in a fashion that assures that
wastes will not actually come in contact with these openings;
3) Incompatible hazardous wastes or treatment reagents must not be placed
in the unit or its secondary containment system if they could cause the unit
or secondary containment system to leak, corrode, or otherwise fail; and
4) A containment building must have a primary barrier designed to withstand
the movement of personnel, waste, and handling equipment in the unit
during the operating life of the unit and appropriate for the physical and
chemical characteristics of the waste to be managed.
698
b) For a containment building used to manage hazardous wastes containing free
liquids or treated with free liquids (the presence of which is determined by the
paint filter test, a visual examination, or other appropriate means), the owner or
operator must include the following design features:
1) A primary barrier designed and constructed of materials to prevent the
migration of hazardous constituents into the barrier (e.g., a geomembrane
covered by a concrete wear surface).
2) A liquid collection and removal system to minimize the accumulation of
liquid on the primary barrier of the containment building:
A) The primary barrier must be sloped to drain liquids to the
associated collection system; and
B) Liquids and waste must be collected and removed to minimize
hydraulic head on the containment system at the earliest
practicable time.
3) A secondary containment system including a secondary barrier designed
and constructed to prevent migration of hazardous constituents into the
barrier, and a leak detection system that is capable of detecting failure of
the primary barrier and collecting accumulated hazardous wastes and
liquids at the earliest practicable time.
A) The requirements of the leak detection component of the secondary
containment system are satisfied by installation of a system that is,
at a minimum, as follows:
i) It is constructed with a bottom slope of 1 percent or more;
and
ii) It is constructed of a granular drainage material with a
hydraulic conductivity of 1 x 10
P
-2
P
cm/sec or more and a
thickness of 12 inches (30.5 cm) or more, or constructed of
synthetic or geonet drainage materials with a transmissivity
of 3 x 10
P
-5
P
m
P
2
P
/sec or more.
B) If treatment is to be conducted in the building, an area in which
such treatment will be conducted must be designed to prevent the
release of liquids, wet materials, or liquid aerosols to other
portions of the building.
C) The secondary containment system must be constructed of
materials that are chemically resistant to the waste and liquids
managed in the containment building and of sufficient strength and
699
thickness to prevent collapse under the pressure exerted by
overlaying materials and by any equipment used in the
containment building. (Containment buildings can serve as
secondary containment systems for tanks placed within the
building under certain conditions. A containment building can
serve as an external liner system for a tank, provided it meets the
requirements of Section 725.293(d)(1). In addition, the
containment building must meet the requirements of subsections
725.293(b) and (c) to be an acceptable secondary containment
system for a tank.)
4) For existing units other than 90-day generator units, USEPA may delay
the secondary containment requirement for up to two years, based on a
demonstration by the owner or operator that the unit substantially meets
the standards of this Subpart DD. In making this demonstration, the
owner or operator must do each of the following:
A) Provide written notice to USEPA of their request by November 16,
1992. This notification must describe the unit and its operating
practices with specific reference to the performance of existing
systems, and specific plans for retrofitting the unit with secondary
containment;
B) Respond to any comments from USEPA on these plans within 30
days; and
C) Fulfill the terms of the revised plans, if such plans are approved by
USEPA.
c) Owners or operators of all containment buildings must do each of the following:
1) Use controls and practice to ensure containment of the hazardous waste
within the unit, and at a minimum do each of the following:
A) Maintain the primary barrier to be free of significant cracks, gaps,
corrosion, or other deterioration that could cause hazardous waste
to be released from the primary barrier;
B) Maintain the level of the stored or treated hazardous waste within
the containment walls of the unit so that the height of any
containment wall is not exceeded;
C) Take measures to prevent the tracking of hazardous waste out of
the unit by personnel or by equipment used in handling the waste.
An area must be designated to decontaminate equipment and any
rinsate must be collected and properly managed; and
700
D) Take measures to control fugitive dust emissions such that any
openings (doors, windows, vents, cracks, etc.) exhibit no visible
emissions (see Method 22 (Visual Determination of Fugitive
Emissions from Material Sources and Smoke Emissions from
Flares) in appendix A to 40 CFR 60
S
, appendix A, Method 22
S
(Test
Methods)
S
- Visual Determination of Fugitive Emissions from
Material Sources and Smoke Emissions from Flares)
S
, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b). In addition, all
associated particulate collection devices (e.g., fabric filter,
electrostatic precipitator) must be operated and maintained with
sound air pollution control practices (see 40 CFR 60 for guidance).
This state of no visible emissions must be maintained effectively at
all times during routine operating and maintenance conditions,
including when vehicles and personnel are entering and exiting the
unit;
BOARD NOTE: At 40 CFR 264.1101(c)(1)(iv)
S
(2004)
S
(2005),
USEPA cites “40 CFR part 60, subpart 292.” At 57 Fed. Reg.
37217 (Aug. 18, 1992), USEPA repeats this citation in the
preamble discussion of adoption of the rules. No such provision
exists in the Code of Federal Regulations. While section 40 CFR
60.292 of the federal regulations pertains to control of fugitive dust
emissions, that provision is limited in its application to glass
melting furnaces. The Board has chosen to use the
S
more
S
general
citation: “40 CFR 60.”
2) Obtain certification by a qualified registered professional engineer (PE)
that the containment building design meets the requirements of
subsections (a) through (c) of this Section. For units placed into operation
prior to February 18, 1993, this certification must be placed in the
facility’s operating record (on-site files for generators that are not formally
required to have operating records) no later than 60 days after the date of
initial operation of the unit. After February 18, 1993, PE certification will
be required prior to operation of the unit;
3) Throughout the active life of the containment building, if the owner or
operator detects a condition that could lead to or has caused a release of
hazardous waste, must repair the condition promptly. In addition,
however, the owner or operator must do the following:
A) Upon detection of a condition that has caused to a release of
hazardous wastes (e.g., upon detection of leakage from the primary
barrier) the owner or operator must do the following:
i) Enter a record of the discovery in the facility operating
701
record;
ii) Immediately remove the portion of the containment
building affected by the condition from service;
iii) Determine what steps must be taken to repair the
containment building, remove any leakage from the
secondary collection system, and establish a schedule for
accomplishing the cleanup and repairs; and
iv) Within seven days after the discovery of the condition,
notify the Agency in writing of the condition, and within 14
working days, provide a written notice to the Agency with
a description of the steps taken to repair the containment
building, and the schedule for accomplishing the work;
B) The Agency must review the information submitted, make a
determination regarding whether the containment building must be
removed from service completely or partially until repairs and
cleanup are complete, and notify the owner or operator of the
determination and the underlying rationale in writing; and
C) Upon completing all repairs and cleanup the owner and operator
must notify the Agency in writing and provide a verification,
signed by a qualified, registered professional engineer, that the
repairs and cleanup have been completed according to the written
plan submitted in accordance with subsection (c)(3)(A)(iv) of this
Section; and
4) Inspect and record in the facility’s operating record, at least once every
seven days, data gathered from monitoring equipment and leak detection
equipment as well as the containment building and the area immediately
surrounding the containment building to detect signs of releases of
hazardous waste.
d) For containment buildings that contain areas both with and without secondary
containment, the owner or operator must do the following:
1) Design and operate each area in accordance with the requirements
enumerated in subsections (a) through (c) of this Section;
2) Take measures to prevent the release of liquids or wet materials into areas
without secondary containment; and
3) Maintain in the facility’s operating log a written description of the
operating procedures used to maintain the integrity of areas without
702
secondary containment.
e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Subpart DD, the Agency must not
require secondary containment for a permitted containment building where the
owner operator demonstrates that the only free liquids in the unit are limited
amounts of dust suppression liquids required to meet occupational health and
safety requirements, and where containment of managed wastes and liquids can
be assured without a secondary containment system.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.Appendix A Recordkeeping Instructions
See appendix I to 40 CFR 265 (Recordkeeping Instructions), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.Appendix C USEPA Interim Primary Drinking Water Standards
See appendix III to 40 CFR 265 (EPA Interim Primary Drinking Water Standards), incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.Appendix D Tests for Significance
See appendix IV to 40 CFR 265 (Tests for Significance), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 725.Appendix E Examples of Potentially Incompatible Wastes
See appendix V to 40 CFR 265 (Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 726
STANDARDS FOR THE MANAGEMENT OF SPECIFIC HAZARDOUS
703
WASTE AND SPECIFIC TYPES OF HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT
FACILITIES
SUBPART C: RECYCLABLE MATERIALS USED IN A MANNER
CONSTITUTING DISPOSAL
Section
726.120 Applicability
726.121 Standards Applicable to Generators and Transporters of Materials Used in a
Manner that Constitutes Disposal
726.122 Standards Applicable to Storers, Who Are Not the Ultimate Users, of Materials
that Are To Be Used in a manner that Constitutes Disposal
726.123 Standards Applicable to Users of Materials that Are Used in a Manner that
Constitutes Disposal
SUBPART D: HAZARDOUS WASTE BURNED FOR ENERGY RECOVERY
Section
726.130 Applicability (Repealed)
726.131 Prohibitions (Repealed)
726.132 Standards applicable to generators of hazardous waste fuel (Repealed)
726.133 Standards applicable to transporters of hazardous waste fuel (Repealed)
726.134 Standards applicable to marketers of hazardous waste fuel (Repealed)
726.135 Standards applicable to burners of hazardous waste fuel (Repealed)
726.136 Conditional exemption for spent materials and by-products exhibiting a
characteristic of hazardous waste (Repealed)
SUBPART E: USED OIL BURNED FOR ENERGY RECOVERY
Section
726.140 Applicability (Repealed)
726.141 Prohibitions (Repealed)
726.142 Standards applicable to generators of used oil burned for energy recovery
(Repealed)
726.143 Standards applicable to marketers of used oil burned for energy recovery
(Repealed)
726.144 Standards applicable to burners of used oil burned for energy recovery
(Repealed)
SUBPART F: RECYCLABLE MATERIALS UTILIZED FOR PRECIOUS
METAL RECOVERY
Section
726.170 Applicability and Requirements
SUBPART G: SPENT LEAD-ACID BATTERIES BEING RECLAIMED
Section
726.180 Applicability and Requirements
704
SUBPART H: HAZARDOUS WASTE BURNED IN BOILERS AND
INDUSTRIAL FURNACES
Section
726.200 Applicability
726.201 Management Prior to Burning
726.202 Permit Standards for Burners
726.203 Interim Status Standards for Burners
726.204 Standards to Control Organic Emissions
726.205 Standards to Control PM
726.206 Standards to Control Metals Emissions
726.207 Standards to Control HCl and Chlorine Gas Emissions
726.208 Small Quantity On-Site Burner Exemption
726.209 Low Risk Waste Exemption
726.210 Waiver of DRE Trial Burn for Boilers
726.211 Standards for Direct Transfer
726.212 Regulation of Residues
726.219 Extensions of Time
SUBPART M: MILITARY MUNITIONS
Section
726.300 Applicability
726.301 Definitions
726.302 Definition of Solid Waste
726.303 Standards Applicable to the Transportation of Solid Waste Military Munitions
726.304 Standards Applicable to Emergency Responses
726.305 Standards Applicable to the Storage of Solid Waste Military Munitions
726.306 Standards Applicable to the Treatment and Disposal of Waste Military Munitions
SUBPART N: CONDITIONAL EXEMPTION FOR LOW-LEVEL MIXED
WASTE STORAGE, TREATMENT, TRANSPORTATION AND DISPOSAL
Section
726.310 Definitions
726.320 Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption
726.325 Wastes Eligible for a Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption for Low-
Level Mixed Waste
726.330 Conditions to Qualify for and Maintain a Storage and Treatment Conditional
Exemption
726.335 Treatment Allowed by a Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption
726.340 Loss of a Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption and Required Action
726.345 Reclaiming a Lost Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption
726.350 Recordkeeping for a Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption
726.355 Waste No Longer Eligible for a Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption
726.360 Applicability of Closure Requirements to Storage Units
726.405 Transportation and Disposal Conditional Exemption
726.410 Wastes Eligible for a Transportation and Disposal Conditional Exemption
726.415 Conditions to Qualify for and Maintain a Transportation and Disposal Conditional
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Exemption
726.420 Treatment Standards for Eligible Waste
726.425 Applicability of the Manifest and Transportation Condition
726.430 Effectiveness of a Transportation and Disposal Exemption
726.435 Disposal of Exempted Waste
726.440 Containers Used for Disposal of Exempted Waste
726.445 Notification
726.450 Recordkeeping for a Transportation and Disposal Conditional Exemption
726.455 Loss of a Transportation and Disposal Conditional Exemption and Required
Action
726.460 Reclaiming a Lost Transportation and Disposal Conditional Exemption
726.Appendix A Tier I and Tier II Feed Rate and Emissions Screening Limits for Metals
726.Appendix B Tier I Feed Rate Screening Limits for Total Chlorine
726.Appendix C Tier II Emission Rate Screening Limits for Free Chlorine and Hydrogen
Chloride
726.Appendix D Reference Air Concentrations
726.Appendix E Risk-Specific Doses
726.Appendix F Stack Plume Rise
726.Appendix G Health-Based Limits for Exclusion of Waste-Derived Residues
726.Appendix H Potential PICs for Determination of Exclusion of Waste-Derived Residues
726.Appendix I Methods Manual for Compliance with BIF Regulations
726.Appendix J Guideline on Air Quality Models (Repealed)
726.Appendix K Lead-Bearing Materials that May be Processed in Exempt Lead Smelters
726.Appendix L Nickel or Chromium-Bearing Materials that May Be Processed in Exempt
Nickel-Chromium Recovery Furnaces
726.Appendix M Mercury-Bearing Wastes that May Be Processed in Exempt Mercury
Recovery Units
726.Table A Exempt Quantities for Small Quantity Burner Exemption
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 7.2 and 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/7.2, 22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg. 1162, effective January 2, 1986; amended in R86-1
at 10 Ill. Reg. 14156, effective August 12, 1986; amended in R87-26 at 12 Ill. Reg. 2900,
effective January 15, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18606, effective November 13,
1989; amended in R90-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 14533, effective August 22, 1990; amended in R90-11 at
15 Ill. Reg. 9727, effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9858, effective
June 9, 1992; amended in R92-10 at 17 Ill. Reg. 5865, effective March 26, 1993; amended in
R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20904, effective November 22, 1993; amended in R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg.
12500, effective July 29, 1994; amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 10006, effective June 27, 1995;
amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 11263, effective August 1, 1996; amended in R96-10/R97-
3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 754, effective December 16, 1997; amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at
22 Ill. Reg. 18042, effective September 28, 1998; amended in R99-15 at 23 Ill. Reg. 9482,
effective July 26, 1999; amended in R00-13 at 24 Ill. Reg. 9853, effective June 20, 2000;
amended in R02-1/R02-12/R02-17 at 26 Ill. Reg. 6667, effective April 22, 2002; amended in
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R03-7 at 27 Ill. Reg. 4200, effective February 14, 2003; amended in R03-18 at 27 Ill. Reg.
12916, effective July 17, 2003; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg. ________,
effective ______________________.
SUBPART C: RECYCLABLE MATERIALS USED IN A MANNER
CONSTITUTING DISPOSAL
Section 726.120 Applicability
a) The regulations of this Subpart C apply to recyclable materials that are applied to or
placed on the land in either of the following ways:
1) Without mixing with any other substances; or
2) After mixing or combination with any other substances. These materials will
be referred to throughout this Subpart C as “materials used in a manner that
constitutes disposal.”
b) A product produced for the general public’s use that is used in a manner that
constitutes disposal and which contains recyclable material is not presently subject to
regulation under this Subpart C if the recyclable materials have undergone a
chemical reaction in the course of producing the products so as to become
inseparable by physical means and if such products meet the applicable treatment
standards in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728 (or applicable prohibition levels in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.132 or 728.139, where no treatment standards have been
established) for each
S
recycable
S
recyclable material (i.e., hazardous waste) that it
contains.
c) Anti-skid and deicing uses of slags that are generated from high temperature metals
recovery (HTMR) processing of hazardous wastes K061, K062, and F006 in a
manner constituting disposal are not covered by the exemption in subsection (b) of
this Section, and such uses of these materials remain subject to regulation.
d) Fertilizers that contain recyclable materials are not subject to regulation provided
that the following conditions are fulfilled:
1) They are zinc fertilizers excluded from the definition of solid waste
according to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.104(a)(21); or
2) They meet the applicable treatment standards in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728 for each hazardous waste that they contain.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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SUBPART H: HAZARDOUS WASTE BURNED IN BOILERS AND
INDUSTRIAL FURNACES
Section 726.200 Applicability
a) The regulations of this Subpart H apply to hazardous waste burned or processed in a
boiler or industrial furnace (BIF) (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110)
irrespective of the purpose of burning or processing, except as provided by
subsections (b), (c), (d), (g), and (h) of this Section. In this Subpart H, the term
“burn” means burning for energy recovery or destruction or processing for materials
recovery or as an ingredient. The emissions standards of Sections 726.204, 726.205,
726.206, and 726.207 apply to facilities operating under interim status or under a
RCRA permit, as specified in Sections 726.202 and 726.203.
b) Integration of the MACT standards.
1) Except as provided by subsection (b)(2) of this Section, the standards of
this Part no longer apply when an affected source demonstrates
compliance with the maximum achievable control technology (MACT)
requirements of federal subpart EEE of 40 CFR 63
S
, subpart EEE
S
(National
Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants from Hazardous Waste
Combustors), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
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720.111(b), by conducting a comprehensive performance test and
submitting to the Agency a Notification of Compliance, under 40 CFR
63.1207(j) (What are the performance testing requirements?) and
63.1210(b) (What are the notification requirements?), documenting
compliance with the requirements of federal subpart EEE of 40 CFR 63
S
,
subpart EEE
S
. Nevertheless, even after this demonstration of compliance
with the MACT standards, RCRA permit conditions that were based on
the standards of this Part will continue to be in effect until they are
removed from the permit or the permit is terminated or revoked, unless the
permit expressly provides otherwise.
2) The following standards continue to apply:
A) If an owner or operator elects to comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
703.320(a)(1)(A) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from
startup, shutdown, and malfunction events, Section 726.202(e)(1),
requiring operations in accordance with the operating requirements
specified in the permit at all times that hazardous waste is in the
unit, and Section 726.202(e)(2)(C), requiring compliance with the
emission standards and operating requirements, during startup and
shutdown if hazardous waste is in the combustion chamber, except
for particular hazardous wastes. These provisions apply only
during startup, shutdown, and malfunction events;
708
B) The closure requirements of Sections 726.202(e)(11) and
726.203(l);
C) The standards for direct transfer of Section 726.211;
D) The standards for regulation of residues of Section 726.312; and
E) The applicable requirements of Subparts A through H, BB, and CC
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725.
BOARD NOTE: Sections 9.1 and 39.5 of the Environmental Protection Act [415
ILCS 5/9.1 and 39.5] make the federal MACT standards directly applicable to
entities in Illinois and authorize the Agency to issue permits based on the federal
standards. In adopting this subsection (b), USEPA stated as follows (at 64 Fed
Reg. 52828, 52975 (September 30, 1999)):
Under [the approach adopted by USEPA as a] final rule, MACT
air emissions and related operating requirements are to be included
in
S
title
S
Title V permits; RCRA permits will continue to be required
for all other aspects of the combustion unit and the facility that are
governed by RCRA (e.g., corrective action, general facility
standards, other combustor-specific concerns such as materials
handling, risk-based emissions limits and operating requirements,
as appropriate, and other hazardous waste management units).
c) The following hazardous wastes and facilities are not subject to regulation under this
Subpart H:
1) Used oil burned for energy recovery that is also a hazardous waste solely
because it exhibits a characteristic of hazardous waste identified in Subpart C
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721. Such used oil is subject to regulation under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 739, rather than this Subpart;
2) Gas recovered from hazardous or solid waste landfills, when such gas is
burned for energy recovery;
3) Hazardous wastes that are exempt from regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.104 and 721.106(a)(3)(C) and (a)(3)(D) and hazardous wastes that are
subject to the special requirements for conditionally exempt small quantity
generators under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.105; and
4) Coke ovens, if the only hazardous waste burned is USEPA hazardous waste
no. K087 decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations.
d) Owners and operators of smelting, melting, and refining furnaces (including
pyrometallurgical devices, such as cupolas, sintering machines, roasters, and foundry
709
furnaces, but not including cement kilns, aggregate kilns, or halogen acid furnaces
burning hazardous waste) that process hazardous waste solely for metal recovery are
conditionally exempt from regulation under this Subpart H, except for Sections
726.201 and 726.212.
1) To be exempt from Sections 726.202 through 726.211, an owner or operator
of a metal recovery furnace or mercury recovery furnace must comply with
the following requirements, except that an owner or operator of a lead or a
nickel-chromium recovery furnace or a metal recovery furnace that burns
baghouse bags used to capture metallic dust emitted by steel manufacturing
must comply with the requirements of subsection (d)(3) of this Section, and
an owner or operator of a lead recovery furnace that is subject to
regulation under the Secondary Lead Smelting NESHAP of federal
subpart X of 40 CFR 63
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, subpart X
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(National Emission Standards for
Hazardous Air Pollutants from Secondary Lead Smelting) must comply
with the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section:
A) Provide a one-time written notice to the Agency indicating the
following:
i) The owner or operator claims exemption under this
subsection;
ii) The hazardous waste is burned solely for metal recovery
consistent with the provisions of subsection (d)(2) of this
Section;
iii) The hazardous waste contains recoverable levels of metals;
and
iv) The owner or operator will comply with the sampling and
analysis and recordkeeping requirements of this subsection
(d);
B) Sample and analyze the hazardous waste and other feedstocks as
necessary to comply with the requirements of this subsection (d)
S
under procedures specified
S
by
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“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” SW-846, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, or alternative methods that
meet or exceed the SW-846 method performance capabilities. If SW-
846 does not prescribe a method for a particular determination, the
owner or operator must use the best available method
S
using
appropriate methods; and
C) Maintain at the facility for at least three years records to document
compliance with the provisions of this subsection (d), including limits
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on levels of toxic organic constituents and Btu value of the waste and
levels of recoverable metals in the hazardous waste compared to
normal non-hazardous waste feedstocks.
2) A hazardous waste meeting either of the following criteria is not processed
solely for metal recovery:
A) The hazardous waste has a total concentration of organic compounds
listed in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 exceeding 500 ppm by
weight, as fired, and so is considered to be burned for destruction.
The concentration of organic compounds in a waste as-generated may
be reduced to the 500 ppm limit by bona fide treatment that removes
or destroys organic constituents. Blending for dilution to meet the
500 ppm limit is prohibited, and documentation that the waste has not
been impermissibly diluted must be retained in the records required
by subsection (d)(1)(C) of this Section; or
B) The hazardous waste has a heating value of 5,000 Btu/lb or more, as-
fired, and is so considered to be burned as fuel. The heating value of
a waste as-generated may be reduced to below the 5,000 Btu/lb limit
by bona fide treatment that removes or destroys organic constituents.
Blending for dilution to meet the 5,000 Btu/lb limit is prohibited and
documentation that the waste has not been impermissibly diluted
must be retained in the records required by subsection (d)(1)(C) of
this Section.
3) To be exempt from Sections 726.202 through 726.211, an owner or operator
of a lead, nickel-chromium, or mercury recovery furnace, except for an
owner or operator of a lead recovery furnace that is subject to regulation
under the Secondary Lead Smelting NESHAP of subpart X of 40 CFR 63
S
,
subpart X
S
, or a metal recovery furnace that burns baghouse bags used to
capture metallic dusts emitted by steel manufacturing must provide a one-
time written notice to the Agency identifying each hazardous waste burned
and specifying whether the owner or operator claims an exemption for each
waste under this subsection (d)(3) or subsection (d)(1) of this Section. The
owner or operator must comply with the requirements of subsection (d)(1) of
this Section for those wastes claimed to be exempt under that subsection and
must comply with the following requirements for those wastes claimed to be
exempt under this subsection (d)(3):
A) The hazardous wastes listed in Appendices K, L, and M of this Part
and baghouse bags used to capture metallic dusts emitted by steel
manufacturing are exempt from the requirements of subsection (d)(1)
of this Section, provided the following are true:
i) A waste listed in Appendix K of this Part must contain
711
recoverable levels of lead, a waste listed in Appendix L of
this Part must contain recoverable levels of nickel or
chromium, a waste listed in Appendix M of this Part must
contain recoverable levels of mercury and contain less than
500 ppm of Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 organic
constituents, and baghouse bags used to capture metallic
dusts emitted by steel manufacturing must contain
recoverable levels of metal;
ii) The waste does not exhibit the toxicity characteristic of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.124 for an organic constituent;
iii) The waste is not a hazardous waste listed in Subpart D of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721 because it is listed for an organic
constituent, as identified in Appendix G of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721; and
iv) The owner or operator certifies in the one-time notice that
hazardous waste is burned under the provisions of subsection
(d)(3) of this Section and that sampling and analysis will be
conducted or other information will be obtained as necessary
to ensure continued compliance with these requirements.
Sampling and analysis must be conducted according to
subsection (d)(1)(B) of this Section, and records to document
compliance with subsection (d)(3) of this Section must be
kept for at least three years.
B) The Agency may decide, on a case-by-case basis, that the toxic
organic constituents in a material listed in Appendix K, Appendix L,
or Appendix M of this Part that contains a total concentration of more
than 500 ppm toxic organic compounds listed in Appendix H to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721 may pose a hazard to human health and the
environment when burned in a metal recovery furnace exempt from
the requirements of this Subpart H. Under these circumstances, after
adequate notice and opportunity for comment, the metal recovery
furnace will become subject to the requirements of this Subpart H
when burning that material. In making the hazard determination, the
Agency must consider the following factors:
i) The concentration and toxicity of organic constituents in the
material;
ii) The level of destruction of toxic organic constituents
provided by the furnace; and
iii) Whether the acceptable ambient levels established in
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Appendix D or E of this Part will be exceeded for any toxic
organic compound that may be emitted based on dispersion
modeling to predict the maximum annual average off-site
ground level concentration.
e) The standards for direct transfer operations under Section 726.211 apply only to
facilities subject to the permit standards of Section 726.202 or the interim status
standards of Section 726.203.
f) The management standards for residues under Section 726.212 apply to any BIF
burning hazardous waste.
g) Owners and operators of smelting, melting, and refining furnaces (including
pyrometallurgical devices such as cupolas, sintering machines, roasters, and foundry
furnaces) that process hazardous waste for recovery of economically significant
amounts of the precious metals gold, silver, platinum, palladium, iridium, osmium,
rhodium, ruthenium, or any combination of these metals are conditionally exempt
from regulation under this Subpart H, except for Section 726.212. To be exempt
from Sections 726.202 through 726.211, an owner or operator must do the following:
1) Provide a one-time written notice to the Agency indicating the following:
A) The owner or operator claims exemption under this Section,
B) The hazardous waste is burned for legitimate recovery of precious
metal, and
C) The owner or operator will comply with the sampling and analysis
and recordkeeping requirements of this Section;
2) Sample and analyze the hazardous waste, as necessary, to document that the
waste is burned for recovery of economically significant amounts of the
metals and that the treatment recovers economically significant amounts of
precious metal
S
, using procedures specified by Test Methods for Evaluating
Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods, SW-846, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, or alternative methods that meet or
exceed the SW-846 method performance capabilities. If SW-846 does not
prescribe a method for a particular determination, the owner or operator must
use the best available method
S
; and
3) Maintain, at the facility for at least three years, records to document that all
hazardous wastes burned are burned for recovery of economically significant
amounts of precious metal.
h) An owner or operator of a lead recovery furnace that processes hazardous waste
for recovery of lead and which is subject to regulation under the Secondary Lead
713
Smelting NESHAP of subpart X of 40 CFR 63
S
, subpart X
S
, is conditionally
exempt from regulation under this Subpart, except for Section 726.201. To
become exempt, an owner or operator must provide a one-time notice to the
Agency identifying each hazardous waste burned and specifying that the owner or
operator claims an exemption under this subsection (h). The notice also must
state that the waste burned has a total concentration of non-metal compounds
listed in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 of less than 500 ppm by weight, as
fired and as provided in subsection (d)(2)(A) of this Section, or is listed in
Appendix K to this Part.
i) Abbreviations and definitions. The following definitions and abbreviations are used
in this Subpart H:
“APCS” means air pollution control system.
“BIF” means boiler or industrial furnace.
“Carcinogenic metals” means arsenic, beryllium, cadmium, and chromium.
“CO” means carbon monoxide.
“Continuous monitor” is a monitor that continuously samples the regulated
parameter without interruption, that evaluates the detector response at least
once each 15 seconds, and that computes and records the average value at
least every 60 seconds.
“DRE” means destruction or removal efficiency.
“cu m” or “m
P
3
P
” means cubic meters.
“E” means “ten to the power.” For example, “XE-Y” means “X times ten to
the -Y power.”
“Feed rates” are measured as specified in Section 726.202(e)(6).
“Good engineering practice stack height” is as defined by federal 40 CFR
51.100(ii) (Definitions), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
“HC” means hydrocarbon.
“HCl” means hydrogen chloride gas.
“Hourly rolling average” means the arithmetic mean of the 60 most recent
one-minute average values recorded by the continuous monitoring system.
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“K” means Kelvin.
“kVA” means kilovolt amperes.
“MEI” means maximum exposed individual.
“MEI location” means the point with the maximum annual average off-site
(unless on-site is required) ground level concentration.
“Noncarcinogenic metals” means antimony, barium, lead, mercury, thallium,
and silver.
“One hour block average” means the arithmetic mean of the one minute
averages recorded during the 60-minute period beginning at one minute after
the beginning of the preceding clock hour.
“PIC” means product of incomplete combustion.
“PM” means particulate matter.
“POHC” means principal organic hazardous constituent.
“ppmv” means parts per million by volume.
“QA/QC” means quality assurance and quality control.
“Rolling average for the selected averaging period” means the arithmetic
mean of one hour block averages for the averaging period.
“RAC” means reference air concentration, the acceptable ambient level for
the noncarcinogenic metals for purposes of this Subpart. RACs are specified
in Appendix D of this Part.
“RSD” means risk-specific dose, the acceptable ambient level for the
carcinogenic metals for purposes of this Subpart. RSDs are specified in
Appendix E of this Part.
“SSU” means “Saybolt Seconds Universal,” a unit of viscosity measured by
ASTM D 88-87 (Standard Test Method for Saybolt Viscosity) or D 2161-
87 (Standard Practice for Conversion of Kinematic Viscosity to Saybolt
Universal or to Saybolt Furol Viscosity), each incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
“TCLP test” means
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method
1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
715
publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a), as used for the purposes of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.124.
“TESH” means terrain-adjusted effective stack height (in meters).
“Tier I.” See Section 726.206(b).
“Tier II.” See Section 726.206(c).
“Tier III.” See Section 726.206(d).
“Toxicity equivalence” is estimated, pursuant to Section 726.204(e), using
S
“
S
section 4.0 (Procedures for Estimating the Toxicity Equivalence of
Chlorinated Dibenzo-p-Dioxin and Dibenzofuran Congeners) in federal
appendix IX to 40 CFR 266 (Methods Manual for Compliance with the
BIF Regulations),
S
”
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b) (see Appendix I of this Part).
“mg” means microgram.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.202 Permit Standards for Burners
a) Applicability.
1) General. An owner or operator of a BIF that burns hazardous waste and
which does not operate under interim status must comply with the
requirements of this Section and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.208 and 703.232,
unless exempt under the small quantity burner exemption of Section 726.208.
2) Applicability of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 standards. An owner or operator of a
BIF that burns hazardous waste is subject to the following provisions of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724, except as provided otherwise by this Subpart H:
A) In Subpart A (General), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.104;
B) In Subpart B (General facility standards), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.111
through 724.118;
C) In Subpart C (Preparedness and prevention), 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.131 through 724.137;
D) In Subpart D (Contingency plan and emergency procedures), 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.151 through 724.156;
716
E) In Subpart E (Manifest system, recordkeeping and reporting), the
applicable provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.171 through 724.177;
F) In Subpart F (Corrective Action), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.190 and
724.201;
G) In Subpart G (Closure and post-closure), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.211
through 724.215;
H) In Subpart H (Financial requirements), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.241,
724.242, 724.243, and 724.247 through 724.251, except that the State
of Illinois and the federal government are exempt from the
requirements of Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724; and
I) Subpart BB (Air emission standards for equipment leaks), except 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.950(a).
b) Hazardous waste analysis.
1) The owner or operator must provide an analysis of the hazardous waste that
quantifies the concentration of any constituent identified in Appendix H of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721 that is reasonably expected to be in the waste. Such
constituents must be identified and quantified if present, at levels detectable
by using appropriate analytical procedures
S
prescribed by Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods (incorporated by
reference, see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111)
S
.
S
Alternative methods that meet
or exceed the method performance capabilities of SW-846 methods may be
used. If SW-846 does not prescribe a method for a particular determination,
the owner or operator must use the best available method.
S
The constituents
listed in Appendix H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
S
constituents
S
that are
excluded from this analysis must be identified and the basis for their
exclusion explained. This analysis must provide all information required by
this Subpart H and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.208 and 703.232 and must enable
the Agency to prescribe such permit conditions as are necessary to protect
human health and the environment. Such analysis must be included as a
portion of the Part B permit application, or, for facilities operating under the
interim status standards of this Subpart H, as a portion of the trial burn plan
that may be submitted before the Part B application under provisions of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 703.232(g), as well as any other analysis required by the
Agency.
S
Owners and operators
S
The owner or operator of
S
BIFs
S
a BIF not
operating under the interim status standards must provide the information
required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.208 and 703.232 in the Part B application
to the greatest extent possible.
2) Throughout normal operation, the owner or operator must conduct sampling
717
and analysis as necessary to ensure that the hazardous waste, other fuels, and
industrial furnace feedstocks fired into the BIF are within the physical and
chemical composition limits specified in the permit.
c) Emissions standards.
S
Owners and operators
S
An owner or operator must comply
with emissions standards provided by Sections 726.204 through 726.207.
d) Permits.
1) The owner or operator must burn only hazardous wastes specified in the
facility permit and only under the operating conditions specified under
subsection (e) of this Section, except in approved trial burns under the
conditions specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.232.
2) Hazardous wastes not specified in the permit must not be burned until
operating conditions have been specified under a new permit or permit
modification, as applicable. Operating requirements for new wastes must be
based on either trial burn results or alternative data included with Part B of a
permit application under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.208.
3) BIFs operating under the interim status standards of Section 726.203 are
permitted under procedures provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.232(g).
4) A permit for a new BIF (those BIFs not operating under the interim status
standards) must establish appropriate conditions for each of the applicable
requirements of this Section, including but not limited to allowable
hazardous waste firing rates and operating conditions necessary to meet the
requirements of subsection (e) of this Section, in order to comply with the
following standards:
A) For the period beginning with initial introduction of hazardous waste
and ending with initiation of the trial burn, and only for the minimum
time required to bring the device to a point of operational readiness to
conduct a trial burn, not to exceed a duration of 720 hours operating
time when burning hazardous waste, the operating requirements must
be those most likely to ensure compliance with the emission
standards of Sections 726.204 through 726.207, based on the
Agency’s engineering judgment. If the applicant is seeking a waiver
from a trial burn to demonstrate conformance with a particular
emission standard, the operating requirements during this initial
period of operation must include those specified by the applicable
provisions of Section 726.204, Section 726.205, Section 726.206, or
Section 726.207. The Agency must extend the duration of this period
for up to 720 additional hours when good cause for the extension is
demonstrated by the applicant.
718
B) For the duration of the trial burn, the operating requirements must be
sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the emissions standards of
Sections 726.204 through 726.207 and must be in accordance with
the approved trial burn plan;
C) For the period immediately following completion of the trial burn,
and only for the minimum period sufficient to allow sample analysis,
data computation, submission of the trial burn results by the
applicant, review of the trial burn results, and modification of the
facility permit by the Agency to reflect the trial burn results, the
operating requirements must be those most likely to ensure
compliance with the emission standards Sections 726.204 through
726.207 based on the Agency’s engineering judgment.
D) For the remaining duration of the permit, the operating requirements
must be those demonstrated in a trial burn or by alternative data
specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.208, as sufficient to ensure
compliance with the emissions standards of Sections 726.204 through
726.207.
e) Operating requirements.
1) General. A BIF burning hazardous waste must be operated in accordance
with the operating requirements specified in the permit at all times when
there is hazardous waste in the unit.
2) Requirements to ensure compliance with the organic emissions standards.
A) DRE (destruction or removal efficiency) standard. Operating
conditions must be specified in either of the following ways: on a
case-by-case basis for each hazardous waste burned, which
conditions must be demonstrated (in a trial burn or by alternative
data, as specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.208) to be sufficient to
comply with the DRE performance standard of Section 726.204(a), or
as special operating requirements provided by Section 726.204(a)(4)
for the waiver of the DRE trial burn. When the DRE trial burn is not
waived under Section 726.204(a)(4), each set of operating
requirements must specify the composition of the hazardous waste
(including acceptable variations in the physical and chemical
properties of the hazardous waste that will not affect compliance with
the DRE performance standard) to which the operating requirements
apply. For each such hazardous waste, the permit must specify
acceptable operating limits including, but not limited to, the
following conditions, as appropriate:
i) Feed rate of hazardous waste and other fuels measured and
719
specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this Section;
ii) Minimum and maximum device production rate when
producing normal product expressed in appropriate units,
measured and specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of
this Section;
iii) Appropriate controls of the hazardous waste firing system;
iv) Allowable variation in BIF system design or operating
procedures;
v) Minimum combustion gas temperature measured at a location
indicative of combustion chamber temperature, measured,
and specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this
Section;
vi) An appropriate indicator of combustion gas velocity,
measured and specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of
this Section, unless documentation is provided under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.232 demonstrating adequate combustion gas
residence time; and
vii) Such other operating requirements as are necessary to ensure
that the DRE performance standard of Section 726.204(a) is
met.
B) CO and hydrocarbon (HC) standards. The permit must incorporate a
CO limit and, as appropriate, a HC limit as provided by Section
726.204(b), (c), (d), (e), and (f). The permit limits must be specified
as follows:
i) When complying with the CO standard of Section
726.204(b)(1), the permit limit is 100 ppmv;
ii) When complying with the alternative CO standard under
Section 726.204(c), the permit limit for CO is based on the
trial burn and is established as the average over all valid runs
of the highest hourly rolling average CO level of each run;
and, the permit limit for HC is 20 ppmv (as defined in Section
726.204(c)(1)), except as provided in Section 726.204(f); or
iii) When complying with the alternative HC limit for industrial
furnaces under Section 726.204(f), the permit limit for HC
and CO is the baseline level when hazardous waste is not
burned as specified by that subsection.
720
C) Start-up and shut-down. During start-up and shut-down of the BIF,
hazardous waste (except waste fed solely as an ingredient under the
Tier I (or adjusted Tier I) feed rate screening limits for metals and
chloride/chlorine, and except low risk waste exempt from the trial
burn requirements under Sections 726.204(a)(5), 726.205, 726.206,
and 726.207) must not be fed into the device, unless the device is
operating within the conditions of operation specified in the permit.
3) Requirements to ensure conformance with the particulate matter (PM)
standard.
A) Except as provided in subsections (e)(3)(B) and (e)(3)(C) of this
Section, the permit must specify the following operating
requirements to ensure conformance with the PM standard specified
in Section 726.205:
i) Total ash feed rate to the device from hazardous waste, other
fuels, and industrial furnace feedstocks, measured and
specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this Section;
ii) Maximum device production rate when producing normal
product expressed in appropriate units, and measured and
specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this Section;
iii) Appropriate controls on operation and maintenance of the
hazardous waste firing system and any air pollution control
system (APCS);
iv) Allowable variation in BIF system design including any
APCS or operating procedures; and
v) Such other operating requirements as are necessary to ensure
that the PM standard in Section 726.211(b) is met.
B) Permit conditions to ensure conformance with the PM standard must
not be provided for facilities exempt from the PM standard under
Section 726.205(b);
C) For cement kilns and light-weight aggregate kilns, permit conditions
to ensure compliance with the PM standard must not limit the ash
content of hazardous waste or other feed materials.
4) Requirements to ensure conformance with the metals emissions standard.
A) For conformance with the Tier I (or adjusted Tier I) metals feed rate
721
screening limits of Section 726.206(b) or (e), the permit must specify
the following operating requirements:
i) Total feed rate of each metal in hazardous waste, other fuels
and industrial furnace feedstocks measured and specified
under provisions of subsection (e)(6) of this Section;
ii) Total feed rate of hazardous waste measured and specified as
prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this Section; and
iii) A sampling and metals analysis program for the hazardous
waste, other fuels and industrial furnace feedstocks;
B) For conformance with the Tier II metals emission rate screening
limits under Section 726.206(c) and the Tier III metals controls under
Section 726.206(d), the permit must specify the following operating
requirements:
i) Maximum emission rate for each metal specified as the
average emission rate during the trial burn;
ii) Feed rate of total hazardous waste and pumpable hazardous
waste, each measured and specified as prescribed in
subsection (e)(6)(A) of this Section;
iii) Feed rate of each metal in the following feedstreams,
measured and specified as prescribed in subsections (e)(6) of
this Section: total feed streams; total hazardous waste feed;
and total pumpable hazardous waste feed;
iv) Total feed rate of chlorine and chloride in total feed streams
measured and specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of
this Section;
v) Maximum combustion gas temperature measured at a
location indicative of combustion chamber temperature, and
measured and specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of
this Section;
vi) Maximum flue gas temperature at the inlet to the PM APCS
measured and specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of
this Section;
vii) Maximum device production rate when producing normal
product expressed in appropriate units and measured and
specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this Section;
722
viii) Appropriate controls on operation and maintenance of the
hazardous waste firing system and any APCS;
ix) Allowable variation in BIF system design including any
APCS or operating procedures; and
x) Such other operating requirements as are necessary to ensure
that the metals standards under Sections 726.206(c) or (d) are
met.
C) For conformance with an alternative implementation approach
approved by the Agency under Section 726.206(f), the permit must
specify the following operating requirements:
i) Maximum emission rate for each metal specified as the
average emission rate during the trial burn;
ii) Feed rate of total hazardous waste and pumpable hazardous
waste, each measured and specified as prescribed in
subsection (e)(6)(A) of this Section;
iii) Feed rate of each metal in the following feedstreams,
measured and specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of
this Section: total hazardous waste feed; and total pumpable
hazardous waste feed;
iv) Total feed rate of chlorine and chloride in total feed streams
measured and specified prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this
Section;
v) Maximum combustion gas temperature measured at a
location indicative of combustion chamber temperature, and
measured and specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of
this Section;
vi) Maximum flue gas temperature at the inlet to the PM APCS
measured and specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of
this Section;
vii) Maximum device production rate when producing normal
product expressed in appropriate units and measured and
specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this Section;
viii) Appropriate controls on operation and maintenance of the
hazardous waste firing system and any APCS;
723
ix) Allowable variation in BIF system design including any
APCS or operating procedures; and
x) Such other operating requirements as are necessary to ensure
that the metals standards under Sections 726.206(c) or (d) are
met.
5) Requirements to ensure conformance with the HCl and chlorine gas
standards.
A) For conformance with the Tier I total chlorine and chloride feed rate
screening limits of Section 726.207(b)(1), the permit must specify the
following operating requirements:
i) Feed rate of total chlorine and chloride in hazardous waste,
other fuels and industrial furnace feedstocks measured and
specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this Section;
ii) Feed rate of total hazardous waste measured and specified as
prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this Section; and
iii) A sampling and analysis program for total chlorine and
chloride for the hazardous waste, other fuels and industrial
furnace feedstocks;
B) For conformance with the Tier II HCl and chlorine gas emission rate
screening limits under Section 726.207(b)(2) and the Tier III HCl and
chlorine gas controls under Section 726.207(c), the permit must
specify the following operating requirements:
i) Maximum emission rate for HCl and for chlorine gas
specified as the average emission rate during the trial burn;
ii) Feed rate of total hazardous waste measured and specified as
prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this Section;
iii) Total feed rate of chlorine and chloride in total feed streams,
measured and specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of
this Section;
iv) Maximum device production rate when producing normal
product expressed in appropriate units, measured and
specified as prescribed in subsection (e)(6) of this Section;
v) Appropriate controls on operation and maintenance of the
724
hazardous waste firing system and any APCS;
vi) Allowable variation in BIF system design including any
APCS or operating procedures; and
vii) Such other operating requirements as are necessary to ensure
that the HCl and chlorine gas standards under Section
726.207(b)(2) or (c) are met.
6) Measuring parameters and establishing limits based on trial burn data.
A) General requirements. As specified in subsections (e)(2) through
(e)(5) of this Section, each operating parameter must be measured,
and permit limits on the parameter must be established, according to
either of the following procedures:
i) Instantaneous limits. A parameter is measured and recorded
on an instantaneous basis (i.e., the value that occurs at any
time) and the permit limit specified as the time-weighted
average during all valid runs of the trial burn; or
ii) Hourly rolling average. The limit for a parameter must be
established and continuously monitored on an hourly rolling
average basis, as defined in Section 726.200(i). The permit
limit for the parameter must be established based on trial burn
data as the average over all valid test runs of the highest
hourly rolling average value for each run.
B) Rolling average limits for carcinogenic metals and lead. Feed rate
limits for the carcinogenic metals (as defined in Section 726.200(i))
and lead must be established either on an hourly rolling average
basis, as prescribed by subsection (e)(6)(A) of this Section, or on (up
to) a 24 hour rolling average basis. If the owner or operator elects to
use an average period from 2 to 24 hours, the following
requirements apply:
i) The feed rate of each metal must be limited at any time to ten
times the feed rate that would be allowed on an hourly rolling
average basis;
ii) Terms are as defined in Section 726.200(i); and
iii) The permit limit for the feed rate of each metal must be
established based on trial burn data as the average over all
valid test runs of the highest hourly rolling average feed rate
for each run.
725
C) Feed rate limits for metals, total chlorine and chloride, and ash. Feed
rate limits for metals, total chlorine and chloride, and ash are
established and monitored by knowing the concentration of the
substance (i.e., metals, chloride/chlorine and ash) in each feedstream
and the flow rate of the feedstream. To monitor the feed rate of these
substances, the flow rate of each feedstream must be monitored under
the continuous monitoring requirements of subsections (e)(6)(A) and
(e)(6)(B) of this Section.
D) Conduct of trial burn testing.
i) If compliance with all applicable emissions standards of
Sections 726.204 through 726.207 is not demonstrated
simultaneously during a set of test runs, the operating
conditions of additional test runs required to demonstrate
compliance with remaining emissions standards must be as
close as possible to the original operating conditions.
ii) Prior to obtaining test data for purposes of demonstrating
compliance with the emissions standards of Sections 726.204
through 726.207 or establishing limits on operating
parameters under this Section, the unit must operate under
trial burn conditions for a sufficient period to reach steady-
state operations. However, industrial furnaces that recycle
collected PM back into the furnace and that comply with an
alternative implementation approach for metals under Section
726.206(f) need not reach steady state conditions with respect
to the flow of metals in the system prior to beginning
compliance testing for metals emissions.
iii) Trial burn data on the level of an operating parameter for
which a limit must be established in the permit must be
obtained during emissions sampling for the pollutants (i.e.,
metals, PM, HCl/chlorine gas, organic compounds) for which
the parameter must be established as specified by this
subsection (e).
7) General requirements.
A) Fugitive emissions. Fugitive emissions must be controlled in one of
the following ways:
i) By keeping the combustion zone totally sealed against
fugitive emissions;
S
or
S
726
ii) By maintaining the combustion zone pressure lower than
atmospheric pressure; or
iii) By an alternative means of control demonstrated (with Part B
of the permit application) to provide fugitive emissions
control equivalent to maintenance of combustion zone
pressure lower than atmospheric pressure.
B) Automatic waste feed cutoff. A BIF must be operated with a
functioning system that automatically cuts off the hazardous waste
feed when operating conditions deviate from those established under
this Section. In addition, the following requirements apply:
i) The permit limit for (the indicator of) minimum combustion
chamber temperature must be maintained while hazardous
waste or hazardous waste residues remain in the combustion
chamber
S
,
S
;
ii) Exhaust gases must be ducted to the APCS operated in
accordance with the permit requirements while hazardous
waste or hazardous waste residues remain in the combustion
chamber; and
iii) Operating parameters for which permit limits are established
must continue to be monitored during the cutoff, and the
hazardous waste feed must not be restarted until the levels of
those parameters comply with the permit limits. For
parameters that are monitored on an instantaneous basis, the
Agency must establish a minimum period of time after a
waste feed cutoff during which the parameter must not
exceed the permit limit before the hazardous waste feed is
restarted.
C) Changes. A BIF must cease burning hazardous waste when
combustion properties or feed rates of the hazardous waste, other
fuels or industrial furnace feedstocks, or the BIF design or operating
conditions deviate from the limits as specified in the permit.
8) Monitoring and Inspections.
A) The owner or operator must monitor and record the following, at a
minimum, while burning hazardous waste:
i) If specified by the permit, feed rates and composition of
hazardous waste, other fuels, and industrial furnace
feedstocks and feed rates of ash, metals, and total chlorine
727
and chloride;
ii) If specified by the permit, CO, HCs, and oxygen on a
continuous basis at a common point in the BIF downstream
of the combustion zone and prior to release of stack gases to
the atmosphere in accordance with operating requirements
specified in subsection (e)(2)(B) of this Section. CO, HC,
and oxygen monitors must be installed, operated, and
maintained in accordance with methods specified in
Appendix I of this Part
S
.
S
; and
iii) Upon the request of the Agency, sampling and analysis of the
hazardous waste (and other fuels and industrial furnace
feedstocks as appropriate), residues, and exhaust emissions
must be conducted to verify that the operating requirements
established in the permit achieve the applicable standards of
Sections 726.204, 726.205, 726.206, and 726.207.
B) All monitors must record data in units corresponding to the permit
limit unless otherwise specified in the permit.
C) The BIF and associated equipment (pumps, values, pipes, fuel storage
tanks, etc.) must be subjected to thorough visual inspection when it
contains hazardous waste, at least daily for leaks, spills, fugitive
emissions, and signs of tampering.
D) The automatic hazardous waste feed cutoff system and associated
alarms must be tested at least once every seven days when hazardous
waste is burned to verify operability, unless the applicant
demonstrates to the Agency that weekly inspections will unduly
restrict or upset operations and that less frequent inspections will be
adequate. At a minimum, operational testing must be conducted at
least once every 30 days.
E) These monitoring and inspection data must be recorded and the
records must be placed in the operating record required by 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724.173.
9) Direct transfer to the burner. If hazardous waste is directly transferred from a
transport vehicle to a BIF without the use of a storage unit, the owner and
operator must comply with Section 726.211.
10) Recordkeeping. The owner or operator must keep in the operating record of
the facility all information and data required by this Section until closure of
the facility.
728
11) Closure. At closure, the owner or operator must remove all hazardous waste
and hazardous waste residues (including, but not limited to, ash, scrubber
waters, and scrubber sludges) from the BIF.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.203 Interim Status Standards for Burners
a) Purpose, scope, and applicability.
1) General.
A) The purpose of this Section is to establish minimum national
standards for owners and operators of “existing” BIFs that burn
hazardous waste where such standards define the acceptable
management of hazardous waste during the period of interim status.
The standards of this Section apply to owners and operators of
existing facilities until either a permit is issued under Section
726.202(d) or until closure responsibilities identified in this Section
are fulfilled.
B) “Existing” or “in existence” means a BIF for which the owner or
operator filed a certification of precompliance with USEPA pursuant
to federal 40 CFR 266.103(b)
S
, incorporated by reference in
subsection (b) of this Section
S
; provided, however, that USEPA has
not determined that the certification is invalid.
C) If a BIF is located at a facility that already has a RCRA permit or
interim status, then the owner or operator must comply with the
applicable regulations dealing with permit modifications in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.280 or changes in interim status in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
703.155.
2) Exemptions. The requirements of this Section do not apply to hazardous
waste and facilities exempt under Section 726.200(b) or 726.208.
3) Prohibition on burning dioxin-listed wastes. The following hazardous waste
listed for dioxin and hazardous waste derived from any of these wastes must
not be burned in a BIF operating under interim status: USEPA hazardous
waste numbers F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027.
4) Applicability of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 standards. An owner or operator of a
BIF that burns hazardous waste and which is operating under interim status is
subject to the following provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725, except as
provided otherwise by this Section:
729
A) In Subpart A of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 (General), 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.104;
B) In Subpart B of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 (General facility standards),
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.111 through 725.117;
C) In Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 (Preparedness and
prevention), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.131 through 725.137;
D) In Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 (Contingency plan and
emergency procedures), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.151 through 725.156;
E) In Subpart E of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 (Manifest system,
recordkeeping and reporting), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.171 through
725.177, except that 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.171, 725.172 and
725.176 do not apply to owners and operators of on-site facilities that
do not receive any hazardous waste from off-site sources;
F) In Subpart G of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 (Closure and post-closure),
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.211 through 725.215;
G) In Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 (Financial requirements), 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.241, 725.242, 725.243, and 725.247 through
725.251, except that the State of Illinois and the
S
Federal
S
federal
government are exempt from the requirements of Subpart H of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725; and
H) In Subpart BB of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 (Air emission standards for
equipment leaks), except 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.950(a).
5) Special requirements for furnaces. The following controls apply during
interim status to industrial furnaces (e.g., kilns, cupolas) that feed hazardous
waste for a purpose other than solely as an ingredient (see subsection
(a)(5)(B) of this Section) at any location other than the hot end where
products are normally discharged or where fuels are normally fired:
A) Controls.
i) The hazardous waste must be fed at a location where
combustion gas temperature is at least 1800° F;
ii) The owner or operator must determine that adequate oxygen
is present in combustion gases to combust organic
constituents in the waste and retain documentation of such
determination in the facility record;
730
iii) For cement kiln systems, the hazardous waste must be fed
into the kiln; and
iv) The HC controls of Section 726.204(f) or subsection (c)(5) of
this Section apply upon certification of compliance under
subsection (c) of this Section, irrespective of the CO level
achieved during the compliance test.
B) Burning hazardous waste solely as an ingredient. A hazardous waste
is burned for a purpose other than “solely as an ingredient” if it meets
either of the following criteria:
i) The hazardous waste has a total concentration of nonmetal
compounds listed in Appendix H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721,
exceeding 500 ppm by weight, as fired and so is considered to
be burned for destruction. The concentration of nonmetal
compounds in a waste as-generated may be reduced to the
500 ppm limit by bona fide treatment that removes or
destroys nonmetal constituents. Blending for dilution to meet
the 500 ppm limit is prohibited and documentation that the
waste has not been impermissibly diluted must be retained in
the facility record; or
ii) The hazardous waste has a heating value of 5,000 Btu/lb or
more, as fired, and so is considered to be burned as fuel. The
heating value of a waste as-generated may be reduced to
below the 5,000 Btu/lb limit by bona fide treatment that
removes or destroys organic constituents. The heating value
of a waste as-generated may be reduced to below the 5,000
Btu/lb limit by bona fide treatment that removes or destroys
organic constituents. Blending to augment the heating value
to meet the 5,000 Btu/lb limit is prohibited and
documentation that the waste has not been impermissibly
blended must be retained in the facility record.
6) Restrictions on burning hazardous waste that is not a fuel. Prior to
certification of compliance under subsection (c) of this Section, an owner or
operator must not feed hazardous waste that has a heating value less than
5000 Btu/lb, as generated, (except that the heating value of a waste as-
generated may be increased to above the 5,000 Btu/lb limit by bona fide
treatment; however blending to augment the heating value to meet the 5,000
Btu/lb limit is prohibited and records must be kept to document that
impermissible blending has not occurred) in a BIF, except that the following
may occur:
A) Hazardous waste may be burned solely as an ingredient;
731
B) Hazardous waste may be burned for purposes of compliance testing
(or testing prior to compliance testing) for a total period of time not to
exceed 720 hours;
C) Such waste may be burned if the Agency has documentation to show
that the following was true prior to August 21, 1991:
i) The BIF was operating under the interim status standards for
incinerators or thermal treatment units, Subparts O or P of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725;
ii) The BIF met the interim status eligibility requirements under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.153 for Subparts O or P of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725; and
iii) Hazardous waste with a heating value less than 5,000 Btu/lb
was burned prior to that date; or
D) Such waste may be burned in a halogen acid furnace if the waste was
burned as an excluded ingredient under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.102(e)
prior to February 21, 1991, and documentation is kept on file
supporting this claim.
7) Direct transfer to the burner. If hazardous waste is directly transferred from a
transport vehicle to a BIF without the use of a storage unit, the owner or
operator must comply with Section 726.211.
b) Certification of precompliance. This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR
266.103(b), under which USEPA required certain owners and operators to file a
certification of precompliance by August 21, 1991. No similar filing with the
Agency was required, so the Board did not incorporate the federal filing
requirement into the Illinois regulations. This statement maintains structural
parity with the federal regulations.
c) Certification of compliance. The owner or operator must conduct emissions testing
to document compliance with the emissions standards of Sections 726.204(b)
through (e), 726.205, 726.206, and 726.207 and subsection (a)(5)(A)(iv) of this
Section under the procedures prescribed by this subsection (c), except under
extensions of time provided by subsection (c)(7) of this Section. Based on the
compliance test, the owner or operator must submit to the Agency, on or before
August 21, 1992, a complete and accurate “certification of compliance” (under
subsection (c)(4) of this Section) with those emission standards establishing limits on
the operating parameters specified in subsection (c)(1) of this Section.
1) Limits on operating conditions. The owner or operator must establish limits
732
on the following parameters based on operations during the compliance test
(under procedures prescribed in subsection (c)(4)(D) of this Section) or as
otherwise specified and include these limits with the certification of
compliance. The BIF must be operated in accordance with these operating
limits and the applicable emissions standards of Sections 726.204(b) through
(e), 726.205, 726.206, and 726.207 and subsection (a)(5)(A)(iv) of this
Section at all times when there is hazardous waste in the unit.
A) Feed rate of total hazardous waste and (unless complying the Tier I or
adjusted Tier I metals feed rate screening limits under Section
726.206(b) or (e)), pumpable hazardous waste;
B) Feed rate of each metal in the following feedstreams:
i) Total feedstreams, except that industrial furnaces which must
comply with the alternative metals implementation approach
under subsection (c)(3)(B) of this Section must specify limits
on the concentration of each metal in collected PM in lieu of
feed rate limits for total feedstreams; and facilities that
comply with Tier I or Adjusted Tier I metals feed rate
screening limits may set their operating limits at the metal
feed rate screening limits determined under subsection
726.206(b) or (e) of this Section;
BOARD NOTE: Federal subsections 266.103(c)(1)(ii)(A)(1)
and (c)(1)(ii)(A)(2) are condensed into subsection
(c)(1)(B)(i).
ii) Total hazardous waste feed (unless complying with the Tier I
or adjusted Tier I metals feed rate screening limits under
Section 726.206(b) or (e)); and
iii) Total pumpable hazardous waste feed (unless complying with
Tier I or Adjusted Tier I metals feed rate screening limits
under Section 726.206(b) or (e));
C) Total feed rate of total chlorine and chloride in total feed streams,
except that facilities that comply with Tier I or Adjusted Tier I feed
rate screening limits may set their operating limits at the total
chlorine and chloride feed rate screening limits determined under
Section 726.207(b)(1) or (e);
D) Total feed rate of ash in total feed streams, except that the ash feed
rate for cement kilns and light-weight aggregate kilns is not limited;
E) CO concentration, and where required, HC concentration in stack
733
gas. When complying with the CO controls of Section 726.204(b),
the CO limit is 100 ppmv, and when complying with the HC controls
of Section 726.204(c), the HC limit is 20 ppmv. When complying
with the CO controls of Section 726.204(c), the CO limit is
established based on the compliance test;
F) Maximum production rate of the device in appropriate units when
producing normal product unless complying with Tier I or Adjusted
Tier I feed rate screening limits for chlorine under Section
726.207(b)(1) or (e) and for all metals under Section 726.207(b) or
(e), and the uncontrolled particulate emissions do not exceed the
standard under Section 726.205;
G) Maximum combustion chamber temperature where the temperature
measurement is as close to the combustion zone as possible and is
upstream of any quench water injection, (unless complying with the
Tier I adjusted Tier I metals feed rate screening limits under Section
726.206(b) or (e));
H) Maximum flue gas temperature entering a PM control device (unless
complying with Tier I or adjusted Tier I metals feed rate screening
limits under Section 726.206(b) or (e));
I) For systems using wet scrubbers, including wet ionizing scrubbers
(unless complying with the Tier I or adjusted Tier I metals feed rate
screening limits under Section 726.206(b) or (e) and the total chlorine
and chloride feed rate screening limits under Section 726.207(b)(1) or
(e)):
i) Minimum liquid to flue gas ratio;
ii) Minimum scrubber blowdown from the system or maximum
suspended solids content of scrubber water; and
iii) Minimum pH level of the scrubber water;
J) For systems using venturi scrubbers, the minimum differential gas
pressure across the venturi (unless complying the Tier I or adjusted
Tier I metals feed rate screening limits under Section 726.206(b) or
(e) and the total chlorine and chloride feed rate screening limits under
Section 726.207(b)(1) or (e));
K) For systems using dry scrubbers (unless complying with the Tier I or
adjusted Tier I metals feed rate screening limits under Section
726.206(b) or (e) and the total chlorine and chloride feed rate
screening limits under Section 726.207(b)(1) or (e)):
734
i) Minimum caustic feed rate; and
ii) Maximum flue gas flow rate;
L) For systems using wet ionizing scrubbers or electrostatic precipitators
(unless complying with the Tier I or adjusted Tier I metals feed rate
screening limits under Section 726.206(b) or (e) and the total chlorine
and chloride feed rate screening limits under Section 726.207(b)(1) or
(e)):
i) Minimum electrical power in kVA to the precipitator plates;
and
ii) Maximum flue gas flow rate;
M) For systems using fabric filters (baghouses), the minimum pressure
drop (unless complying with the Tier I or adjusted Tier I metals feed
rate screening limits under Section 726.206(b) or (e) and the total
chlorine and chloride feed rate screening limits under Section
726.207(b)(1) or (e)).
2) Prior notice of compliance testing. At least 30 days prior to the compliance
testing required by subsection (c)(3) of this Section, the owner or operator
must notify the Agency and submit the following information:
A) General facility information including:
i) USEPA facility ID number;
ii) Facility name, contact person, telephone number, and
address;
iii) Person responsible for conducting compliance test, including
company name, address, and telephone number, and a
statement of qualifications;
iv) Planned date of the compliance test;
B) Specific information on each device to be tested, including the
following:
i) A Description of BIF;
ii) A scaled plot plan showing the entire facility and location of
the BIF;
735
iii) A description of the APCS;
iv) Identification of the continuous emission monitors that are
installed, including the following: CO monitor; Oxygen
monitor; HC monitor, specifying the minimum temperature of
the system, and, if the temperature is less than 150° C, an
explanation of why a heated system is not used (see
subsection (c)(5) of this Section) and a brief description of the
sample gas conditioning system;
v) Indication of whether the stack is shared with another device
that will be in operation during the compliance test; and
vi) Other information useful to an understanding of the system
design or operation; and
C) Information on the testing planned, including a complete copy of the
test protocol and QA/QC plan, and a summary description for each
test providing the following information at a minimum:
i) Purpose of the test (e.g., demonstrate compliance with
emissions of PM); and
ii) Planned operating conditions, including levels for each
pertinent parameter specified in subsection (c)(1) of this
Section.
3) Compliance testing.
A) General. Compliance testing must be conducted under conditions for
which the owner or operator has submitted a certification of
precompliance under subsection (b) of this Section and under
conditions established in the notification of compliance testing
required by subsection (c)(2) of this Section. The owner or operator
may seek approval on a case-by-case basis to use compliance test
data from one unit in lieu of testing a similar on-site unit. To support
the request, the owner or operator must provide a comparison of the
hazardous waste burned and other feedstreams, and the design,
operation, and maintenance of both the tested unit and the similar
unit. The Agency must provide a written approval to use compliance
test data in lieu of testing a similar unit if the Agency finds that the
hazardous wastes, devices and the operating conditions are
sufficiently similar, and the data from the other compliance test is
adequate to meet the requirements of this subsection (c).
736
B) Special requirements for industrial furnaces that recycle collected
PM. Owners and operators of industrial furnaces that recycle back
into the furnace PM from the APCS must comply with one of the
following procedures for testing to determine compliance with the
metals standards of Section 726.206(c) or (d):
i) The special testing requirements prescribed in “Alternative
Method for Implementing Metals Controls” in Appendix I to
this Part;
ii) Stack emissions testing for a minimum of six hours each day
while hazardous waste is burned during interim status. The
testing must be conducted when burning normal hazardous
waste for that day at normal feed rates for that day and when
the APCS is operated under normal conditions. During
interim status, hazardous waste analysis for metals content
must be sufficient for the owner or operator to determine if
changes in metals content affect the ability of the unit to meet
the metals emissions standards established under Section
726.206(c) or (d). Under this option, operating limits (under
subsection (c)(1) of this Section) must be established during
compliance testing under this subsection (c)(3) only on the
following parameters: feed rate of total hazardous waste;
total feed rate of total chlorine and chloride in total feed
streams; total feed rate of ash in total feed streams, except that
the ash feed rate for cement kilns and light-weight aggregate
kilns is not limited; CO concentration, and where required,
HC concentration in stack gas; and maximum production rate
of the device in appropriate units when producing normal
product; or
iii) Conduct compliance testing to determine compliance with the
metals standards to establish limits on the operating
parameters of subsection (c)(1) of this Section only after the
kiln system has been conditioned to enable it to reach
equilibrium with respect to metals fed into the system and
metals emissions. During conditioning, hazardous waste and
raw materials having the same metals content as will be fed
during the compliance test must be fed at the feed rates that
will be fed during the compliance test.
C) Conduct of compliance testing.
i) If compliance with all applicable emissions standards of
Sections 726.204 through 726.207 is not demonstrated
simultaneously during a set of test runs, the operating
737
conditions of additional test runs required to demonstrate
compliance with remaining emissions standards must be as
close as possible to the original operating conditions.
ii) Prior to obtaining test data for purposes of demonstrating
compliance with the applicable emissions standards of
Sections 726.204 through 726.207 or establishing limits on
operating parameters under this Section, the facility must
operate under compliance test conditions for a sufficient
period to reach steady-state operations. Industrial furnaces
that recycle collected PM back into the furnace and that
comply with subsection (c)(3)(B)(i) or (c)(3)(B)(ii) of this
Section, however, need not reach steady state conditions with
respect to the flow of metals in the system prior to beginning
compliance testing for metals.
iii) Compliance test data on the level of an operating parameter
for which a limit must be established in the certification of
compliance must be obtained during emissions sampling for
the pollutants (i.e., metals, PM, HCl/chlorine gas, organic
compounds) for which the parameter must be established as
specified by subsection (c)(1) of this Section.
4) Certification of compliance. Within 90 days of completing compliance
testing, the owner or operator must certify to the Agency compliance with the
emissions standards of Sections 726.204(b), (c) and (e); 726.205; 726.206;
726.207; and subsection (a)(5)(A)(iv) of this Section. The certification of
compliance must include the following information:
A) General facility and testing information, including the following:
i) USEPA facility ID number;
ii) Facility name, contact person, telephone number, and
address;
iii) Person responsible for conducting compliance testing,
including company name, address, and telephone number,
and a statement of qualifications;
iv) Dates of each compliance test;
v) Description of BIF tested;
vi) Person responsible for QA/QC, title and telephone number,
and statement that procedures prescribed in the QA/QC plan
738
submitted under Section 726.203(c)(2)(C) have been
followed, or a description of any changes and an explanation
of why changes were necessary;
vii) Description of any changes in the unit configuration prior to
or during testing that would alter any of the information
submitted in the prior notice of compliance testing under
subsection (c)(2) of this Section and an explanation of why
the changes were necessary;
viii) Description of any changes in the planned test conditions
prior to or during the testing that alter any of the information
submitted in the prior notice of compliance testing under
subsection (c)(2) of this Section and an explanation of why
the changes were necessary; and
ix) The complete report on results of emissions testing.
B) Specific information on each test, including the following:
i) Purposes of test (e.g., demonstrate conformance with the
emissions limits for PM, metals, HCl, chlorine gas, and CO);
ii) Summary of test results for each run and for each test
including the following information: date of run; duration of
run; time-weighted average and highest hourly rolling
average CO level for each run and for the test; highest hourly
rolling average HC level, if HC monitoring is required for
each run and for the test; if dioxin and furan testing is
required under Section 726.204(e), time-weighted average
emissions for each run and for the test of chlorinated dioxin
and furan emissions, and the predicted maximum annual
average ground level concentration of the toxicity
equivalency factor (defined in Section 726.200(i)); time-
weighted average PM emissions for each run and for the test;
time-weighted average HCl and chlorine gas emissions for
each run and for the test; time-weighted average emissions
for the metals subject to regulation under Section 726.206 for
each run and for the test; and QA/QC results.
C) Comparison of the actual emissions during each test with the
emissions limits prescribed by Sections 726.204(b), (c), and (e);
726.205; 726.206; and 726.207 and established for the facility in the
certification of precompliance under subsection (b) of this Section.
D) Determination of operating limits based on all valid runs of the
739
compliance test for each applicable parameter listed in subsection
(c)(1) of this Section using one of the following procedures:
i) Instantaneous limits. A parameter must be measured and
recorded on an instantaneous basis (i.e., the value that occurs
at any time) and the operating limit specified as the time-
weighted average during all runs of the compliance test.
ii) Hourly rolling average basis. The limit for a parameter must
be established and continuously monitored on an hourly
rolling average basis, as defined in Section 726.200(i). The
operating limit for the parameter must be established based
on compliance test data as the average over all test runs of the
highest hourly rolling average value for each run.
iii) Rolling average limits for carcinogenic metals (as defined in
Section 726.200(i)) and lead. Feed rate limits for the
carcinogenic metals and lead must be established either on an
hourly rolling average basis as prescribed by subsection
(c)(4)(D)(ii) of this Section or on (up to) a 24 hour rolling
average basis. If the owner or operator elects to use an
averaging period from two to 24 hours the following must
occur: the feed rate of each metal must be limited at any time
to ten times the feed rate that would be allowed on a hourly
rolling average basis; the operating limit for the feed rate of
each metal must be established based on compliance test data
as the average over all test runs of the highest hourly rolling
average feed rate for each run; and the continuous monitor
and the rolling average for the selected averaging period
are as defined in Section 726.200(i).
iv) Feed rate limits for metals, total chlorine and chloride, and
ash. Feed rate limits for metals, total chlorine and chloride,
and ash are established and monitored by knowing the
concentration of the substance (i.e., metals, chloride/chlorine,
and ash) in each feedstream and the flow rate of the
feedstream. To monitor the feed rate of these substances, the
flow rate of each feedstream must be monitored under the
continuous monitoring requirements of subsections
(c)(4)(D)(i) through (c)(4)(D)(iii) of this Section.
E) Certification of compliance statement. The following statement must
accompany the certification of compliance:
“I certify under penalty of law that this information was
prepared under my direction or supervision in accordance
740
with a system designed to ensure that qualified personnel
properly gathered and evaluated the information and
supporting documentation. Copies of all emissions tests,
dispersion modeling results, and other information used to
determine conformance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.203(c) are available at the facility and can be
obtained from the facility contact person listed above. Based
on my inquiry of the person or persons who manage the
facility, or those persons directly responsible for gathering the
information, the information submitted is, to the best of my
knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am
aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false
information, including the possibility of fine and
imprisonment for knowing violations.
I also acknowledge that the operating limits established
pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.203(c)(4)(D) are
enforceable limits at which the facility can legally operate
during interim status until a revised certification of
compliance is submitted.”
5) Special requirements for HC monitoring systems. When an owner or
operator is required to comply with the HC controls provided by Section
726.204(c) or subsection (a)(5)(A)(iv) of this Section, a conditioned gas
monitoring system may be used in conformance with specifications provided
in Appendix I to this Part provided that the owner or operator submits a
certification of compliance without using extensions of time provided by
subsection (c)(7) of this Section.
6) Special operating requirements for industrial furnaces that recycle collected
PM. Owners and operators of industrial furnaces that recycle back into the
furnace PM from the APCS must do the following:
A) When complying with the requirements of subsection (c)(3)(B)(i) of
this Section, comply with the operating requirements prescribed in
“Alternative Method to Implement the Metals Controls” in Appendix
I to this Part; and
B) When complying with the requirements of subsection (c)(3)(B)(ii) of
this Section, comply with the operating requirements prescribed by
that subsection.
7) Extensions of time.
A) If the owner or operator does not submit a complete certification of
compliance for all of the applicable emissions standards of Sections
741
726.204, 726.205, 726.206, and 726.207 by August 21, 1992, the
owner or operator must do the following:
i) Stop burning hazardous waste and begin closure activities
under subsection (l) of this Section for the hazardous waste
portion of the facility;
ii) Limit hazardous waste burning only for purposes of
compliance testing (and pretesting to prepare for compliance
testing) a total period of 720 hours for the period of time
beginning August 21, 1992, submit a notification to the
Agency by August 21, 1992 stating that the facility is
operating under restricted interim status and intends to
resume burning hazardous waste, and submit a complete
certification of compliance by August 23, 1993; or
iii) Obtain a case-by-case extension of time under subsection
(c)(7)(B) of this Section.
B) Case-by-case extensions of time. See Section 726.219.
8) Revised certification of compliance. The owner or operator may submit at
any time a revised certification of compliance (recertification of compliance)
under the following procedures:
A) Prior to submittal of a revised certification of compliance, hazardous
waste must not be burned for more than a total of 720 hours under
operating conditions that exceed those established under a current
certification of compliance, and such burning must be conducted only
for purposes of determining whether the facility can operate under
revised conditions and continue to meet the applicable emissions
standards of Sections 726.204, 726.205, 726.206, and 726.207;
B) At least 30 days prior to first burning hazardous waste under
operating conditions that exceed those established under a current
certification of compliance, the owner or operator must notify the
Agency and submit the following information:
i) USEPA facility ID number, and facility name, contact person,
telephone number, and address;
ii) Operating conditions that the owner or operator is seeking to
revise and description of the changes in facility design or
operation that prompted the need to seek to revise the
operating conditions;
742
iii) A determination that, when operating under the revised
operating conditions, the applicable emissions standards of
Sections 726.204, 726.205, 726.206, and 726.207 are not
likely to be exceeded. To document this determination, the
owner or operator must submit the applicable information
required under subsection (b)(2) of this Section; and
iv) Complete emissions testing protocol for any pretesting and
for a new compliance test to determine compliance with the
applicable emissions standards of Sections 726.204, 726.205,
726.206, and 726.207 when operating under revised operating
conditions. The protocol must include a schedule of pre-
testing and compliance testing. If the owner or operator
revises the scheduled date for the compliance test, the owner
or operator must notify the Agency in writing at least 30 days
prior to the revised date of the compliance test;
C) Conduct a compliance test under the revised operating conditions and
the protocol submitted to the Agency to determine compliance with
the applicable emissions standards of Sections 726.204, 726.205,
726.206, and 726.207; and
D) Submit a revised certification of compliance under subsection (c)(4)
of this Section.
d) Periodic Recertifications. The owner or operator must conduct compliance testing
and submit to the Agency a recertification of compliance under provisions of
subsection (c) of this Section within three years from submitting the previous
certification or recertification. If the owner or operator seeks to recertify compliance
under new operating conditions, the owner or operator must comply with the
requirements of subsection (c)(8) of this Section.
e) Noncompliance with certification schedule. If the owner or operator does not
comply with the interim status compliance schedule provided by subsections (b), (c),
and (d) of this Section, hazardous waste burning must terminate on the date that the
deadline is missed, closure activities must begin under subsection (l) of this Section,
and hazardous waste burning must not resume except under an operating permit
issued under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.232. For purposes of compliance with the
closure provisions of subsection (l) of this Section and 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.212(d)(2) and 725.213, the BIF has received “the known final volume of
hazardous waste” on the date the deadline is missed.
f) Start-up and shut-down. Hazardous waste (except waste fed solely as an ingredient
under the Tier I (or adjusted Tier I) feed rate screening limits for metals and
chloride/chlorine) must not be fed into the device during start-up and shut-down of
the BIF, unless the device is operating within the conditions of operation specified in
743
the certification of compliance.
g) Automatic waste feed cutoff. During the compliance test required by subsection
(c)(3) of this Section and upon certification of compliance under subsection (c) of
this Section, a BIF must be operated with a functioning system that automatically
cuts off the hazardous waste feed when the applicable operating conditions specified
in subsections (c)(1)(A) and (c)(1)(E) through (c)(1)(M) of this Section deviate from
those established in the certification of compliance. In addition, the following must
occur:
1) To minimize emissions of organic compounds, the minimum combustion
chamber temperature (or the indicator of combustion chamber temperature)
that occurred during the compliance test must be maintained while hazardous
waste or hazardous waste residues remain in the combustion chamber, with
the minimum temperature during the compliance test defined as either of the
following:
A) If compliance with the combustion chamber temperature limit is
based on a hourly rolling average, the minimum temperature during
the compliance test is considered to be the average over all runs of
the lowest hourly rolling average for each run; or
B) If compliance with the combustion chamber temperature limit is
based on an instantaneous temperature measurement, the minimum
temperature during the compliance test is considered to be the time-
weighted average temperature during all runs of the test; and
2) Operating parameters limited by the certification of compliance must
continue to be monitored during the cutoff, and the hazardous waste feed
must not be restarted until the levels of those parameters comply with the
limits established in the certification of compliance.
h) Fugitive emissions. Fugitive emissions must be controlled as follows:
1) By keeping the combustion zone totally sealed against fugitive emissions; or
2) By maintaining the combustion zone pressure lower than atmospheric
pressure; or
3) By an alternative means of control that the owner or operator demonstrates
provides fugitive emissions control equivalent to maintenance of combustion
zone pressure lower than atmospheric pressure. Support for such
demonstration must be included in the operating record.
i) Changes. A BIF must cease burning hazardous waste when combustion properties,
or feed rates of the hazardous waste, other fuels or industrial furnace feedstocks, or
744
the BIF design or operating conditions deviate from the limits specified in the
certification of compliance.
j) Monitoring and Inspections.
1) The owner or operator must monitor and record the following, at a minimum,
while burning hazardous waste:
A) Feed rates and composition of hazardous waste, other fuels, and
industrial furnace feed stocks and feed rates of ash, metals, and total
chlorine and chloride as necessary to ensure conformance with the
certification of precompliance or certification of compliance;
B) CO, oxygen, and, if applicable, HC on a continuous basis at a
common point in the BIF downstream of the combustion zone and
prior to release of stack gases to the atmosphere in accordance with
the operating limits specified in the certification of compliance. CO,
HC, and oxygen monitors must be installed, operated, and maintained
in accordance with methods specified in Appendix I to this Part; and
C) Upon the request of the Agency, sampling and analysis of the
hazardous waste (and other fuels and industrial furnace feed stocks as
appropriate) and the stack gas emissions must be conducted to verify
that the operating conditions established in the certification of
precompliance or certification of compliance achieve the applicable
standards of Sections 726.204, 726.205, 726.206, and 726.207.
2) The BIF and associated equipment (pumps, valves, pipes, fuel storage tanks,
etc.) must be subjected to thorough visual inspection when they contain
hazardous waste, at least daily for leaks, spills, fugitive emissions, and signs
of tampering.
3) The automatic hazardous waste feed cutoff system and associated alarms
must be tested at least once every seven days when hazardous waste is
burned to verify operability, unless the owner or operator can demonstrate
that weekly inspections will unduly restrict or upset operations and that less
frequent inspections will be adequate. Support for such demonstration must
be included in the operating record. At a minimum, operational testing must
be conducted at least once every 30 days.
4) These monitoring and inspection data must be recorded and the records must
be placed in the operating log.
k) Recordkeeping. The owner or operator must keep in the operating record of the
facility all information and data required by this Section until closure of the BIF unit.
745
l) Closure. At closure, the owner or operator must remove all hazardous waste and
hazardous waste residues (including, but not limited to, ash, scrubber waters and
scrubber sludges) from the BIF and must comply with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.211
through 725.215.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.204 Standards to Control Organic Emissions
a) DRE standard.
1) General. Except as provided in subsection (a)(3) of this Section, a BIF
burning hazardous waste must achieve a DRE of 99.99 percent for all
organic hazardous constituents in the waste feed. To demonstrate
conformance with this requirement, 99.99 percent DRE must be
demonstrated during a trial burn for each principal organic hazardous
constituent (POHC) designated (under subsection (a)(2) of this Section) in
its permit for each waste feed. DRE is determined for each POHC from the
following equation:
DRE = 100
(I - O)
I
Where:
I = Mass feed rate of one POHC in the hazardous waste
fired to the BIF; and
O = Mass emission rate of the same POHC present in
stack gas prior to release to the atmosphere.
2) Designation of POHCs. POHCs are those compounds for which compliance
with the DRE requirements of this Section must be demonstrated in a trial
burn in conformance with procedures prescribed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
703.232. One or more POHCs must be designated by the Agency for each
waste feed to be burned. POHCs must be designated based on the degree of
difficulty of destruction of the organic constituents in the waste and on their
concentrations or mass in the waste feed considering the results of waste
analyses submitted with Part B of the permit application. POHCs are most
likely to be selected from among those compounds listed in Appendix H to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 that are also present in the normal waste feed.
However, if the applicant demonstrates to the Agency that a compound not
listed in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 or not present in the normal
waste feed is a suitable indicator of compliance with the DRE requirements
of this Section, that compound must be designated as a POHC. Such
POHCs need not be toxic or organic compounds.
746
3) Dioxin-listed waste. A BIF burning hazardous waste containing (or derived
from) USEPA Hazardous Wastes Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, or
F027 must achieve a destruction and removal efficiency (DRE) of 99.9999
percent for each POHC designated (under subsection (a)(2) of this Section)
in its permit. This performance must be demonstrated on POHCs that are
more difficult to burn than tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
and dibenzofurans. DRE is determined for each POHC from the equation in
subsection (a)(1) of this Section. In addition, the owner or operator of the
BIF must notify the Agency of intent to burn USEPA hazardous waste
numbers F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, or F027.
4) Automatic waiver of DRE trial burn. Owners and operators of boilers
operated under the special operating requirements provided by Section
726.210 are considered to be in compliance with the DRE standard of
subsection (a)(1) of this Section and are exempt from the DRE trial burn.
5) Low risk waste. Owners and operators of BIFs that burn hazardous waste in
compliance with the requirements of Section 726.209(a) are considered to
be in compliance with the DRE standard of subsection (a)(1) of this Section
and are exempt from the DRE trial burn.
b) CO standard.
1) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this Section, the stack gas
concentration of CO from a BIF burning hazardous waste cannot exceed
100 ppmv on an hourly rolling average basis (i.e., over any 60 minute
period), continuously corrected to seven percent oxygen, dry gas basis.
2) CO and oxygen must be continuously monitored in conformance with
“Performance Specifications for Continuous Emission Monitoring of
Carbon Monoxide and Oxygen for Incinerators, Boilers, and Industrial
Furnaces Burning Hazardous Waste” in Appendix I to this Part.
3) Compliance with the 100 ppmv CO limit must be demonstrated during the
trial burn (for new facilities or an interim status facility applying for a
permit) or the compliance test (for interim status facilities). To demonstrate
compliance, the highest hourly rolling average CO level during any valid
run of the trial burn or compliance test must not exceed 100 ppmv.
c) Alternative CO standard.
1) The stack gas concentration of CO from a BIF burning hazardous waste
may exceed the 100 ppmv limit provided that stack gas concentrations of
HCs do not exceed 20 ppmv, except as provided by subsection (f) of this
Section for certain industrial furnaces.
747
2) HC limits must be established under this Section on an hourly rolling
average basis (i.e., over any 60 minute period), reported as propane, and
continuously corrected to seven percent oxygen, dry gas basis.
3) HC must be continuously monitored in conformance with “Performance
Specifications for Continuous Emission Monitoring of Hydrocarbons for
Incinerators, Boilers, and Industrial Furnaces Burning Hazardous Waste” in
Appendix I to this Part. CO and oxygen must be continuously monitored in
conformance with subsection (b)(2) of this Section.
4) The alternative CO standard is established based on CO data during the trial
burn (for a new facility) and the compliance test (for an interim status
facility). The alternative CO standard is the average over all valid runs of
the highest hourly average CO level for each run. The CO limit is
implemented on an hourly rolling average basis, and continuously corrected
to seven percent oxygen, dry gas basis.
d) Special requirements for furnaces. Owners and operators of industrial furnaces
(e.g., kilns, cupolas) that feed hazardous waste for a purpose other than solely as an
ingredient (see Section 726.203(a)(5)(B)) at any location other than the end where
products are normally discharged and where fuels are normally fired must comply
with the HC limits provided by subsection (c) or (f) of this Section irrespective of
whether stack gas CO concentrations meet the 100 ppmv limit of subsection (b) of
this Section.
e) Controls for dioxins and furans. Owners and operators of BIFs that are equipped
with a dry PM control device that operates within the temperature range of 450º
through 750° F, and industrial furnaces operating under an alternative HC limit
established under subsection (f) of this Section must conduct a site-specific risk
assessment as follows to demonstrate that emissions of chlorinated dibenzo-p-
dioxins and dibenzofurans do not result in an increased lifetime cancer risk to the
hypothetical maximum exposed individual (MEI) exceeding 1
×
10
P
-5
P
(1 in 100,000):
1) During the trial burn (for new facilities or an interim status facility applying
for a permit) or compliance test (for interim status facilities), determine
emission rates of the tetra-octa congeners of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins
and dibenzofurans (CDDs/CDFs) using Method 0023A
S
, “
S
(Sampling
Method for Polychlorinated Dibenzo-p-Dioxins and Polychlorinated
Dibenzofurans Emissions from Stationary Sources
S
,”
S
) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
S
publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a);
2) Estimate the 2,3,7,8-TCDD toxicity equivalence of the tetra-octa
CDDs/CDFs congeners using
S
“
S
section 4.0 (Procedures for Estimating the
748
Toxicity Equivalence of Chlorinated Dibenzo-p-Dioxin and Dibenzofuran
Congeners
S
”
S
) in appendix IX to 40 CFR 266 (Methods Manual for
Compliance with the BIF Regulations), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(b) (see Appendix I to this Part). Multiply the
emission rates of CDD/CDF congeners with a toxicity equivalence greater
than zero (see the procedure) by the calculated toxicity equivalence factor to
estimate the equivalent emission rate of 2,3,7,8-TCDD;
3) Conduct dispersion modeling using methods recommended in federal
appendix W to 40 CFR 51
S
, Appendix W, as incorporated by reference at
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
(
S
“
S
Guideline on Air Quality Models
S
(Revised)”
(1986) and its supplements
S
),
S
the “
S
in section 5.0 (Hazardous Waste
Combustion Air Quality Screening Procedure
S
,”
S
)
S
provided in Appendix I
S
in
appendix IX to 40 CFR 266 (Methods Manual for Compliance with the
BIF Regulations), or in “Screening Procedures for Estimating Air Quality
Impact of Stationary Sources, Revised,”
S
(
S
USEPA publication number EPA-
454/R-92-019, each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111
S
)
S
, to predict the maximum annual average off-site ground level
concentration of 2,3,7,8-TCDD equivalents determined under subsection
(e)(2) of this Section. The maximum annual average on-site concentration
must be used when a person resides on-site; and
4) The ratio of the predicted maximum annual average ground level
concentration of 2,3,7,8-TCDD equivalents to the risk-specific dose (RSD)
for 2,3,7,8-TCDD provided in Appendix E to this Part (2.2
×
10
P
-7
P
) must not
exceed 1.0.
f) Monitoring CO and HC in the by-pass duct of a cement kiln. Cement kilns may
comply with the CO and HC limits provided by subsections (b), (c), and (d) of this
Section by monitoring in the by-pass duct provided that the following conditions
are fulfilled:
1) Hazardous waste is fired only into the kiln and not at any location
downstream from the kiln exit relative to the direction of gas flow; and
2) The by-pass duct diverts a minimum of 10 percent of kiln off-gas into the
duct.
g) Use of emissions test data to demonstrate compliance and establish operating
limits. Compliance with the requirements of this Section must be demonstrated
simultaneously by emissions testing or during separate runs under identical
operating conditions. Further, data to demonstrate compliance with the CO and HC
limits of this Section or to establish alternative CO or HC limits under this Section
must be obtained during the time that DRE testing, and where applicable,
CDD/CDF testing under subsection (e) of this Section and comprehensive organic
emissions testing under subsection (f) of this Section is conducted.
749
h) Enforcement. For the purposes of permit enforcement, compliance with the
operating requirements specified in the permit (under Section 726.202) will be
regarded as compliance with this Section. However, evidence that compliance with
those permit conditions is insufficient to ensure compliance with the requirements
of this Section is “information” justifying modification or revocation and re-
issuance of a permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.270 et seq.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.205 Standards to Control PM
a) A BIF burning hazardous waste must not emit PM in excess of 180 mg/dry standard
m
P
3
P
(0.08 grains/dry standard cubic foot) after correction to a stack gas concentration
of seven percent oxygen, using procedures prescribed in the following methods in
appendix A to 40 CFR 60
S
, Appendix A, methods 1 through 5
S
(Test Methods),
each incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111,
S
720.111(b)
S
and
incorporated by reference in
S
(see Appendix I of this Part): Method 1 (Sample and
Velocity Traverses for Stationary Sources), Method 2 (Determination of Volatile
Organic Compound Leaks), Method 2A (Direct Measurement of Gas Volume
through Pipes and Small Ducts), Method 2B (Determination of Exhaust Gas
Volume Flow Rate from Gasoline Vapor Incinerators), Method 2C (Determination
of Gas Velocity and Volumetric Flow Rate in Small Stacks or Ducts (Standard
Pitot Tube)), Method 2D (Measurement of Gas Volume Flow Rates in Small Pipes
and Ducts), Method 2E (Determination of Landfill Gas Production Flow Rate),
Method 2F (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity and Volumetric Flow Rate with
Three-Dimensional Probes), Method 2G (Determination of Stack Gas Velocity
and Volumetric Flow Rate with Two-Dimensional Probes), Method 2H
(Determination of Stack Gas Velocity Taking into Account Velocity Decay Near
the Stack Wall), Method 3 (Gas Analysis for the Determination of Dry Molecular
Weight), Method 3A (Determination of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide
Concentrations in Emissions from Stationary Sources (Instrumental Analyzer
Procedure)), Method 3B (Gas Analysis for the Determination of Emission Rate
Correction Factor or Excess Air), Method 3C (Determination of Carbon Dioxide,
Methane, Nitrogen, and Oxygen from Stationary Sources), Method 4
(Determination of Moisture Content in Stack Gases), Method 5 (Determination of
Particulate Matter Emissions from Stationary Sources), Method 5A
(Determination of Particulate Matter Emissions from the Asphalt Processing and
Asphalt Roofing Industry), Method 5B (Determination of Nonsulfuric Acid
Particulate Matter Emissions from Stationary Sources), Method 5D
(Determination of Particulate Matter Emissions from Positive Pressure Fabric
Filters), Method 5E (Determination of Particulate Matter Emissions from the
Wool Fiberglass Insulation Manufacturing Industry), Method 5F (Determination
of Nonsulfate Particulate Matter Emissions from Stationary Sources), Method 5G
(Determination of Particulate Matter Emissions from Wood Heaters (Dilution
Tunnel Sampling Location)), Method 5H (Determination of Particulate Emissions
750
from Wood Heaters from a Stack Location), and Method 5I (Determination of
Low Level Particulate Matter Emissions from Stationary Sources).
b) An owner or operator meeting the requirements of Section 726.209(b) for the low
risk waste exemption is exempt from the PM standard.
c) Oxygen correction.
1) Measured pollutant levels must be corrected for the amount of oxygen in
the stack gas according to the following formula:
(
)
Y
-
E
14
P
P
m
c
×
=
Where:
P
B
c
B
=
S
is
S
the corrected concentration of the pollutant in the stack
gas
S
,
S
P
B
m
B
=
S
is
S
the measured concentration of the pollutant in the stack
gas
S
,
S
E =
S
is
S
the oxygen concentration on a dry basis in the
combustion air fed to the device
S
, and
S
Y =
S
is
S
the measured oxygen concentration on a dry basis in the
stack.
2) For devices that feed normal combustion air, E will equal 21 percent. For
devices that feed oxygen-enriched air for combustion (that is, air with an
oxygen concentration exceeding 21 percent), the value of E will be the
concentration of oxygen in the enriched air.
3) Compliance with all emission standards provided by this Subpart H must
be based on correcting to seven percent oxygen using this procedure.
d) For the purposes of permit enforcement, compliance with the operating requirements
specified in the permit (under Section 726.202) will be regarded as compliance with
this Section. However, evidence that compliance with those permit conditions is
insufficient to ensure compliance with the requirements of this Section is
“information” justifying modification or revocation and re-issuance of a permit under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.270 through 703.273.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
751
Section 726.206 Standards to Control Metals Emissions
a) General. The owner or operator must comply with the metals standards provided
by subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of this Section for each metal listed in
subsection (b) of this Section that is present in the hazardous waste at detectable
levels using appropriate analytical procedures
S
specified in Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods, SW-846, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
.
b) Tier I feed rate screening limits. Feed rate screening limits for metals are
specified in Appendix A to this Part as a function of terrain-adjusted effective
stack height (TESH) and terrain and land use in the vicinity of the facility.
Criteria for facilities that are not eligible to comply with the screening limits are
provided in subsection (b)(7) of this Section.
1) Noncarcinogenic metals. The feed rates of the noncarcinogenic metals in
all feed streams, including hazardous waste, fuels, and industrial furnace
feed stocks must not exceed the screening limits specified in Appendix A
to this Part.
A) The feed rate screening limits for antimony, barium, mercury,
thallium, and silver are based on either of the following:
i) An hourly rolling average, as defined in Sections
726.200(g) and 726.202(e)(6)(A)(ii); or
ii) An instantaneous limit not to be exceeded at any time.
B) The feed rate screening limit for lead is based on one of the
following:
i) An hourly rolling average, as defined in Sections
726.200(g) and 726.202(e)(6)(A)(ii);
ii) An averaging period of 2 to 24 hours, as defined in Section
726.202(e)(6)(B) with an instantaneous feed rate limit not
to exceed 10 times the feed rate that would be allowed on
an hourly rolling average basis; or
iii) An instantaneous limit not to be exceeded at any time.
2) Carcinogenic metals.
A) The feed rates of carcinogenic metals in all feed streams, including
hazardous waste, fuels, and industrial furnace feed stocks must not
exceed values derived from the screening limits specified in
752
Appendix A to this Part. The feed rate of each of these metals is
limited to a level such that the sum of the ratios of the actual feed
rate to the feed rate screening limit specified in Appendix A to this
Part must not exceed 1.0, as provided by the following equation:
i=1
n
i
i
A
F
1.0
∑
≤
Where:
Σ
A
B
i
B
/F
B
i
B
=
S
means
S
the sum of the values of A/F for
each metal “i,” from i = 1 to n
S
.
S
n = number of carcinogenic metals
S
.
S
A
B
i
B
= the actual feed rate to the device for metal
“i
S
.
S
”
F
B
i
B
= the feed rate screening limit provided by
Appendix A to this Part for metal “i.”
B) The feed rate screening limits for the carcinogenic metals are
based on either:
i) An hourly rolling average; or
ii) An averaging period of two to 24 hours, as defined in
Section 726.202(e)(6)(B), with an instantaneous feed rate
limit not to exceed 10 times the feed rate that would be
allowed on an hourly rolling average basis.
3) TESH (terrain adjusted effective stack height).
A) The TESH is determined according to the following equation:
TESH = H + P - T
Where:
H = Actual physical stack height (m).
P = Plume rise (in m) as determined from
Appendix F to this Part as a function of
stack flow rate and stack gas exhaust
temperature.
753
T = Terrain rise (in m) within five kilometers of
the stack.
B) The stack height (H) must not exceed good engineering practice
stack height, as defined in Section 726.200(i).
C) If the TESH calculated pursuant to subsection (b)(3)(A) of this
Section is not listed in Appendix A through Appendix C to this
Part, the values for the nearest lower TESH listed in the table must
be used. If the TESH is four meters or less, a value based on four
meters must be used.
4) Terrain type. The screening limits are a function of whether the facility is
located in noncomplex or complex terrain. A device located where any
part of the surrounding terrain within five kilometers of the stack equals or
exceeds the elevation of the physical stack height (H) is considered to be
in complex terrain and the screening limits for complex terrain apply.
Terrain measurements are to be made from U.S. Geological Survey 7.5-
minute topographic maps of the area surrounding the facility.
5) Land use. The screening limits are a function of whether the facility is
located in an area where the land use is urban or rural. To determine
whether land use in the vicinity of the facility is urban or rural, procedures
provided in Appendix I or Appendix J to this Part must be used.
6) Multiple stacks. An
S
owners
S
owner or operator of a facility with more than
one on-site stack from a BIF, incinerator, or other thermal treatment unit
subject to controls of metals emissions under a RCRA permit or interim
status controls must comply with the screening limits for all such units
assuming all hazardous waste is fed into the device with the worst-case
stack based on dispersion characteristics. The stack with the lowest value
of K is the worst-case stack. K is determined from the following equation
as applied to each stack:
K = H
×
V
×
T
Where:
K = a parameter accounting for relative influence of
stack height and plume rise
S
;
S
H = physical stack height (meters)
S
;
S
V = stack gas flow rate (m
P
3
P
/sec (cubic meters per
second)
S
; and
S
754
T = exhaust temperature (degrees K).
7) Criteria for facilities not eligible for screening limits. If any criteria below
are met, the Tier I (and Tier II) screening limits do not apply. Owners and
operators of such facilities must comply with either the Tier III standards
provided by subsection (d) of this Section or with the adjusted Tier I feed
rate screening limits provided by subsection (e) of this Section.
A) The device is located in a narrow valley less than one kilometer
wide;
B) The device has a stack taller than 20 meters and is located such
that the terrain rises to the physical height within one kilometer of
the facility;
C) The device has a stack taller than 20 meters and is located within
five kilometers of a shoreline of a large body of water such as an
ocean or large lake; or
D) The physical stack height of any stack is less than 2.5 times the
height of any building within five building heights or five
projected building widths of the stack and the distance from the
stack to the closest boundary is within five building heights or five
projected building widths of the associated building.
8) Implementation. The feed rate of metals in each feedstream must be
monitored to ensure that the feed rate screening limits are not exceeded.
c) Tier II emission rate screening limits. Emission rate screening limits are specified
in Appendix A to this Part as a function of TESH and terrain and land use in the
vicinity of the facility. Criteria for facilities that are not eligible to comply with
the screening limits are provided in subsection (b)(7) of this Section.
1) Noncarcinogenic metals. The emission rates of noncarcinogenic metals
must not exceed the screening limits specified in Appendix A to this Part.
2) Carcinogenic metals. The emission rates of carcinogenic metals must not
exceed values derived from the screening limits specified in Appendix A
to this Part. The emission rate of each of these metals is limited to a level
such that the sum of the ratios of the actual emission rate to the emission
rate screening limit specified in Appendix A to this Part must not exceed
1.0, as provided by the following equation:
755
1.0
E
A
i
i
n
1
=
i
≤
∑
Where:
Σ
A
B
i
B
/E
B
i
B
S
means
S
= the sum of the values of A/E for each
metal “i,” from i = 1 to n
S
.
S
n = number of carcinogenic metals
S
.
S
A
B
i
B
= the actual emission rate to the device for metal “i
S
.
S
”
E
B
i
B
= the emission rate screening limit provided by
Appendix A to this Part for metal “i.”
3) Implementation. The emission rate limits must be implemented by
limiting feed rates of the individual metals to levels during the trial burn
(for new facilities or an interim status facility applying for a permit) or the
compliance test (for interim status facilities). The feed rate averaging
periods are the same as provided by subsections (b)(1)(A), (b)(1)(B), and
(b)(2)(B) of this Section. The feed rate of metals in each feedstream must
be monitored to ensure that the feed rate limits for the feedstreams
specified under Sections 726.202 or 726.203 are not exceeded.
4) Definitions and limitations. The definitions and limitations provided by
subsection (b) of this Section and 726.200(g) for the following terms also
apply to the Tier II emission rate screening limits provided by this
subsection (c): TESH, good engineering practice stack height, terrain
type, land use, and criteria for facilities not eligible to use the screening
limits.
5) Multiple stacks.
A) An owner or operator of a facility with more than one on-site stack
from a BIF, incinerator, or other thermal treatment unit subject to
controls on metals emissions under a RCRA permit or interim
status controls must comply with the emissions screening limits for
any such stacks assuming all hazardous waste is fed into the device
with the worst-case stack based on dispersion characteristics.
B) The worst-case stack is determined by procedures provided in
subsection (b)(6) of this Section.
C) For each metal, the total emissions of the metal from those stacks
must not exceed the screening limit for the worst-case stack.
756
d) Tier III site-specific risk assessment. The requirements of this subsection (d)
apply to facilities complying with either the Tier III or Adjusted Tier I except
where specified otherwise.
1) General. Conformance with the Tier III metals controls must be
demonstrated by emissions testing to determine the emission rate for each
metal. In addition, conformance with either Tier III or Adjusted Tier I
metals controls must be demonstrated by air dispersion modeling to
predict the maximum annual average off-site ground level concentration
for each metal and a demonstration that acceptable ambient levels are not
exceeded.
2) Acceptable ambient levels. Appendix D and Appendix E to this Part list
the acceptable ambient levels for purposes of this Subpart H. Reference
air concentrations (RACs) are listed for the noncarcinogenic metals and
1
×
10
P
-5
P
RSDs are listed for the carcinogenic metals. The RSD for a metal
is the acceptable ambient level for that metal provided that only one of the
four carcinogenic metals is emitted. If more than one carcinogenic metal
is emitted, the acceptable ambient level for the carcinogenic metals is a
fraction of the RSD, as described in subsection (d)(3) of this Section.
3) Carcinogenic metals. For the carcinogenic metals the sum of the ratios of
the predicted maximum annual average off-site ground level
concentrations (except that on-site concentrations must be considered if a
person resides on site) to the RSD for all carcinogenic metals emitted must
not exceed 1.0 as determined by the following equation:
i=1
n
i
i
P
R
1.0
∑
≤
Where:
Σ
P
B
i
B
/R
B
i
BS
means
S
= the sum of the values of P/R for each metal
“i,” from i = 1 to n
S
.
S
n = number of carcinogenic metals
S
.
S
P
B
i
B
= the predicted ambient concentration for metal i
S
.
S
R
B
i
B
= the RSD for metal i.
4) Noncarcinogenic metals. For the noncarcinogenic metals, the predicted
maximum annual average off-site ground level concentration for each
metal must not exceed the RAC.
757
5) Multiple stacks. Owners and operators of facilities with more than one
on-site stack from a BIF, incinerator, or other thermal treatment unit
subject to controls on metals emissions under a RCRA permit or interim
status controls must conduct emissions testing (except that facilities
complying with Adjusted Tier I controls need not conduct emissions
testing) and dispersion modeling to demonstrate that the aggregate
emissions from all such on-site stacks do not result in an exceedence of
the acceptable ambient levels.
6) Implementation. Under Tier III, the metals controls must be implemented
by limiting feed rates of the individual metals to levels during the trial
burn (for new facilities or an interim status facility applying for a permit)
or the compliance test (for interim status facilities). The feed rate
averaging periods are the same as provided by subsections (b)(1)(A),
(b)(1)(B), and (b)(2)(B) of this Section. The feed rate of metals in each
feedstream must be monitored to ensure that the feed rate limits for the
feedstreams specified under Sections 726.202 or 726.203 are not
exceeded.
e) Adjusted Tier I feed rate screening limits. The owner or operator may adjust the
feed rate screening limits provided by Appendix A to this Part to account for site-
specific dispersion modeling. Under this approach, the adjusted feed rate
screening limit for a metal is determined by back-calculating from the acceptable
ambient levels provided by Appendix D and Appendix E to this Part using
dispersion modeling to determine the maximum allowable emission rate. This
emission rate becomes the adjusted Tier I feed rate screening limit. The feed rate
screening limits for carcinogenic metals are implemented as prescribed in
subsection (b)(2) of this Section.
f) Alternative implementation approaches.
1) Pursuant to subsection (f)(2) of this Section the Agency must approve on a
case-by-case basis approaches to implement the Tier II or Tier III metals
emission limits provided by subsection (c) or (d) of this Section alternative
to monitoring the feed rate of metals in each feedstream.
2) The emission limits provided by subsection (d) of this Section must be
determined as follows:
A) For each noncarcinogenic metal, by back-calculating from the
RAC provided in Appendix D to this Part to determine the
allowable emission rate for each metal using the dilution factor for
the maximum annual average ground level concentration predicted
by dispersion modeling in conformance with subsection (h) of this
Section; and
758
B) For each carcinogenic metal by the following methods:
i) By back-calculating from the RSD provided in Appendix E
to this Part to determine the allowable emission rate for
each metal if that metal were the only carcinogenic metal
emitted using the dilution factor for the maximum annual
average ground level concentration predicted by dispersion
modeling in conformance with subsection (h) of this
Section; and
ii) If more than one carcinogenic metal is emitted, by selecting
an emission limit for each carcinogenic metal not to exceed
the emission rate determined by subsection (f)(2)(B)(i) of
this Section, such that the sum for all carcinogenic metals
of the ratios of the selected emission limit to the emission
rate determined by that subsection does not exceed 1.0.
g) Emission testing.
1) General. Emission testing for metals must be conducted using Method
0060
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Determinations of Metals in Stack Emissions
S
,”
S
) in “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
S
publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
2) Hexavalent chromium. Emissions of chromium are assumed to be
hexavalent chromium unless the owner or operator conducts emissions
testing to determine hexavalent chromium emissions using procedures
prescribed in Method 0061
S
,
S
S
“
S
(Determination of Hexavalent Chromium
Emissions from Stationary Sources
S
,”
S
) in “Test Methods for Evaluating
Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
S
publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
h) Dispersion modeling. Dispersion modeling required under this Section must be
conducted according to methods recommended in federal appendix W to 40 CFR
51
S
, appendix W
S
(
S
“
S
Guideline on Air Quality Models
S
(Revised)” (1986) and its
supplements
S
),
S
the “
S
in section 5.0 (Hazardous Waste Combustion Air Quality
Screening Procedure
S
,”
S
)
S
described in Appendix I to this Part
S
in appendix IX to 40
CFR 266 (Methods Manual for Compliance with the BIF Regulations), or in
“Screening Procedures for Estimating the Air Quality Impact of Stationary
Sources, Revised,”
S
(
S
USEPA publication number EPA-454/R-92-019, each
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
)
S
, to predict the maximum
annual average off-site ground level concentration. However, on-site
concentrations must be considered when a person resides on-site.
759
i) Enforcement. For the purposes of permit enforcement, compliance with the
operating requirements specified in the permit (under Section 726.202) will be
regarded as compliance with this Section. However, evidence that compliance
with those permit conditions is insufficient to ensure compliance with the
requirements of this Section is “information” justifying modification or
revocation and re-issuance of a permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.270 through
703.273.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.207 Standards to Control HCl and Chlorine Gas Emissions
a) General. The owner or operator must comply with the HCl and chlorine gas controls
provided by subsection (b), (c), or (e) of this Section.
b) Screening limits.
1) Tier I feed rate screening limits. Feed rate screening limits are specified for
total chlorine in Appendix B to this Part as a function of TESH and terrain
and land use in the vicinity of the facility. The feed rate of total chlorine and
chloride, both organic and inorganic, in all feed streams, including hazardous
waste, fuels, and industrial furnace feed stocks must not exceed the levels
specified.
2) Tier II emission rate screening limits. Emission rate screening limits for HCl
and chlorine gas are specified in Appendix C to this Part as a function of
TESH and terrain and land use in the vicinity of the facility. The stack
emission rates of HCl and chlorine gas must not exceed the levels specified.
3) Definitions and limitations. The definitions and limitations provided by
Sections 726.200(i) and 726.206(b) for the following terms also apply to the
screening limits provided by this subsection: TESH, good engineering
practice stack height, terrain type, land use, and criteria for facilities not
eligible to use the screening limits.
4) Multiple stacks. Owners and operators of facilities with more than one on-
site stack from a BIF, incinerator or other thermal treatment unit subject to
controls on HCl or chlorine gas emissions under a RCRA permit or interim
status controls must comply with the Tier I and Tier II screening limits for
those stacks assuming all hazardous waste is fed into the device with the
worst-case stack based on dispersion characteristics.
A) The worst-case stack is determined by procedures provided in
Section 726.206(b)(6).
760
B) Under Tier I, the total feed rate of chlorine and chloride to all subject
devices must not exceed the screening limit for the worst-case stack.
C) Under Tier II, the total emissions of HCl and chlorine gas from all
subject stacks must not exceed the screening limit for the worst-case
stack.
c) Tier III site-specific risk assessments.
1) General. Conformance with the Tier III controls must be demonstrated by
emissions testing to determine the emission rate for HCl and chlorine gas, air
dispersion modeling to predict the maximum annual average off-site ground
level concentration for each compound, and a demonstration that acceptable
ambient levels are not exceeded.
2) Acceptable ambient levels. Appendix D to this Part lists the RACs for HCl
(7
S
ug/m
SP
S
3
S
P
μ
g/m
P
3
P
) and chlorine gas (0.4
S
ug/m
S
P
S
3
S
P
μ
g/m
P
3
P
).
3) Multiple stacks. Owners and operators of facilities with more than one on-
site stack from a BIF, incinerator, or other thermal treatment unit subject to
controls on HCl or chlorine gas emissions under a RCRA permit or interim
status controls must conduct emissions testing and dispersion modeling to
demonstrate that the aggregate emissions from all such on-site stacks do not
result in an exceedence of the acceptable ambient levels for HCl and chlorine
gas.
d) Averaging periods. The HCl and chlorine gas controls are implemented by limiting
the feed rate of total chlorine and chloride in all feedstreams, including hazardous
waste, fuels, and industrial furnace feed stocks. Under Tier I, the feed rate of total
chlorine and chloride is limited to the Tier I Screening Limits. Under Tier II and
Tier III, the feed rate of total chlorine and chloride is limited to the feed rates during
the trial burn (for new facilities or an interim status facility applying for a permit) or
the compliance test (for interim status facilities). The feed rate limits are based on
either of the following:
1) An hourly rolling average, as defined in Sections 726.200(i) and
726.202(e)(6); or
2) An instantaneous basis not to be exceeded at any time.
e) Adjusted Tier I feed rate screening limits. The owner or operator may adjust the feed
rate screening limit provided by Appendix B to this Part to account for site-specific
dispersion modeling. Under this approach, the adjusted feed rate screening limit is
determined by back-calculating from the acceptable ambient level for chlorine gas
provided by Appendix D to this Part using dispersion modeling to determine the
maximum allowable emission rate. This emission rate becomes the adjusted Tier I
761
feed rate screening limit.
f) Emissions testing. Emissions testing for HCl and chlorine gas (Cl
B
2
B
) must be
conducted using the procedures described in Method 0050 or 0051, in “Test
Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
S
publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
g) Dispersion modeling. Dispersion modeling must be conducted according to the
provisions of Section 726.206(h).
h) Enforcement. For the purposes of permit enforcement, compliance with the
operating requirements specified in the permit (under Section 726.202) will be
regarded as compliance with this Section. However, evidence that compliance with
those permit conditions is insufficient to ensure compliance with the requirements of
this Section is “information” justifying modification or revocation and re-issuance of
a permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.270 through 703.273.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.211 Standards for Direct Transfer
a) Applicability. The regulations in this Section apply to owners and operators of BIFs
subject to Section 726.202 or 726.203 if hazardous waste is directly transferred from
a transport vehicle to a BIF without the use of a storage unit.
b) Definitions.
1) When used in this Section, terms have the following meanings:
“Direct transfer equipment” means any device (including but not
limited to, such devices as piping, fittings, flanges, valves and pumps)
that is used to distribute, meter or control the flow of hazardous waste
between a container (i.e., transport vehicle) and a BIF.
“Container” means any portable device in which hazardous waste is
transported, stored, treated, or otherwise handled, and includes
transport vehicles that are containers themselves (e.g., tank trucks,
tanker-trailers, and rail tank cars) and containers placed on or in a
transport vehicle.
2) This Section references several requirements provided in Subparts I and J of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and Subparts I and J of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725. For
purposes of this Section, the term “tank systems” in those referenced
requirements means direct transfer equipment, as defined in subsection (b)(1)
of this Section.
762
c) General operating requirements.
1) No direct transfer of a pumpable hazardous waste must be conducted from an
open-top container to a BIF.
2) Direct transfer equipment used for pumpable hazardous waste must always
be closed, except when necessary to add or remove the waste, and must not
be opened, handled, or stored in a manner that could cause any rupture or
leak.
3) The direct transfer of hazardous waste to a BIF must be conducted so that it
does not do any of the following:
A) Generate extreme heat or pressure, fire, explosion, or violent
reaction;
B) Produce uncontrolled toxic mists, fumes, dusts, or gases in sufficient
quantities to threaten human health;
C) Produce uncontrolled flammable fumes or gases in sufficient
quantities to pose a risk of fire or explosions;
D) Damage the structural integrity of the container or direct transfer
equipment containing the waste;
E) Adversely affect the capability of the BIF to meet the standards
provided by Sections 726.204 through 726.207; or
F) Threaten human health or the environment.
4) Hazardous waste must not be placed in direct transfer equipment, if it could
cause the equipment or its secondary containment system to rupture, leak,
corrode, or otherwise fail.
5) The owner or operator of the facility must use appropriate controls and
practices to prevent spills and overflows from the direct transfer equipment
or its secondary containment systems. These include the following at a
minimum:
A) Spill prevention controls (e.g., check valves, dry discount couplings,
etc.); and
B) Automatic waste feed cutoff to use if a leak or spill occurs from the
direct transfer equipment.
763
d) Areas where direct transfer vehicles (containers) are located. Applying the definition
of container under this Section, owners and operators must comply with the
following requirements:
1) The containment requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.275;
2) The use and management requirements of Subpart I of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725, except for Sections 725.270 and 725.274, and except that in lieu of the
special requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.276 for ignitable or reactive
waste, the owner or operator may comply with the requirements for the
maintenance of protective distances between the waste management area and
any public ways, streets, alleys, or an adjacent property line that can be built
upon, as required in Tables 2-1 through 2-6 of “Flammable and
Combustible Liquids Code,” NFPA 30,
S
(
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code
S
720.111)
S
720.111(a). The owner or operator must obtain and
keep on file at the facility a written certification by the local Fire Marshal that
the installation meets the subject NFPA Codes; and
3) The closure requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.278.
e) Direct transfer equipment. Direct transfer equipment must meet the following
requirements:
1) Secondary containment. Owners and operators must comply with the
secondary containment requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.293, except
for Sections 725.293(a), (d), (e), and (i), as follows:
A) For all new direct transfer equipment, prior to their being put into
service; and
B) For existing direct transfer equipment, by August 21, 1993.
2) Requirements prior to meeting secondary containment requirements.
A) For existing direct transfer equipment that does not have secondary
containment, the owner or operator must determine whether the
equipment is leaking or is unfit for use. The owner or operator must
obtain and keep on file at the facility a written assessment reviewed
and certified by a qualified, registered professional engineer in
accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.126(d) that attests to the
equipment’s integrity by August 21, 1992.
B) This assessment must determine whether the direct transfer
equipment is adequately designed and has sufficient structural
strength and compatibility with the wastes to be transferred to ensure
that it will not collapse, rupture, or fail. At a minimum, this
764
assessment must consider the following:
i) Design standards, if available, according to which the direct
transfer equipment was constructed;
ii) Hazardous characteristics of the wastes that have been or will
be handled;
iii) Existing corrosion protection measures;
iv) Documented age of the equipment, if available, (otherwise,
an estimate of the age); and
v) Results of a leak test or other integrity examination such that
the effects of temperature variations, vapor pockets, cracks,
leaks, corrosion and erosion are accounted for.
C) If, as a result of the assessment specified above, the direct transfer
equipment is found to be leaking or unfit for use, the owner or
operator must comply with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.296(a) and (b).
3) Inspections and recordkeeping.
A) The owner or operator must inspect at least once each operating hour
when hazardous waste is being transferred from the transport vehicle
(container) to the BIF:
i) Overfill/spill control equipment (e.g., waste-feed cutoff
systems, bypass systems, and drainage systems) to ensure that
it is in good working order;
ii) The above ground portions of the direct transfer equipment to
detect corrosion, erosion, or releases of waste (e.g., wet spots,
dead vegetation, etc.); and
iii) Data gathered from monitoring equipment and leak-detection
equipment, (e.g., pressure and temperature gauges) to ensure
that the direct transfer equipment is being operated according
to its design.
B) The owner or operator must inspect cathodic protection systems, if
used, to ensure that they are functioning properly according to the
schedule provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.295(b).
C) Records of inspections made under this subsection must be
765
maintained in the operating record at the facility, and available for
inspection for at least three years from the date of the inspection.
4) Design and installation of new ancillary equipment. Owners and operators
must comply with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.292.
5) Response to leaks or spills. Owners and operators must comply with the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.296.
6) Closure. Owners and operators must comply with the requirements of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.297, except for 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.297(c)(2) through
(c)(4).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.212 Regulation of Residues
A residue derived from the burning or processing of hazardous waste in a BIF is not excluded from
the definition of a hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.104(b)(4), (b)(7), or (b)(8), unless
the device and the owner or operator meet the following requirements:
a) The device meets the following criteria:
1) Boilers. Boilers must burn at least 50 percent coal on a total heat input or
mass basis, whichever results in the greater mass feed rate of coal;
2) Ore or mineral furnaces. Industrial furnaces subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.104(b)(7) must process at least 50 percent by weight of normal,
nonhazardous raw materials;
3) Cement kilns. Cement kilns must process at least 50 percent by weight of
normal cement-production raw materials;
b) The owner or operator demonstrates that the hazardous waste does not significantly
affect the residue by demonstrating conformance with either of the following criteria:
1) Comparison of waste-derived residue with normal residue. The waste-
derived residue must not contain constituents listed in Appendix H to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721
S
constituents
S
(toxic constituents) that could reasonably be
attributable to the hazardous waste at concentrations significantly higher than
in residue generated without burning or processing of hazardous waste, using
the following procedure. Toxic compounds that could reasonably be
attributable to burning or processing the hazardous waste (constituents of
concern) include toxic constituents in the hazardous waste, and the organic
compounds listed in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 that may be PICs.
S
Sampling and analyses must be in conformance with procedures prescribed
766
in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA Publication SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(a).
S
For polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and polychlorinated
dibenzo-furans, analyses must be performed to determine specific
congeners and homologues, and the results converted to 2,3,7,8-TCDD
equivalent values using the procedure specified in section 4.0 of the
documents referenced in Appendix I of this Part.
A) Normal residue. Concentrations of toxic constituents of concern in
normal residue must be determined based on analyses of a minimum
of 10 samples representing a minimum of 10 days of operation.
Composite samples may be used to develop a sample for analysis
provided that the compositing period does not exceed 24 hours. The
upper tolerance limit (at 95 percent confidence with a 95 percent
proportion of the sample distribution) of the concentration in the
normal residue must be considered the statistically-derived
concentration in the normal residue. If changes in raw materials or
fuels reduce the statistically-derived concentrations of the toxic
constituents of concern in the normal residue, the statistically-derived
concentrations must be revised or statistically-derived concentrations
of toxic constituents in normal residue must be established for a new
mode of operation with the new raw material or fuel. To determine
the upper tolerance limit in the normal residue, the owner or operator
must use statistical procedures prescribed in
S
“
S
section 7.0 (Statistical
Methodology for Bevill Residue Determinations
S
,”
S
) in federal
appendix IX to 40 CFR 266 (Methods Manual for Compliance
with the BIF Regulations), USEPA publication number EPA-
454/R-92-019, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b) (see Appendix I of this Part).
B) Waste-derived residue. Waste derived residue must be sampled and
analyzed as often as necessary to determine whether the residue
generated during each 24-hour period has concentrations of toxic
constituents that are higher than the concentrations established for the
normal residue under subsection (b)(1)(A) of this Section. If so,
hazardous waste burning has significantly affected the residue and
the residue is not excluded from the definition of “hazardous waste.”
Concentrations of toxic constituents in waste-derived residue must be
determined based on analysis of one or more samples obtained over a
24-hour period. Multiple samples may be analyzed, and multiple
samples may be taken to form a composite sample for analysis
provided that the sampling period does not exceed 24 hours. If more
than one sample is analyzed to characterize waste-derived residues
generated over a 24-hour period, the concentration of each toxic
constituent must be the arithmetic mean of the concentrations in the
samples. No results can be disregarded; or
767
2) Comparison of waste-derived residue concentrations with health-based
limits.
A) Nonmetal constituents. The concentration of each nonmetal toxic
constituent of concern (specified in subsection (b)(1) of this Section)
in the waste-derived residue must not exceed the health-based level
specified in Appendix G of this Part, or the level of detection
S
(using
analytical procedures prescribed in “Test Methods for Evaluating
Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111)
S
,
whichever is higher. If a health-based limit for a constituent of
concern is not listed in Appendix G of this Part, then a limit of 0.002
mg/kg or the level of detection (using appropriate analytical
procedures
S
prescribed in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-846,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
), whichever
is higher, must be used. The levels specified in Appendix G of this
Part (and the default level of 0.002 mg/kg or the level of detection for
constituents, as identified in Note 1 of Appendix G of this Part) are
administratively stayed under the condition, for those constituents
specified in subsection (b)(1) of this Section, that the owner or
operator complies with alternative levels defined as the land disposal
restriction limits specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.143 and Table B
to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728 for F039 nonwastewaters. In complying
with those alternative levels, if an owner or operator is unable to
detect a constituent despite documenting use of the best good-faith
efforts, as defined by applicable USEPA guidance and standards, the
owner or operator is deemed to be in compliance for that constituent.
Until USEPA develops new guidance or standards, the owner or
operator may demonstrate such good-faith efforts by achieving a
detection limit for the constituent that does not exceed an order of
magnitude above (ten times) the level provided by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.143 and Table B to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728 for F039
nonwastewater levels for polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and
polychlorinated dibenzo-furans (D/F), analyses must be performed
for total hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins, total
hexachlorodibenzofurans, total pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins, total
pentachlorodibenzofurans, total tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins, and
total tetrachlorodibenzofurans;
BOARD NOTE: In a note to corresponding 40 CFR 266.112(b)(2)(i)
S
(2002)
S
, USEPA stated as follows:
The administrative stay, under the condition that the
owner or operator complies with alternative levels
768
defined as the land disposal restriction limits
specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.143 for F039
nonwastewaters, remains in effect until further
administrative action is taken and notice is
published in the Federal Register and the Code of
Federal Regulations.
Under Section 3006(b) and (g) of RCRA, 42 USC 6926(b) and (g),
federal amendments do not go into effect in Illinois until the State of
Illinois incorporates them into the State program. This applies unless
the authority under which USEPA adopted the amendments is the
Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (HSWA), in which
case the federal amendments become effective in Illinois on their
federal effective date.
B) Metal constituents. The concentration of metals in an extract
obtained using the TCLP test must not exceed the levels specified in
Appendix G of this Part;
C) Sampling and analysis. Wastewater-derived residue must be sampled
and analyzed as often as necessary to determine whether the residue
generated during each 24-hour period has concentrations of toxic
constituents that are higher than the health-based levels.
Concentrations of concern in the wastewater-derived residue must be
determined based on analysis of one or more samples obtained over a
24-hour period. Multiple samples may be analyzed, and multiple
samples may be taken to form a composite for analysis provided that
the sampling period does not exceed 24 hours. If more than one
sample is analyzed to characterize waste-derived residues generated
over a 24-hour period, the concentration of each toxic constituent is
the arithmetic mean of the concentrations of the samples. No results
can be disregarded; and
c) Records sufficient to document compliance with the provisions of this Section must
be retained until closure of the BIF unit. At a minimum, the following must be
recorded:
1) Levels of constituents in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 that are
present in waste-derived residues;
2) If the waste-derived residue is compared with normal residue under
subsection (b)(1) of this Section:
A) The levels of constituents in Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
that are present in normal residues; and
769
B) Data and information, including analyses of samples as necessary,
obtained to determine if changes in raw materials or fuels would
reduce the concentration of toxic constituents of concern in the
normal residue.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART M: MILITARY MUNITIONS
Section 726.303 Standards Applicable to the Transportation of Solid Waste Military
Munitions
a) Criteria for hazardous waste regulation of waste non-chemical military munitions
in transportation.
1) Waste military munitions that are being transported and which exhibit a
hazardous waste characteristic or which are listed as hazardous waste
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 are subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, 705, 720 through 726, and 728, unless the munitions meet
all the following conditions:
A) The waste military munitions are not chemical agents or chemical
munitions;
B) The waste military munitions are transported in accordance with
the Department of Defense shipping controls applicable to the
transport of military munitions;
C) The waste military munitions are transported from a military-
owned or -operated installation to a military-owned or -operated
treatment, storage, or disposal facility; and
D) The transporter of the waste must provide oral notice to the
Agency within 24 hours from the time when either the transporter
becomes aware of any loss or theft of the waste military munitions
or when any failure to meet a condition of subsection (a)(1) of this
Section occurs that may endanger human health or the
environment. In addition, a written submission describing the
circumstances must be provided within five days from the time
when the transporter becomes aware of any loss or theft of the
waste military munitions or when any failure to meet a condition
of subsection (a)(1) of this Section occurs.
2) If any waste military munitions shipped under subsection (a)(1) of this
Section are not received by the receiving facility within 45 days after the
day the waste was shipped, the owner or operator of the receiving facility
770
must report this non-receipt to the Agency within five days.
3) The conditional exemption from regulation as hazardous waste in
subsection (a)(1) of this Section must apply only to the transportation of
non-chemical waste military munitions. It does not affect the regulatory
status of waste military munitions as hazardous wastes with regard to
storage, treatment, or disposal.
4) The conditional exemption in subsection (a)(1) of this Section applies only
so long as all of the conditions in subsection (a)(1) of this Section are met.
b) Reinstatement of conditional exemption.
1) If any waste military munition loses its conditional exemption under
subsection (a)(1) of this Section, the transporter may file with the Agency
an application for reinstatement of the conditional exemption from
hazardous waste transportation regulation with respect to such munition as
soon as the munition is returned to compliance with the conditions of
subsection (a)(1) of this Section.
2) If the Agency finds that reinstatement of the conditional exemption is
appropriate, it must reinstate the conditional exemption of subsection
(a)(1) of this Section in writing. The Agency’s decision to reinstate or not
to reinstate the conditional exemption must be based on the nature of the
risks to human health and the environment posed by the waste and either
the transporter's provision of a satisfactory explanation of the
circumstances of the violation or any demonstration that the violations are
not likely to recur. If the Agency denies an application, it must transmit to
the applicant specific, detailed statements in writing as to the reasons it
denied the application. In reinstating the conditional exemption under
subsection (a)(1) of this Section, the Agency may specify additional
conditions as are necessary to ensure and document proper transportation
to protect human health and the environment. If the Agency does not take
action on the reinstatement application within 60 days after receipt of the
application, then reinstatement must be deemed granted, retroactive to the
date of the application.
3) The Agency may terminate a conditional exemption reinstated by default
under the preceding sentence in writing if it finds that reinstatement is
inappropriate based on its consideration of the factors set forth in
subsection (b)(2) of this Section. If the Agency terminates a reinstated
exemption, it must transmit to the applicant specific, detailed statements in
writing as to the reasons it terminated the reinstated exemption.
4) The applicant under this subsection (b) may appeal the Agency’s
determination to deny the reinstatement, to grant the reinstatement with
771
conditions, or to terminate a reinstatement before the Board pursuant to
Section 40 of the Act [415 ILCS 5/40].
c) Amendments to DOD shipping controls. The Department of Defense shipping
controls applicable to the transport of military munitions referenced in subsection
(a)(1)(B) of this Section are Government Bill of Lading (GBL) (GSA Standard
Form 1109), Requisition Tracking Form (DD Form 1348), the Signature and
Talley Record (DD Form 1907), Special Instructions for Motor Vehicle Drivers
(DD Form 836), and the Motor Vehicle Inspection Report (DD Form 626) in
effect on November 8, 1995, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding federal provision 40 CFR 266.203(c)
S
, as added
at 62 Fed. Reg. 6655 (Feb. 12, 1997),
S
(2005) further provides as follows: “Any
amendments to the Department of Defense shipping controls must become
effective for purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section on the date the
Department of Defense publishes notice in the Federal Register that the shipping
controls referenced in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section have been amended.”
(40 CFR 266.203(a)(1)(ii) corresponds with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.303(a)(1)(B).)
Section 5-75 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act [5 ILCS 100/5-75]
prohibits the incorporation of later amendments and editions by reference. For
this reason, interested members of the regulated community will need to notify
the Board of any amendments of these references before those amendments can
become effective under Illinois law.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART N: CONDITIONAL EXEMPTION FOR LOW-LEVEL MIXED
WASTE STORAGE, TREATMENT, TRANSPORTATION AND DISPOSAL
Section 726.310 Definitions
Terms are defined as follows for the purposes of this Subpart N:
“CERCLA reportable quantity” means that quantity of a particular substance
designated by USEPA in federal 40 CFR 302.4 pursuant to the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 (42 USC 9601
et seq.) for which notification is required upon a release to the environment.
“Certified delivery” means certified mail with return receipt requested, equivalent
courier service, or other means that provides the sender with a receipt confirming
delivery.
“Director” is as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.110.
S
“DNS” means the Department of Nuclear Safety, the State of Illinois agency
772
charged with regulating source, by-product, and special nuclear material in
Illinois in accordance with an agreement between the State and the federal
Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) under section 274(b) of the federal
Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 USC 2021(b)).
S
BOARD NOTE: In addition to the materials regulated under this Part, the DNS
regulates radioactive materials under the Radiation Protection Act of 1990 [420
ILCS 40] that are not licensed by the federal NRC. For the purposes of notices to
the DNS required under this Subpart N, the address is as follows:
S
Illinois Department of Nuclear Safety
S
1035 Outer Park Drive
S
Springfield, Illinois 62704
“Eligible naturally occurring or accelerator-produced radioactive material” means
naturally occurring or accelerator-produced radioactive material (NARM) that is
eligible for a transportation and disposal conditional exemption. It is a NARM
waste that contains RCRA hazardous waste, meets the waste acceptance criteria
of, and is allowed by State NARM regulations to be disposed of at a low-level
radioactive waste disposal facility (LLRWDF) licensed in accordance with
federal 10 CFR 61,
S
DNS
S
EMA regulations, or the equivalent regulations of a
licensing agency in another state.
BOARD NOTE: The Illinois
S
DNS
S
EMA regulations are codified at 32 Ill. Adm.
Code: Chapter II, Subchapters b and d.
“EMA” means the Emergency Management Agency, the State of Illinois agency
charged with regulating source, by-product, and special nuclear material in
Illinois in accordance with an agreement between the State and the federal
Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) under section 274(b) of the federal
Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 USC 2021(b)).
BOARD NOTE: In addition to the materials regulated under this Part, EMA
regulates radioactive materials under the Radiation Protection Act of 1990 [420
ILCS 40] that are not licensed by the federal NRC. For the purposes of notices to
EMA required under this Subpart N, the address is as follows:
Illinois Emergency Management Agency
1035 Outer Park Drive
Springfield, Illinois 62704
“Exempted waste” means a waste that meets the eligibility criteria in Section
726.325 and all of the conditions in Section 726.330 or a waste that meets the
eligibility criteria in Section 726.410 and which complies with all the conditions
in Section 726.415. Such waste is conditionally exempted from the regulatory
definition of hazardous waste in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103.
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“Hazardous waste” means hazardous waste as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.103.
“Land disposal restriction treatment standards” or “LDR treatment standards”
means treatment standards, under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728, that a RCRA hazardous
waste must meet before it can be disposed of in a RCRA hazardous waste land
disposal unit.
“License” means a license issued by the federal NRC or the Illinois
S
DNS
S
EMA to
a user that manages radionuclides regulated by the federal NRC or the Illinois
S
DNS
S
EMA under authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42
USC 2014 et seq.) or the Radiation Protection Act of 1990 [420 ILCS 40].
“Low-level mixed waste” or “LLMW” is a waste that contains both low-level
radioactive waste and RCRA hazardous waste.
“Low-level radioactive waste” or “LLRW” is a radioactive waste that contains
source, by-product, or special nuclear material and which is not classified as high-
level radioactive waste, transuranic waste, spent nuclear fuel, or by-product
material, as defined in section 11(e)(2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42
USC 2014(e)(2)), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
(See also the NRC definition of waste at federal 10 CFR 61.2.)
BOARD NOTE: This definition differs from the similar definitions of low-level
radioactive waste in the Illinois Low-Level Radioactive Waste Management Act
[420 ILCS 20/3(k)], the Central Midwest Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste
Compact Act [45 ILCS 140/1, Article II(k)], and 32 Ill. Adm. Code 606.20(g) of
the
S
DNS
S
EMA regulations. Those basically define low-level radioactive waste as
radioactive waste that is not
S
(1)
S
high-level radioactive waste,
S
(2)
S
transuranic
waste,
S
(3)
S
spent nuclear fuel, or
S
(4)
S
by-product material, as such are defined in
section 11 of the federal Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 USC 2014),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
“Mixed waste” means a waste that contains both RCRA hazardous waste and
source, by-product, or special nuclear material subject to the Atomic Energy Act
of 1954, as amended (42 USC 2014 et seq.).
BOARD NOTE: This definition differs from the similar definitions of mixed
waste in the Illinois Low-Level Radioactive Waste Management Act [420 ILCS
20/3(l)] and 32 Ill. Adm. Code 606.20(h) of the
S
DNS
S
EMA regulations. Those
basically define mixed waste as containing both RCRA hazardous waste and low-
level radioactive waste, as such is defined under Section 3(k) of the Illinois Low-
Level Radioactive Waste Management Act [420 ILCS 20/3(k)].
“Naturally occurring or accelerator-produced radioactive material” or “NARM”
774
means a radioactive material that fulfills one of the following conditions:
It is naturally occurring and it is not a source, by-product, or special
nuclear material, as defined
S
by
S
in section 11 of the federal Atomic Energy
Act of 1954 (42 USC 2014
S
et seq.
S
), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(c); or
It is produced by an accelerator.
BOARD NOTE: NARM is regulated by the State, under the Radiation Protection
Act of 1990 [420 ILCS 40] and 32 Ill. Adm. Code: Chapter II, Subchapters b and
d, or by the federal Department of Energy (DOE), as authorized by the federal
Atomic Energy Act (42 USC 2014 et seq.), under DOE regulations and orders.
“NRC” means the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
BOARD NOTE: For the purposes of notices to the NRC required under this
Subpart N, the address is as follows:
U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Region III
801 Warrenville Road
Lisle, Illinois 60532-4351
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.325 Wastes Eligible for a Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption for
Low-Level Mixed Waste
Low-level mixed waste (LLMW), as defined in Section 726.310, is eligible for a storage and
treatment conditional exemption if it is generated and managed by a person under a single
federal NRC or Illinois
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DNS
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EMA license. (Mixed waste generated at a facility with a different
license number and shipped to a different person’s facility for storage or treatment requires a
permit, and such mixed waste is ineligible for this exemption. In addition, NARM waste is
ineligible for this exemption.)
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.330 Conditions to Qualify for and Maintain a Storage and Treatment
Conditional Exemption
a) For LLMW to qualify for the exemption, the generator must notify the Agency
and the Illinois
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DNS
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EMA in writing by certified delivery that it is claiming a
storage and treatment conditional exemption for the LLMW stored on the
generator’s facility. The dated notification must include the generator’s name,
address, RCRA identification number, federal NRC or Illinois
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DNS
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EMA license
number, the waste codes and storage units for which the generator is seeking an
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exemption, and a statement that the generator meets the conditions of this Subpart
N. The generator’s notification must be signed by the generator’s authorized
representative who certifies that the information in the notification is true,
accurate, and complete. The generator must notify the Agency of its claim either
before July 21, 2002, or within 90 days after a storage unit is first used to store
conditionally exempt LLMW, whichever is later.
b) To qualify for and maintain an exemption for LLMW, the generator must do each
of the following:
1) Store its LLMW waste in tanks or containers in compliance with the
requirements of its license that apply to the proper storage of low-level
radioactive waste (not including those license requirements that relate
solely to recordkeeping);
2) Store its LLMW in tanks or containers in compliance with chemical
compatibility requirements of a tank or container in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.277 or 724.299 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.277 or 725.299;
3) Certify that facility personnel who manage stored conditionally exempt
LLMW are trained in a manner that ensures that the conditionally exempt
waste is safely managed and that the training includes training in chemical
waste management and hazardous materials incidents response that meets
the personnel training standards found in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.116(a)(3);
4) Conduct an inventory of its stored conditionally exempt LLMW at least
annually and inspect the waste at least quarterly for compliance with this
Subpart N; and
5) Maintain an accurate emergency plan and provide it to all local authorities
who may have to respond to a fire, explosion, or release of hazardous
waste or hazardous constituents. The generator’s plan must describe
emergency response arrangements with local authorities; describe
evacuation plans; list the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of all
facility personnel qualified to work with local authorities as emergency
coordinators; and list emergency equipment.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.335 Treatment Allowed by a Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption
The generator may treat its low-level mixed waste at its facility within a tank or container in
accordance with the terms of its federal NRC or Illinois
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DNS
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EMA license. Treatment that
cannot be done in a tank or container without a RCRA permit (such as incineration) is not
allowed under this exemption.
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(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.350 Recordkeeping for a Storage and Treatment Conditional Exemption
a) In addition to those records required by the generator’s federal NRC or Illinois
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DNS
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EMA license, the generator must keep records as follows:
1) The generator’s initial notification records, return receipts, reports to the
Agency of failures to meet the exemption conditions, and all records
supporting any reclaim of an exemption;
2) Records of the generator’s LLMW annual inventories and quarterly
inspections;
3) The generator’s certification that facility personnel who manage stored
mixed waste are trained in safe management of LLMW including training
in chemical waste management and hazardous materials incidents
response; and
4) The generator’s emergency plan, as specified in Section 726.330(b).
b) The generator must maintain records concerning notification, personnel trained,
and its emergency plan for as long as the generator claims this exemption and for
three years thereafter, or in accordance with federal NRC regulations
S
under
S
(10
CFR 20) or under Illinois
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DNS
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EMA regulations
S
under
S
(32 Ill. Adm. Code:
Chapter II, Subchapter b), whichever is longer. A generator must maintain
records concerning its annual inventory and quarterly inspections for three years
after the waste is sent for disposal, or in accordance with federal NRC regulations
S
under
S
(10 CFR 20) or under Illinois
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DNS
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EMA regulations
S
under
S
(32 Ill. Adm.
Code: Chapter II, Subchapter b), whichever is longer.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.355 Waste No Longer Eligible for a Storage and Treatment Conditional
Exemption
a) When a generator’s LLMW has met the requirements of its federal NRC or
Illinois
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DNS
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EMA license for decay-in-storage and can be disposed of as non-
radioactive waste, then the conditional exemption for storage no longer applies.
On that date the generator’s waste is subject to hazardous waste regulation under
the relevant Sections of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 720 through 726, and 728,
and the time period for accumulation of a hazardous waste, as specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722.134 begins.
b) When a generator’s conditionally exempt LLMW, which has been generated and
stored under a single federal NRC or Illinois
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DNS
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EMA license number, is
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removed from storage, it is no longer eligible for the storage and treatment
exemption. However, a generator’s waste may be eligible for the transportation
and disposal conditional exemption at Section 726.405.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.415 Conditions to Qualify for and Maintain a Transportation and Disposal
Conditional Exemption
A generator must meet the following conditions for its eligible waste to qualify for and maintain
the exemption:
a) The eligible waste must meet or be treated to meet LDR treatment standards, as
described in Section 726.420;
b) If the generator is not already subject to federal NRC or Illinois
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DNS
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EMA
manifest and transportation regulations for the shipment of its waste, the
generator must manifest and transport its waste according to federal NRC or
Illinois
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DNS
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EMA regulations, as described in Section 726.425;
c) The exempted waste must be in containers when it is disposed of in the
LLRWDF, as described in Section 726.440; and
d) The exempted waste must be disposed of at a designated LLRWDF, as described
in Section 726.435.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.425 Applicability of the Manifest and Transportation Condition
If a generator is not already subject to federal NRC or Illinois
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DNS
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EMA manifest and
transportation regulations for the shipment of its waste, the generator must meet the federal NRC
manifest requirements under 10 CFR 20.2006 (Transfer for Disposal and Manifests),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111,
S
720.111(b);
S
and
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Illinois
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DNS
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EMA
manifest requirements under 32 Ill. Adm. Code 340
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,
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;
S
and
S
the federal NRC transportation
requirements under 10 CFR 71.5 (Transportation of Licensed Material), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b); and the Illinois
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DNS
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EMA transportation
requirements under 32 Ill. Adm. Code 341 to ship the exempted waste.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.430 Effectiveness of a Transportation and Disposal Exemption
The exemption becomes effective once all of the following have occurred:
a) The generator’s eligible waste meets the applicable LDR treatment standards;
778
b) The generator has received return receipts that it has notified the Agency and the
LLRWDF, as described in Section 726.445;
c) The generator has completed the packaging and preparation for shipment
requirements for its waste according to federal NRC packaging and transportation
regulations found under 10 CFR 71 (Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive
Material), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
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720.111(b),
and under Illinois
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DNS
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EMA regulations
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under
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at 32 Ill. Adm. Code 341; and a
generator has prepared a manifest for a generator’s waste according to NRC
manifest regulations found under 10 CFR 20 (Standards for Protection against
Radiation), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), or under
Illinois
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DNS
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EMA regulations under 32 Ill. Adm. Code 340; and
d) The generator has placed its waste on a transportation vehicle destined for a
LLRWDF licensed by the federal NRC, the Illinois
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DNS
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EMA, or by a nuclear
licensing agency in another state.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.435 Disposal of Exempted Waste
A generator’s exempted waste must be disposed of in a LLRWDF that is regulated and licensed
by the federal NRC under 10 CFR 61, by the Illinois
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DNS
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EMA under 32 Ill. Adm. Code:
Chapter II, Subchapters b and d, or by a licensing agency in another state, including State
NARM licensing regulations for eligible NARM.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.440 Containers Used for Disposal of Exempted Waste
A generator’s exempted waste must be placed in containers before it is disposed of. The
container must be one of the following:
a) A carbon steel drum;
b) An alternative container with equivalent containment performance in the disposal
environment as a carbon steel drum; or
c) A high-integrity container, as defined by NRC in
S
Appendix
S
appendix G to
S
40
S
10
CFR 20 (Requirements for Transfers of Low-Level Radioactive Waste Intended
for Disposal at Licensed Land Disposal Facilities and Manifests), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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Section 726.445 Notification
a) A generator must provide a one time notice to the Agency and the Illinois
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DNS
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EMA stating that it is claiming the transportation and disposal conditional
exemption prior to the initial shipment of an exempted waste from the generator’s
facility to a LLRWDF. The generator’s dated written notice must include its
facility name, address, phone number, and RCRA ID number and be sent by
certified delivery.
b) A generator must notify the LLRWDF receiving its exempted waste by certified
delivery before shipment of each exempted waste. The generator can only ship
the exempted waste after it has received the return receipt of its notice to the
LLRWDF. This notification must include the following information:
1) A statement that the generator has claimed the exemption for the waste;
2) A statement that the eligible waste meets applicable LDR treatment
standards;
3) The generator’s facility’s name, address, and RCRA ID number;
4) The RCRA hazardous waste codes prior to the exemption of the waste
streams;
5) A statement that the exempted waste must be placed in a container
according to Section 726.440 prior to disposal in order for the waste to
remain exempt under the transportation and disposal conditional
exemption of this Subpart N;
6) The manifest number of the shipment that will contain the exempted
waste; and
7) A certification that all the information provided is true, complete, and
accurate. The statement must be signed by the generator’s authorized
representative.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.450 Recordkeeping for a Transportation and Disposal Conditional Exemption
In addition to those records required by a generator’s NRC or Illinois
S
DNS
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EMA license, the
generator must keep records as follows:
a) The generator must follow the applicable existing recordkeeping requirements
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.173, 725.173, and 728.107 to demonstrate that its
waste has met LDR treatment standards prior to the generator claiming the
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exemption.
b) The generator must keep a copy of all notifications and return receipts required
under Sections 726.455, and 726.460 for three years after the exempted waste is
sent for disposal.
c) The generator must keep a copy of all notifications and return receipts required
under Section 726.445(a) for three years after the last exempted waste is sent for
disposal.
d) The generator must keep a copy of the notification and return receipt required
under Section 726.445(b) for three years after the exempted waste is sent for
disposal.
e) If the generator is not already subject to federal NRC and Illinois
S
DNS
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EMA
manifest and transportation regulations for the shipment of its waste, the
generator must also keep all other documents related to tracking the exempted
waste as required under federal 10 CFR 20.2006 (Transfer for Disposal and
Manifests), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
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720.111(b),
and Illinois
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DNS
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EMA requirements under 32 Ill. Adm. Code 340, including
applicable NARM requirements, in addition to the records specified in
subsections (a) through (d) of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.460 Reclaiming a Lost Transportation and Disposal Conditional Exemption
a) A generator may reclaim a lost transportation and disposal conditional exemption
for a waste after the generator has received a return receipt confirming that the
Agency and the Illinois
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DNS
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EMA have received the generator’s notification of
the loss of the exemption specified in Section 726.455(a) and if the following
conditions are fulfilled:
1) The generator again meets the conditions specified in Section 726.415 for
the waste; and
2) The generator sends a notice, by certified delivery, to the Agency that the
generator is reclaiming the exemption for the waste. A generator’s notice
must be signed by the generator’s authorized representative certifying that
the information provided is true, accurate, and complete. The notice must
include all of the following:
A) An explanation of the circumstances of each failure;
B) A certification that each failure that caused the generator to lose
the exemption for the waste has been corrected and that the
781
generator again meets all conditions for the waste as of the date the
generator specifies;
C) A description of plans that the generator has implemented, listing
the specific steps that the generator has taken, to ensure that
conditions will be met in the future; and
D) Any other information that the generator wants the Agency to
consider when the Agency reviews the generator’s notice
reclaiming the exemption.
b) The Agency may terminate a reclaimed conditional exemption if it determines, in
writing, pursuant to Section 39 of the Act [415 ILCS 5/39], that the generator’s
claim is inappropriate based on factors including, but not limited to, the
following: the generator has failed to correct the problem; the generator
explained the circumstances of the failure unsatisfactorily; or the generator has
failed to implement a plan with steps to prevent another failure to meet the
conditions of Section 726.415. In reviewing a reclaimed conditional exemption
under this Section, the Agency may add conditions to the exemption to ensure
that transportation and disposal activities will protect human health and the
environment. Any Agency determination made pursuant to this subsection (b) is
subject to review by the Board pursuant to Section 40 of the Act [415 ILCS 5/40].
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.Appendix I Methods Manual for Compliance with BIF Regulations
S
See
S
The document entitled, “Methods Manual for Compliance with BIF Regulations
S
.” This
document
S
: Burning Hazardous Waste in Boilers and Industrial Furnaces,” December 1990, is
available
S
from two sources
S
as appendix IX to 40 CFR 266 (Methods Manual for Compliance with
the BIF Regulations), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b). It is also
available through NTIS,
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
as described in
the incorporation by reference.
S
It is also available as 40 CFR 266, Appendix IX, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
S
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 726.Appendix J Guideline on Air Quality Models (Repealed)
S
See “Guideline on Air Quality Models (Revised).” This document is available from two sources.
It is available through NTIS, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111. It is also
available as 40 CFR 266, Appendix X, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
This incorporation includes no future editions or amendments.
S
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
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TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 728
LAND DISPOSAL RESTRICTIONS
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section
728.101 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
728.102 Definitions
728.103 Dilution Prohibited as a Substitute for Treatment
728.104 Treatment Surface Impoundment Exemption
728.105 Procedures for Case-by-Case Extensions to an Effective Date
728.106 Petitions to Allow Land Disposal of a Waste Prohibited under Subpart C
728.107 Testing, Tracking, and Recordkeeping Requirements for Generators, Treaters, and
Disposal Facilities
728.108 Landfill and Surface Impoundment Disposal Restrictions (Repealed)
728.109 Special Rules for Characteristic Wastes
SUBPART B: SCHEDULE FOR LAND DISPOSAL PROHIBITION AND
ESTABLISHMENT OF TREATMENT STANDARDS
Section
728.110 First Third (Repealed)
728.111 Second Third (Repealed)
728.112 Third Third (Repealed)
728.113 Newly Listed Wastes
728.114 Surface Impoundment Exemptions
SUBPART C: PROHIBITION ON LAND DISPOSAL
Section
728.120 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Dyes and Pigments Production Wastes
728.130 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Wood Preserving Wastes
728.131 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Dioxin-Containing Wastes
728.132 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Soils Exhibiting the Toxicity Characteristic for
Metals and Containing PCBs
728.133 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Chlorinated Aliphatic Wastes
728.134 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Toxicity Characteristic Metal Wastes
728.135 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Petroleum Refining Wastes
728.136 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Inorganic Chemical Wastes
728.137 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Ignitable and Corrosive Characteristic Wastes
Whose Treatment Standards Were Vacated
728.138 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Newly-Identified Organic Toxicity Characteristic
Wastes and Newly-Listed Coke By-Product and Chlorotoluene Production
Wastes
783
728.139 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Spent Aluminum Potliners and Carbamate Wastes
SUBPART D: TREATMENT STANDARDS
Section
728.140 Applicability of Treatment Standards
728.141 Treatment Standards Expressed as Concentrations in Waste Extract
728.142 Treatment Standards Expressed as Specified Technologies
728.143 Treatment Standards Expressed as Waste Concentrations
728.144 Adjustment of Treatment Standard
728.145 Treatment Standards for Hazardous Debris
728.146 Alternative Treatment Standards Based on HTMR
728.148 Universal Treatment Standards
728.149 Alternative LDR Treatment Standards for Contaminated Soil
SUBPART E: PROHIBITIONS ON STORAGE
Section
728.150 Prohibitions on Storage of Restricted Wastes
728.Appendix A Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP) (Repealed)
728.Appendix B Treatment Standards (As concentrations in the Treatment Residual
Extract) (Repealed)
728.Appendix C List of Halogenated Organic Compounds Regulated under Section
728.132
728.Appendix D Wastes Excluded from Lab Packs
728.Appendix E Organic Lab Packs (Repealed)
728.Appendix F Technologies to Achieve Deactivation of Characteristics
728.Appendix G Federal Effective Dates
728.Appendix H National Capacity LDR Variances for UIC Wastes
728.Appendix I EP Toxicity Test Method and Structural Integrity Test
728.Appendix J Recordkeeping, Notification, and Certification Requirements (Repealed)
728.Appendix K Metal-Bearing Wastes Prohibited from Dilution in a Combustion Unit
According to Section 728.103(c)
728.Table A Constituent Concentrations in Waste Extract (CCWE)
728.Table B Constituent Concentrations in Wastes (CCW)
728.Table C Technology Codes and Description of Technology-Based Standards
728.Table D Technology-Based Standards by RCRA Waste Code
728.Table E Standards for Radioactive Mixed Waste
728.Table F Alternative Treatment Standards for Hazardous Debris
728.Table G Alternative Treatment Standards Based on HTMR
728.Table H Wastes Excluded from CCW Treatment Standards
728.Table I Generator Paperwork Requirements
728.Table T Treatment Standards for Hazardous Wastes
728.Table U Universal Treatment Standards (UTS)
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 7.2 and 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/7.2, 22.4, and 27].
784
SOURCE: Adopted in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg. 19354, effective November 12, 1987; amended in
R87-39 at 12 Ill. Reg. 13046, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18403,
effective November 13, 1989; amended in R89-9 at 14 Ill. Reg. 6232, effective April 16, 1990;
amended in R90-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 14470, effective August 22, 1990; amended in R90-10 at 14 Ill.
Reg. 16508, effective September 25, 1990; amended in R90-11 at 15 Ill. Reg. 9462, effective
June 17, 1991; amended in R90-11 at 15 Ill. Reg. 11937, effective August 12, 1991; amendment
withdrawn at 15 Ill. Reg. 14716, October 11, 1991; amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9619,
effective June 9, 1992; amended in R92-10 at 17 Ill. Reg. 5727, effective March 26, 1993;
amended in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20692, effective November 22, 1993; amended in R93-16 at 18
Ill. Reg. 6799, effective April 26, 1994; amended in R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12203, effective July
29, 1994; amended in R94-17 at 18 Ill. Reg. 17563, effective November 23, 1994; amended in
R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9660, effective June 27, 1995; amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 11100,
effective August 1, 1996; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 783, effective
December 16, 1997; amended in R98-12 at 22 Ill. Reg. 7685, effective April 15, 1998; amended
in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 17706, effective September 28, 1998; amended in R98-
21/R99-2/R99-7 at 23 Ill. Reg. 1964, effective January 19, 1999; amended in R99-15 at 23 Ill.
Reg. 9204, effective July 26, 1999; amended in R00-13 at 24 Ill. Reg. 9623, effective June 20,
2000; amended in R01-3 at 25 Ill. Reg. 1296, effective January 11, 2001; amended in R01-
21/R01-23 at 25 Ill. Reg. 9181, effective July 9, 2001; amended in R02-1/R02-12/R02-17 at 26
Ill. Reg. 6687, effective April 22, 2002; amended in R03-18 at 27 Ill. Reg. 13045, effective July
17, 2003; amended in R05-8 at 29 Ill. Reg. 6049, effective April 13, 2005; amended in R06-
5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section 728.102 Definitions
When used in this Part, the following terms have the meanings given below. All other terms
have the meanings given under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.110, 720.110, or 721.102 through
721.104.
“Agency” means the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.
“Board” means the Illinois Pollution Control Board.
“CERCLA” means the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation,
and Liability Act of 1980 (42 USC 9601 et seq.)
“Debris” means solid material exceeding a 60 mm particle size that is intended for
disposal and that is: a manufactured object; plant or animal matter; or natural
geologic material. However, the following materials are not debris: any material
for which a specific treatment standard is provided in Subpart D of this Part,
namely lead acid batteries, cadmium batteries, and radioactive lead solids; process
residuals, such as smelter slag and residues from the treatment of waste,
wastewater, sludges, or air emission residues; and intact containers of hazardous
785
waste that are not ruptured and that retain at least 75 percent of their original
volume. A mixture of debris that has not been treated to the standards provided
by Section 728.145 of this Part and other material is subject to regulation as
debris if the mixture is comprised primarily of debris, by volume, based on visual
inspection.
“End-of-pipe” refers to the point where effluent is discharged to the environment.
“Halogenated organic compounds” or “HOCs” means those compounds having a
carbon-halogen bond that are listed under Appendix C of this Part.
“Hazardous constituent or constituents” means those constituents listed in
Appendix H to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
“Hazardous debris” means debris that contains a hazardous waste listed in
Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 or that exhibits a characteristic of hazardous
waste identified in Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721. Any deliberate mixing of
prohibited waste with debris that changes its treatment classification (i.e., from
waste to hazardous debris) is not allowed under the dilution prohibition in Section
728.103.
“Inorganic metal-bearing waste” is one for which USEPA has established
treatment standards for metal hazardous constituents that does not otherwise
contain significant organic or cyanide content, as described in Section
728.103(b)(1), and which is specifically listed in Appendix K of this Part.
“Land disposal” means placement in or on the land, except in a corrective action
management unit or staging pile, and “land disposal” includes, but is not limited
to, placement in a landfill, surface impoundment, waste pile, injection well, land
treatment facility, salt dome formation, salt bed formation, underground mine or
cave, or placement in a concrete vault or bunker intended for disposal purposes.
“Nonwastewaters” are wastes that do not meet the criteria for “wastewaters” in
this Section.
“Polychlorinated biphenyls” or “PCBs” are halogenated organic compounds
defined in accordance with federal 40 CFR 761.3 (Definitions), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b).
“ppm” means parts per million.
“RCRA corrective action” means corrective action taken under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.200 or 725.193, federal 40 CFR 264.100 or 265.93, or similar regulations in
other states with RCRA programs authorized by USEPA pursuant to 40 CFR 271.
“Soil” means unconsolidated earth material composing the superficial geologic
786
strata (material overlying bedrock), consisting of clay, silt, sand, or gravel size
particles, as classified by the United States Natural Resources Conservation
Service, or a mixture of such materials with liquids, sludges, or solids that is
inseparable by simple mechanical removal processes and which is made up
primarily of soil by volume based on visual inspection. Any deliberate mixing of
prohibited waste with debris that changes its treatment classification (i.e., from
waste to hazardous debris) is not allowed under the dilution prohibition in Section
728.103.
“Stormwater impoundments” are surface impoundments that receive wet weather
flow and which receive process waste only during wet weather events.
“Underlying hazardous constituent” means any constituent listed in Table U of
this Part, “Universal Treatment Standards (UTS),” except fluoride, selenium,
sulfides, vanadium, and zinc, that can reasonably be expected to be present at the
point of generation of the hazardous waste at a concentration above the
constituent-specific UTS treatment standard.
“USEPA” or “U.S. EPA” means the United States Environmental Protection
Agency.
“Wastewaters” are wastes that contain less than one percent by weight total
organic carbon (TOC) and less than one percent by weight total suspended solids
(TSS).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.103 Dilution Prohibited as a Substitute for Treatment
a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, no generator, transporter,
handler, or owner or operator of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility must in
any way dilute a restricted waste or the residual from treatment of a restricted
waste as a substitute for adequate treatment to achieve compliance with Subpart D
of this Part, to circumvent the effective date of a prohibition in Subpart C of this
Part, to otherwise avoid a prohibition in Subpart C of this Part, or to circumvent a
land disposal restriction imposed by RCRA section 3004 (42 USC 6924).
b) Dilution of waste that is hazardous only because it exhibits a characteristic of
hazardous waste in a treatment system that treats wastes subsequently discharged
to a water of the State pursuant to an NPDES permit issued under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 309, that treats wastes in a CWA-equivalent treatment system, or that treats
wastes for purposes of pretreatment requirements under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 310 is
not impermissible dilution for purposes of this Section, unless a method other
than DEACT has been specified in Section 728.140 as the treatment standard or
unless the waste is a D003 reactive cyanide wastewater or nonwastewater.
787
c) Combustion of waste designated by any of the USEPA hazardous waste codes
listed in Appendix J to this Part is prohibited, unless the waste can be
demonstrated to comply with one or more of the following criteria at the point of
generation or after any bona fide treatment, such as cyanide destruction prior to
combustion (unless otherwise specifically prohibited from combustion):
1) The waste contains hazardous organic constituents or cyanide at levels
exceeding the constituent-specific treatment standard found in Section
728.148;
2) The waste consists of organic, debris-like materials (e.g., wood, paper,
plastic, or cloth) contaminated with an inorganic metal-bearing hazardous
waste;
3) The waste has reasonable heating value, such as greater than or equal to
S
5000
S
5,000 Btu per pound, at the point of generation;
4) The waste is co-generated with wastes for which combustion is a required
method of treatment;
5) The waste is subject to any federal or state requirements necessitating
reduction of organics (including biological agents); or
6) The waste contains greater than one percent Total Organic Carbon (TOC).
d) It is a form of impermissible dilution, and therefore prohibited, to add iron filings
or other metallic forms of iron to lead-containing hazardous wastes in order to
achieve any land disposal restriction treatment standard for lead. Lead-containing
wastes include D008 wastes (wastes exhibiting a characteristic due to the
presence of lead), all characteristic wastes containing lead as an underlying
hazardous constituent, listed wastes containing lead as a regulated constituent,
and hazardous media containing any of the aforementioned lead-containing
wastes.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.105 Procedures for Case-by-Case Extensions to an Effective Date
S
a)
The Board incorporates by reference 40 CFR 268.5 (2002). This Part
incorporates no future editions or amendments.
S
b)
Persons may apply to USEPA for extensions of effective dates pursuant to 40 CFR
268.5. Extensions that are granted by USEPA will be deemed extensions of dates
specified in the derivative Board rule.
Any person may apply to USEPA for an extension of an effective date pursuant to 40 CFR 268.5.
788
Any extension that is granted by USEPA will be deemed an extension of the effective date of the
derivative Board rule.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.106 Petitions to Allow Land Disposal of a Waste Prohibited under Subpart C
a) Any person seeking an exemption from a prohibition under Subpart C for the
disposal of a restricted hazardous waste in a particular unit or units must submit a
petition to the Board demonstrating, to a reasonable degree of certainty, that there
will be no migration of hazardous constituents from the disposal unit or injection
zone for as long as the wastes remain hazardous. The demonstration must include
the following components:
1) An identification of the specific waste and the specific unit for which the
demonstration will be made;
2) A waste analysis to describe fully the chemical and physical characteristics of
the subject waste;
3) A comprehensive characterization of the disposal unit site including an
analysis of background air, soil, and water quality;
4) A monitoring plan that detects migration at the earliest practical time;
5) Sufficient information to assure the Agency that the owner or operator of a
land disposal unit receiving restricted wastes will comply with other
applicable federal, state, and local laws;
6) Whether the facility is in interim status, or, if a RCRA permit has been
issued, the term of the permit.
b) The demonstration referred to in subsection (a) of this Section must meet the
following criteria:
1) All waste and environmental sampling, test and analysis data must be
accurate and reproducible to the extent that state-of-the-art techniques allow;
2) All sampling, testing and estimation techniques for chemical and physical
properties of the waste and all environmental parameters must conform with
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846, and with “Generic Quality
Assurance Project Plan for Land Disposal Restrictions Program,” USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-87-011, each incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
789
3) Simulation models must be calibrated for the specific waste and site
conditions, and verified for accuracy by comparison with actual
measurements;
4) A quality assurance and quality control plan that addresses all aspects of the
demonstration and conforms with “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-
846, and with “Generic Quality Assurance Project Plan for Land Disposal
Restrictions Program,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-87-011
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
; and
5) An analysis must be performed to identify and quantify any aspects of the
demonstration that contribute significantly to uncertainty. This analysis must
include an evaluation of the consequences of predictable future events,
including, but not limited to, earthquakes, floods, severe storm events,
droughts, or other natural phenomena.
c) Each petition referred to in subsection (a) of this Section must include the following:
1) A monitoring plan that describes the monitoring program installed at or
around the unit to verify continued compliance with the conditions of the
adjusted standard. This monitoring plan must provide information on the
monitoring of the unit or the environment around the unit. The following
specific information must be included in the plan:
A) The media monitored in the cases where monitoring of the
environment around the unit is required;
B) The type of monitoring conducted at the unit, in the cases where
monitoring of the unit is required;
C) The location of the monitoring stations;
D) The monitoring interval (frequency of monitoring at each station);
E) The specific hazardous constituents to be monitored;
F) The implementation schedule for the monitoring program;
G) The equipment used at the monitoring stations;
H) The sampling and analytical techniques employed; and
I) The data recording and reporting procedures.
2) Where applicable, the monitoring program described in subsection (c)(1) of
790
this Section must be in place for a period of time specified by the Board, as
part of its approval of the petition, prior to receipt of prohibited waste at the
unit.
3) The monitoring data collected according to the monitoring plan specified
under subsection (c)(1) of this Section must be sent to the Agency according
to a format and schedule specified and approved in the monitoring plan.
4) A copy of the monitoring data collected under the monitoring plan specified
under subsection (c)(1) of this Section must be kept on-site at the facility in
the operating record.
5) The monitoring program specified under subsection (c)(1) of this Section
must meet the following criteria:
A) All sampling, testing, and analytical data must be approved by the
Board and must provide data that is accurate and reproducible;
B) All estimation and monitoring techniques must be approved by the
Board; and
C) A quality assurance and quality control plan addressing all aspects of
the monitoring program must be provided to and approved by the
Board.
d) Each petition must be submitted to the Board as provided in Subpart D of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 104.
e) After a petition has been approved, the owner or operator must report any changes in
conditions at the unit or the environment around the unit that significantly depart
from the conditions described in the petition and affect the potential for migration of
hazardous constituents from the units as follows:
1) If the owner or operator plans to make changes to the unit design,
construction, or operation, the owner or operator must do the following at
least 90 days prior to making the change:
A) File a petition for modification of or a new petition to amend an
adjusted standard with the Board reflecting the changes; or
B) Demonstrate to the Agency that the change can be made consistent
with the conditions of the existing adjusted standard.
2) If the owner or operator discovers that a condition at the site that was
modeled or predicted in the petition does not occur as predicted, this change
must be reported, in writing, to the Agency within 10 days after discovering
791
the change. The Agency must determine whether the reported change from
the terms of the petition requires further action, which may include
termination of waste acceptance, a petition for modification of or a new
petition for an adjusted standard.
f) If there is migration of hazardous constituents from the unit, as determined by the
owner or operator, the owner or operator must do the following:
1)
S
Immediately
S
It must immediately suspend receipt of prohibited waste at the
unit, and
2)
S
Notify
S
It must notify the Agency, in writing, within 10 days after the
determination that a release has occurred.
3) Following receipt of the notification, the Agency
S
shall
S
must, within 60 days
after receiving notification do the following:
A)
S
Determine
S
It must determine whether the owner or operator can
continue to receive prohibited waste in the unit under the conditions
of the adjusted standard.
B) If modification or vacation of the adjusted standard is necessary, it
must file a motion to modify or vacate the adjusted standard with the
Board.
C)
S
Determine
S
It must determine whether further examination of any
migration is required under the applicable provisions of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724 or 725.
g) Each petition must include the following statement signed by the petitioner or an
authorized representative:
I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am
familiar with the information submitted in this petition and all attached
documents, and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately
responsible for obtaining the information. I believe that submitted
information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are
significant penalties for submitting false information, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.
h) After receiving a petition, the Board may request any additional information that may
be required to evaluate the demonstration.
i) If approved, the petition will apply to land disposal of the specific restricted waste at
the individual disposal unit described in the demonstration and will not apply to any
other restricted waste at that disposal unit, or to that specific restricted waste at any
792
other disposal unit.
j) The Board will give public notice and provide an opportunity for public comment, as
provided in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 104. Notice of a final decision on a
petition will be published in the Environmental Register.
k) The term of a petition granted under this Section will be no longer than the term of
the RCRA permit if the disposal unit is operating under a RCRA permit, or up to a
maximum of 10 years from the date of approval provided under subsection (g) of
this Section if the unit is operating under interim status. In either case, the term of
the granted petition expires upon the termination or denial of a RCRA permit, or
upon the termination of interim status or when the volume limit of waste to be land
disposed during the term of petition is reached.
l) Prior to the Board’s decision, the applicant must comply with all restrictions on land
disposal under this Part once the effective date for the waste has been reached.
m) The petition granted by the Board does not relieve the petitioner of responsibilities in
the management of hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 720
through 726.
n) Liquid hazardous wastes containing PCBs at concentrations greater than or equal to
500 ppm are not eligible for an adjusted standard under this Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.107 Testing, Tracking, and Recordkeeping Requirements for Generators,
Treaters, and Disposal Facilities
a) Requirements for generators.
1) A generator of a hazardous waste must determine if the waste has to be
treated before it can be land disposed. This is done by determining if the
hazardous waste meets the treatment standards in Section 728.140,
728.145, or 728.149. This determination can be made in either of two
ways: testing the waste or using knowledge of the waste. If the generator
tests the waste, testing determines the total concentration of hazardous
constituents or the concentration of hazardous constituents in an extract of
the waste obtained using
S
SW-846
S
Method 1311 (
S
the
S
Toxicity
Characteristic Leaching Procedure) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), depending on whether the treatment standard for the waste is
expressed as a total concentration or concentration of hazardous
constituent in the waste extract. In addition, some hazardous wastes must
be treated by particular treatment methods before they can be land
793
disposed and some soils are contaminated by such hazardous wastes.
These treatment standards are also found in Section 728.140 and Table T
of this Part, and are described in detail in Table C of this Part. These
wastes and soils contaminated with such wastes do not need to be tested
(however, if they are in a waste mixture, other wastes with concentration
level treatment standards must be tested). If a generator determines that it
is managing a waste or soil contaminated with a waste that displays a
hazardous characteristic of ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity, or toxicity,
the generator must comply with the special requirements of Section
728.109 in addition to any applicable requirements in this Section.
2) If the waste or contaminated soil does not meet the treatment standard, the
generator must send a one-time written notice to each treatment or storage
facility receiving the waste with the initial shipment of waste to each
treatment or storage facility, and the generator must place a copy of the
one-time notice in the file. The notice must include the information in
column “728.107(a)(2)” of the Generator Paperwork Requirements Table
in Table I of this Part. No further notification is necessary until such time
that the waste or facility changes, in which case a new notification must be
sent and a copy placed in the generator’s file.
A) For contaminated soil, the following certification statement should
be included, signed by an authorized representative:
I certify under penalty of law that I personally have
examined this contaminated soil and it (does/does not)
contain listed hazardous waste and (does/does not) exhibit
a characteristic of hazardous waste and requires treatment
to meet the soil treatment standards as provided by 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728.149(c).
B) This subsection (a)(2)(B) corresponds with 40 CFR 268.7(a)(2)(ii),
which is marked “reserved” by USEPA. This statement maintains
structural consistency with USEPA rules.
3) If the waste or contaminated soil meets the treatment standard at the
original point of generation, the waste generator must do the following:
A) With the initial shipment of waste to each treatment, storage, or
disposal facility, the generator must send a one-time written notice
to each treatment, storage, or disposal facility receiving the waste,
and place a copy in its own file. The notice must include the
information indicated in column “728.107(a)(3)” of the Generator
Paperwork Requirements Table in Table I of this Part and the
following certification statement, signed by an authorized
representative:
794
I certify under penalty of law that I personally have
examined and am familiar with the waste through analysis
and testing or through knowledge of the waste to support
this certification that the waste complies with the treatment
standards specified in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.
I believe that the information I submitted is true, accurate,
and complete. I am aware that there are significant
penalties for submitting a false certification, including the
possibility of a fine and imprisonment.
B) For contaminated soil, with the initial shipment of wastes to each
treatment, storage, or disposal facility, the generator must send a
one-time written notice to each facility receiving the waste and
place a copy in the file. The notice must include the information in
the column headed “(a)(3)” in Table I of this Part.
C) If the waste changes, the generator must send a new notice and
certification to the receiving facility and place a copy in its files.
A generator of hazardous debris excluded from the definition of
hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(f) is not subject
to these requirements.
4) For reporting, tracking and recordkeeping when exceptions allow certain
wastes or contaminated soil that do not meet the treatment standards to be
land disposed, there are certain exemptions from the requirement that
hazardous wastes or contaminated soil meet treatment standards before
they can be land disposed. These include, but are not limited to, case-by-
case extensions under Section 728.105, disposal in a no-migration unit
under Section 728.106, or a national capacity variance or case-by-case
capacity variance under Subpart C of this Part. If a generator’s waste is so
exempt, then with the initial shipment of waste, the generator must send a
one-time written notice to each land disposal facility receiving the waste.
The notice must include the information indicated in column
“728.107(a)(4)” of the Generator Paperwork Requirements Table in Table
I of this Part. If the waste changes, the generator must send a new notice
to the receiving facility, and place a copy in its file.
5) If a generator is managing and treating prohibited waste or contaminated
soil in tanks, containers, or containment buildings regulated under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722.134 to meet applicable LDR treatment standards found at
Section 728.140, the generator must develop and follow a written waste
analysis plan that describes the procedures it will carry out to comply with
the treatment standards. (Generators treating hazardous debris under the
alternative treatment standards of Table F of this Part, however, are not
subject to these waste analysis requirements.) The plan must be kept on
795
site in the generator’s records, and the following requirements must be
met:
A) The waste analysis plan must be based on a detailed chemical and
physical analysis of a representative sample of the prohibited
wastes being treated, and contain all information necessary to treat
the wastes in accordance with the requirements of this Part,
including the selected testing frequency;
B) Such plan must be kept in the facility’s on-site files and made
available to inspectors; and
C) Wastes shipped off-site pursuant to this subsection (a)(5) of this
Section must comply with the notification requirements of
subsection (a)(3) of this Section.
6) If a generator determines that the waste or contaminated soil is restricted
based solely on its knowledge of the waste, all supporting data used to
make this determination must be retained on-site in the generator’s files.
If a generator determines that the waste is restricted based on testing this
waste or an extract developed using
S
SW-846
S
Method 1311 (
S
the
S
Toxicity
Characteristic Leaching Procedure)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111
S
in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-
846, all waste analysis data must be retained on-site in the generator’s
files.
7) If a generator determines that it is managing a prohibited waste that is
excluded from the definition of hazardous or solid waste or which is
exempt from Subtitle C regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.102
through 721.106 subsequent to the point of generation (including
deactivated characteristic hazardous wastes that are managed in
wastewater treatment systems subject to the CWA, as specified at 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.104(a)(2); that are CWA-equivalent; or that are managed
in an underground injection well regulated under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 730),
the generator must place a one-time notice stating such generation,
subsequent exclusion from the definition of hazardous or solid waste or
exemption from RCRA Subtitle C regulation, and the disposition of the
waste in the generating facility’s on-site file.
8) A generator must retain a copy of all notices, certifications, waste analysis
data, and other documentation produced pursuant to this Section on-site
for at least three years from the date that the waste that is the subject of
such documentation was last sent to on-site or off-site treatment, storage,
or disposal. The three-year record retention period is automatically
extended during the course of any unresolved enforcement action
796
regarding the regulated activity or as requested by the Agency. The
requirements of this subsection (a)(8) apply to solid wastes even when the
hazardous characteristic is removed prior to disposal, or when the waste is
excluded from the definition of hazardous or solid waste under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.102 through 721.106, or exempted from RCRA Subtitle C
regulation, subsequent to the point of generation.
9) If a generator is managing a lab pack containing hazardous wastes and
wishes to use the alternative treatment standard for lab packs found at
Section 728.142(c), the generator must fulfill the following conditions:
A) With the initial shipment of waste to a treatment facility, the
generator must submit a notice that provides the information in
column “Section 728.107(a)(9)” in the Generator Paperwork
Requirements Table of Table I of this Part and the following
certification. The certification, which must be signed by an
authorized representative and must be placed in the generator’s
files, must say the following:
I certify under penalty of law that I personally have
examined and am familiar with the waste and that the lab
pack contains only wastes that have not been excluded
under Appendix D to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728 and that this
lab pack will be sent to a combustion facility in compliance
with the alternative treatment standards for lab packs at 35
Ill. Adm. Code 728.142(c). I am aware that there are
significant penalties for submitting a false certification,
including the possibility of fine or imprisonment.
B) No further notification is necessary until such time as the wastes in
the lab pack change, or the receiving facility changes, in which
case a new notice and certification must be sent and a copy placed
in the generator’s file.
C) If the lab pack contains characteristic hazardous wastes (D001-
D043), underlying hazardous constituents (as defined in Section
728.102(i)) need not be determined.
D) The generator must also comply with the requirements in
subsections (a)(6) and (a)(7) of this Section.
10) Small quantity generators with tolling agreements pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.120(e) must comply with the applicable notification and
certification requirements of subsection (a) of this Section for the initial
shipment of the waste subject to the agreement. Such generators must
retain on-site a copy of the notification and certification, together with the
797
tolling agreement, for at least three years after termination or expiration of
the agreement. The three-year record retention period is automatically
extended during the course of any unresolved enforcement action
regarding the regulated activity or as requested by the Agency.
b) The owner or operator of a treatment facility must test its wastes according to the
frequency specified in its waste analysis plan, as required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.113 (for permitted TSDs) or 725.113 (for interim status facilities). Such
testing must be performed as provided in subsections (b)(1), (b)(2), and (b)(3) of
this Section.
1) For wastes or contaminated soil with treatment standards expressed in the
waste extract (TCLP), the owner or operator of the treatment facility must
test an extract of the treatment residues using
S
SW-846
S
Method 1311 (
S
the
S
Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure)
S
, incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-
846, to assure that the treatment residues extract meets the applicable
treatment standards.
2) For wastes or contaminated soil with treatment standards expressed as
concentrations in the waste, the owner or operator of the treatment facility
must test the treatment residues (not an extract of such residues) to assure
that the treatment residues meet the applicable treatment standards.
3) A one-time notice must be sent with the initial shipment of waste or
contaminated soil to the land disposal facility. A copy of the notice must
be placed in the treatment facility’s file.
A) No further notification is necessary until such time that the waste
or receiving facility changes, in which case a new notice must be
sent and a copy placed in the treatment facility’s file.
B) The one-time notice must include the following requirements:
i) USEPA hazardous waste number and manifest number of
first shipment;
ii) The waste is subject to the LDRs. The constituents of
concern for F001 through F005 and F039 waste and
underlying hazardous constituents in characteristic wastes,
unless the waste will be treated and monitored for all
constituents. If all constituents will be treated and
monitored, there is no need to put them all on the LDR
notice;
798
iii) The notice must include the applicable wastewater/
nonwastewater category (see Section 728.102(d) and (f))
and subdivisions made within a waste code based on waste-
specific criteria (such as D003 reactive cyanide);
iv) Waste analysis data (when available);
v) For contaminated soil subject to LDRs as provided in
Section 728.149(a), the constituents subject to treatment as
described in Section 728.149(d) and the following
statement, “this contaminated soil (does/does not) contain
listed hazardous waste and (does/does not) exhibit a
characteristic of hazardous waste and (is subject
to/complies with) the soil treatment standards as provided
by Section 728.149(c)”; and
vi) A certification is needed (see applicable Section for exact
wording).
4) The owner or operator of a treatment facility must submit a certification
signed by an authorized representative with the initial shipment of waste
or treatment residue of a restricted waste to the land disposal facility. The
certification must state as follows:
I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and
am familiar with the treatment technology and operation of the
treatment process used to support this certification. Based on my
inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining
this information, I believe that the treatment process has been
operated and maintained properly so as to comply with the
treatment standards specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.140
without impermissible dilution of the prohibited waste. I am aware
there are significant penalties for submitting a false certification,
including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.
A certification is also necessary for contaminated soil and it must state as
follows:
I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and
am familiar with the treatment technology and operation of the
treatment process used to support this certification and believe that
it has been maintained and operated properly so as to comply with
treatment standards specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.149
without impermissible dilution of the prohibited wastes. I am
aware there are significant penalties for submitting a false
certification, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.
799
A) A copy of the certification must be placed in the treatment
facility’s on-site files. If the waste or treatment residue changes,
or the receiving facility changes, a new certification must be sent
to the receiving facility, and a copy placed in the treatment
facility’s file.
B) Debris excluded from the definition of hazardous waste under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(e) (i.e., debris treated by an extraction or
destruction technology listed in Table F of this Part and debris that
the Agency has determined does not contain hazardous waste) is
subject to the notification and certification requirements of
subsection (d) of this Section rather than the certification
requirements of this subsection (b)(4).
C) For wastes with organic constituents having treatment standards
expressed as concentration levels, if compliance with the treatment
standards is based in part or in whole on the analytical detection
limit alternative specified in Section 728.140(d), the certification
must be signed by an authorized representative and must state as
follows:
I certify under penalty of law that I have personally
examined and am familiar with the treatment technology
and operation of the treatment process used to support this
certification. Based on my inquiry of those individuals
immediately responsible for obtaining this information, I
believe that the nonwastewater organic constituents have
been treated by combustion units as specified in Table C to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 728. I have been unable to detect the
nonwastewater organic constituents, despite having used
best good faith efforts to analyze for such constituents. I
am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting
a false certification, including the possibility of fine and
imprisonment.
D) For characteristic wastes that are subject to the treatment standards
in Section 728.140 and Table T of this Part (other than those
expressed as a required method of treatment) or Section 728.149
and which contain underlying hazardous constituents, as defined in
Section 728.102(i); if these wastes are treated on-site to remove
the hazardous characteristic; and that are then sent off-site for
treatment of underlying hazardous constituents, the certification
must state as follows:
I certify under penalty of law that the waste has been
800
treated in accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.140 and Table T of Section 728.149 of that Part
to remove the hazardous characteristic. This
decharacterized waste contains underlying hazardous
constituents that require further treatment to meet treatment
standards. I am aware that there are significant penalties
for submitting a false certification, including the possibility
of fine and imprisonment.
E) For characteristic wastes that contain underlying hazardous
constituents, as defined in Section 728.102(i), that are treated on-
site to remove the hazardous characteristic and to treat underlying
hazardous constituents to levels in Section 728.148 and Table U of
this Part universal treatment standards, the certification must state
as follows:
I certify under penalty of law that the waste has been
treated in accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.140 and Table T of that Part to remove the
hazardous characteristic and that underlying hazardous
constituents, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.102(i),
have been treated on-site to meet the universal treatment
standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.148 and Table U of that
Part. I am aware that there are significant penalties for
submitting a false certification, including the possibility of
fine and imprisonment.
5) If the waste or treatment residue will be further managed at a different
treatment, storage, or disposal facility, the treatment, storage, or disposal
facility that sends the waste or treatment residue off-site must comply with
the notice and certification requirements applicable to generators under
this Section.
6) Where the wastes are recyclable materials used in a manner constituting
disposal subject to the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.120(b),
regarding treatment standards and prohibition levels, the owner or
operator of a treatment facility (i.e., the recycler) is not required to notify
the receiving facility pursuant to subsection (b)(3) of this Section. With
each shipment of such wastes the owner or operator of the recycling
facility must submit a certification described in subsection (b)(4) of this
Section and a notice that includes the information listed in subsection
(b)(3) of this Section (except the manifest number) to the Agency. The
recycling facility also must keep records of the name and location of each
entity receiving the hazardous waste-derived product.
c) Except where the owner or operator is disposing of any waste that is a recyclable
801
material used in a manner constituting disposal pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.120(b), the owner or operator of any land disposal facility disposing any
waste subject to restrictions under this Part
S
shall
S
must do the following:
1) Maintain in its files copies of the notice and certifications specified in
subsection (a) or (b) of this Section.
2) Test the waste or an extract of the waste or treatment residue developed
using
S
SW-846
S
Method 1311 (
S
the
S
Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure)
S
,
S
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111,
S
in
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846, to assure that the waste or
treatment residue is in compliance with the applicable treatment standards
set forth in Subpart D of this Part. Such testing must be performed
according to the frequency specified in the facility’s waste analysis plan as
required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.113 or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.113.
3) Where the owner or operator is disposing of any waste that is subject to
the prohibitions under Section 728.133(f) but not subject to the
prohibitions set forth in Section 728.132, the owner or operator must
ensure that such waste is the subject of a certification according to the
requirements of Section 728.108 prior to disposal in a landfill or surface
impoundment unit, and that such disposal is in accordance with the
requirements of Section 728.105(h)(2). The same requirement applies to
any waste that is subject to the prohibitions under Section 728.133(f) and
also is subject to the statutory prohibitions in the codified prohibitions in
Section 728.139 or Section 728.132.
4) Where the owner or operator is disposing of any waste that is a recyclable
material used in a manner constituting disposal subject to the provisions of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.120(b), the owner or operator is not subject to
subsections (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this Section with respect to such
waste.
d) A generator or treater that first claims that hazardous debris is excluded from the
definition of hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(e) (i.e., debris
treated by an extraction or destruction technology provided by Table F of this
Part, and debris that has been delisted) is subject to the following notification and
certification requirements:
1) A one-time notification must be submitted to the Agency including the
following information:
A) The name and address of the RCRA Subtitle D (municipal solid
waste landfill) facility receiving the treated debris;
802
B) A description of the hazardous debris as initially generated,
including the applicable USEPA hazardous waste numbers; and
C) For debris excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(e)(1), the
technology from Table F of this Part used to treat the debris.
2) The notification must be updated if the debris is shipped to a different
facility and, for debris excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.102(e)(1), if
a different type of debris is treated or if a different technology is used to
treat the debris.
3) For debris excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(e)(1), the owner or
operator of the treatment facility must document and certify compliance
with the treatment standards of Table F of this Part, as follows:
A) Records must be kept of all inspections, evaluations, and analyses
of treated debris that are made to determine compliance with the
treatment standards;
B) Records must be kept of any data or information the treater obtains
during treatment of the debris that identifies key operating
parameters of the treatment unit; and
C) For each shipment of treated debris, a certification of compliance
with the treatment standards must be signed by an authorized
representative and placed in the facility’s files. The certification
must state as follows:
I certify under penalty of law that the debris has been
treated in accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.145. I am aware that there are significant
penalties for making a false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.
e) A generator or treater that first receives a determination from USEPA or the
Agency that a given contaminated soil subject to LDRs, as provided in Section
728.149(a), no longer contains a listed hazardous waste and a generator or treater
that first determines that a contaminated soil subject to LDRs, as provided in
Section 728.149(a), no longer exhibits a characteristic of hazardous waste must
do the following:
1) Prepare a one-time only documentation of these determinations including
all supporting information; and
2) Maintain that information in the facility files and other records for a
minimum of three years.
803
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART B: SCHEDULE FOR LAND DISPOSAL PROHIBITION AND
ESTABLISHMENT OF TREATMENT STANDARDS
Section 728.114 Surface Impoundment Exemptions
a) This Section defines additional circumstances under which an otherwise prohibited
waste may continue to be placed in a surface impoundment.
b) Wastes that are newly identified or listed by USEPA persuant to Section 3001 of
RCRA (42 USC
S
§
S
6921) after November 8, 1984 and which are stored in a surface
impoundment that is newly subject to subtitle C of RCRA (42 USC
S
§
S
6921 et seq.)
as a result of the additional identification or listing may continue to be stored in the
surface impoundment for 48 months after the promulgation of the additional listing
or characteristic, notwithstanding the fact that the waste is otherwise prohibited from
land disposal, provided that the surface impoundment is in compliance with the
requirements of Subpart F of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 within 12 months after
promulgation of the new listing or characteristic.
c) Wastes that are newly identified or listed by USEPA under Section 3001 of RCRA
(42
S
U.S.C. §
S
USC 6921) after November 8, 1984 and which are treated in a surface
impoundment that is newly subject to Subtitle C of RCRA (42
S
U.S.C. §
S
USC 6921 et
seq.) as a result of the additional identification or listing may continue to be treated in
that surface impoundment, notwithstanding the fact that the waste is otherwise
prohibited from land disposal, provided that the surface impoundment is in
compliance with the requirements of Subpart F of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 within 12
months after the promulgation of the new listing or characteristic. In addition, if the
surface impoundment continues to treat hazardous waste after 48 months from
promulgation of the additional listing or characteristic, it must then be in compliance
with Section 728.104.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART C: PROHIBITION ON LAND DISPOSAL
Section 728.120 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Dyes and Pigments Production
Wastes
a) The waste specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as USEPA hazardous waste
number K181, soil and debris contaminated with this waste, radioactive wastes
mixed with this waste, and soil and debris contaminated with radioactive wastes
mixed with this waste are prohibited from land disposal.
b) The requirements of subsection (a) of this Section do not apply if any of the
804
following conditions are fulfilled:
1) The wastes meet the applicable treatment standards specified in Subpart D
of this Part;
2) A no-migration exemption has been granted from a prohibition pursuant to
a petition under Section 728.106, in which case the requirements of
subsection (a) of this Section do not apply with respect to those wastes
and units covered by the petition;
3) The wastes meet the applicable treatment standards established pursuant
to a petition granted under Section 728.144;
4) Hazardous debris has met the treatment standards in Section 728.140 or
the alternative treatment standards in Section 728.145; or
5) USEPA has granted an extension to the effective date of a prohibition
pursuant to 40 CFR 268.5, in which case the requirements of subsection
(a) of this Section do not apply with respect to these wastes covered by the
extension.
c) To determine whether a hazardous waste identified in this Section exceeds the
applicable treatment standards specified in Section 728.140, the initial generator
must test a sample of the waste extract or the entire waste, depending on whether
the treatment standards are expressed as concentrations in the waste extract of the
waste, or the generator may use knowledge of the waste. If the waste contains
regulated constituents in excess of the applicable levels set forth in Subpart D of
this Part, the waste is prohibited from land disposal, and all requirements of this
Part apply, except as otherwise specified.
(Source: Added at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.130 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Wood Preserving Wastes
a) The following wastes are prohibited from land disposal: the wastes specified in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 as USEPA hazardous waste numbers F032, F034, and
F035.
b) The following wastes are prohibited from land disposal: soil and debris
contaminated with the wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 as F032, F034,
F035; and radioactive wastes mixed with USEPA hazardous waste numbers F032,
F034, and F035.
c) This subsection (c) corresponds with 40 CFR 268.30(c), which expired by its own
terms on May 12, 1999. This statement maintains structural consistency with the
corresponding federal regulations.
805
d) The requirements of subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply if any of
the following conditions is fulfilled:
1) The wastes meet the applicable treatment standards specified in Subpart D
of this Part;
2) A person has been granted an exemption from a prohibition pursuant to a
petition under Section 728.106, with respect to those wastes and units
covered by the petition;
3) The wastes meet the applicable alternate treatment standards established
pursuant to a petition granted under Section 728.144; or
4) A person has been granted an extension to the effective date of a
prohibition by USEPA pursuant to federal 40 CFR 268.5 (see Section
728.105), with respect to those wastes covered by the extension.
e) To determine whether a hazardous waste identified in this Section exceeds the
applicable treatment standards specified in Section 728.140 and Table T to this
Part, the initial generator must test a sample of the waste extract or the entire
waste, depending on whether the treatment standards are expressed as
concentrations in the waste extract or the waste, or the generator may use
knowledge of the waste. If the waste contains constituents in excess of the
applicable universal treatment standard levels of Section 728.148 and Table U to
this Part, the waste is prohibited from land disposal and all requirements of Part
728 are applicable, except as otherwise specified.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.134 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Toxicity Characteristic Metal Wastes
a) The following wastes are prohibited from land disposal: the wastes specified in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 as USEPA hazardous waste numbers D004 through D011
that are newly identified (i.e., wastes, soil, or debris identified as hazardous by the
Toxic Characteristic Leaching Procedure but not the Extraction Procedure), and
waste, soil, or debris from mineral processing operations that is identified as
hazardous by the specifications at 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
b) The following waste is prohibited from land disposal: slag from secondary lead
smelting that exhibits the characteristic of toxicity due to the presence of one or
more metals.
c) The following wastes are prohibited from land disposal: newly identified
characteristic wastes from elemental phosphorus processing; radioactive wastes
mixed with USEPA hazardous waste numbers D004 through D011 wastes that are
806
newly identified (i.e., wastes, soil, or debris identified as hazardous by the Toxic
Characteristic Leaching Procedure but not the Extraction Procedure); or mixed
with newly identified characteristic mineral processing wastes, soil, or debris.
d) This subsection (d) corresponds with 40 CFR 269.34(d), which expired by its own
terms on May 26, 2000. This statement maintains structural consistency with the
corresponding federal regulations.
e) The requirements of subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply if any of
the following applies to the waste:
1) The wastes meet the applicable treatment standards specified in Subpart D
of this Part;
2) The Board has granted an exemption from a prohibition pursuant to a
petition under Section 728.106, with respect to those wastes and units
covered by the petition;
3) The wastes meet the applicable alternate treatment standards established
pursuant to a petition granted under Section 728.144; or
4) USEPA has granted an extension to the effective date of a prohibition
pursuant to federal 40 CFR 268.5, with respect to those wastes covered by
the extension.
f) To determine whether a hazardous waste identified in this Section exceeds the
applicable treatment standards specified in Section 728.140 and Table T of this
Part, the initial generator must test a sample of the waste extract or the entire
waste, depending on whether the treatment standards are expressed as
concentrations in the waste extract or the waste, or the generator may use
knowledge of the waste. If the waste contains constituents (including underlying
hazardous constituents in characteristic wastes) in excess of the applicable
universal treatment standard levels of Section 728.148 and Table U of this Part,
the waste is prohibited from land disposal, and all requirements of this Part are
applicable, except as otherwise specified.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.135 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Petroleum Refining Wastes
a) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as USEPA hazardous wastes
numbers K169, K170, K171, and K172; soils and debris contaminated with these
wastes; radioactive wastes mixed with these hazardous wastes; and soils and
debris contaminated with these radioactive mixed wastes are prohibited from land
disposal.
807
b) The requirements of subsection (a) of this Section do not apply if any of the
following applies to the waste:
1) The wastes meet the applicable treatment standards specified in Subpart D
of this Part;
2) The Board has granted an adjusted standard that exempts waste from a
prohibition pursuant to Section 728.106, with respect to those wastes and
units covered by the adjusted standard;
3) The wastes meet an adjusted standard from an applicable treatment
standard granted under Section 728.144;
4) The waste is hazardous debris that has met the treatment standards set
forth in Section 728.140 and Table T of this Part or the alternative
treatment standards in Section 728.145; or
5) USEPA has granted an extension to the effective date of a prohibition
pursuant to federal 40 CFR 268.5, with respect to these wastes covered by
the extension.
c) To determine whether a hazardous waste identified in this Section exceeds the
applicable treatment standards specified in Section 728.140, the initial generator
must test a sample of the waste extract or the entire waste, depending on whether
the treatment standards are expressed as concentrations in the waste extract or the
waste, or the generator may use knowledge of the waste. If the waste contains
constituents in excess of the applicable universal treatment standard levels of
Section 728.148 and Table U of this Part, the waste is prohibited from land
disposal, and all requirements of this Part are applicable, except as otherwise
specified.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART D: TREATMENT STANDARDS
Section 728.140 Applicability of Treatment Standards
a) A prohibited waste identified in Table T of this Part, “Treatment Standards for
Hazardous Wastes,” may be land disposed only if it meets the requirements found
in that Table. For each waste, Table T of this Part identifies one of three types of
treatment standard requirements:
1) All hazardous constituents in the waste or in the treatment residue must be
at or below the values found in Table T of this Part for that waste (total
waste standards);
808
2) The hazardous constituents in the extract of the waste or in the extract of
the treatment residue must be at or below the values found in Table T of
this Part (waste extract standards); or
3) The waste must be treated using the technology specified in Table T of
this Part (technology standard), which is described in detail in Table C of
this Part, “Technology Codes and Description of Technology-Based
Standards.”
b) For wastewaters, compliance with concentration level standards is based on
maximums for any one day, except for D004 through D011 wastes for which the
previously promulgated treatment standards based on grab samples remain in
effect. For all nonwastewaters, compliance with concentration level standards is
based on grab sampling. For wastes covered by the waste extract standards, the
test Method 1311
S
,
S
S
the
S
(Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure)
S
,
S
S
found
S
in
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
S
publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), must be used to measure compliance. An
exception is made for D004 and D008, for which either of two test methods may
be used: Method 1311 or Method 1310B
S
,
S
S
the
S
(Extraction Procedure Toxicity
Test)
S
,
S
S
found
S
in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
S
publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111
S
. For wastes covered by a
technology standard, the wastes may be land disposed after being treated using
that specified technology or an equivalent treatment technology approved by the
Agency pursuant to Section 728.142(b).
c) When wastes with differing treatment standards for a constituent of concern are
combined for purposes of treatment, the treatment residue must meet the lowest
treatment standard for the constituent of concern.
d) Notwithstanding the prohibitions specified in subsection (a) of this Section,
treatment and disposal facilities may demonstrate (and certify pursuant to Section
728.107(b)(5)) compliance with the treatment standards for organic constituents
specified by a footnote in Table T of this Part, provided the following conditions
are satisfied:
1) The treatment standards for the organic constituents were established
based on incineration in units operated in accordance with the technical
requirements of Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724, or based on
combustion in fuel substitution units operating in accordance with
applicable technical requirements;
2) The treatment or disposal facility has used the methods referenced in
subsection (d)(1) of this Section to treat the organic constituents; and
809
3) The treatment or disposal facility may demonstrate compliance with
organic constituents if good-faith analytical efforts achieve detection
limits for the regulated organic constituents that do not exceed the
treatment standards specified in this Section and Table T of this Part by an
order of magnitude.
e) For a characteristic waste (USEPA hazardous waste number D001 through D043)
that is subject to treatment standards set forth in Table T of this Part, “Treatment
Standards for Hazardous Wastes,” and the waste is not managed in a wastewater
treatment system that is either regulated under the Clean Water Act (CWA) or one
that is CWA-equivalent or the waste is injected into a Class I non-hazardous deep
injection well, all underlying hazardous constituents (as defined in Section
728.102) must meet the universal treatment standards, set forth in Table U of this
Part prior to land disposal, as defined in Section 728.102.
f) The treatment standards for USEPA hazardous waste numbers F001 through F005
nonwastewater constituents carbon disulfide, cyclohexanone, or methanol apply
to wastes that contain only one, two, or three of these constituents. Compliance is
measured for these constituents in the waste extract from test Method 1311
S
, the
S
(Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure)
S
found
S
in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
S
publication number EPA-530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a)
. If the waste contains any of these three constituents
along with any of the other 25 constituents found in USEPA hazardous waste
numbers F001 through F005, then compliance with treatment standards for carbon
disulfide, cyclohexanone, or methanol are not required.
g) This subsection (g) corresponds with 40 CFR 268.40(g), which expired by its own
terms on March 4, 1999. This statement maintains structural consistency with the
corresponding federal rules.
h) Prohibited USEPA hazardous waste numbers D004 through D011, mixed
radioactive wastes, and mixed radioactive listed wastes containing metal
constituents that were previously treated by stabilization to the treatment
standards in effect at that time and then put into storage do not have to be re-
treated to meet treatment standards in this Section prior to land disposal.
i) This subsection (i) corresponds with 40 CFR 268.40(i), which USEPA has removed
and marked “reserved.” This statement maintains structural consistency with the
corresponding federal regulations.
j) The treatment standards for the wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.133 as
USEPA hazardous waste numbers P185, P191, P192, P197, U364, U394, and U395
may be satisfied by either meeting the constituent concentrations presented in Table
T of this Part, “Treatment Standards for Hazardous Wastes,” or by treating the
waste by the following technologies: combustion, as defined by the technology
810
code CMBST at Table C, for nonwastewaters; biodegradation, as defined by the
technology code BIODG; carbon adsorption, as defined by the technology code
CARBN; chemical oxidation, as defined by the technology code CHOXD; or
combustion, as defined as technology code CMBST at Table C, for wastewaters.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.142 Treatment Standards Expressed as Specified Technologies
a) The following wastes listed in Table T of this Part, “Treatment Standards for
Hazardous Wastes,” for which standards are expressed as a treatment method rather
than as a concentration level, must be treated using the technology or technologies
specified in Table C of this Part.
1) Liquid hazardous wastes containing PCBs at concentrations greater than or
equal to 50 ppm but less than 500 ppm must be incinerated in accordance
with the technical requirements of 40 CFR 761.70 (Incineration),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b), or
burned in high efficiency boilers in accordance with the technical
requirements of 40 CFR 761.60 (Disposal Requirements), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b). Liquid hazardous wastes
containing PCBs at concentrations greater than or equal to 500 ppm must be
incinerated in accordance with the technical requirements of 40 CFR 761.70.
Thermal treatment in accordance with this Section must be in compliance
with applicable regulations in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724, 725, and 726.
2) Nonliquid hazardous wastes containing halogenated organic compounds
(HOCs) in total concentrations greater than or equal to
S
1000
S
1,000 mg/kg and
liquid HOC-containing wastes that are prohibited under Section
728.132(e)(1) must be incinerated in accordance with the requirements of
Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
These treatment standards do not apply where the waste is subject to a
treatment standard codified in Subpart C of this Part for a specific HOC
(such as a hazardous waste chlorinated solvent for which a treatment
standard is established under Section 728.141(a)).
3) A mixture consisting of wastewater, the discharge of which is subject to
regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 309 or 310, and de minimis losses of
materials from manufacturing operations in which these materials are used as
raw materials or are produced as products in the manufacturing process that
meet the criteria of the D001 ignitable liquids containing greater than 10
percent total organic constituents (TOC) subcategory are subject to the
DEACT treatment standard described in Table C of this Part. For purposes
of this subsection (a)(3), “de minimis losses” include the following:
A) Those from normal material handling operations (e.g., spills from the
811
unloading or transfer of materials from bins or other containers, or
leaks from pipes, valves, or other devices used to transfer materials);
B) Minor leaks from process equipment, storage tanks, or containers;
C) Leaks from well-maintained pump packings and seals;
D) Sample purgings; and
E) Relief device discharges.
b) Any person may submit an application to the Agency demonstrating that an
alternative treatment method can achieve a level of performance equivalent to that
achievable by methods specified in subsections (a), (c), and (d) of this Section for
wastes or specified in Table F of this Part for hazardous debris. The applicant must
submit information demonstrating that the applicant’s treatment method is in
compliance with federal and state requirements, including this Part; 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 709, 724, 725, 726, and 729; and Sections 22.6 and 39(h) of the Environmental
Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.6 and 39(h)] and that the treatment method is
protective of human health and the environment. On the basis of such information
and any other available information, the Agency must approve the use of the
alternative treatment method if the Agency finds that the alternative treatment
method provides a measure of performance equivalent to that achieved by methods
specified in subsections (a), (c), and (d) of this Section and in Table F of this Part,
for hazardous debris. Any approval must be stated in writing and may contain such
provisions and conditions as the Agency determines to be appropriate. The person to
whom such approval is issued must comply with all limitations contained in such
determination.
c) As an alternative to the otherwise applicable treatment standards of Subpart D of this
Part, lab packs are eligible for land disposal provided the following requirements are
met:
1) The lab packs comply with the applicable provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.416 and 725.416;
BOARD NOTE: 35 Ill. Adm. Code 729.301 and 729.312 include additional
restrictions on the use of lab packs.
2) The lab pack does not contain any of the wastes listed in Appendix D of this
Part;
3) The lab packs are incinerated in accordance with the requirements of Subpart
O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725; and
4) Any incinerator residues from lab packs containing D004, D005, D006,
812
D007, D008, D010, and D011 are treated in compliance with the applicable
treatment standards specified for such wastes in Subpart D of this Part.
d) Radioactive hazardous mixed wastes are subject to the treatment standards in Section
728.140 and Table T of this Part. Where treatment standards are specified for
radioactive mixed wastes in Table T of this Part, “Table of Treatment Standards,”
those treatment standards will govern. Where there is no specific treatment standard
for radioactive mixed waste, the treatment standard for the hazardous waste (as
designated by USEPA hazardous waste code) applies. Hazardous debris containing
radioactive waste is subject to the treatment standards specified in Section 728.145.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.144 Adjustment of Treatment Standard
a) Based on a petition filed by a generator or treater of hazardous waste, the Board
will grant an adjusted standard from an applicable treatment standard if the
petitioner can demonstrate that either of the following applies to treatment of the
waste:
1) It is not physically possible to treat the waste to the level specified in the
treatment standard, or by the method specified as the treatment standard.
To show that this is the case, the petitioner must demonstrate that because
the physical or chemical properties of the waste differ significantly from
waste analyzed in developing the treatment standard, the waste cannot be
treated to the specified level or by the specified method; or
2) It is inappropriate to require the waste to be treated to the level specified
in the treatment standard or by the method specified as the treatment
standard, even though such treatment is technically possible. To show
that this is the case, the petitioner must demonstrate that either of the
following applies to treatment of the waste:
A) Treatment to the specified level or by the specified method is
technically inappropriate (for example, resulting in combustion of
large amounts of mildly contaminated environmental media); or
B) For remediation waste only, treatment to the specified level or by
the specified method is environmentally inappropriate because it
would likely discourage aggressive remediation.
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding federal 40 CFR 268.44 refers to these as
“treatability variances.” The Board has not used this term in its rules to
avoid confusion with the Board variances under Title IX of the
Environmental Protection Act. The equivalent Board procedures are an
“adjusted standard from a treatment standard” pursuant to subsections (a)
813
through (m) of this Section, or a “treatability exception” adopted pursuant
to subsection (p) of this Section. While the latter is adopted by “identical
in substance” rulemaking following a USEPA action, the former is an
original Board action that will be the only mechanism following
authorization to the State of this component of the RCRA program.
b) Each petition must be submitted in accordance with the procedures in Subpart D
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 104.
c) Each petition must include the following statement signed by the petitioner or an
authorized representative:
I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am
familiar with the information submitted in this petition and all attached
documents, and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals
immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that the
submitted information is true, accurate and complete. I am aware that
there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including
the possibility of fine and imprisonment.
d) After receiving a petition for an adjusted treatment standard, the Board may
request any additional information or samples that are necessary to evaluate the
petition.
e) The Board will give public notice and provide an opportunity for public comment,
as provided in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 104. In conjunction with any
updating of the RCRA regulations, the Board will maintain, in this Part, a listing
of all adjusted treatment standards granted by the Board pursuant to this Section.
S
A LISTING OF ALL ADJUSTED STANDARDS GRANTED PURSUANT TO
THIS SECTION WILL BE PUBLISHED IN THE ILLINOIS REGISTER AND
ENVIRONMENTAL REGISTER AT THE END OF EACH FISCAL YEAR.
S
A
listing of all adjusted standards granted pursuant to this section will be published
in the Illinois Register and Environmental Register at the end of each fiscal year.
(Section 28.1(d)(3) of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/28.1(d)(3)])
f) A generator, treatment facility or disposal facility that is managing a waste
covered by an adjusted treatment standard must comply with the waste analysis
requirements for restricted wastes found under Section 728.107.
g) During the petition review process, the applicant is required to comply with all
restrictions on land disposal under this Part once the effective date for the waste
has been reached.
h) Based on a petition filed by a generator or treater of hazardous waste, the Board
will grant an adjusted standard from an applicable treatment standard if the
petitioner can demonstrate that either of the following applies to treatment of the
814
waste:
1) It is not physically possible to treat the waste to the level specified in the
treatment standard, or by the method specified as the treatment standard.
To show that this is the case, the petitioner must demonstrate that because
the physical or chemical properties of the waste differ significantly from
waste analyzed in developing the treatment standard, the waste cannot be
treated to the specified level or by the specified method; or
2) It is inappropriate to require the waste to be treated to the level specified
in the treatment standard or by the method specified as the treatment
standard, even though such treatment is technically possible. To show
that this is the case, the petitioner must demonstrate that either of the
following applies to treatment of the waste:
A) Treatment to the specified level or by the specified method is
technically inappropriate (for example, resulting in combustion of
large amounts of mildly contaminated environmental media where
the treatment standard is not based on combustion of such media);
or
B) For remediation waste only, treatment to the specified level or by
the specified method is environmentally inappropriate because it
would likely discourage aggressive remediation.
3) For contaminated soil only, treatment to the level or by the method
specified in the soil treatment standards would result in concentrations of
hazardous constituents that are below (i.e., lower than) the concentrations
necessary to minimize short- and long-term threats to human health and
the environment. An adjusted standard from a treatment standard granted
under this subsection (h)(3) will include the following features:
A) At a minimum, the adjusted standard from the treatment standard
will impose an alternative land disposal restriction treatment
standard that will achieve the following, using a reasonable
maximum exposure scenario:
i) For carcinogens, it will achieve constituent concentrations
that result in the total excess risk to an individual exposed
over a lifetime, generally falling within a range from 10
P
-4
P
to
10
P
-6
P
; and
ii) For constituents with non-carcinogenic effects, it will
achieve constituent concentrations that an individual could
be exposed to on a daily basis without appreciable risk of
deleterious effect during a lifetime.
815
B) The treatment adjusted standard will not consider post-land-
disposal controls.
4) For contaminated soil only, treatment to the level or by the method
specified in the soil treatment standards would result in concentrations of
hazardous constituents that are below (i.e., lower than) natural background
concentrations at the site where the contaminated soil will be land
disposed.
5) The Board will follow the procedures of Section 28.1 of the Act and
Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 104 pertaining to public notice and a
reasonable opportunity for public comment before granting or denying a
petition.
i) Each petition for a site-specific adjusted treatment standard must include the
information in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120(b)(1) through (b)(4).
j) After receiving a petition for a site-specific adjusted treatment standard, the Board
may request any additional information or samples that the Board determines are
necessary to evaluate the petition.
k) A generator, treatment facility, or disposal facility that is managing a waste
covered by a site-specific adjusted treatment standard must comply with the waste
analysis requirements for restricted wastes in Section 728.107.
l) During the petition review process, the petitioner for a site-specific adjusted
treatment standard must comply with all restrictions on land disposal under this
Part once the effective date for the waste has been reached.
m) For any adjusted standard from a treatment standard, the petitioner must also
demonstrate that compliance with the requested adjusted standard is sufficient to
minimize threats to human health and the environment posed by land disposal of
the waste. In evaluating this demonstration, the Board will take into account
whether the adjusted standard should be granted if the subject waste is to be used
in a manner constituting disposal pursuant to Sections 728.120 through 728.123.
n) This subsection (n) corresponds with 40 CFR
S
264.1030(n)
S
268.44(n), marked
“reserved” by USEPA. This statement maintains structural consistency with
corresponding federal regulations.
o) The facilities listed in Table H of this Part are excluded from the treatment
standards under Section 728.143(a) and Table B of this Part, and are subject to the
constituent concentrations listed in Table H of this Part.
p) If USEPA grants a treatability exception by regulatory action pursuant to 40 CFR
816
268.44 and a person demonstrates that the treatability exception needs to be
adopted as part of the Illinois RCRA program because the waste is generated or
managed in Illinois, the Board will adopt the treatability exception by identical in
substance rulemaking pursuant to Section 22.4(a) of the Environmental Protection
Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4(a)].
BOARD NOTE: The Board will adopt the treatability exception during a RCRA
update Docket if a timely demonstration is made. Otherwise, the Board will
assign the matter to a separate Docket.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.145 Treatment Standards for Hazardous Debris
a) Treatment standards. Hazardous debris must be treated prior to land disposal as
follows, unless the Agency has determined, under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(f)(2),
that the debris is no longer contaminated with hazardous waste or the debris is
treated to the waste-specific treatment standard provided in this Subpart D for the
waste contaminating the debris:
1) General. Hazardous debris must be treated for each “contaminant subject to
treatment,” defined by subsection (b) of this Section, using the technology or
technologies identified in Table F of this Part.
2) Characteristic debris. Hazardous debris that exhibits the characteristic of
ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity identified under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.121, 721.122, or 721.123, respectively, must be deactivated by treatment
using one of the technologies identified in Table F of this Part.
3) Mixtures of debris types. The treatment standards of Table F of this Part
must be achieved for each type of debris contained in a mixture of debris
types. If an immobilization technology is used in a treatment train, it must be
the last treatment technology used.
4) Mixtures of contaminant types. Debris that is contaminated with two or
more contaminants subject to treatment identified under subsection (b) of
this Section must be treated for each contaminant using one or more
treatment technologies identified in Table F of this Part. If an
immobilization technology is used in a treatment train, it must be the last
treatment technology used.
5) Waste PCBs. Hazardous debris that is also a waste PCB under 40 CFR 761
(Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) Manufacturing, Processing,
Distribution in Commerce, and Use Prohibitions), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), is subject to the requirements of
either 40 CFR 761 or the requirements of this Section, whichever are more
817
stringent.
b) Contaminants subject to treatment. Hazardous debris must be treated for each
“contaminant subject to treatment.” The contaminants subject to treatment must be
determined as follows:
1) Toxicity characteristic debris. The contaminants subject to treatment for
debris that exhibits the Toxicity Characteristic (TC) by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.124 are those EP constituents for which the debris exhibits the TC
toxicity characteristic.
2) Debris contaminated with listed waste. The contaminants subject to
treatment for debris that is contaminated with a prohibited listed hazardous
waste are those constituents or wastes for which treatment standards are
established for the waste under Section 728.140 and Table T of this Part.
3) Cyanide reactive debris. Hazardous debris that is reactive because of cyanide
must be treated for cyanide.
c) Conditioned exclusion of treated debris. Hazardous debris that has been treated
using one of the specified extraction or destruction technologies in Table F of this
Part and that does not exhibit a characteristic of hazardous waste identified under
Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 after treatment is not a hazardous waste and
need not be managed in a subtitle C facility. Hazardous debris contaminated with a
listed waste that is treated by an immobilization technology specified in Table F of
this Part is a hazardous waste and must be managed in a RCRA Subtitle C treatment,
storage, or disposal facility.
d) Treatment residuals.
1) General requirements. Except as provided by subsections (d)(2) and (d)(4)
of this Section:
A) Residue from the treatment of hazardous debris must be separated
from the treated debris using simple physical or mechanical means;
and
B) Residue from the treatment of hazardous debris is subject to the
waste-specific treatment standards provided by Subpart D of this Part
for the waste contaminating the debris.
2) Nontoxic debris. Residue from the deactivation of ignitable, corrosive, or
reactive characteristic hazardous debris (other than cyanide-reactive) that is
not contaminated with a contaminant subject to treatment defined by
subsection (b) of this Section, must be deactivated prior to land disposal and
is not subject to the waste-specific treatment standards of Subpart D of this
818
Part.
3) Cyanide-reactive debris. Residue from the treatment of debris that is reactive
because of cyanide must meet the standards for USEPA hazardous waste
number D003 under Section 728.140 and Table T of this Part.
4) Ignitable nonwastewater residue. Ignitable nonwastewater residue
containing equal to or greater than 10 percent total organic carbon is subject
to the technology specified in the treatment standard for USEPA hazardous
waste number D001: Ignitable Liquids.
5) Residue from spalling. Layers of debris removed by spalling are hazardous
debris that remains subject to the treatment standards of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART E: PROHIBITIONS ON STORAGE
Section 728.150 Prohibitions on Storage of Restricted Wastes
a) Except as provided in this Section, the storage of hazardous wastes restricted from
land disposal under Subpart C of this Part is prohibited, unless the following
conditions are met:
1) A generator stores such wastes in tanks, containers, or containment buildings
on-site solely for the purpose of the accumulation of such quantities of
hazardous waste as necessary to facilitate proper recovery, treatment, or
disposal and the generator complies with the requirements in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.134 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725. (A generator that is in
existence on the effective date of a regulation under this Part and which must
store hazardous wastes for longer than 90 days due to the regulations under
this Part becomes an owner or operator of a storage facility and must obtain a
RCRA permit, as required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703. Such a facility may
qualify for interim status upon compliance with the regulations governing
interim status under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.153.)
2) An owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal
facility stores such wastes in tanks, containers, or containment buildings
solely for the purpose of the accumulation of such quantities of hazardous
waste as necessary to facilitate proper recovery, treatment, or disposal and
each of the following conditions are fulfilled:
A) Each container is clearly marked to identify its contents and the date
each period of accumulation begins; and
B) Each tank is clearly marked with a description of its contents, the
819
quantity of each hazardous waste received and the date each period of
accumulation begins, or such information is recorded and maintained
in the operating record at the facility. Regardless of whether the tank
itself is marked, the owner and operator must comply with the
operating record requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.173 or
725.173.
3) A transporter stores manifested shipments of such wastes at a transfer facility
for 10 days or less.
b) An owner or operator of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility may store such
wastes for up to one year unless the Agency can demonstrate that such storage was
not solely for the purpose of accumulation of such quantities of hazardous waste as
are necessary to facilitate proper recovery, treatment, or disposal.
c) An owner or operator of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility may store wastes
beyond one year; however, the owner or operator bears the burden of proving that
such storage was solely for the purpose of accumulation of such quantities of
hazardous waste as are necessary to facilitate proper recovery, treatment, or disposal.
d) If a generator’s waste is exempt from a prohibition on the type of land disposal
utilized for the waste (for example, because of an approved case-by-case extension
S
under
S
granted by USEPA pursuant to 40 CFR 268.5
S
, incorporated by reference in
Section 728.105
S
, an approved Section 728.106 petition or a national capacity
variance
S
under
S
granted by USEPA pursuant to subpart C of 40 CFR 268
S
, Subpart
C
S
), the prohibition in subsection (a) does not apply during the period of such
exemption.
e) The prohibition in subsection (a) of this Section does not apply to hazardous wastes
that meet the treatment standards specified under Sections 728.141, 728.142, and
728.143 or the adjusted treatment standards specified under Section 728.144, or,
where treatment standards have not been specified, the waste is in compliance with
the applicable prohibitions specified in Section 728.132 or 728.139.
f) Liquid hazardous wastes containing PCBs at concentrations greater than or equal to
50 ppm must be stored at a facility that meets the requirements of federal 40 CFR
761.65(b) (Storage for Disposal), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(b), and must be removed from storage and treated or disposed as
required by the Part within one year of the date when such wastes are first placed
into storage. The provisions of subsection (c) of this Section do not apply to such
PCB wastes prohibited under Section 728.132.
g) The prohibition and requirements in this Section do not apply to hazardous
remediation wastes stored in a staging pile approved pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.654.
820
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.Appendix C List of Halogenated Organic Compounds Regulated under Section
728.132
In determining the concentration of halogenated organic compounds (HOCs) in a hazardous
waste for purposes of the Section 728.132 land disposal prohibition, USEPA has defined the
HOCs that must be included in a calculation as any compounds having a carbon-halogen bond
that are listed in this Appendix (see Section 728.102). This Appendix C to Part 728 consists of
the following compounds:
I. Volatiles
1. Bromodichloromethane
2. Bromomethane
3. Carbon Tetrachloride
4. Chlorobenzene
5. 2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene
6. Chlorodibromomethane
7. Chloroethane
8. 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether
9. Chloroform
10. Chloromethane
11. 3-Chloropropene
12. 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane
13. 1,2-Dibromomethane
14. Dibromomethane
15. Trans-1,4-Dichloro-2--butene
16. Dichlorodifluoromethane
17. 1,1-Dichloroethane
18. 1,2-Dichloroethane
19. 1,1-Dichloroethylene
20. Trans-1,2-Dichloroethene
21. 1,2-Dichloropropane
22. Trans-1,3-Dichloropropene
23. cis-1,3-Dichloropropene
24. Iodomethane
25. Methylene chloride
26. 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane
27. 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane
28. Tetrachloroethene
29. Tribromomethane
30. 1,1,1-Trichloroethane
31. 1,1,2-Trichloroethane
32. Trichloroethene
33. Trichloromonofluoromethane
821
34. 1,2,3-Thrichloropropane
35. Vinyl Chloride
II. Semivolatiles
1. Bis(2-chloroethoxy)ethane
2. Bis(2-chloroethyl)ether
3. Bis(2-chloroisopropyl)ether
4. p-Chloroaniline
5. Chlorobenzilate
6. p-Chloro-m-cresol
7. 2-Chloronaphthalene
8. 2-Chlorophenol
9. 3-Chloropropionitrile
10. m-Dichlorobenzene
11. o-Dichlorobenzene
12. p-Dichlorobenzene
13. 3.3'-Dichlorobenzidine
14. 2,4-Dichlorophenol
15. 2,6-Dichlorophenol
16. Hexachlorobenzene
17. Hexachlorobutadiene
18. Hexachlorocyclopentadiene
19. Hexachloroethane
20. Hexachlorophene
21. Hexachloropropene
22. 4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroanaline)
23. Pentachlorobenzene
24. Pentachloroethane
25. Pentachloronitrobenzene
26. Pentachlorophenol
27. Pronamide
28. 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene
29. 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol
30. 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene
31. 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol
32. 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol
33. Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl)phosphate
III. Organochlorine Pesticides
1. Aldrin
2. alpha-BHC
3. beta-BHC
4. delta-BHC
5. gamma-BHC
822
6. Chlorodane
7. DDD
8. DDE
9. DDT
10. Dieldrin
11. Endosulfan I
12. Endosulfan II
13. Endrin
14. Endrin aldehyde
15. Heptachlor
16. Heptachlor epoxide
17. Isodrin
18. Kepone
19. Methoxyclor
20. Toxaphene
IV. Phenoxyacetic Acid Herbicides
1. 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
2. Silvex
3. 2,4,5-T
V. PCBs
1. Aroclor 1016
2. Aroclor 1221
3. Aroclor 1232
4. Aroclor 1242
5. Aroclor 1248
6. Aroclor 1254
7. Aroclor 1260
8. PCBs not otherwise specified
VI. Dioxins and Furans
1. Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
2. Hexachlorodibenzofuran
3. Pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
4. Pentachlorodibenzofuran
5. Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
6. Tetrachlorodibenzofuran
7. 2,3,7,8-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin
BOARD NOTE: Derived from appendix III to 40 CFR 268
S
, Appendix III (2002)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
823
Section 728.Appendix G Federal Effective Dates
The following are the effective dates for the USEPA rules in 40 CFR 268. These generally became
effective as Illinois rules at a later date.
TABLE 1
EFFECTIVE DATES OF SURFACE DISPOSED WASTES (NON-SOIL AND
DEBRIS) REGULATED IN THE LDRS
P
a
P
—COMPREHENSIVE LIST
Waste code Waste category Effective date
D001
P
c
P
All (except High TOC Ignitable Liquids) August 9, 1993
D001 High TOC Ignitable Liquids August 8, 1990
D002
P
c
P
All August 9, 1993
D003
P
e
P
Newly identified surface-disposed
elemental phosphorus processing wastes
May 26, 2000
D004 Newly identified D004 and mineral
processing wastes
August 24, 1998
D004 Mixed radioactive/newly identified D004
or mineral processing wastes
May 26, 2000
D005 Newly identified D005 and mineral
processing wastes
August 24, 1998
D005 Mixed radioactive/newly identified D005
or mineral processing wastes
May 26, 2000
D006 Newly identified D006 and mineral
processing wastes
August 24, 1998
D006 Mixed radioactive/newly identified D006
or mineral processing wastes
May 26, 2000
D007 Newly identified D007 and mineral
processing wastes
August 24, 1998
D007 Mixed radioactive/newly identified
D007or mineral processing wastes
May 26, 2000
D008 Newly identified D008 and mineral
processing waste
August 24, 1998
D008 Mixed radioactive/newly identified D008
or mineral processing wastes
May 26, 2000
D009 Newly identified D009 and mineral
processing waste
August 24, 1998
D009 Mixed radioactive/newly identified
D009or mineral processing wastes
May 26, 2000
D010 Newly identified D010 and mineral
processing wastes
August 24, 1998
D010 Mixed radioactive/newly identified D010
or mineral processing wastes
May 26, 2000
D011 Newly identified D011 and mineral
processing wastes
August 24, 1998
824
D011 Mixed radioactive/newly identified
D011or mineral processing wastes
May 26, 2000
D012 (that exhibit the toxici-
ty characteristic based on the
TCLP)
P
d
P
All December 14, 1994
D013 (that exhibit the toxici-
ty characteristic based on the
TCLP)
P
d
P
All December 14, 1994
D014 (that exhibit the toxici-
ty characteristic based on the
TCLP)
P
d
P
All December 14, 1994
D015 (that exhibit the toxici-
ty characteristic based on the
TCLP)
P
d
P
All December 14, 1994
D016 (that exhibit the toxici-
ty characteristic based on the
TCLP)
P
d
P
All December 14, 1994
D017 (that exhibit the toxici-
ty characteristic based on the
TCLP)
P
d
P
All December 14, 1994
D018 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D018 All others December 19, 1994
D019 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D019 All others December 19, 1994
D020 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D020 All others December 19, 1994
D021 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D021 All others December 19, 1994
D022 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D022 All others December 19, 1994
D023 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D023 All others December 19, 1994
D024 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D024 All others December 19, 1994
D025 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D025 All others December 19, 1994
D026 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D026 All others December 19, 1994
D027 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D027 All others December 19, 1994
D028 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D028 All others December 19, 1994
D029 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D029 All others December 19, 1994
D030 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D030 All others December 19, 1994
825
D031 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D031 All others December 19, 1994
D032 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D032 All others December 19, 1994
D033 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D033 All others December 19, 1994
D034 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D034 All others December 19, 1994
D035 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D035 All others December 19, 1994
D036 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D036 All others December 19, 1994
D037 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D037 All others December 19, 1994
D038 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D038 All others December 19, 1994
D039 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D039 All others December 19, 1994
D040 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D040 All others December 19, 1994
D041 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D041 All others December 19, 1994
D042 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D042 All others December 19, 1994
D043 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
D043 All others December 19, 1994
F001 Small quantity generators, CERCLA
response/RCRA corrective action, initial
generator’s solvent-water mixtures, solvent-
containing sludges and solids
November 8, 1988
F001 All others November 8, 1986
F002 (1,1,2-trichloroethane) Wastewater and Nonwastewater August 8, 1990
F002 Small quantity generators, CERCLA
response/RCRA corrective action, initial
generator’s solvent-water mixtures, solvent-
containing sludges and solids
November 8, 1988
F002 All others November 8, 1986
F003 Small quantity generators, CERCLA
response/RCRA corrective action, initial
generator’s solvent-water mixtures, solvent-
containing sludges and solids
November 8, 1988
F003 All others November 8, 1986
F004 Small quantity generators, CERCLA
response/RCRA corrective action, initial
generator’s solvent-water mixtures, solvent-
containing sludges and solids
November 8, 1988
826
F004 All others November 8, 1986
F005 (benzene, 2-ethoxy
ethanol, 2-nitropropane)
Wastewater and Nonwastewater August 8, 1990
F005 Small quantity generators, CERCLA
response/RCRA corrective action, initial
generator’s solvent-water mixtures, solvent-
containing sludges and solids
November 8, 1988
F005 All others November 8, 1986
F006 Wastewater August 8, 1990
F006 Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
F006 (cyanides) Nonwastewater July 8, 1989
F007 All July 8, 1989
F008 All July 8, 1989
F009 All July 8, 1989
F010 All June 8, 1989
F011 (cyanides) Nonwastewater December 8, 1989
F011 All others July 8, 1989
F012 (cyanides) Nonwastewater December 8, 1989
F012 All others July 8, 1989
F019 All August 8, 1990
F020 All November 8, 1988
F021 All November 8, 1988
F025 All August 8, 1990
F026 All November 8, 1988
F027 All November 8, 1988
F028 All November 8, 1988
F032 Mixed with radioactive wastes May 12, 1999
F032 All others August 12, 1997
F034 Mixed with radioactive wastes May 12, 1999
F034 All others August 12, 1997
F035 Mixed with radioactive wastes May 12, 1999
F035 All others August 12, 1997
F037 Not generated from surface impoundment
cleanouts or closures
June 30, 1993
F037 Generated from surface impoundment
cleanouts or closures
June 30, 1994
F037 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
F038 Not generated from surface impoundment
cleanouts or closures
June 30, 1993
F038 Generated from surface impoundment
cleanouts or closures
June 30, 1994
F038 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
F039 Wastewater August 8, 1990
F039 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
K001 (organics)
P
b
P
All August 8, 1988
K001 All others August 8, 1988
827
K002 All August 8, 1990
K003 All August 8, 1990
K004 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K004 Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K005 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K005 Nonwastewater June 8, 1989
K006 All August 8, 1990
K007 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K007 Nonwastewater June 8, 1989
K008 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K008 Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K009 All June 8, 1989
K010 All June 8, 1989
K011 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K011 Nonwastewater June 8, 1989
K013 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K013 Nonwastewater June 8, 1989
K014 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K014 Nonwastewater June 8, 1989
K015 Wastewater August 8, 1988
K015 Nonwastewater August 8, 1990
K016 All August 8, 1988
K017 All August 8, 1990
K018 All August 8, 1988
K019 All August 8, 1988
K020 All August 8, 1988
K021 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K021 Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K022 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K022 Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K023 All June 8, 1989
K024 All August 8, 1988
K025 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K025 Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K026 All August 8, 1990
K027 All June 8, 1989
K028 (metals) Nonwastewater August 8, 1990
K028 All others June 8, 1989
K029 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K029 Nonwastewater June 8, 1989
K030 All August 8, 1988
K031 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K031 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
K032 All August 8, 1990
K033 All August 8, 1990
K034 All August 8, 1990
828
K035 All August 8, 1990
K036 Wastewater June 8, 1989
K036 Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K037
P
b
P
Wastewater August 8, 1988
K037 Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K038 All June 8, 1989
K039 All June 8, 1989
K040 All June 8, 1989
K041 All August 8, 1990
K042 All August 8, 1990
K043 All June 8, 1989
K044 All August 8, 1988
K045 All August 8, 1988
K046 (Nonreactive) Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K046 All others August 8, 1990
K047 All August 8, 1988
K048 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K048 Nonwastewater November 8, 1990
K049 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K049 Nonwastewater November 8, 1990
K050 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K050 Nonwastewater November 8, 1990
K051 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K051 Nonwastewater November 8, 1990
K052 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K052 Nonwastewater November 8, 1990
K060 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K060 Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K061 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K061 Nonwastewater June 30, 1992
K062 All August 8, 1988
K069 (non-calcium sulfate) Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K069 All others August 8, 1990
K071 All August 8, 1990
K073 All August 8, 1990
K083 All August 8, 1990
K084 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K084 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
K085 All August 8, 1990
K086 (organics)
P
b
P
All August 8, 1988
K086 All others August 8, 1988
K087 All August 8, 1988
K088 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
K088 All others October 8, 1997
K093 All June 8, 1989
K094 All June 8, 1989
829
K095 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K095 Nonwastewater June 8, 1989
K096 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K096 Nonwastewater June 8, 1989
K097 All August 8, 1990
K098 All August 8, 1990
K099 All August 8, 1988
K100 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K100 Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K101 (organics) Wastewater August 8, 1988
K101 (metals) Wastewater August 8, 1990
K101 (organics) Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K101 (metals) Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
K102 (organics) Wastewater August 8, 1988
K102 (metals) Wastewater August 8, 1990
K102 (organics) Nonwastewater August 8, 1988
K102 (metals) Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
K103 All August 8, 1988
K104 All August 8, 1988
K105 All August 8, 1990
K106 Wastewater August 8, 1990
K106 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
K107 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K107 All others November 9, 1992
K108 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K108 All others November 9, 1992
K109 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K109 All others November 9, 1992
K110 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K110 All others November 9, 1992
K111 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K111 All others November 9, 1992
K112 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K112 All others November 9, 1992
K113 All June 8, 1989
K114 All June 8, 1989
K115 All June 8, 1989
K116 All June 8, 1989
K117 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K117 All others November 9, 1992
K118 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K118 All others November 9, 1992
K123 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K123 All others November 9, 1992
K124 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K124 All others November 9, 1992
830
K125 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K125 All others November 9, 1992
K126 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K126 All others November 9, 1992
K131 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K131 All others November 9, 1992
K132 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K132 All others November 9, 1992
K136 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
K136 All others November 9, 1992
K141 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
K141 All others December 19, 1994
K142 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
K142 All others December 19, 1994
K143 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
K143 All others December 19, 1994
K144 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
K144 All others December 19, 1994
K145 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
K145 All others December 19, 1994
K147 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
K147 All others December 19, 1994
K148 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
K148 All others December 19, 1994
K149 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
K149 All others December 19, 1994
K150 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
K150 All others December 19, 1994
K151 Mixed with radioactive wastes September 19, 1996
K151 All others December 19, 1994
K156 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
K156 All others July 8, 1996
K157 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
K157 All others July 8, 1996
K158 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
K158 All others July 8, 1996
K159 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
K159 All others July 8, 1996
K160 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
K160 All others July 8, 1996
K161 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
K161 All others July 8, 1996
K169 All February 8, 1999
K170 All February 8, 1999
K171 All February 8, 1999
K172 All February 8, 1999
831
K174 All May 7, 2001
K175 All May 7, 2001
K176 All May 20, 2002
K177 All May 20, 2002
K178 All May 20, 2002
K181 All August 23, 2005
P001 All August 8, 1990
P002 All August 8, 1990
P003 All August 8, 1990
P004 All August 8, 1990
P005 All August 8, 1990
P006 All August 8, 1990
P007 All August 8, 1990
P008 All August 8, 1990
P009 All August 8, 1990
P010 Wastewater August 8, 1990
P010 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
P011 Wastewater August 8, 1990
P011 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
P012 Wastewater August 8, 1990
P012 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
P013 (barium) Nonwastewater August 8, 1990
P013 All others June 8, 1989
P014 All August 8, 1990
P015 All August 8, 1990
P016 All August 8, 1990
P017 All August 8, 1990
P018 All August 8, 1990
P020 All August 8, 1990
P021 All June 8, 1989
P022 All August 8, 1990
P023 All August 8, 1990
P024 All August 8, 1990
P026 All August 8, 1990
P027 All August 8, 1990
P028 All August 8, 1990
P029 All June 8, 1989
P030 All June 8, 1989
P031 All August 8, 1990
P033 All August 8, 1990
P034 All August 8, 1990
P036 Wastewater August 8, 1990
P036 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
P037 All August 8, 1990
P038 Wastewater August 8, 1990
P038 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
832
P039 All June 8, 1989
P040 All June 8, 1989
P041 All June 8, 1989
P042 All August 8, 1990
P043 All June 8, 1989
P044 All June 8, 1989
P045 All August 8, 1990
P046 All August 8, 1990
P047 All August 8, 1990
P048 All August 8, 1990
P049 All August 8, 1990
P050 All August 8, 1990
P051 All August 8, 1990
P054 All August 8, 1990
P056 All August 8, 1990
P057 All August 8, 1990
P058 All August 8, 1990
P059 All August 8, 1990
P060 All August 8, 1990
P062 All June 8, 1989
P063 All June 8, 1989
P064 All August 8, 1990
P065 Wastewater August 8, 1990
P065 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
P066 All August 8, 1990
P067 All August 8, 1990
P068 All August 8, 1990
P069 All August 8, 1990
P070 All August 8, 1990
P071 All June 8, 1989
P072 All August 8, 1990
P073 All August 8, 1990
P074 All June 8, 1989
P075 All August 8, 1990
P076 All August 8, 1990
P077 All August 8, 1990
P078 All August 8, 1990
P081 All August 8, 1990
P082 All August 8, 1990
P084 All August 8, 1990
P085 All June 8, 1989
P087 All May 8, 1992
P088 All August 8, 1990
P089 All June 8, 1989
P092 Wastewater August 8, 1990
P092 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
833
P093 All August 8, 1990
P094 All June 8, 1989
P095 All August 8, 1990
P096 All August 8, 1990
P097 All June 8, 1989
P098 All June 8, 1989
P099 (silver) Wastewater August 8, 1990
P099 All others June 8, 1989
P101 All August 8, 1990
P102 All August 8, 1990
P103 All August 8, 1990
P104 (silver) Wastewater August 8, 1990
P104 All others June 8, 1989
P105 All August 8, 1990
P106 All June 8, 1989
P108 All August 8, 1990
P109 All June 8, 1989
P110 All August 8, 1990
P111 All June 8, 1989
P112 All August 8, 1990
P113 All August 8, 1990
P114 All August 8, 1990
P115 All August 8, 1990
P116 All August 8, 1990
P118 All August 8, 1990
P119 All August 8, 1990
P120 All August 8, 1990
P121 All June 8, 1989
P122 All August 8, 1990
P123 All August 8, 1990
P127 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P127 All others July 8, 1996
P128 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P128 All others July 8, 1996
P185 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P185 All others July 8, 1996
P188 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P188 All others July 8, 1996
P189 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P189 All others July 8, 1996
P190 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P190 All others July 8, 1996
P191 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P191 All others July 8, 1996
P192 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P192 All others July 8, 1996
834
P194 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P194 All others July 8, 1996
P196 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P196 All others July 8, 1996
P197 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P197 All others July 8, 1996
P198 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P198 All others July 8, 1996
P199 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P199 All others July 8, 1996
P201 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P201 All others July 8, 1996
P202 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P202 All others July 8, 1996
P203 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P203 All others July 8, 1996
P204 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P204 All others July 8, 1996
P205 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
P205 All others July 8, 1996
U001 All August 8, 1990
U002 All August 8, 1990
U003 All August 8, 1990
U004 All August 8, 1990
U005 All August 8, 1990
U006 All August 8, 1990
U007 All August 8, 1990
U008 All August 8, 1990
U009 All August 8, 1990
U010 All August 8, 1990
U011 All August 8, 1990
U012 All August 8, 1990
U014 All August 8, 1990
U015 All August 8, 1990
U016 All August 8, 1990
U017 All August 8, 1990
U018 All August 8, 1990
U019 All August 8, 1990
U020 All August 8, 1990
U021 All August 8, 1990
U022 All August 8, 1990
U023 All August 8, 1990
U024 All August 8, 1990
U025 All August 8, 1990
U026 All August 8, 1990
U027 All August 8, 1990
835
U028 All June 8, 1989
U029 All August 8, 1990
U030 All August 8, 1990
U031 All August 8, 1990
U032 All August 8, 1990
U033 All August 8, 1990
U034 All August 8, 1990
U035 All August 8, 1990
U036 All August 8, 1990
U037 All August 8, 1990
U038 All August 8, 1990
U039 All August 8, 1990
U041 All August 8, 1990
U042 All August 8, 1990
U043 All August 8, 1990
U044 All August 8, 1990
U045 All August 8, 1990
U046 All August 8, 1990
U047 All August 8, 1990
U048 All August 8, 1990
U049 All August 8, 1990
U050 All August 8, 1990
U051 All August 8, 1990
U052 All August 8, 1990
U053 All August 8, 1990
U055 All August 8, 1990
U056 All August 8, 1990
U057 All August 8, 1990
U058 All June 8, 1989
U059 All August 8, 1990
U060 All August 8, 1990
U061 All August 8, 1990
U062 All August 8, 1990
U063 All August 8, 1990
U064 All August 8, 1990
U066 All August 8, 1990
U067 All August 8, 1990
U068 All August 8, 1990
U069 All June 30, 1992
U070 All August 8, 1990
U071 All August 8, 1990
U072 All August 8, 1990
U073 All August 8, 1990
U074 All August 8, 1990
U075 All August 8, 1990
U076 All August 8, 1990
836
U077 All August 8, 1990
U078 All August 8, 1990
U079 All August 8, 1990
U080 All August 8, 1990
U081 All August 8, 1990
U082 All August 8, 1990
U083 All August 8, 1990
U084 All August 8, 1990
U085 All August 8, 1990
U086 All August 8, 1990
U087 All June 8, 1989
U088 All June 8, 1989
U089 All August 8, 1990
U090 All August 8, 1990
U091 All August 8, 1990
U092 All August 8, 1990
U093 All August 8, 1990
U094 All August 8, 1990
U095 All August 8, 1990
U096 All August 8, 1990
U097 All August 8, 1990
U098 All August 8, 1990
U099 All August 8, 1990
U101 All August 8, 1990
U102 All June 8, 1989
U103 All August 8, 1990
U105 All August 8, 1990
U106 All August 8, 1990
U107 All June 8, 1989
U108 All August 8, 1990
U109 All August 8, 1990
U110 All August 8, 1990
U111 All August 8, 1990
U112 All August 8, 1990
U113 All August 8, 1990
U114 All August 8, 1990
U115 All August 8, 1990
U116 All August 8, 1990
U117 All August 8, 1990
U118 All August 8, 1990
U119 All August 8, 1990
U120 All August 8, 1990
U121 All August 8, 1990
U122 All August 8, 1990
U123 All August 8, 1990
U124 All August 8, 1990
837
U125 All August 8, 1990
U126 All August 8, 1990
U127 All August 8, 1990
U128 All August 8, 1990
U129 All August 8, 1990
U130 All August 8, 1990
U131 All August 8, 1990
U132 All August 8, 1990
U133 All August 8, 1990
U134 All August 8, 1990
U135 All August 8, 1990
U136 Wastewater August 8, 1990
U136 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
U137 All August 8, 1990
U138 All August 8, 1990
U140 All August 8, 1990
U141 All August 8, 1990
U142 All August 8, 1990
U143 All August 8, 1990
U144 All August 8, 1990
U145 All August 8, 1990
U146 All August 8, 1990
U147 All August 8, 1990
U148 All August 8, 1990
U149 All August 8, 1990
U150 All August 8, 1990
U151 Wastewater August 8, 1990
U151 Nonwastewater May 8, 1992
U152 All August 8, 1990
U153 All August 8, 1990
U154 All August 8, 1990
U155 All August 8, 1990
U156 All August 8, 1990
U157 All August 8, 1990
U158 All August 8, 1990
U159 All August 8, 1990
U160 All August 8, 1990
U161 All August 8, 1990
U162 All August 8, 1990
U163 All August 8, 1990
U164 All August 8, 1990
U165 All August 8, 1990
U166 All August 8, 1990
U167 All August 8, 1990
U168 All August 8, 1990
U169 All August 8, 1990
838
U170 All August 8, 1990
U171 All August 8, 1990
U172 All August 8, 1990
U173 All August 8, 1990
U174 All August 8, 1990
U176 All August 8, 1990
U177 All August 8, 1990
U178 All August 8, 1990
U179 All August 8, 1990
U180 All August 8, 1990
U181 All August 8, 1990
U182 All August 8, 1990
U183 All August 8, 1990
U184 All August 8, 1990
U185 All August 8, 1990
U186 All August 8, 1990
U187 All August 8, 1990
U188 All August 8, 1990
U189 All August 8, 1990
U190 All June 8, 1989
U191 All August 8, 1990
U192 All August 8, 1990
U193 All August 8, 1990
U194 All June 8, 1989
U196 All August 8, 1990
U197 All August 8, 1990
U200 All August 8, 1990
U201 All August 8, 1990
U202 All August 8, 1990
U203 All August 8, 1990
U204 All August 8, 1990
U205 All August 8, 1990
U206 All August 8, 1990
U207 All August 8, 1990
U208 All August 8, 1990
U209 All August 8, 1990
U210 All August 8, 1990
U211 All August 8, 1990
U213 All August 8, 1990
U214 All August 8, 1990
U215 All August 8, 1990
U216 All August 8, 1990
U217 All August 8, 1990
U218 All August 8, 1990
U219 All August 8, 1990
U220 All August 8, 1990
839
U221 All June 8, 1989
U222 All August 8, 1990
U223 All June 8, 1989
U225 All August 8, 1990
U226 All August 8, 1990
U227 All August 8, 1990
U228 All August 8, 1990
U234 All August 8, 1990
U235 All June 8, 1989
U236 All August 8, 1990
U237 All August 8, 1990
U238 All August 8, 1990
U239 All August 8, 1990
U240 All August 8, 1990
U243 All August 8, 1990
U244 All August 8, 1990
U246 All August 8, 1990
U247 All August 8, 1990
U248 All August 8, 1990
U249 All August 8, 1990
U271 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U271 All others July 8, 1996
U277 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U277 All others July 8, 1996
U278 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U278 All others July 8, 1996
U279 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U279 All others July 8, 1996
U280 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U280 All others July 8, 1996
U328 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
U328 All others November 9, 1992
U353 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
U353 All others November 9, 1992
U359 Mixed with radioactive wastes June 30, 1994
U359 All others November 9, 1992
U364 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U364 All others July 8, 1996
U365 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U365 All others July 8, 1996
U366 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U366 All others July 8, 1996
U367 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U367 All others July 8, 1996
U372 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U372 All others July 8, 1996
840
U373 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U373 All others July 8, 1996
U375 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U375 All others July 8, 1996
U376 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U376 All others July 8, 1996
U377 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U377 All others July 8, 1996
U378 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U378 All others July 8, 1996
U379 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U379 All others July 8, 1996
U381 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U381 All others July 8, 1996
U382 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U382 All others July 8, 1996
U383 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U383 All others July 8, 1996
U384 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U384 All others July 8, 1996
U385 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U385 All others July 8, 1996
U386 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U386 All others July 8, 1996
U387 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U387 All others July 8, 1996
U389 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U389 All others July 8, 1996
U390 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U390 All others July 8, 1996
U391 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U391 All others July 8, 1996
U392 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U392 All others July 8, 1996
U393 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U393 All others July 8, 1996
U394 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U394 All others July 8, 1996
U395 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U395 All others July 8, 1996
U396 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U396 All others July 8, 1996
U400 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U400 All others July 8, 1996
U401 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U401 All others July 8, 1996
841
U402 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U402 All others July 8, 1996
U403 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U403 All others July 8, 1996
U404 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U404 All others July 8, 1996
U407 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U407 All others July 8, 1996
U409 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U409 All others July 8, 1996
U410 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U410 All others July 8, 1996
U411 Mixed with radioactive wastes April 8, 1998
U411 All others July 8, 1996
P
a
P
S
This table does not include mixed radioactive wastes (from the First, Second, and Third
Third rules) that are receiving a national capacity variance until May 8, 1992.
S
This table
also does not include contaminated soil and debris wastes.
P
b
P
The standard was revised in the Third Third Final Rule (adopted by USEPA at 55 Fed.
Reg. 22520 (June 1, 1990)
S
and by
S
, which the Board adopted in docket R90-11
S
by orders
dated April 11, May 23, and August 8 and 22, 1991)
S
at 15 Ill. Reg. 9462, effective June
17, 1991.
P
c
P
USEPA amended the standard in the Third Third Emergency Rule (at 58 Fed. Reg. 29860
(May 24, 1993), which the Board adopted in docket R93-16
S
on March 17, 1994
S
at 18 Ill.
Reg. 6799, effective April 26, 1994); the original effective date was August 8, 1990.
P
d
P
The standard was revised in the Phase II Final Rule (that USEPA adopted at 59 Fed. Reg.
47982 (September 19, 1994)
S
and
S
, which the Board adopted in docket R95-6
S
by orders
dated June 1 and 15, 1995
S
at 19 Ill. Reg. 9660, effective June 27, 1995); the original
effective date was August 8, 1990.
P
e
P
The standards for selected reactive wastes was revised in the Phase III Final Rule (that
USEPA adopted at 61 Fed. Reg. 15566 (April 8, 1996)
S
and
S
, which the Board adopted in
docket R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 (consolidated)
S
by an order dated November 6, 1997
S
at 22
Ill. Reg. 783, effective December 16, 1997); the original effective date was August 8,
1990.
TABLE 2
SUMMARY OF EFFECTIVE DATES OF LAND DISPOSAL RESTRICTIONS
FOR CONTAMINATED SOIL AND DEBRIS (CSD)
Restricted hazardous waste in CSD Effective date
1. Solvent- (F001-F005) and dioxin- (F020-F023 and F026-F028) containing soil
and debris from CERCLA response or RCRA corrective actions.
November 8, 1990
842
2. Soil and debris not from CERCLA response or RCRA corrective actions
contaminated with less than one percent total solvents (F001-F005) or dioxins
(F020-F023 and F026-F028).
November 8, 1988
3. All soil and debris contaminated with First Third wastes for which treatment
standards are based on incineration.
August 8, 1990
4. All soil and debris contaminated with Second Third wastes for which treatment
standards are based on incineration.
June 8, 1991
5. All soil and debris contaminated with Third Third wastes or, First or Second
Third “soft hammer” wastes that had treatment standards promulgated in the
Third Third rule, for which treatment standards are based on incineration,
vitrification, or mercury retorting, acid leaching followed by chemical
precipitation, or thermal recovery of metals, as well as all inorganic solids debris
contaminated with D004-D011 wastes, and all soil and debris contaminated with
mixed RCRA/radioactive wastes.
May 8, 1992
6. Soil and debris contaminated with D012-D043, K141-K145, and K147-151
wastes.
December 19,
1994
7. Debris (only) contaminated with F037, F038, K107-K112, K117, K118,
K123-K126, K131, K132, K136, U328, U353, U359.
December 19,
1994
8. Soil and debris contaminated with K156- K161, P127, P128, P188-P192,
P194, P196- P199, P201-P205, U271, U277-U280, U364-U367, U372, U373,
U375-U379, U381-U387, U389-U396, U400-U404, U407, and U409-U411
wastes.
July 8, 1996
9. Soil and debris contaminated with K088 wastes. October 8, 1997
10. Soil and debris contaminated with radioactive wastes mixed with K088,
K156-K161, P127, P128, P188-P192, P194, P196-P199, P201-P205, U271,
U277-U280, U364-U367, U372, U373, U375-U379, U381-U387, U389-
U396, U400-U404, U407, and U409-U411 wastes.
April 8, 1998
11. Soil and debris contaminated with F032, F034, and F035. May 12, 1997
12. Soil and debris contaminated with newly identified D004-D011 toxicity
characteristic wastes and mineral processing wastes.
August 24, 1998
13. Soil and debris contaminated with mixed radioactive newly identified D011
characteristic wastes and mineral processing wastes.
May 26, 2000
BOARD NOTE:
S
This table is
S
These tables are provided for the convenience of the reader.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.Appendix I EP Toxicity Test Method and Structural Integrity Test
S
Note: The EP (
S
BOARD NOTE: Method
S
1310
S
1310B (Extraction Procedure Toxicity Test) is
published in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
S
publication number EPA-530/SW-846,
S
as
S
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
843
Section 728.Table C Technology Codes and Description of Technology-Based
Standards
Technology
Code Description of Technology-Based Standard
ADGAS Venting of compressed gases into an absorbing or reacting media (i.e., solid or
liquid)--venting can be accomplished through physical release utilizing valves or
piping; physical penetration of the container; or penetration through detonation.
AMLGM Amalgamation of liquid, elemental mercury contaminated with radioactive
materials utilizing inorganic reagents such as copper, zinc, nickel, gold, and sulfur
that result in a nonliquid, semi-solid amalgam and thereby reducing potential
emissions of elemental mercury vapors to the air.
BIODG Biodegradation of organics or non-metallic inorganics (i.e., degradable inorganics
that contain the elements of phosphorus, nitrogen, and sulfur) in units operated
under either aerobic or anaerobic conditions such that a surrogate compound or
indicator parameter has been substantially reduced in concentration in the
residuals (e.g., total organic carbon (TOC) can often be used as an indicator
parameter for the biodegradation of many organic constituents that cannot be
directly analyzed in wastewater residues).
CARBN Carbon adsorption (granulated or powdered) of non-metallic inorganics, organo-
metallics, or organic constituents, operated so that a surrogate compound or
indicator parameter has not undergone breakthrough (e.g., total organic carbon
(TOC) can often be used as an indicator parameter for the adsorption of many
organic constituents that cannot be directly analyzed in wastewater residues).
Breakthrough occurs when the carbon has become saturated with the constituent
(or indicator parameter) and substantial change in adsorption rate associated with
that constituent occurs.
CHOXD Chemical or electrolytic oxidation utilizing the following oxidation reagents (or
waste reagents) or combinations or reagents:
1) hypochlorite (e.g., bleach);
2) chlorine;
3) chlorine dioxide;
4) ozone or UV (ultraviolet light) assisted ozone;
5) peroxides;
6) persulfates;
844
7) perchlorates;
8) permanganates; or
9) other oxidizing reagents of equivalent efficiency, performed in units
operated so that a surrogate compound or indicator parameter has been
substantially reduced in concentration in the residuals (e.g., total organic
carbon (TOC) can often be used as an indicator parameter for the
oxidation of many organic constituents that cannot be directly analyzed in
wastewater residues). Chemical oxidation specifically includes what is
commonly referred to as alkaline chlorination.
CHRED Chemical reduction utilizing the following reducing reagents (or waste reagents)
or combinations of reagents:
1) sulfur dioxide;
2) sodium, potassium, or alkali salts of sulfites, bisulfites, metabisulfites, and
polyethylene glycols (e.g., NaPEG and KPEG);
3) sodium hydrosulfide;
4) ferrous salts; or
5) other reducing reagents of equivalent efficiency, performed in units
operated such that a surrogate compound or indicator parameter has been
substantially reduced in concentration in the residuals (e.g., total organic
halogens (TOX) can often be used as an indicator parameter for the
reduction of many halogenated organic constituents that cannot be directly
analyzed in wastewater residues). Chemical reduction is commonly used
for the reduction of hexavalent chromium to the trivalent state.
CMBST High temperature organic destruction technologies, such as combustion in
incinerators, boilers, or industrial furnaces operated in accordance with the
applicable requirements of Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724, Subpart O of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725, or Subpart H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726, and in other units
operated in accordance with applicable technical operating requirements; and
certain non-combustive technologies, such as the Catalytic Extraction Process.
DEACT Deactivation to remove the hazardous characteristics of a waste due to its
ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity.
FSUBS Fuel substitution in units operated in accordance with applicable technical
operating requirements.
845
HLVIT Vitrification of high-level mixed radioactive wastes in units in compliance with
all applicable radioactive protection requirements under control of the federal
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
IMERC Incineration of wastes containing organics and mercury in units operated in
accordance with the technical operating requirements of Subpart O of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724 or Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725. All wastewater and
nonwastewater residues derived from this process must then comply with the
corresponding treatment standards per waste code with consideration of any
applicable subcategories (e.g., high or low mercury subcategories).
INCIN Incineration in units operated in accordance with the technical operating
requirements of Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 725.
LLEXT Liquid-liquid extraction (often referred to as solvent extraction) of organics from
liquid wastes into an immiscible solvent for which the hazardous constituents
have a greater solvent affinity, resulting in an extract high in organics that must
undergo either incineration, reuse as a fuel, or other recovery or reuse and a
raffinate (extracted liquid waste) proportionately low in organics that must
undergo further treatment as specified in the standard.
MACRO Macroencapsulation with surface coating materials such as polymeric organics
(e.g., resins and plastics) or with a jacket of inert inorganic materials to
substantially reduce surface exposure to potential leaching media.
Macroencapsulation specifically does not include any material that would be
classified as a tank or container according to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110.
NEUTR Neutralization with the following reagents (or waste reagents) or combinations of
reagents:
1) acids;
2) bases; or
3) water (including wastewaters) resulting in a pH greater than two but less
than 12.5 as measured in the aqueous residuals.
NLDBR No land disposal based on recycling.
POLYM Formation of complex high-molecular weight solids through polymerization of
monomers in high-TOC D001 nonwastewaters that are chemical components in
the manufacture of plastics.
PRECP Chemical precipitation of metals and other inorganics as insoluble precipitates of
oxides, hydroxides, carbonates, sulfides, sulfates, chlorides, fluorides, or
846
phosphates. The following reagents (or waste reagents) are typically used alone
or in combination:
1) lime (i.e., containing oxides or hydroxides of calcium or magnesium);
2) caustic (i.e., sodium or potassium hydroxides);
3) soda ash (i.e., sodium carbonate);
4) sodium sulfide;
5) ferric sulfate or ferric chloride;
6) alum; or
7) sodium sulfate. Additional flocculating, coagulation, or similar reagents
or processes that enhance sludge dewatering characteristics are not
precluded from use.
RBERY Thermal recovery of beryllium.
RCGAS Recovery or reuse of compressed gases including techniques such as reprocessing
of the gases for reuse or resale; filtering or adsorption of impurities; remixing for
direct reuse or resale; and use of the gas as a fuel source.
RCORR Recovery of acids or bases utilizing one or more of the following recovery
technologies:
1) distillation (i.e., thermal concentration);
2) ion exchange;
3) resin or solid adsorption;
4) reverse osmosis; or
5) incineration for the recovery of acid
Note: this does not preclude the use of other physical phase separation or
concentration techniques such as decantation, filtration (including ultrafiltration),
and centrifugation, when used in conjunction with the above listed recovery
technologies.
RLEAD Thermal recovery of lead in secondary lead smelters.
RMERC Retorting or roasting in a thermal processing unit capable of volatilizing mercury
847
and subsequently condensing the volatilized mercury for recovery. The retorting
or roasting unit (or facility) must be subject to one or more of the following:
a) A federal
national emissions standard for hazardous air pollutants
(NESHAP) for mercury (subpart E of 40 CFR 61
S
, Subpart E
S
);
b) A best available control technology (BACT) or a lowest achievable
emission rate (LAER) standard for mercury imposed pursuant to a
prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) permit (including 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 201 through 203); or
c) A state permit that establishes emission limitations (within meaning of
Section 302 of the Clean Air Act) for mercury, including a permit issued
pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 201. All wastewater and nonwastewater
residues derived from this process must then comply with the
corresponding treatment standards per waste code with consideration of
any applicable subcategories (e.g., high or low mercury subcategories).
RMETL Recovery of metals or inorganics utilizing one or more of the following direct
physical or removal technologies:
1) ion exchange;
2) resin or solid (i.e., zeolites) adsorption;
3) reverse osmosis;
4) chelation or solvent extraction;
5) freeze crystallization;
6) ultrafiltration; or
7) simple precipitation (i.e., crystallization)
Note: this does not preclude the use of other physical phase separation or
concentration techniques such as decantation, filtration (including ultrafiltration),
and centrifugation, when used in conjunction with the above listed recovery
technologies.
RORGS Recovery of organics utilizing one or more of the following technologies:
1) Distillation;
2) thin film evaporation;
848
3) steam stripping;
4) carbon adsorption;
5) critical fluid extraction;
6) liquid-liquid extraction;
7) precipitation or crystallization (including freeze crystallization); or
8) chemical phase separation techniques (i.e., addition of acids, bases,
demulsifiers, or similar chemicals).
Note: This does not preclude the use of other physical phase separation
techniques such as decantation, filtration (including ultrafiltration), and
centrifugation, when used in conjunction with the above listed recovery
technologies.
RTHRM Thermal recovery of metals or inorganics from nonwastewaters in units defined as
cement kilns, blast furnaces, smelting, melting and refining furnaces, combustion
devices used to recover sulfur values from spent sulfuric acid and “other devices”
determined by the Agency pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, the definition
of “industrial furnace.”
RZINC Resmelting in high temperature metal recovery units for the purpose of recovery
of zinc.
STABL Stabilization with the following reagents (or waste reagents) or combinations of
reagents:
1) Portland cement; or
2) lime or pozzolans (e.g., fly ash and cement kiln dust)--this does not
preclude the addition of reagents (e.g., iron salts, silicates, and clays)
designed to enhance the set or cure time or compressive strength, or to
overall reduce the leachability of the metal or inorganic.
SSTRP Steam stripping of organics from liquid wastes utilizing direct application of
steam to the wastes operated such that liquid and vapor flow rates, as well as,
temperature and pressure ranges have been optimized, monitored, and
maintained. These operating parameters are dependent upon the design
parameters of the unit such as, the number of separation stages and the internal
column design. Thus, resulting in a condensed extract high in organics that must
undergo either incineration, reuse as a fuel, or other recovery or reuse and an
extracted wastewater that must undergo further treatment as specified in the
standard.
849
WETOX Wet air oxidation performed in units operated such that a surrogate compound or
indicator parameter has been substantially reduced in concentration in the
residuals (e.g., total organic carbon (TOC) can often be used as an indicator
parameter for the oxidation of many organic constituents that cannot be directly
analyzed in wastewater residues).
WTRRX Controlled reaction with water for highly reactive inorganic or organic chemicals
with precautionary controls for protection of workers from potential violent
reactions as well as precautionary controls for potential emissions of toxic or
ignitable levels of gases released during the reaction.
Note 1: When a combination of these technologies (i.e., a treatment train) is specified as a
single treatment standard, the order of application is specified in Table T to this
Part by indicating the five letter technology code that must be applied first, then
the designation “fb.” (an abbreviation for “followed by”), then the five letter
technology code for the technology that must be applied next, and so on.
Note 2: When more than one technology (or treatment train) are specified as alternative
treatment standards, the five letter technology codes (or the treatment trains) are
separated by a semicolon (;) with the last technology preceded by the word
“OR.” This indicates that any one of these BDAT technologies or treatment
trains can be used for compliance with the standard.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from Table I in 40 CFR 268.42
S
, Table 1 (2002)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.Table H Wastes Excluded from CCW Treatment Standards
The following facilities are excluded from the treatment standard under Section 728.143(a) and
Table B to this Part, and are subject to the following constituent concentrations. These facilities
have received a treatability exception by regulatory action from USEPA pursuant to 40 CFR 268.44
S
(2002)
S
, and have demonstrated that the Board needs to adopt the treatability exception as part of the
Illinois RCRA program. The Board may also grant an “adjusted treatment standard” pursuant to
Section 728.144.
Facility name
and address
Waste
Code
See
Also
Regulated
hazardous
constituent
Wastewaters
Concentration
(
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
) Notes
Nonwaste-
waters
Concentration
(
S
mg/L
S
mg/kg) Notes
Craftsman
Plating and
Tinning Corp.,
Chicago, IL
F006 Section
728.140
Cyanides
(Total)
1.2 B
S
1800
S
1,800 D
850
Cyanides
(amenable)
0.86 B and
C
30 D
Cadmium 1.6 NA
Chromium 0.32 NA
Lead 0.40 NA
Nickel 0.44 NA
Northwestern
Plating Works,
Inc., Chicago,
IL
F006 Section
728.140
Cyanides
(Total)
1.2 B 970 D
Cyanides
(amenable)
0.86 B and
C
30 D
Cadmium 1.6 NA
Chromium 0.32 NA
Lead 0.40 NA
Nickel 0.44 NA
Notes:
A An owner or operator may certify compliance with these treatment standards according to
the provisions of Section 728.107.
B Cyanide wastewater standards for F006 are based on analysis of composite samples.
C These owners and operators must comply with 0.86
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
for amenable cyanides in the
wastewater exiting the alkaline chlorination system. These owners and operators must also
comply with Section 728.107(a)(4) for appropriate monitoring frequency consistent with the
facilities’ waste analysis plan.
D Cyanide nonwastewaters are analyzed using
S
SW-846
S
Method
S
9010
S
9010C (Total and
Amenable Cyanide: Distillation) or
S
9012
S
9012B (Total and Amenable Cyanide
(Automated Colorimetric, with Off-Line Distillation)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating
Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), with a sample size 10 g,
distillation time one hour and fifteen minutes.
S
SW-846 is incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
S
NA Not applicable.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from table to 40 CFR 268.44(o)
S
(2002)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
851
Section 728.Table T Treatment Standards for Hazardous Wastes
Note: The treatment standards that heretofore appeared in tables in Sections 728.141, 728.142,
and 728.143 have been consolidated into this table.
Waste Code
Waste Description and Treatment or Regulatory Subcategory
P
1
P
Regulated Hazardous Constituent Wastewaters Nonwastewaters
Common Name CAS
P
2
P
Number
Concentration in
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
P
3
P
; or
Technology Code
P
4
P
Concentration in
mg/kg
P
5
P
unless
noted as
“
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP”;
or Technology
Code
P
4
P
D001
P
9
P
Ignitable Characteristic Wastes, except for the 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121(a)(1) High TOC
Subcategory.
NA NA DEACT and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
; or
RORGS; or
CMBST
DEACT and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
; or
RORGS; or
CMBST
D001
P
9
P
High TOC Ignitable Characteristic Liquids Subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.121(a)(1) - Greater than or equal to 10 percent total organic carbon.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
NA NA NA RORGS; CMBST;
or POLYM
D002
P
9
P
Corrosive Characteristic Wastes.
NA NA DEACT and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
DEACT and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D002, D004, D005, D006, D007, D008, D009, D010, D011
Radioactive high level wastes generated during the reprocessing of fuel rods.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Corrosivity (pH) NA NA HLVIT
Arsenic 7440-38-2 NA HLVIT
Barium 7440-39-3 NA HLVIT
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA HLVIT
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 NA HLVIT
Lead 7439-92-1 NA HLVIT
852
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA HLVIT
Selenium 7782-49-2 NA HLVIT
Silver 7440-22-4 NA HLVIT
D003
P
9
P
Reactive Sulfides Subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(5).
NA NA DEACT DEACT
D003
P
9
P
Explosive subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(6), (a)(7), and (a)(8).
NA NA DEACT and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
DEACT and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D003
P
9
P
Unexploded ordnance and other explosive devices that have been the subject of an emergency
response.
NA NA DEACT DEACT
D003
P
9
P
Other Reactives Subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(1).
NA NA DEACT and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
DEACT and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D003
P
9
P
Water Reactive Subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4).
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
NA NA NA DEACT and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D003
P
9
P
Reactive Cyanides Subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(5).
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 -- 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
853
D004
P
9
P
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for arsenic based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D005
P
9
P
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for barium based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Barium 7440-39-3 1.2 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
21
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
and meet Section
728.148 standards
P
8
P
D006
P
9
P
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for cadmium based
on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D006
P
9
P
Cadmium-Containing Batteries Subcategory.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA RTHRM
D006
P
9
P
Radioactively contaminated cadmium-containing batteries.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA Macroencapsula-
tion in accordance
with Section
728.145
854
D007
P
9
P
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for chromium based
on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
SS
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D008
P
9
P
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for lead based on
S
the
toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
S
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D008
P
9
P
Lead Acid Batteries Subcategory
(Note: This standard only applies to lead acid batteries that are identified as RCRA hazardous
wastes and that are not excluded elsewhere from regulation under the land disposal restrictions
of this Part or exempted under other regulations (see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.180). This
subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Lead 7439-92-1 NA RLEAD
D008
P
9
P
Radioactive Lead Solids Subcategory
(Note: These lead solids include, but are not limited to, all forms of lead shielding and other
elemental forms of lead. These lead solids do not include treatment residuals such as hydroxide
sludges, other wastewater treatment residuals, or incinerator ashes that can undergo conventional
pozzolanic stabilization, nor do they include organo-lead materials that can be incinerated and
stabilized as ash. This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Lead 7439-92-1 NA MACRO
D009
P
9
P
Nonwastewaters that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for mercury
based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic
Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a); and contain greater than or equal to 260 mg/kg total
mercury that also contain organics and are not incinerator residues. (High Mercury-Organic
855
Subcategory)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA IMERC; or
RMERC
D009
P
9
P
Nonwastewaters that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for mercury
based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic
Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a); and contain greater than or equal to 260 mg/kg total
mercury that are inorganic, including incinerator residues and residues from RMERC. (High
Mercury-Inorganic Subcategory)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA RMERC
D009
P
9
P
Nonwastewaters that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for mercury
based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
SS
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic
Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a); and contain less than 260 mg/kg total mercury. (Low
Mercury Subcategory)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D009
P
9
P
All other nonwastewaters that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for
mercury based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity
Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a); and contain less than 260 mg/kg total
mercury and that are not residues from RMERC. (Low Mercury Subcategory)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D009
P
9
P
All D009 wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
NA
856
D009
P
9
P
Elemental mercury contaminated with radioactive materials.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA AMLGM
D009
P
9
P
Hydraulic oil contaminated with Mercury Radioactive Materials Subcategory.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA IMERC
D009
P
9
P
Radioactively contaminated mercury-containing batteries.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA Macroencapsula-
tion in accordance
with Section
728.145
D010
P
9
P
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for selenium based
on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 5.7
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D011
P
9
P
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the characteristic of toxicity for silver based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”
USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
857
D011
P
9
P
Radioactively contaminated silver-containing batteries.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Silver 7440-22-4 NA Macroencapsula-
tion in accordance
with Section
728.145
D012
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Endrin
S
endrin based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Endrin 72-20-8 BIODG; or
CMBST
0.13 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-4 BIODG; or
CMBST
0.13 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D013
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Lindane
S
lindane based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
α
-BHC
319-84-6 CARBN; or
CMBST
0.066 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
β
-BHC
319-85-7 CARBN; or
CMBST
0.066 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
δ
-BHC
319-86-8 CARBN; or
CMBST
0.066 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
γ
-BHC (Lindane)
58-89-9 CARBN; or
CMBST
0.066 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D014
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for Methoxychlor based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
SS
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Methoxychlor 72-43-5 WETOX or
CMBST
0.18 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
858
D015
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for Toxaphene based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 BIODG or
CMBST
2.6 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D016
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for 2,4-D (
S
2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic Acid
S
2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid)
based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic
Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
2,4-D (
S
2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic Acid
2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid)
94-75-7 CHOXD; BIODG;
or CMBST
10 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D017
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for 2,4,5-TP (Silvex) based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
2,4,5-TP (Silvex) 93-72-1 CHOXD or
CMBST
7.9 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D018
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Benzene
S
benzene based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 131
SS
1
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
10 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D019
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Carbon
S
carbon tetrachloride based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching
procedure
SS
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
6.0 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
859
D020
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Chlordane
S
chlordane based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching
procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Chlordane (
α
and
χ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
0.26 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D021
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Chlorobenzene
S
chlorobenzene based on
S
the toxicity characteristic
leaching procedure
SS
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test
Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
6.0 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D022
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Chloroform
S
chloroform based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching
procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
6.0 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D023
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
o-Cresol
S
o-cresol based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
5.6 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D024
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
m-Cresol
S
m-cresol based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
m-Cresol
(difficult to distinguish from p-
cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
5.6 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
860
D025
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
p-Cresol
S
p-cresol based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
p-Cresol
(difficult to distinguish from m-
cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
5.6 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D026
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Cresols (Total)
SS
S
cresols (total) based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching
procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Cresol-mixed isomers (Cresylic
acid)
(sum of o-, m-, and p-cresol
concentrations)
1319-77-3 0.88 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
11.2 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D027
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
p-Dichlorobenzene
S
p-dichlorobenzene based on
S
the toxicity characteristic
leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test
Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
p-Dichlorobenzene (1,4-
Dichlorobenzene)
106-46-7 0.090 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
6.0 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D028
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
1,2
-Dichloroethane
S
1,2-dichloroethane based on
S
the toxicity
characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure
(TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(a).
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
6.0 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
861
D029
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
1,1-Dichloroethylene
SS
S
1,1-dichloroethylene based on
S
the toxicity
characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure
(TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(a).
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
6.0 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D030
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
2,4-Dinitrotoluene
S
2,4-dinitrotoluene based on
S
the toxicity characteristic
leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test
Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 131
SS
1
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 0.32 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
140 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D031
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Heptachlor
S
heptachlor based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching
procedure
SS
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
0.066 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
0.066 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D032
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Hexachlorobenzene
S
hexachlorobenzene based on
S
the toxicity
characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure
(TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(a).
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
10 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D033
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Hexachlorobutadiene
SS
S
hexachlorobutadiene based on
S
the toxicity
characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure
(TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
862
Code 720.111(a).
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
5.6 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D034
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Hexachloroethane
S
hexachloroethane based on
S
the toxicity characteristic
leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test
Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
30 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D035
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Methyl
S
methyl ethyl ketone based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching
procedure
SS
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
36 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D036
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Nitrobenzene
S
nitrobenzene based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching
procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
14 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D037
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Pentachlorophenol
S
pentachlorophenol
based on
S
the toxicity characteristic
leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test
Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
7.4 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
863
D038
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Pyridine
S
pyridine based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
16 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D039
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Tetrachloroethylene
S
tetrachloroethylene based on
S
the toxicity
characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure
(TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(a).
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
6.0 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D040
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Trichloroethylene
SS
S
trichloroethylene based on
S
the toxicity characteristic
leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure
(TCLP)) in “Test
Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
6.0 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D041
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol
S
2,4,5-trichlorophenol based on
S
the toxicity
characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure
(TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 131
SS
1
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(a).
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 0.18 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
7.4 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
864
D042
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol
S
2,4,6-trichlorophenol based on
S
the toxicity
characteristic leaching procedure
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure
(TCLP)) in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
publication number EPA-530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111(a).
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 0.035 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
7.4 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
D043
P
9
P
Wastes that are TC for
S
Vinyl
S
vinyl chloride based on
S
the toxicity characteristic leaching
procedure
SS
S
Method 1311 (Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)) in “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
Method 1311
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(a).
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
6.0 and meet
Section 728.148
standards
P
8
P
F001, F002, F003, F004 & F005
F001, F002, F003, F004, or F005 solvent wastes that contain any combination of one or more of
the following spent solvents: acetone, benzene, n-butyl alcohol, carbon disulfide, carbon tetra-
chloride, chlorinated fluorocarbons, chlorobenzene, o-cresol, m-cresol, p-cresol, cyclohexanone,
o-dichlorobenzene, 2-ethoxyethanol, ethyl acetate, ethyl benzene, ethyl ether, isobutyl alcohol,
methanol, methylene chloride, methyl ethyl ketone, methyl isobutyl ketone, nitrobenzene, 2-
nitropropane, pyridine, tetrachloroethylene, toluene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane,
1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, trichloroethylene, trichloromonofluoromethane, or xylenes
(except as specifically noted in other subcategories). See further details of these listings in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.131.
Acetone 67-64-1 0.28 160
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
n-Butyl alcohol 71-36-3 5.6 2.6
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 NA
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol
(difficult to distinguish from p-
cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol
(difficult to distinguish from m-
cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
Cresol-mixed isomers (Cresylic
acid)
(sum of o-, m-, and p-cresol
concentrations)
1319-77-3 0.88 11.2
865
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 NA
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 0.34 33
Ethyl benzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Ethyl ether 60-29-7 0.12 160
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 5.6 170
Methanol 67-56-1 5.6 NA
Methylene chloride 75-9-2 0.089 30
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Methyl isobutyl ketone 108-10-1 0.14 33
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 0.054 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 0.054 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoro-
ethane
76-13-1 0.057 30
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Trichloromonofluoromethane 75-69-4 0.020 30
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
F001, F002, F003, F004 & F005
F003 and F005 solvent wastes that contain any combination of one or more of the following
three solvents as the only listed F001 through F005 solvents: carbon disulfide, cyclohexanone,
or methanol. (Formerly Section 728.141(c)).
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 4.8
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Methanol 67-56-1 5.6 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F001, F002, F003, F004 & F005
F005 solvent waste containing 2-Nitropropane as the only listed F001 through F005 solvent.
2-Nitropropane 79-46-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
F001, F002, F003, F004 & F005
F005 solvent waste containing 2-Ethoxyethanol as the only listed F001 through F005 solvent.
2-Ethoxyethanol 110-80-5 BIODG; or
CMBST
CMBST
866
F006
Wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating operations except from the following
processes: (1) Sulfuric acid anodizing of aluminum; (2) tin plating on carbon steel; (3) zinc
plating (segregated basis) on carbon steel; (4) aluminum or zinc-aluminum plating on carbon
steel; (5) cleaning or stripping associated with tin, zinc, and aluminum plating on carbon steel;
and (6) chemical etching and milling of aluminum.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F007
Spent cyanide plating bath solutions from electroplating operations.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F008
Plating bath residues from the bottom of plating baths from electroplating operations where
cyanides are used in the process.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
867
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F009
Spent stripping and cleaning bath solutions from electroplating operations where cyanides are
used in the process.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F010
Quenching bath residues from oil baths from metal heat-treating operations where cyanides are
used in the process.
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 NA
F011
Spent cyanide solutions from salt bath pot cleaning from metal heat-treating operations.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F012
Quenching wastewater treatment sludges from metal heat-treating operations where cyanides are
used in the process.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
868
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F019
Wastewater treatment sludges from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum, except from
zirconium phosphating in aluminum can washing when such phosphating is an exclusive
conversion coating process.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
F020, F021, F022, F023, F026
Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the
production or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a
formulating process) of: (1) tri- or tetrachlorophenol, or of intermediates used to produce their
pesticide derivatives, excluding wastes from the production of Hexachlorophene from highly
purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol (i.e., F020); (2) pentachlorophenol, or of intermediates used to
produce its derivatives (i.e., F021); (3) tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline
conditions (i.e., F022) and wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride
purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the production
or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating
process) of: (1) tri- or tetrachlorophenols, excluding wastes from equipment used only for the
production of Hexachlorophene from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol (F023) or (2) tetra-,
penta-, or hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline conditions (i.e., F026).
HxCDDs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55684-94-1 0.000063 0.001
PeCDDs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
36088-22-9 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzofurans)
30402-15-4 0.000035 0.001
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
TCDDs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
41903-57-5 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55722-27-5 0.000063 0.001
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 0.035 7.4
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol 58-90-2 0.030 7.4
869
F024
Process wastes, including but not limited to, distillation residues, heavy ends, tars, and reactor
clean-out wastes, from the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons by free
radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon
chain lengths ranging from one to and including five, with varying amounts and positions of
chlorine substitution. (This listing does not include wastewaters, wastewater treatment sludges,
spent catalysts, and wastes listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 or 721.132.)
All F024 wastes NA CMBST
P
11
P
CMBST
P
11
P
2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene 126-99-8 0.057 0.28
3-Chloropropylene 107-05-1 0.036 30
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 0.85 18
cis-1,3-Dichloropropylene 10061-01-5 0.036 18
trans-1,3-Dichloropropylene 10061-02-6 0.036 18
bis(2-Ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 0.28 28
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F025
Condensed light ends from the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons by free
radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon
chain lengths ranging from one up to and including five, with varying amounts and positions of
chlorine substitution. F025--Light Ends Subcategory.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 6.0
Methylene chloride 75-9-2 0.089 30
1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
F025
Spent filters and filter aids, and spent desiccant wastes from the production of certain chlorinated
aliphatic hydrocarbons by free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic
hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain lengths ranging from one to and including five, with
varying amounts and positions of chlorine substitution. F025--Spent Filters/Aids and Desiccants
Subcategory.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
870
Methylene chloride 75-9-2 0.089 30
1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
F027
Discarded unused formulations containing tri-, tetra-, or pentachlorophenol or discarded unused
formulations containing compounds derived from these chlorophenols. (This listing does not
include formulations containing hexachlorophene synthesized from prepurified 2,4,5-trichloro-
phenol as the sole component.)
HxCDDs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55684-94-1 0.000063 0.001
PeCDDs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
36088-22-9 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzofurans)
30402-15-4 0.000035 0.001
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
TCDDs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
41903-57-5 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55722-27-5 0.000063 0.001
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 0.035 7.4
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol 58-90-2 0.030 7.4
F028
Residues resulting from the incineration or thermal treatment of soil contaminated with USEPA
hazardous waste numbers F020, F021, F023, F026, and F027.
HxCDDs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55684-94-1 0.000063 0.001
PeCDDs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
36088-22-9 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzofurans)
30402-15-4 0.000035 0.001
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
TCDDs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
41903-57-5 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55722-27-5 0.000063 0.001
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 0.035 7.4
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol 58-90-2 0.030 7.4
871
F032
Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process
residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes
generated at plants that currently use or have previously used chlorophenolic formulations
(except potentially cross-contaminated wastes that have had the F032 waste code deleted in
accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.135 or potentially cross-contaminated wastes that are
otherwise currently regulated as hazardous wastes (i.e., F034 or F035), where the generator does
not resume or initiate use of chlorophenolic formulations). This listing does not include K001
bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that
use creosote or penta-chlorophenol.
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 3.4
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(k)
fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(b)
fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
2-4-Dimethyl phenol 105-67-9 0.036 14
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 3.4
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins NA 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
Hexachlorodibenzofurans NA 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
Indeno (1,2,3-c,d) pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins NA 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
Pentachlorodibenzofurans NA 0.000035 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins NA 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
Tetrachlorodibenzofurans NA 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol 58-90-2 0.030 7.4
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 0.035 7.4
872
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F034
Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process
residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes
generated at plants that use creosote formulations. This listing does not include K001 bottom
sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use
creosote or pentachlorophenol.
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 3.4
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from
benzo(k)fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from
benzo(b)fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 3.4
Indeno (1,2,3-c,d) pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F035
Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process
residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes that are
generated at plants that use inorganic preservatives containing arsenic or chromium. This listing
does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood
preserving processes that use creosote or pentachlorophenol.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F037
Petroleum refinery primary oil/water/solids separation sludge--Any sludge generated from the
873
gravitational separation of oil/water/solids during the storage or treatment of process
wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. Such sludges include, but
are not limited to, those generated in: oil/water/solids separators; tanks, and impoundments;
ditches, and other conveyances; sumps; and stormwater units receiving dry weather flow.
Sludge generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather flow, sludges generated
from non-contact once-through cooling waters segregated for treatment from other process or
oily cooling waters, sludges generated in aggressive biological treatment units as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.131(b)(2) (including sludges generated in one or more additional units after
wastewaters have been treated in aggressive biological treatment units) and K051 wastes are not
included in this listing.
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 NA
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
bis(2-Ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 0.28 28
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 NA
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F038
Petroleum refinery secondary (emulsified) oil/water/solids separation sludge or float generated
from the physical or chemical separation of oil/water/solids in process wastewaters and oily
cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. Such wastes include, but are not limited to, all
sludges and floats generated in: induced air floatation (IAF) units, tanks, and impoundments,
and all sludges generated in DAF units. Sludges generated in stormwater units that do not
receive dry weather flow, sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters
segregated for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, sludges, and floats generated
in aggressive biological treatment units as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131(b)(2) (including
sludges and floats generated in one or more additional units after wastewaters have been treated
in aggressive biological units) and F037, K048, and K051 are not included in this listing.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
874
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
bis(2-Ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 0.28 28
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 NA
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
F039
Leachate (liquids that have percolated through land disposed wastes) resulting from the disposal
of more than one restricted waste classified as hazardous under Subpart D of this Part. (Leachate
resulting from the disposal of one or more of the following USEPA hazardous wastes and no
other hazardous wastes retains its USEPA hazardous waste numbers: F020, F021, F022, F026,
F027, or F028.).
Acenaphthylene 208-96-8 0.059 3.4
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 3.4
Acetone 67-64-1 0.28 160
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 NA
Acetophenone 96-86-2 0.010 9.7
2-Acetylaminofluorene 53-96-3 0.059 140
Acrolein 107-02-8 0.29 NA
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
Aldrin 309-00-2 0.021 0.066
4-Aminobiphenyl 92-67-1 0.13 NA
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
o-Anisidine (2-methoxyaniline) 90-04-0 0.010 0.66
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Aramite 140-57-8 0.36 NA
α
-BHC
319-84-6 0.00014 0.066
β
-BHC
319-85-7 0.00014 0.066
δ
-BHC
319-86-8 0.023 0.066
γ
-BHC
58-89-9 0.0017 0.066
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
875
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(k)-
fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(b)-
fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene 191-24-2 0.0055 1.8
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Bromodichloromethane 75-27-4 0.35 15
Methyl bromide (Bromo-
methane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether 101-55-3 0.055 15
n-Butyl alcohol 71-36-3 5.6 2.6
Butyl benzyl phthalate 85-68-7 0.017 28
2-sec-Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol
(Dinoseb)
88-85-7 0.066 2.5
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 NA
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chlordane (
α
and
χ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 0.26
p-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 0.46 16
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
Chlorobenzilate 510-15-6 0.10 NA
2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene 126-99-8 0.057 NA
Chlorodibromomethane 124-48-1 0.057 15
Chloroethane 75-00-3 0.27 6.0
bis(2-Chloroethoxy)methane 111-91-1 0.036 7.2
bis(2-Chloroethyl)ether 111-44-4 0.033 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
bis(2-Chloroisopropyl)ether 39638-32-9 0.055 7.2
p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 0.018 14
Chloromethane (Methyl
chloride)
74-87-3 0.19 30
2-Chloronaphthalene 91-58-7 0.055 5.6
2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 0.044 5.7
3-Chloropropylene 107-05-1 0.036 30
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
p-Cresidine 120-71-8 0.010 0.66
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol
(difficult to distinguish from p-
cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol
(difficult to distinguish from m-
cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 NA
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane 96-12-8 0.11 15
876
Ethylene dibromide (1,2-
Dibromoethane)
106-93-4 0.028 15
Dibromomethane 74-95-3 0.11 15
2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxy-
acetic acid)
94-75-7 0.72 10
o,p'-DDD 53-19-0 0.023 0.087
p,p'-DDD 72-54-8 0.023 0.087
o,p'-DDE 3424-82-6 0.031 0.087
p,p'-DDE 72-55-9 0.031 0.087
o,p'-DDT 789-02-6 0.0039 0.087
p,p'-DDT 50-29-3 0.0039 0.087
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Dibenz(a,e)pyrene 192-65-4 0.061 NA
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 0.036 6.0
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Dichlorodifluoromethane 75-71-8 0.23 7.2
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 6.0
trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene 156-60-5 0.054 30
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 0.044 14
2,6-Dichlorophenol 87-65-0 0.044 14
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 0.85 18
cis-1,3-Dichloropropylene 10061-01-5 0.036 18
trans-1,3-Dichloropropylene 10061-02-6 0.036 18
Dieldrin 60-57-1 0.017 0.13
2,4-Dimethylaniline (2,4-
xylidine)
95-68-1 0.010 0.66
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 0.20 28
2-4-Dimethyl phenol 105-67-9 0.036 14
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 0.047 28
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
1,4-Dinitrobenzene 100-25-4 0.32 2.3
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 534-52-1 0.28 160
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 0.12 160
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 0.32 140
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 0.55 28
Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 0.017 28
Di-n-propylnitrosamine 621-64-7 0.40 14
1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 12.0 170
Diphenylamine (difficult to
distinguish from diphenylnitros-
amine)
122-39-4 0.92 NA
877
Diphenylnitrosamine (difficult
to distinguish from diphenyl-
amine)
86-30-6 0.92 NA
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine 122-66-7 0.087 NA
Disulfoton 298-04-4 0.017 6.2
Endosulfan I 939-98-8 0.023 0.066
Endosulfan II 33213-6-5 0.029 0.13
Endosulfan sulfate 1031-07-8 0.029 0.13
Endrin 72-20-8 0.0028 0.13
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-4 0.025 0.13
Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 0.34 33
Ethyl cyanide (Propanenitrile) 107-12-0 0.24 360
Ethyl benzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Ethyl ether 60-29-7 0.12 160
bis(2-Ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 0.28 28
Ethyl methacrylate 97-63-2 0.14 160
Ethylene oxide 75-21-8 0.12 NA
Famphur 52-85-7 0.017 15
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 3.4
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 0.066
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxin (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-
HpCDD)
35822-46-9 0.000035 0.0025
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachloro-
dibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-
HpCDF)
67562-39-4 0.000035 0.0025
1,2,3,4,7,8,9-Heptachloro-
dibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,7,8,9-
HpCDF)
55673-89-7 0.000035 0.0025
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 0.066
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 0.057 2.4
HxCDDs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55684-94-1 0.000063 0.001
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Hexachloropropylene 1888-71-7 0.035 30
Indeno (1,2,3-c,d) pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
Iodomethane 74-88-4 0.19 65
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 5.6 170
Isodrin 465-73-6 0.021 0.066
Isosafrole 120-58-1 0.081 2.6
Kepone 143-50-8 0.0011 0.13
878
Methacrylonitrile 126-98-7 0.24 84
Methanol 67-56-1 5.6 NA
Methapyrilene 91-80-5 0.081 1.5
Methoxychlor 72-43-5 0.25 0.18
3-Methylcholanthrene 56-49-5 0.0055 15
4,4-Methylene bis(2-chloro-
aniline)
101-14-4 0.50 30
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Methyl isobutyl ketone 108-10-1 0.14 33
Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 0.14 160
Methyl methansulfonate 66-27-3 0.018 NA
Methyl parathion 298-00-0 0.014 4.6
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
2-Naphthylamine 91-59-8 0.52 NA
p-Nitroaniline 100-01-6 0.028 28
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
5-Nitro-o-toluidine 99-55-8 0.32 28
p-Nitrophenol 100-02-7 0.12 29
N-Nitrosodiethylamine 55-18-5 0.40 28
N-Nitrosodimethylamine 62-75-9 0.40 NA
N-Nitroso-di-n-butylamine 924-16-3 0.40 17
N-Nitrosomethylethylamine 10595-95-6 0.40 2.3
N-Nitrosomorpholine 59-89-2 0.40 2.3
N-Nitrosopiperidine 100-75-4 0.013 35
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine 930-55-2 0.013 35
1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxin
(1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-OCDD)
3268-87-9 0.000063 0.0025
Parathion 56-38-2 0.014 4.6
Total PCBs
(sum of all PCB isomers, or all
Aroclors)
1336-36-3 0.10 10
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
PeCDDs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
36088-22-9 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzofurans)
30402-15-4 0.000035 0.001
Pentachloronitrobenzene 82-68-8 0.055 4.8
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
Phenacetin 62-44-2 0.081 16
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
1,3-Phenylenediamine 108-45-2 0.010 0.66
Phorate 298-02-2 0.021 4.6
Phthalic anhydride 85-44-9 0.055 NA
879
Pronamide 23950-58-5 0.093 1.5
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
Safrole 94-59-7 0.081 22
Silvex (2,4,5-TP) 93-72-1 0.72 7.9
2,4,5-T 93-76-5 0.72 7.9
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 0.055 14
TCDDs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
41903-57-5 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55722-27-5 0.000063 0.001
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane 630-20-6 0.057 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-6 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol 58-90-2 0.030 7.4
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.0095 2.6
Bromoform (Tribromomethane) 75-25-2 0.63 15
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 0.055 19
1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 0.054 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Trichloromonofluoromethane 75-69-4 0.020 30
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 0.035 7.4
1,2,3-Trichloropropane 96-18-4 0.85 30
1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoro-
ethane
76-13-1 0.057 30
tris(2,3-Dibromopropyl)
phosphate
126-72-7 0.11 NA
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 1.15
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Barium 7440-39-3 1.2 21
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Beryllium 7440-41-7 0.82 NA
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 NA
880
Fluoride 16964-48-8 35 NA
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 0.025
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 5.7
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Sulfide 8496-25-8 14 NA
Thallium 7440-28-0 1.4 NA
Vanadium 7440-62-2 4.3 NA
K001
Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewaters from wood preserving processes that
use creosote or pentachlorophenol.
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K002
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome yellow and orange pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K003
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of molybdate orange pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K004
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of zinc yellow pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
881
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K005
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome green pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
K006
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide green pigments (anhydrous).
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K006
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide green pigments (hydrated).
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
K007
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of iron blue pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
K008
Oven residue from the production of chrome oxide green pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K009
Distillation bottoms from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene.
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
K010
Distillation side cuts from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene.
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
882
K011
Bottom stream from the wastewater stripper in the production of acrylonitrile.
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 38
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
Acrylamide 79-06-1 19 23
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Cyanide (Total) 57-12-5 1.2 590
K013
Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column in the production of acrylonitrile.
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 38
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
Acrylamide 79-06-1 19 23
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Cyanide (Total) 57-12-5 1.2 590
K014
Bottoms from the acetonitrile purification column in the production of acrylonitrile.
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 38
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
Acrylamide 79-06-1 19 23
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Cyanide (Total) 57-12-5 1.2 590
K015
Still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride.
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benzal chloride 98-87-3 0.055 6.0
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(k)-
fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(b)-
fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K016
Heavy ends or distillation residues from the production of carbon tetrachloride.
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 0.057 2.4
883
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
K017
Heavy ends (still bottoms) from the purification column in the production of epichlorohydrin.
bis(2-Chloroethyl)ether 111-44-4 0.033 6.0
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 0.85 18
1,2,3-Trichloropropane 96-18-4 0.85 30
K018
Heavy ends from the fractionation column in ethyl chloride production.
Chloroethane 75-00-3 0.27 6.0
Chloromethane 74-87-3 0.19 NA
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 NA 6.0
1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 0.054 6.0
K019
Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene dichloride in ethylene dichloride production.
bis(2-Chloroethyl)ether 111-44-4 0.033 6.0
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 NA
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 NA
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 0.055 NA
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 0.055 19
1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 0.054 6.0
K020
Heavy ends from the distillation of vinyl chloride in vinyl chloride monomer production.
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-6 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
K021
Aqueous spent antimony catalyst waste from fluoromethanes production.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
884
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 1.15
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K022
Distillation bottom tars from the production of phenol or acetone from cumene.
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Acetophenone 96-86-2 0.010 9.7
Diphenylamine (difficult to
distinguish from diphenylnitros-
amine)
122-39-4 0.92 13
Diphenylnitrosamine (difficult
to distinguish from diphenyl-
amine)
86-30-6 0.92 13
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K023
Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene.
Phthalic anhydride (measured as
Phthalic acid or Terephthalic
acid)
100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride (measured as
Phthalic acid or Terephthalic
acid)
85-44-9 0.055 28
K024
Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene.
Phthalic anhydride (measured as
Phthalic acid or Terephthalic
acid)
100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride (measured as
Phthalic acid or Terephthalic
acid)
85-44-9 0.055 28
K025
Distillation bottoms from the production of nitrobenzene by the nitration of benzene.
NA NA LLEXT fb SSTRP
fb CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K026
Stripping still tails from the production of methyl ethyl pyridines.
NA NA CMBST CMBST
885
K027
Centrifuge and distillation residues from toluene diisocyanate production.
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K028
Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator reactor in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene 156-60-5 0.054 30
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 NA 6.0
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane 630-20-6 0.057 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-6 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 0.054 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 NA
Chromium(Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K029
Waste from the product steam stripper in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 6.0
1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 0.054 6.0
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
K030
Column bodies or heavy ends from the combined production of trichloroethylene and perchloro-
ethylene.
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 NA
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 NA
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Hexachloropropylene 1888-71-7 NA 30
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 NA 10
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 NA 6.0
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 0.055 14
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 0.055 19
886
K031
By-product salts generated in the production of MSMA and cacodylic acid.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K032
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chlordane.
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 0.057 2.4
Chlordane (
α
and
γ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 0.26
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 0.066
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 0.066
K033
Wastewater and scrub water from the chlorination of cyclopentadiene in the production of
chlordane.
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 0.057 2.4
K034
Filter solids from the filtration of hexachlorocyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane.
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 0.057 2.4
K035
Wastewater treatment sludges generated in the production of creosote.
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 NA 3.4
Anthracene 120-12-7 NA 3.4
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol
(difficult to distinguish from p-
cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol
(difficult to distinguish from m-
cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 NA 8.2
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
Fluorene 86-73-7 NA 3.4
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 193-39-5 NA 3.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
887
K036
Still bottoms from toluene reclamation
S
distillaiton
S
distillation in the production of disulfoton.
Disulfoton 298-04-4 0.017 6.2
K037
Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of disulfoton.
Disulfoton 298-04-4 0.017 6.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
K038
Wastewater from the washing and stripping of phorate production.
Phorate 298-02-2 0.021 4.6
K039
Filter cake from the filtration of diethylphosphorodithioic acid in the production of phorate.
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K040
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of phorate.
Phorate 298-02-2 0.021 4.6
K041
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of toxaphene.
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.0095 2.6
K042
Heavy ends or distillation residues from the distillation of tetrachlorobenzene in the production
of 2,4,5-T.
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 0.055 14
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 0.055 19
K043
2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the production of 2,4-D.
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 0.044 14
2,6-Dichlorophenol 187-65-0 0.044 14
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 0.035 7.4
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol 58-90-2 0.030 7.4
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
HxCDDs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
888
HxCDFs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55684-94-1 0.000063 0.001
PeCDDs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
36088-22-9 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzofurans)
30402-15-4 0.000035 0.001
TCDDs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
41903-57-5 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55722-27-5 0.000063 0.001
K044
Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing and processing of explosives.
NA NA DEACT DEACT
K045
Spent carbon from the treatment of wastewater containing explosives.
NA NA DEACT DEACT
K046
Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing, formulation and loading of lead-based
initiating compounds.
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K047
Pink or red water from TNT operations.
NA NA DEACT DEACT
K048
Dissolved air flotation (DAF) float from the petroleum refining industry.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
bis(2-Ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 0.28 28
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 NA
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-33 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
889
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K049
Slop oil emulsion solids from the petroleum refining industry.
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
bis(2-Ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 0.28 28
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 NA
Chrysene 2218-01-9 0.059 3.4
2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 0.036 NA
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K050
Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining industry.
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K051
API separator sludge from the petroleum refining industry.
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 NA
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
890
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
bis(2-Ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 0.28 28
Chrysene 2218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Di-n-butyl phthalate 105-67-9 0.057 28
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 NA
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.08 10
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K052
Tank bottoms (leaded) from the petroleum refining industry.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol
(difficult to distinguish from p-
cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol
(difficult to distinguish from m-
cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 0.036 NA
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.08 10
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
891
K060
Ammonia still lime sludge from coking operations.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
K061
Emission control dust or sludge from the primary production of steel in electric furnaces.
Antimony 7440-36-0 NA 1.15
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 NA 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Barium 7440-39-3 NA 21
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Beryllium 7440-41-7 NA 1.22
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Selenium 7782-49-2 NA 5.7
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Thallium 7440-28-0 NA 0.20
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Zinc 7440-66-6 NA 4.3
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K062
Spent pickle liquor generated by steel finishing operations of facilities within the iron and steel
industry (SIC Codes 331 and 332).
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 NA
K069
Emission control dust or sludge from secondary lead smelting - Calcium sulfate (Low Lead)
892
Subcategory.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K069
Emission control dust or sludge from secondary lead smelting - Non-Calcium sulfate (High
Lead) Subcategory.
NA NA NA RLEAD
K071
K071 (Brine purification muds from the mercury cell process in chlorine production, where
separately prepurified brine is not used) nonwastewaters that are residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K071
K071 (Brine purification muds from the mercury cell process in chlorine production, where
separately prepurified brine is not used) nonwastewaters that are not residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K071
All K071 wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
K073
Chlorinated hydrocarbon waste from the purification step of the diaphragm cell process using
graphite anodes in chlorine production.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 0.054 6.0
K083
Distillation bottoms from aniline production.
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 NA
Diphenylamine
(difficult to distinguish from
diphenylnitrosamine)
122-39-4 0.92 13
893
Diphenylnitrosamine (difficult
to distinguish from diphenyl-
amine)
86-30-6 0.92 13
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K084
Wastewater treatment sludges generated during the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals
from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K085
Distillation or fractionation column bottoms from the production of chlorobenzenes.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 0.036 6.0
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Total PCBs
(sum of all PCB isomers, or all
Aroclors)
1336-36-3 0.10 10
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 0.055 14
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 0.055 19
K086
Solvent wastes and sludges, caustic washes and sludges, or water washes and sludges from
cleaning tubs and equipment used in the formulation of ink from pigments, driers, soaps, and
stabilizers containing chromium and lead.
Acetone 67-64-1 0.28 160
Acetophenone 96-86-2 0.010 9.7
bis(2-Ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 0.28 28
n-Butyl alcohol 71-36-3 5.6 2.6
Butylbenzyl phthalate 85-68-7 0.017 28
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 NA
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 0.20 28
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 0.047 28
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 0.017 28
Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 0.34 33
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Methanol 67-56-1 5.6 NA
894
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Methyl isobutyl ketone 108-10-1 0.14 33
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K087
Decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations.
Acenaphthylene 208-96-8 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K088
Spent potliners from primary aluminum reduction.
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 3.4
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene 205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene 207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene 191-24-2 0.0055 1.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
Indeno(1,2,3-c,d)pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
895
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 1.15
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 26.1
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
Barium 7440-39-3 1.2 21
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Beryllium 7440-41-7 0.82 1.22
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 0.025
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 5.7
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanide (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanide (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
Fluoride 16984-48-8 35 NA
K093
Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene.
Phthalic anhydride (measured as
Phthalic acid or Terephthalic
acid)
100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride (measured as
Phthalic acid or Terephthalic
acid)
85-44-9 0.055 28
K094
Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene.
Phthalic anhydride (measured as
Phthalic acid or Terephthalic
acid)
100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride (measured as
Phthalic acid or Terephthalic
acid)
85-44-9 0.055 28
K095
Distillation bottoms from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
896
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 0.055 6.0
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane 630-20-6 0.057 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-6 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
K096
Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 0.036 6.0
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 0.055 6.0
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane 630-20-6 0.057 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-6 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 0.055 19
1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
K097
Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane chlorinator in the production of chlordane.
Chlordane (
α
and
χ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 0.26
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 0.066
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 0.066
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 0.057 2.4
K098
Untreated process wastewater from the production of toxaphene.
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.0095 2.6
K099
Untreated wastewater from the production of 2,4-D.
2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid 94-75-7 0.72 10
HxCDDs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55684-94-1 0.000063 0.001
PeCDDs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
36088-22-9 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzofurans)
30402-15-4 0.000035 0.001
TCDDs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
41903-57-5 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55722-27-5 0.000063 0.001
897
K100
Waste leaching solution from acid leaching of emission control dust or sludge from secondary
lead smelting.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K101
Distillation tar residues from the distillation of aniline-based compounds in the production of
veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds.
o-Nitroaniline 88-74-4 0.27 14
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 NA
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
K102
Residue from the use of activated carbon for decolorization in the production of veterinary
pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds.
o-Nitrophenol 88-75-5 0.028 13
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 NA
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
K103
Process residues from aniline extraction from the production of aniline.
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 0.12 160
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
K104
Combined wastewater streams generated from nitrobenzene or aniline production.
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 0.12 160
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
898
K105
Separated aqueous stream from the reactor product washing step in the production of chloro-
benzenes.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 0.044 5.7
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 0.035 7.4
K106
K106 (wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury cell process in chlorine production)
nonwastewaters that contain greater than or equal to 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA RMERC
K106
K106 (wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury cell process in chlorine production)
nonwastewaters that contain less than 260 mg/kg total mercury that are residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K106
Other K106 nonwastewaters that contain less than 260 mg/kg total mercury and are not residues
from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K106
All K106 wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
K107
Column bottoms from product separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine
(UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
CARBN; or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
899
K108
Condensed column overheads from product separation and condensed reactor vent gases from
the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
CARBN; or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
K109
Spent filter cartridges from product purification from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine
(UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
CARBN; or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
K110
Condensed column overheads from intermediate separation from the production of 1,1-dimethyl-
hydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
CARBN; or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
K111
Product washwaters from the production of dinitrotoluene via nitration of toluene.
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-1-1 0.32 140
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 0.55 28
K112
Reaction by-product water from the drying column in the production of toluenediamine via
hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
CARBN; or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
K113
Condensed liquid light ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of
toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
900
K114
Vicinals from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydro-
genation of dinitrotoluene.
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K115
Heavy ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via
hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K116
Organic condensate from the solvent recovery column in the production of toluene diisocyanate
via phosgenation of toluenediamine.
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K117
Wastewater from the reactor vent gas scrubber in the production of ethylene dibromide via
bromination of ethene.
Methyl bromide (Bromo-
methane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Ethylene dibromide (1,2-
Dibromoethane)
106-93-4 0.028 15
K118
Spent absorbent solids from purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene
dibromide via bromination of ethene.
Methyl bromide (Bromo-
methane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Ethylene dibromide (1,2-
Dibromoethane)
106-93-4 0.028 15
K123
Process wastewater (including supernates, filtrates, and washwaters) from the production of
ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN)
CMBST
901
K124
Reactor vent scrubber water from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN)
CMBST
K125
Filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids from the production of ethylenebisdithio-
carbamic acid and its salts.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN)
CMBST
K126
Baghouse dust and floor sweepings in milling and packaging operations from the production or
formulation of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN)
CMBST
K131
Wastewater from the reactor and spent sulfuric acid from the acid dryer from the production of
methyl bromide.
Methyl bromide (Bromo-
methane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
K132
Spent absorbent and wastewater separator solids from the production of methyl bromide.
Methyl bromide (Bromo-
methane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
K136
Still bottoms from the purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide
via bromination of ethene.
Methyl bromide (Bromo-
methane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Ethylene dibromide (1,2-
Dibromoethane)
106-93-4 0.028 15
K141
Process residues from the recovery of coal tar, including, but not limited to, collecting sump
residues from the production of coke or the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal.
902
This listing does not include K087 (decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations).
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-2-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(k)-
fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(b)-
fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
K142
Tar storage tank residues from the production of coke from coal or from the recovery of coke by-
products produced from coal.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(k)-
fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(b)-
fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
K143
Process residues from the recovery of light oil, including, but not limited to, those generated in
stills, decanters, and wash oil recovery units from the recovery of coke by-products produced
from coal.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(k)-
fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(b)-
fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
903
K144
Wastewater sump residues from light oil refining, including, but not limited to, intercepting or
contamination sump sludges from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(k)-
fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(b)-
fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
K145
Residues from naphthalene collection and recovery operations from the recovery of coke by-
products produced from coal.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
K147
Tar storage tank residues from coal tar refining.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(k)-
fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(b)-
fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
K148
Residues from coal tar distillation, including, but not limited to, still bottoms.
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
904
Benzo(b)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(k)-
fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene (difficult
to distinguish from benzo(b)-
fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
K149
Distillation bottoms from the production of
α
- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated
toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups. (This
waste does not include still bottoms from the distillations of benzyl chloride.)
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Chloromethane 74-87-3 0.19 30
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 0.055 14
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
K150
Organic residuals, excluding spent carbon adsorbent, from the spent chlorine gas and hydro-
chloric acid recovery processes associated with the production of
α
- (or methyl-) chlorinated
toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these
functional groups.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Chloromethane 74-87-3 0.19 30
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 0.055 14
1,1,2,2- Tetrachloroethane 79-34-5 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 0.055 19
K151
Wastewater treatment sludges, excluding neutralization and biological sludges, generated during
the treatment of wastewaters from the production of
α
- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-
chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional
groups.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
905
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 0.055 14
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
K156
Organic waste (including heavy ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and
decantates) from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes.
P
10
P
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 1.8
Acetophenone 96-86-2 0.010 9.7
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
Benomyl 17804-35-2 0.056 1.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Carbaryl 63-25-21 0.006 0.14
Carbenzadim 10605-21-7 0.056 1.4
Carbofuran 1563-66-2 0.006 0.14
Carbosulfan 55285-14-8 0.028 1.4
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
Methomyl 16752-77-5 0.028 0.14
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Triethylamine 121-44-8 0.081 1.5
K157
Wastewaters (including scrubber waters, condenser waters, washwaters, and separation waters)
from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Chloromethane 74-87-3 0.19 30
Methomyl 16752-77-5 0.028 0.14
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
Triethylamine 121-44-8 0.081 1.5
906
K158
Baghouse dusts and filter/separation solids from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl
oximes.
Benomyl 17804-35-2 0.056 1.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Carbenzadim 10605-21-7 0.056 1.4
Carbofuran 1563-66-2 0.006 0.14
Carbosulfan 55285-14-8 0.028 1.4
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
K159
Organics from the treatment of thiocarbamate wastes.
P
10
P
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Butylate 2008-41-5 0.042 1.4
EPTC (Eptam) 759-94-4 0.042 1.4
Molinate 2212-67-1 0.042 1.4
Pebulate 1114-71-2 0.042 1.4
Vernolate 1929-77-7 0.042 1.4
K161
Purification solids (including filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids), baghouse dust
and floor sweepings from the production of dithiocarbamate acids and their salts.
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 1.15
P
11
P
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
P
11
P
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 4.8
P
11
P
Dithiocarbamates (total) 137-30-4 0.028 28
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
P
11
P
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
P
11
P
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 5.7
P
11
P
K169
Crude oil tank sediment from petroleum refining operations.
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene 191-24-2 0.0055 1.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Ethyl benzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 3.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 81-05-8 0.059 5.6
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene (Methyl Benzene) 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes (Total) 1330-20-7 0.32 30
907
K170
Clarified slurry oil sediment from petroleum refining operations.
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene 191-24-2 0.0055 1.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Ethyl benzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 3.4
Indeno(1,2,3,-cd)pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 81-05-8 0.059 5.6
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene (Methyl Benzene) 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes (Total 1330-20-7 0.32 30
K171
Spent hydrotreating catalyst from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to
desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors. (This listing does not include inert support media.)
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Ethyl benzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 81-05-8 0.059 5.6
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene (Methyl Benzene) 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes (Total) 1330-20-7 0.32 30
Arsenic 7740-38-2 1.4 5
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Vanadium 7440-62-2 4.3 1.6
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Reactive sulfides NA DEACT DEACT
K172
Spent hydrorefining catalyst from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to
desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors. (This listing does not include inert support media.)
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Ethyl benzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Toluene (Methyl Benzene) 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes (Total) 1330-20-7 0.32 30
Antimony 7740-36-0 1.9 1.15
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Arsenic 7740-38-2 1.4 5
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
908
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Vanadium 7440-62-2 4.3 1.6
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Reactive Sulfides NA DEACT DEACT
K174
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of ethylene dicholoride or vinyl choloride
monomer.
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxin (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-
HpCDD)
35822-46-9 0.000035 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.0025 or
CMBST
P
11
P
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachloro-
dibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-
HpCDF)
67562-39-4 0.000035 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.0025 or
CMBST
P
11
P
1,2,3,4,7,8,9-Heptachloro-
dibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,7,8,9-
HpCDF)
55673-89-7 0.000035 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.0025 or
CMBST
P
11
P
All hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
(HxCDDs)
34465-46-8 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
All hexachlorodibenzofurans
(HxCDFs)
55684-94-1 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxin
(1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-OCDD)
3268-87-9 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.005 or CMBST
P
11
P
1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachloro-
dibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-
OCDF)
39001-02-0 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.005 or CMBST
P
11
P
All pentachlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins (PeCDDs)
36088-22-9 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
All pentachlorodibenzofurans
(PeCDFs)
30402-15-4 0.000035 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
All tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
(TCDDs)
41903-57-5 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
All tetrachlorodibenzofurans
(TCDFs)
55722-27-5 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
Arsenic 7440-36-0 1.4 5.0
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K175
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of vinyl choloride monomer using mercuric
chloride catalyst in an acetylene-based process.
Mercury
P
12
P
7439-97-6 NA 0.025
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
PH
P
12
P
NA pH
≤
6.0
909
K175
All K175 wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
K176
Baghouse filters from the production of antimony oxide, including filters from the production of
intermediates e.g., antimony metal or crude antimony oxide).
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 1.15
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.11
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 0.025
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K177
Slag from the production of antimony oxide that is speculatively accumulated or disposed,
including slag from the production of intermediates (e.g., antimony metal or crude antimony
oxide).
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 1.15
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K178
Residues from manufacturing and manufacturing-site storage of ferric chloride from acids
formed during the production of titanium dioxide using the chloride-ilmenite process.
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxin (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-
HpCDD)
35822-46-9 0.000035 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.0025 or
CMBST
P
11
P
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachloro-
dibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-
HpCDF)
67562-39-4 0.000035 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.0025 or
CMBST
P
11
P
1,2,3,4,7,8,9-Heptachloro-
dibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,7,8,9-
HpCDF)
55673-89-7 0.000035 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.0025 or
CMBST
P
11
P
HxCDDs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
34465-46-8 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
HxCDFs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55684-94-1 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
910
1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxin
(1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-OCDD)
3268-87-9 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.005 or CMBST
P
11
P
1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachloro-
dibenzofuran (OCDF)
39001-02-0 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.005 or CMBST
P
11
P
PeCDDs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
36088-22-9 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
PeCDFs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzofurans)
30402-15-4 0.000035 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
TCDDs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
41903-57-5 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
TCDFs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55722-27-5 0.000063 or
CMBST
P
11
P
0.001 or CMBST
P
11
P
Thallium 7440-28-0 1.4 0.20
S
mg/L
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
K181
Nonwastewaters from the production of dyes or pigments (including nonwastewaters
commingled at the point of generation with nonwastewaters from other processes) that, at the
point of generation, contain mass loadings of any of the constituents identified in Section
721.132(c) which are equal to or greater than the corresponding Section 721.132(c) levels, as
determined on a calendar-year basis.
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
o-Anisidine (2-methoxyaniline) 90-04-0 0.010 0.66
4-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 0.46 16
p-Cresidine 120-71-8 0.010 0.66
2,4-Dimethylaniline (2,4-
xylidine)
95-68-1 0.010 0.66
1,2-Phenylenediamine 95-54-5 CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN); or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN); or
BIODG fb
CARBN
1,3-Phenylenediamine 108-45-2 0.010 0.66
P001
Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3 percent.
Warfarin 81-81-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
911
P002
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea.
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea 591-08-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P003
Acrolein.
Acrolein 107-02-8 0.29 CMBST
P004
Aldrin.
Aldrin 309-00-2 0.021 0.066
P005
Allyl alcohol.
Allyl alcohol 107-18-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P006
Aluminum phosphide.
Aluminum phosphide 20859-73-8 CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
P007
5-Aminomethyl-3-isoxazolol.
5-Aminomethyl-3-isoxazolol 2763-96-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P008
4-Aminopyridine.
4-Aminopyridine 504-24-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P009
Ammonium picrate.
Ammonium picrate 131-74-8 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
912
P010
Arsenic acid.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P011
Arsenic pentoxide.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P012
Arsenic trioxide.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P013
Barium cyanide.
Barium 7440-39-3 NA 21
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
P014
Thiophenol (Benzene thiol).
Thiophenol (Benzene thiol) 108-98-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P015
Beryllium dust.
Beryllium 7440-41-7 RMETL;or
RTHRM
RMETL; or
RTHRM
P016
Dichloromethyl ether (Bis(chloromethyl)ether).
Dichloromethyl ether 542-88-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
913
P017
Bromoacetone.
Bromoacetone 598-31-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P018
Brucine.
Brucine 357-57-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P020
2-sec-Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol (Dinoseb).
2-sec-Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol
(Dinoseb)
88-85-7 0.066 2.5
P021
Calcium cyanide.
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
P022
Carbon disulfide.
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 CMBST
Carbon disulfide; alternate
P
6
P
standard for nonwastewaters
only
75-15-0 NA 4.8
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P023
Chloroacetaldehyde.
Chloroacetaldehyde 107-20-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P024
p-Chloroaniline.
p-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 0.46 16
914
P026
1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea.
1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea 5344-82-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P027
3-Chloropropionitrile.
3-Chloropropionitrile 542-76-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P028
Benzyl chloride.
Benzyl chloride 100-44-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P029
Copper cyanide.
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
P030
Cyanides (soluble salts and complexes).
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
P031
Cyanogen.
Cyanogen 460-19-5 CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
P033
Cyanogen chloride.
Cyanogen chloride 506-77-4 CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
915
P034
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol.
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol 131-89-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P036
Dichlorophenylarsine.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P037
Dieldrin.
Dieldrin 60-57-1 0.017 0.13
P038
Diethylarsine.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P039
Disulfoton.
Disulfoton 298-04-4 0.017 6.2
P040
O,O-Diethyl-O-pyrazinyl-phosphorothioate.
O,O-Diethyl-O-pyrazinyl-
phosphorothioate
297-97-2 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P041
Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate.
Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate 311-45-5 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P042
Epinephrine.
Epinephrine 51-43-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P043
Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP).
Diisopropylfluorophosphate
(DFP)
55-91-4 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
916
P044
Dimethoate.
Dimethoate 60-51-5 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P045
Thiofanox.
Thiofanox 39196-18-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P046
α
,
α
-Dimethylphenethylamine.
α
,
α
-Dimethylphenethylamine
122-09-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P047
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol.
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 543-52-1 0.28 160
P047
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol salts.
NA NA (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P048
2,4-Dinitrophenol.
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 0.12 160
P049
Dithiobiuret.
Dithiobiuret 541-53-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P050
Endosulfan.
Endosulfan I 939-98-8 0.023 0.066
Endosulfan II 33213-6-5 0.029 0.13
917
Endosulfan sulfate 1031-07-8 0.029 0.13
P051
Endrin.
Endrin 72-20-8 0.0028 0.13
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-4 0.025 0.13
P054
Aziridine.
Aziridine 151-56-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P056
Fluorine.
Fluoride (measured in
wastewaters only)
16964-48-8 35 ADGAS fb
NEUTR
P057
Fluoroacetamide.
Fluoroacetamide 640-19-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P058
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt.
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt 62-74-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P059
Heptachlor.
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 0.066
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 0.066
P060
Isodrin.
Isodrin 465-73-6 0.021 0.066
P062
Hexaethyl tetraphosphate.
Hexaethyl tetraphosphate 757-58-4 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
918
P063
Hydrogen cyanide.
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
P064
Isocyanic acid, ethyl ester.
Isocyanic acid, ethyl ester 624-83-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P065
P065 (mercury fulminate) nonwastewaters, regardless of their total mercury content, that are not
incinerator residues or are not residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA IMERC
P065
P065 (mercury fulminate) nonwastewaters that are either incinerator residues or are residues
from RMERC; and contain greater than or equal to 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7339-97-6 NA RMERC
P065
P065 (mercury fulminate) nonwastewaters that are residues from RMERC and contain less than
260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P065
P065 (mercury fulminate) nonwastewaters that are incinerator residues and contain less than 260
mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P065
All P065 (mercury fulminate) wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
P066
Methomyl.
Methomyl 16752-77-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
919
P067
2-Methyl-aziridine.
2-Methyl-aziridine 75-55-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P068
Methyl hydrazine.
Methyl hydrazine 60-34-4 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED,
or CMBST
P069
2-Methyllactonitrile.
2-Methyllactonitrile 75-86-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P070
Aldicarb.
Aldicarb 116-06-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P071
Methyl parathion.
Methyl parathion 298-00-0 0.014 4.6
P072
1-Naphthyl-2-thiourea.
1-Naphthyl-2-thiourea 86-88-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P073
Nickel carbonyl.
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P074
Nickel cyanide.
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
920
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P075
Nicotine and salts.
Nicotine and salts 54-11-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P076
Nitric oxide.
Nitric oxide 10102-43-9 ADGAS ADGAS
P077
p-Nitroaniline.
p-Nitroaniline 100-01-6 0.028 28
P078
Nitrogen dioxide.
Nitrogen dioxide 10102-44-0 ADGAS ADGAS
P081
Nitroglycerin.
Nitroglycerin 55-63-0 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
P082
N-Nitrosodimethylamine.
N-Nitrosodimethylamine 62-75-9 0.40 2.3
P084
N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine.
N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine 4549-40-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P085
Octamethylpyrophosphoramide.
Octamethylpyrophosphoramide 152-16-9 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
921
P087
Osmium tetroxide.
Osmium tetroxide 20816-12-0 RMETL; or
RTHRM
RMETL; or
RTHRM
P088
Endothall.
Endothall 145-73-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P089
Parathion.
Parathion 56-38-2 0.014 4.6
P092
P092 (phenyl mercuric acetate) nonwastewaters, regardless of their total mercury content, that
are not incinerator residues or are not residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA IMERC; or
RMERC
P092
P092 (phenyl mercuric acetate) nonwastewaters that are either incinerator residues or are
residues from RMERC; and still contain greater than or equal to 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA RMERC
P092
P092 (phenyl mercuric acetate) nonwastewaters that are residues from RMERC and contain less
than 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P092
P092 (phenyl mercuric acetate) nonwastewaters that are incinerator residues and contain less
than 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P092
All P092 (phenyl mercuric acetate) wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
922
P093
Phenylthiourea.
Phenylthiourea 103-85-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P094
Phorate.
Phorate 298-02-2 0.021 4.6
P095
Phosgene.
Phosgene 75-44-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P096
Phosphine.
Phosphine 7803-51-2 CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
P097
Famphur.
Famphur 52-85-7 0.017 15
P098
Potassium cyanide.
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
P099
Potassium silver cyanide.
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P101
Ethyl cyanide (Propanenitrile).
Ethyl cyanide (Propanenitrile) 107-12-0 0.24 360
923
P102
Propargyl alcohol.
Propargyl alcohol 107-19-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P103
Selenourea.
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 5.7
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P104
Silver cyanide.
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P105
Sodium azide.
Sodium azide 26628-22-8 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
P106
Sodium cyanide.
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
P108
Strychnine and salts.
Strychnine and salts 57-24-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P109
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate.
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate 3689-24-5 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P110
Tetraethyl lead.
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
924
P111
Tetraethylpyrophosphate.
Tetraethylpyrophosphate 107-49-3 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P112
Tetranitromethane.
Tetranitromethane 509-14-8 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
P113
Thallic oxide.
Thallium (measured in
wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
P114
Thallium selenite.
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 5.7
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
P115
Thallium (I) sulfate.
Thallium (measured in
wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
P116
Thiosemicarbazide.
Thiosemicarbazide 79-19-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P118
Trichloromethanethiol.
Trichloromethanethiol 75-70-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P119
Ammonium vanadate.
Vanadium (measured in
wastewaters only)
7440-62-2 4.3 STABL
925
P120
Vanadium pentoxide.
Vanadium (measured in
wastewaters only)
7440-62-2 4.3 STABL
P121
Zinc cyanide.
Cyanides (Total)
P
7
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
7
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
P122
Zinc phosphide Zn
B
3
B
P
B
2
B
, when present at concentrations greater than 10 percent.
Zinc Phosphide 1314-84-7 CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
P123
Toxaphene.
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.0095 2.6
P127
Carbofuran.
Carbofuran 1563-66-2 0.006 0.14
P128
Mexacarbate.
Mexacarbate 315-18-4 0.056 1.4
P185
Tirpate.
P
10
P
Tirpate 26419-73-8 0.056 0.28
P188
Physostigimine salicylate.
Physostigmine salicylate 57-64-7 0.056 1.4
P189
Carbosulfan.
Carbosulfan 55285-14-8 0.028 1.4
P190
Metolcarb.
Metolcarb 1129-41-5 0.056 1.4
P191
Dimetilan.
P
10
P
Dimetilan 644-64-4 0.056 1.4
926
P192
Isolan.
P
10
P
Isolan 119-38-0 0.056 1.4
P194
Oxamyl.
Oxamyl 23135-22-0 0.056 0.28
P196
Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamates (total).
Dithiocarbamates (total) NA 0.028 28
P197
Formparanate.
P
10
P
Formparanate 17702-57-7 0.056 1.4
P198
Formetanate hydrochloride.
Formetanate hydrochloride 23422-53-9 0.056 1.4
P199
Methiocarb.
Methiocarb 2032-65-7 0.056 1.4
P201
Promecarb.
Promecarb 2631-37-0 0.056 1.4
P202
m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate.
m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate 64-00-6 0.056 1.4
P203
Aldicarb sulfone.
Aldicarb sulfone 1646-88-4 0.056 0.28
P204
Physostigmine.
Physostigmine 57-47-6 0.056 1.4
P205
Ziram.
Dithiocarbamates (total) NA 0.028 28
927
U001
Acetaldehyde.
Acetaldehyde 75-07-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U002
Acetone.
Acetone 67-64-1 0.28 160
U003
Acetonitrile.
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 CMBST
Acetonitrile; alternate
P
6
P
standard
for nonwastewaters only
75-05-8 NA 38
U004
Acetophenone.
Acetophenone 98-86-2 0.010 9.7
U005
2-Acetylaminofluorene.
2-Acetylaminofluorene 53-96-3 0.059 140
U006
Acetyl chloride.
Acetyl chloride 75-36-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U007
Acrylamide.
Acrylamide 79-06-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U008
Acrylic acid.
Acrylic acid 79-10-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
928
U009
Acrylonitrile.
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
U010
Mitomycin C.
Mitomycin C 50-07-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U011
Amitrole.
Amitrole 61-82-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U012
Aniline.
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
U014
Auramine.
Auramine 492-80-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U015
Azaserine.
Azaserine 115-02-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U016
Benz(c)acridine.
Benz(c)acridine 225-51-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
929
U017
Benzal chloride.
Benzal chloride 98-87-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U018
Benz(a)anthracene.
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
U019
Benzene.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
U020
Benzenesulfonyl chloride.
Benzenesulfonyl chloride 98-09-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U021
Benzidine.
Benzidine 92-87-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U022
Benzo(a)pyrene.
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
U023
Benzotrichloride.
Benzotrichloride 98-07-7 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
U024
bis(2-Chloroethoxy)methane.
bis(2-Chloroethoxy)methane 111-91-1 0.036 7.2
U025
bis(2-Chloroethyl)ether.
bis(2-Chloroethyl)ether 111-44-4 0.033 6.0
930
U026
Chlornaphazine.
Chlornaphazine 494-03-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U027
bis(2-Chloroisopropyl)ether.
bis(2-Chloroisopropyl)ether 39638-32-9 0.055 7.2
U028
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)phthalate.
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)phthalate 117-81-7 0.28 28
U029
Methyl bromide (Bromomethane).
Methyl bromide (Bromo-
methane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
U030
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether.
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether 101-55-3 0.055 15
U031
n-Butyl alcohol.
n-Butyl alcohol 71-36-3 5.6 2.6
U032
Calcium chromate.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
U033
Carbon oxyfluoride.
Carbon oxyfluoride 353-50-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
931
U034
Trichloroacetaldehyde (Chloral).
Trichloroacetaldehyde (Chloral) 75-87-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U035
Chlorambucil.
Chlorambucil 305-03-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U036
Chlordane.
Chlordane (
α
and
χ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 0.26
U037
Chlorobenzene.
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
U038
Chlorobenzilate.
Chlorobenzilate 510-15-6 0.10 CMBST
U039
p-Chloro-m-cresol.
p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 0.018 14
U041
Epichlorohydrin (1-Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane).
Epichlorohydrin (1-Chloro-2,3-
epoxypropane)
106-89-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U042
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether.
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether 110-75-8 0.062 CMBST
U043
Vinyl chloride.
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
932
U044
Chloroform.
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
U045
Chloromethane (Methyl chloride).
Chloromethane (Methyl
chloride)
74-87-3 0.19 30
U046
Chloromethyl methyl ether.
Chloromethyl methyl ether 107-30-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U047
2-Chloronaphthalene.
2-Chloronaphthalene 91-58-7 0.055 5.6
U048
2-Chlorophenol.
2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 0.044 5.7
U049
4-Chloro-o-toluidine hydrochloride.
4-Chloro-o-toluidine hydro-
chloride
3165-93-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U050
Chrysene.
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
U051
Creosote.
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
933
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
U052
Cresols (Cresylic acid).
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol (difficult to
distinguish from p-cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol (difficult to distinguish
from m-cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
Cresol-mixed isomers (Cresylic
acid)
(sum of o-, m-, and p-cresol
concentrations)
1319-77-3 0.88 11.2
U053
Crotonaldehyde.
Crotonaldehyde 4170-30-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U055
Cumene.
Cumene 98-82-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U056
Cyclohexane.
Cyclohexane 110-82-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U057
Cyclohexanone.
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 CMBST
Cyclohexanone; alternate
P
6
P
standard for nonwastewaters
only
108-94-1 NA 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
934
U058
Cyclophosphamide.
Cyclophosphamide 50-18-0 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U059
Daunomycin.
Daunomycin 20830-81-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U060
DDD.
o,p'-DDD 53-19-0 0.023 0.087
p,p'-DDD 72-54-8 0.023 0.087
U061
DDT.
o,p'-DDT 789-02-6 0.0039 0.087
p,p'-DDT 50-29-3 0.0039 0.087
o,p'-DDD 53-19-0 0.023 0.087
p,p'-DDD 72-54-8 0.023 0.087
o,p'-DDE 3424-82-6 0.031 0.087
p,p'-DDE 72-55-9 0.031 0.087
U062
Diallate.
Diallate 2303-16-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U063
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene.
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
U064
Dibenz(a,i)pyrene.
Dibenz(a,i)pyrene 189-55-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
935
U066
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane.
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane 96-12-8 0.11 15
U067
Ethylene dibromide (1,2-Dibromoethane).
Ethylene dibromide (1,2-
Dibromoethane)
106-93-4 0.028 15
U068
Dibromomethane.
Dibromomethane 74-95-3 0.11 15
U069
Di-n-butyl phthalate.
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
U070
o-Dichlorobenzene.
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
U071
m-Dichlorobenzene.
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 0.036 6.0
U072
p-Dichlorobenzene.
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
U073
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine.
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine 91-94-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U074
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene.
cis-1,4-Dichloro-2-butene 1476-11-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
trans-1,4-Dichloro-2-butene 764-41-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
936
U075
Dichlorodifluoromethane.
Dichlorodifluoromethane 75-71-8 0.23 7.2
U076
1,1-Dichloroethane.
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
U077
1,2-Dichloroethane.
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
U078
1,1-Dichloroethylene.
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 6.0
U079
1,2-Dichloroethylene.
trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene 156-60-5 0.054 30
U080
Methylene chloride.
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
U081
2,4-Dichlorophenol.
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 0.044 14
U082
2,6-Dichlorophenol.
2,6-Dichlorophenol 87-65-0 0.044 14
U083
1,2-Dichloropropane.
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 0.85 18
U084
1,3-Dichloropropylene.
cis-1,3-Dichloropropylene 10061-01-5 0.036 18
trans-1,3-Dichloropropylene 10061-02-6 0.036 18
937
U085
1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane.
1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane 1464-53-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U086
N,N'-Diethylhydrazine.
N,N'-Diethylhydrazine 1615-80-1 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
U087
O,O-Diethyl-S-methyldithiophosphate.
O,O-Diethyl-S-methyldithio-
phosphate
3288-58-2 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U088
Diethyl phthalate.
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 0.20 28
U089
Diethyl stilbestrol.
Diethyl stilbestrol 56-53-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U090
Dihydrosafrole.
Dihydrosafrole 94-58-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U091
3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine.
3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine 119-90-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
938
U092
Dimethylamine.
Dimethylamine 124-40-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U093
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene.
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene 60-11-7 0.13 CMBST
U094
7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)anthracene.
7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)-
anthracene
57-97-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U095
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine.
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine 119-93-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U096
α
,
α
-Dimethyl benzyl hydroperoxide.
α
,
α
-Dimethyl benzyl hydro-
peroxide
80-15-9 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
U097
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride.
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride 79-44-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U098
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine.
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine 57-14-7 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
939
U099
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine.
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine 540-73-8 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
U101
2,4-Dimethylphenol.
2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 0.036 14
U102
Dimethyl phthalate.
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 0.047 28
U103
Dimethyl sulfate.
Dimethyl sulfate 77-78-1 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
U105
2,4-Dinitrotoluene.
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 0.32 140
U106
2,6-Dinitrotoluene.
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 0.55 28
U107
Di-n-octyl phthalate.
Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 0.017 28
U108
1,4-Dioxane.
1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
1,4-Dioxane; alternate
P
6
P
standard
for nonwastewaters only
123-91-1 12.0 170
U109
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine.
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine 122-66-7 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
940
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine;
alternate
P
6
P
standard for
wastewaters only
122-66-7 0.087 NA
U110
Dipropylamine.
Dipropylamine 142-84-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U111
Di-n-propylnitrosamine.
Di-n-propylnitrosamine 621-64-7 0.40 14
U112
Ethyl acetate.
Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 0.34 33
U113
Ethyl acrylate.
Ethyl acrylate 140-88-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U114
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid salts and esters.
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid 111-54-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U115
Ethylene oxide.
Ethylene oxide 75-21-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CHOXD; or
CMBST
Ethylene oxide; alternate
P
6
P
standard for wastewaters only
75-21-8 0.12 NA
941
U116
Ethylene thiourea.
Ethylene thiourea 96-45-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U117
Ethyl ether.
Ethyl ether 60-29-7 0.12 160
U118
Ethyl methacrylate.
Ethyl methacrylate 97-63-2 0.14 160
U119
Ethyl methane sulfonate.
Ethyl methane sulfonate 62-50-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U120
Fluoranthene.
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
U121
Trichloromonofluoromethane.
Trichloromonofluoromethane 75-69-4 0.020 30
U122
Formaldehyde.
Formaldehyde 50-00-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U123
Formic acid.
Formic acid 64-18-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
942
U124
Furan.
Furan 110-00-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U125
Furfural.
Furfural 98-01-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U126
Glycidylaldehyde.
Glycidylaldehyde 765-34-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U127
Hexachlorobenzene.
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
U128
Hexachlorobutadiene.
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
U129
Lindane.
α
-BHC
319-84-6 0.00014 0.066
β
-BHC
319-85-7 0.00014 0.066
δ
-BHC
319-86-8 0.023 0.066
γ
-BHC (Lindane)
58-89-9 0.0017 0.066
U130
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene.
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 0.057 2.4
U131
Hexachloroethane.
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
943
U132
Hexachlorophene.
Hexachlorophene 70-30-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U133
Hydrazine.
Hydrazine 302-01-2 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
U134
Hydrogen fluoride.
Fluoride (measured in
wastewaters only)
16964-48-8 35 ADGAS fb
NEUTR; or
NEUTR
U135
Hydrogen sulfide.
Hydrogen sulfide 7783-06-4 CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
U136
Cacodylic acid.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
U137
Indeno(1,2,3-c,d)pyrene.
Indeno(1,2,3-c,d)pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
U138
Iodomethane.
Iodomethane 74-88-4 0.19 65
U140
Isobutyl alcohol.
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 5.6 170
U141
Isosafrole.
Isosafrole 120-58-1 0.081 2.6
944
U142
Kepone.
Kepone 143-50-8 0.0011 0.13
U143
Lasiocarpine.
Lasiocarpine 303-34-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U144
Lead acetate.
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
U145
Lead phosphate.
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
U146
Lead subacetate.
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
U147
Maleic anhydride.
Maleic anhydride 108-31-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U148
Maleic hydrazide.
Maleic hydrazide 123-33-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U149
Malononitrile.
Malononitrile 109-77-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
945
U150
Melphalan.
Melphalan 148-82-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U151
U151 (mercury) nonwastewaters that contain greater than or equal to 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA RMERC
U151
U151 (mercury) nonwastewaters that contain less than 260 mg/kg total mercury and that are
residues from RMERC only.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
U151
U151 (mercury) nonwastewaters that contain less than 260 mg/kg total mercury and that are not
residues from RMERC only.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
U151
All U151 (mercury) wastewater.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
U151
Elemental Mercury Contaminated with Radioactive Materials.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA AMLGM
U152
Methacrylonitrile.
Methacrylonitrile 126-98-7 0.24 84
U153
Methanethiol.
Methanethiol 74-93-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
946
U154
Methanol.
Methanol 67-56-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
Methanol; alternate
P
6
P
set of
standards for both wastewaters
and nonwastewaters
67-56-1 5.6 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
U155
Methapyrilene.
Methapyrilene 91-80-5 0.081 1.5
U156
Methyl chlorocarbonate.
Methyl chlorocarbonate 79-22-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U157
3-Methylcholanthrene.
3-Methylcholanthrene 56-49-5 0.0055 15
U158
4,4'-Methylene bis(2-chloroaniline).
4,4'-Methylene bis(2-chloro-
aniline)
101-14-4 0.50 30
U159
Methyl ethyl ketone.
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
U160
Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide.
Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide 1338-23-4 CHOXD; CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
U161
Methyl isobutyl ketone.
Methyl isobutyl ketone 108-10-1 0.14 33
947
U162
Methyl methacrylate.
Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 0.14 160
U163
N-Methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine.
N-Methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitroso-
guanidine
70-25-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U164
Methylthiouracil.
Methylthiouracil 56-04-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U165
Naphthalene.
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
U166
1,4-Naphthoquinone.
1,4-Naphthoquinone 130-15-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U167
1-Naphthylamine.
1-Naphthylamine 134-32-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U168
2-Naphthylamine.
2-Naphthylamine 91-59-8 0.52 CMBST
U169
Nitrobenzene.
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
948
U170
p-Nitrophenol.
p-Nitrophenol 100-02-7 0.12 29
U171
2-Nitropropane.
2-Nitropropane 79-46-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U172
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine.
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine 924-16-3 0.40 17
U173
N-Nitrosodiethanolamine.
N-Nitrosodiethanolamine 1116-54-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U174
N-Nitrosodiethylamine.
N-Nitrosodiethylamine 55-18-5 0.40 28
U176
N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea.
N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea 759-73-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U177
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea.
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea 684-93-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U178
N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane.
N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane 615-53-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
949
U179
N-Nitrosopiperidine.
N-Nitrosopiperidine 100-75-4 0.013 35
U180
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine.
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine 930-55-2 0.013 35
U181
5-Nitro-o-toluidine.
5-Nitro-o-toluidine 99-55-8 0.32 28
U182
Paraldehyde.
Paraldehyde 123-63-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U183
Pentachlorobenzene.
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
U184
Pentachloroethane.
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
Pentachloroethane; alternate
P
6
P
standards for both wastewaters
and nonwastewaters
76-01-7 0.055 6.0
U185
Pentachloronitrobenzene.
Pentachloronitrobenzene 82-68-8 0.055 4.8
U186
1,3-Pentadiene.
1,3-Pentadiene 504-60-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
950
U187
Phenacetin.
Phenacetin 62-44-2 0.081 16
U188
Phenol.
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
U189
Phosphorus sulfide.
Phosphorus sulfide 1314-80-3 CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
U190
Phthalic anhydride.
Phthalic anhydride (measured as
Phthalic acid or Terephthalic
acid)
100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride (measured as
Phthalic acid or Terephthalic
acid)
85-44-9 0.055 28
U191
2-Picoline.
2-Picoline 109-06-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U192
Pronamide.
Pronamide 23950-58-5 0.093 1.5
U193
1,3-Propane sultone.
1,3-Propane sultone 1120-71-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U194
n-Propylamine.
n-Propylamine 107-10-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
951
U196
Pyridine.
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
U197
p-Benzoquinone.
p-Benzoquinone 106-51-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U200
Reserpine.
Reserpine 50-55-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U201
Resorcinol
Resorcinol. 108-46-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U202
Saccharin and salts.
Saccharin 81-07-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U203
Safrole.
Safrole 94-59-7 0.081 22
U204
Selenium dioxide.
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 5.7
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
U205
Selenium sulfide.
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 5.7
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
952
U206
Streptozotocin.
Streptozotocin 18883-66-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U207
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene.
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 0.055 14
U208
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane.
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane 630-20-6 0.057 6.0
U209
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane.
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-5 0.057 6.0
U210
Tetrachloroethylene.
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
U211
Carbon tetrachloride.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
U213
Tetrahydrofuran.
Tetrahydrofuran 109-99-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U214
Thallium (I) acetate.
Thallium (measured in
wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
U215
Thallium (I) carbonate.
Thallium (measured in
wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
953
U216
Thallium (I) chloride.
Thallium (measured in
wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
U217
Thallium (I) nitrate.
Thallium (measured in
wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
U218
Thioacetamide.
Thioacetamide 62-55-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U219
Thiourea.
Thiourea 62-56-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U220
Toluene.
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
U221
Toluenediamine.
Toluenediamine 25376-45-8 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U222
o-Toluidine hydrochloride.
o-Toluidine hydrochloride 636-21-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U223
Toluene diisocyanate.
Toluene diisocyanate 26471-62-5 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
954
U225
Bromoform (Tribromomethane).
Bromoform (Tribromomethane) 75-25-2 0.63 15
U226
1,1,1-Trichloroethane.
1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 0.054 6.0
U227
1,1,2-Trichloroethane.
1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 0.054 6.0
U228
Trichloroethylene.
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
U234
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene.
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene 99-35-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U235
tris-(2,3-Dibromopropyl)-phosphate.
tris-(2,3-Dibromopropyl)-
phosphate
126-72-7 0.11 0.10
U236
Trypan Blue.
Trypan Blue 72-57-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U237
Uracil mustard.
Uracil mustard 66-75-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
955
U238
Urethane (Ethyl carbamate).
Urethane (Ethyl carbamate) 51-79-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U239
Xylenes.
Xylenes-mixed isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
U240
2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid).
2,4-D (2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid)
94-75-7 0.72 10
2,4-D (2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid) salts and
esters
NA (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U243
Hexachloropropylene.
Hexachloropropylene 1888-71-7 0.035 30
U244
Thiram.
Thiram 137-26-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U246
Cyanogen bromide.
Cyanogen bromide 506-68-3 CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
U247
Methoxychlor.
Methoxychlor 72-43-5 0.25 0.18
956
U248
Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3 percent or less.
Warfarin 81-81-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U249
Zinc phosphide, Zn
B
3
B
P
B
2
B
, when present at concentrations of 10 percent or less.
Zinc Phosphide 1314-84-7 CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
CHOXD; CHRED;
or CMBST
U271
Benomyl.
Benomyl 17804-35-2 0.056 1.4
U278
Bendiocarb.
Bendiocarb 22781-23-3 0.056 1.4
U279
Carbaryl.
Carbaryl 63-25-2 0.006 0.14
U280
Barban.
Barban 101-27-9 0.056 1.4
U328
o-Toluidine.
o-Toluidine 95-53-4 CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN); or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
U353
p-Toluidine.
p-Toluidine 106-49-0 CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN); or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
957
U359
2-Ethoxyethanol.
2-Ethoxyethanol 110-80-5 CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN); or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
U364
Bendiocarb phenol.
P
10
P
Bendiocarb phenol 22961-82-6 0.056 1.4
U367
Carbofuran phenol.
Carbofuran phenol 1563-38-8 0.056 1.4
U372
Carbendazim.
Carbendazim 10605-21-7 0.056 1.4
U373
Propham.
Propham 122-42-9 0.056 1.4
U387
Prosulfocarb.
Prosulfocarb 52888-80-9 0.042 1.4
U389
Triallate.
Triallate 2303-17-5 0.042 1.4
U394
A2213.
P
10
P
A2213 30558-43-1 0.042 1.4
U395
Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate.
P
10
P
Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate 5952-26-1 0.056 1.4
U404
Triethylamine.
Triethylamine 101-44-8 0.081 1.5
958
U409
Thiophanate-methyl.
Thiophanate-methyl 23564-05-8 0.056 1.4
U410
Thiodicarb.
Thiodicarb 59669-26-0 0.019 1.4
U411
Propoxur.
Propoxur 114-26-1 0.056 1.4
Notes:
1 The waste descriptions provided in this table do not replace waste descriptions in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721. Descriptions of Treatment or Regulatory Subcategories are provided, as
needed, to distinguish between applicability of different standards.
2 CAS means Chemical Abstract Services. When the waste code or regulated constituents
are described as a combination of a chemical with its salts or esters, the CAS number is
given for the parent compound only.
3 Concentration standards for wastewaters are expressed in
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
and are based on
analysis of composite samples.
4 All treatment standards expressed as a Technology Code or combination of Technology
Codes are explained in detail in Table C of this Part, “Technology Codes and
Descriptions of Technology-Based Standards.” “fb” inserted between waste codes
denotes “followed by,” so that the first-listed treatment is followed by the second-listed
treatment. A semicolon (;) separates alternative treatment schemes.
5 Except for Metals (EP or TCLP) and Cyanides (Total and Amenable), the nonwastewater
treatment standards expressed as a concentration were established, in part, based on
incineration in units operated in accordance with the technical requirements of Subpart O
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 or based on combustion
in fuel substitution units operating in accordance with applicable technical requirements.
A facility may comply with these treatment standards according to provisions in Section
728.140(d). All concentration standards for nonwastewaters are based on analysis of
grab samples.
6 Where an alternate treatment standard or set of alternate standards has been indicated, a
facility may comply with this alternate standard, but only for the Treatment or Regulatory
Subcategory or physical form (i.e., wastewater or nonwastewater) specified for that
alternate standard.
7 Both Cyanides (Total) and Cyanides (Amenable) for nonwastewaters are to be analyzed
959
using Method
S
9010
S
9010C or
S
9012
S
9012B,
S
found
S
in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
Waste, Physical or Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
S
publication number EPA-
530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), with a
sample size of 10 grams and a distillation time of one hour and 15 minutes.
8 These wastes, when rendered non-hazardous and then subsequently managed in CWA or
CWA-equivalent systems, are not subject to treatment standards. (See Section
728.101(c)(3) and (c)(4).)
9 These wastes, when rendered non-hazardous and then subsequently injected in a Class I
SDWA well, are not subject to treatment standards. (See 35 Ill. Adm. Code 738.101(d).)
10 The treatment standard for this waste may be satisfied by either meeting the constituent
concentrations in the table in this Section or by treating the waste by the specified
technologies: combustion, as defined by the technology code CMBST at Table C, for
nonwastewaters; and biodegradation, as defined by the technology code BIODG; carbon
adsorption, as defined by the technology code CARBN; chemical oxidation, as defined by
the technology code CHOXD; or combustion, as defined as technology code CMBST, at
Table C, for wastewaters.
11 For these wastes, the definition of CMBST is limited to any of the following that have
obtained a determination of equivalent treatment under Section 728.142(b): (1)
combustion units operating under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726, (2) combustion units permitted
under Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724, or (3) combustion units operating under
Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.
12 Disposal of USEPA hazardous waste number K175 waste that has complied with all
applicable Section 728.140 treatment standards must also be macroencapsulated in
accordance with Table F of this Part, unless the waste is placed in either of the following
types of facilities:
a) A RCRA Subtitle C monofill containing only K175 wastes that meet all
applicable 40 CFR 268.40 treatment standards; or
b) A dedicated RCRA Subtitle C landfill cell in which all other wastes being co-
disposed are at pH
≤
6.0.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from table to 40 CFR 268.40
S
(2002)
S
(2005).
NA means not applicable.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
960
Section 728.Table U Universal Treatment Standards (UTS)
Regulated Constituent-
Common Name CAS
P
1
P
No.
Wastewater
Standard
Concentration (in
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
P
2
P
)
Nonwastewater
Standard
Concentration (in
mg/kg
P
3
P
unless
noted as
“
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP”)
Acenaphthylene 208-96-8 0.059 3.4
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 3.4
Acetone 67-64-1 0.28 160
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 38
Acetophenone 96-86-2 0.010 9.7
2-Acetylaminofluorene 53-96-3 0.059 140
Acrolein 107-02-8 0.29 NA
Acrylamide 79-06-1 19 23
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
Aldicarb sulfone
P
6
P
1646-88-4 0.056 0.28
Aldrin 309-00-2 0.021 0.066
4-Aminobiphenyl 92-67-1 0.13 NA
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
o-Anisidine (2-methoxy-
aniline)
90-04-0 0.010 0.66
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Aramite 140-57-8 0.36 NA
α
-BHC
319-84-6 0.00014 0.066
β
-BHC
319-85-7 0.00014 0.066
δ
-BHC
319-86-8 0.023 0.066
γ
-BHC
58-89-9 0.0017 0.066
Barban
P
6
P
101-27-9 0.056 1.4
Bendiocarb
P
6
P
22781-23-3 0.056 1.4
Benomyl
P
6
P
17804-35-2 0.056 1.4
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzal chloride 98-87-3 0.055 6.0
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to distinguish from
benzo(k)fluoranthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to distinguish from
benzo(b)fluoranthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene 191-24-2 0.0055 1.8
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Bromodichloromethane 75-27-4 0.35 15
Methyl bromide (Bromo-
methane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
961
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether 101-55-3 0.055 15
n-Butyl alcohol 71-36-3 5.6 2.6
Butylate
P
6
P
2008-41-5 0.042 1.4
Butyl benzyl phthalate 85-68-7 0.017 28
2-sec-Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol
(Dinoseb)
88-85-7 0.066 2.5
Carbaryl
P
6
P
63-25-2 0.006 0.14
Carbenzadim
P
6
P
10605-21-7 0.056 1.4
Carbofuran
P
6
P
1563-66-2 0.006 0.14
Carbofuran phenol
P
6
P
1563-38-8 0.056 1.4
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 4.8
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Carbosulfan
P
6
P
55285-14-8 0.028 1.4
Chlordane (
α
and
γ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 0.26
p-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 0.46 16
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
Chlorobenzilate 510-15-6 0.10 NA
2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene 126-99-8 0.057 0.28
p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 0.018 14
Chlorodibromomethane 124-48-1 0.057 15
Chloroethane 75-00-3 0.27 6.0
bis(2-Chloroethoxy)methane 111-91-1 0.036 7.2
bis(2-Chloroethyl)ether 111-44-4 0.033 6.0
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether 110-75-8 0.062 NA
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
bis(2-Chloroisopropyl)ether 39638-32-9 0.055 7.2
Chloromethane (Methyl
chloride)
74-87-3 0.19 30
2-Chloronaphthalene 91-58-7 0.055 5.6
2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 0.044 5.7
3-Chloropropylene 107-05-1 0.036 30
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
p-Cresidine 120-71-8 0.010 0.66
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol (difficult to
distinguish from p-cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol (difficult to
distinguish from m-cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
m-Cumenyl methyl-
carbamate
P
6
P
64-00-6 0.056 1.4
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
o,p'-DDD 53-19-0 0.023 0.087
p,p'-DDD 72-54-8 0.023 0.087
o,p'-DDE 3424-82-6 0.031 0.087
962
p,p'-DDE 72-55-9 0.031 0.087
o,p'-DDT 789-02-6 0.0039 0.087
p,p'-DDT 50-29-3 0.0039 0.087
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Dibenz(a,e)pyrene 192-65-4 0.061 NA
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloro-
propane
96-12-8 0.11 15
1,2-Dibromoethane/Ethylene
dibromide
106-93-4 0.028 15
Dibromomethane 74-95-3 0.11 15
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 0.036 6.0
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Dichlorodifluoromethane 75-71-8 0.23 7.2
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 6.0
trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene 156-60-5 0.054 30
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 0.044 14
2,6-Dichlorophenol 87-65-0 0.044 14
2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic
acid/2,4-D
94-75-7 0.72 10
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 0.85 18
cis-1,3-Dichloropropylene 10061-01-5 0.036 18
trans-1,3-Dichloropropylene 10061-02-6 0.036 18
Dieldrin 60-57-1 0.017 0.13
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 0.20 28
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene 60-11-7 0.13 NA
2,4-Dimethylaniline (2,4-
xylidine)
95-68-1 0.010 0.66
2,4-Dimethyl phenol 105-67-9 0.036 14
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 0.047 28
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
1,4-Dinitrobenzene 100-25-4 0.32 2.3
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 534-52-1 0.28 160
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 0.12 160
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 0.32 140
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 0.55 28
Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 0.017 28
Di-n-propylnitrosamine 621-64-7 0.40 14
1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 12.0 170
Diphenylamine (difficult to
distinguish from
diphenylnitrosamine)
122-39-4 0.92 13
963
Diphenylnitrosamine
(difficult to distinguish from
diphenylamine)
86-30-6 0.92 13
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine 122-66-7 0.087 NA
Disulfoton 298-04-4 0.017 6.2
Dithiocarbamates (total)
P
6
P
137-30-4 0.028 28
Endosulfan I 959-98-8 0.023 0.066
Endosulfan II 33213-65-9 0.029 0.13
Endosulfan sulfate 1031-07-8 0.029 0.13
Endrin 72-20-8 0.0028 0.13
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-4 0.025 0.13
EPTC
P
6
P
759-94-4 0.042 1.4
Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 0.34 33
Ethyl benzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Ethyl cyanide
(Propanenitrile)
107-12-0 0.24 360
Ethylene oxide 75-21-8 0.12 NA
Ethyl ether 60-29-7 0.12 160
bis(2-Ethylhexyl) phthalate 117-81-7 0.28 28
Ethyl methacrylate 97-63-2 0.14 160
Famphur 52-85-7 0.017 15
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 3.4
Formetanate hydrochloride
P
6
P
23422-53-9 0.056 1.4
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 0.066
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxin
(1,2,3,4,6,7,8-HpCDD)
35822-46-9 0.000035 0.0025
1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachloro-
dibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-
HpCDF)
67562-39-4 0.000035 0.0025
1,2,3,4,7,8,9-Heptachloro-
dibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,7,8,9-
HpCDF)
55673-89-7 0.000035 0.0025
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 0.066
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene 77-47-4 0.057 2.4
HxCDDs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55684-94-1 0.000063 0.001
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Hexachloropropylene 1888-71-7 0.035 30
Indeno (1,2,3-c,d) pyrene 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
Iodomethane 74-88-4 0.19 65
964
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 5.6 170
Isodrin 465-73-6 0.021 0.066
Isosafrole 120-58-1 0.081 2.6
Kepone 143-50-0 0.0011 0.13
Methacrylonitrile 126-98-7 0.24 84
Methanol 67-56-1 5.6 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Methapyrilene 91-80-5 0.081 1.5
Methiocarb
P
6
P
2032-65-7 0.056 1.4
Methomyl
P
6
P
16752-77-5 0.028 0.14
Methoxychlor 72-43-5 0.25 0.18
3-Methylcholanthrene 56-49-5 0.0055 15
4,4-Methylene bis(2-chloro-
aniline)
101-14-4 0.50 30
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Methyl isobutyl ketone 108-10-1 0.14 33
Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 0.14 160
Methyl methansulfonate 66-27-3 0.018 NA
Methyl parathion 298-00-0 0.014 4.6
Metolcarb
P
6
P
1129-41-5 0.056 1.4
Mexacarbate
P
6
P
315-18-4 0.056 1.4
Molinate
P
6
P
2212-67-1 0.042 1.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
2-Naphthylamine 91-59-8 0.52 NA
o-Nitroaniline 88-74-4 0.27 14
p-Nitroaniline 100-01-6 0.028 28
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
5-Nitro-o-toluidine 99-55-8 0.32 28
o-Nitrophenol 88-75-5 0.028 13
p-Nitrophenol 100-02-7 0.12 29
N-Nitrosodiethylamine 55-18-5 0.40 28
N-Nitrosodimethylamine 62-75-9 0.40 2.3
N-Nitroso-di-n-butylamine 924-16-3 0.40 17
N-Nitrosomethylethylamine 10595-95-6 0.40 2.3
N-Nitrosomorpholine 59-89-2 0.40 2.3
N-Nitrosopiperidine 100-75-4 0.013 35
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine 930-55-2 0.013 35
1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxin
(1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-OCDD)
3268-87-9 0.000063 0.005
1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachloro-
dibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-
OCDF)
39001-02-0 0.000063 0.005
Oxamyl
P
6
P
23135-22-0 0.056 0.28
Parathion 56-38-2 0.014 4.6
965
Total PCBs (sum of all PCB
isomers, or all Aroclors)
P
8
P
1336-36-3 0.10 10
Pebulate
P
6
P
1114-71-2 0.042 1.4
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
PeCDDs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
36088-22-9 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Pentachloro-
dibenzofurans)
30402-15-4 0.000035 0.001
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 0.055 6.0
Pentachloronitrobenzene 82-68-8 0.055 4.8
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
Phenacetin 62-44-2 0.081 16
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
1,3-Phenylenediamine 108-45-2 0.010 0.66
Phorate 298-02-2 0.021 4.6
Phthalic acid 100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride 85-44-9 0.055 28
Physostigmine
P
6
P
57-47-6 0.056 1.4
Physostigmine salicylate
P
6
P
57-64-7 0.056 1.4
Promecarb
P
6
P
2631-37-0 0.056 1.4
Pronamide 23950-58-5 0.093 1.5
Propham
P
6
P
122-42-9 0.056 1.4
Propoxur
P
6
P
114-26-1 0.056 1.4
Prosulfocarb
P
6
P
52888-80-9 0.042 1.4
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
Safrole 94-59-7 0.081 22
Silvex (2,4,5-TP) 93-72-1 0.72 7.9
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene 95-94-3 0.055 14
TCDDs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzo-p-dioxins)
41903-57-5 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetrachloro-
dibenzofurans)
55722-27-5 0.000063 0.001
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane 630-20-6 0.057 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane 79-34-5 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol 58-90-2 0.030 7.4
Thiodicarb
P
6
P
59669-26-0 0.019 1.4
Thiophanate-methyl
P
6
P
23564-05-8 0.056 1.4
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.0095 2.6
Triallate
P
6
P
2303-17-5 0.042 1.4
Tribromomethane
(Bromoform)
75-25-2 0.63 15
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene 120-82-1 0.055 19
966
1,1,1-Trichloroethane 71-55-6 0.054 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloroethane 79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Trichloromonofluoromethane 75-69-4 0.020 30
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol 95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol 88-06-2 0.035 7.4
2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxyacetic
acid/2,4,5-T
93-76-5 0.72 7.9
1,2,3-Trichloropropane 96-18-4 0.85 30
1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-
trifluoroethane
76-13-1 0.057 30
Triethylamine
P
6
P
101-44-8 0.081 1.5
tris-(2,3-Dibromopropyl)
phosphate
126-72-7 0.11 0.10
Vernolate
P
6
P
1929-77-7 0.042 1.4
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
Xylenes-mixed isomers (sum
of o-, m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 1.15
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Barium 7440-39-3 1.2 21
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Beryllium 7440-41-7 0.82 1.22
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.60
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
P
4
P
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
P
4
P
57-12-5 0.86 30
Fluoride
P
5
P
16984-48-8 35 NA
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.75
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Mercury-Nonwastewater
from Retort
7439-97-6 NA 0.20
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Mercury-All Others 7439-97-6 0.15 0.025
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 11
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Selenium
P
7
P
7782-49-2 0.82 5.7
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.14
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Sulfide 18496-25-8 14 NA
967
Thallium 7440-28-0 1.4 0.20
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Vanadium
P
5
P
7440-62-2 4.3 1.6
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
Zinc
P
5
P
7440-66-6 2.61 4.3
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
TCLP
S
1
SP
1
P
CAS means Chemical Abstract Services. When the waste code or regulated constituents
are described as a combination of a chemical with its salts or esters, the CAS number is
given for the parent compound only.
S
2
SP
2
P
Concentration standards for wastewaters are expressed in
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
are based on
analysis of composite samples.
S
3
SP
3
P
Except for metals (EP or TCLP) and cyanides (total and amenable), the nonwastewater
treatment standards expressed as a concentration were established, in part, based on
incineration in units operated in accordance with the technical requirements of Subpart O
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or Subpart O of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 or on combustion in fuel
substitution units operating in accordance with applicable technical requirements. A
facility may comply with these treatment standards according to provisions in Section
728.140(d). All concentration standards for nonwastewaters are based on analysis of
grab samples.
S
4
SP
4
P
Both Cyanides (Total) and Cyanides (Amenable) for nonwastewaters are to be analyzed
using Method
S
9010
S
9010C or
S
9012
S
9012B,
S
found
S
in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” USEPA
S
Publication
S
publication number EPA-
530/SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
720.111
S
720.111(a), with a
sample size of 10 grams and a distillation time of one hour and 15 minutes.
S
5
SP
5
P
These constituents are not “underlying hazardous constituents” in characteristic wastes,
according to the definition at Section 728.102(i).
S
6
SP
6
P
This footnote corresponds with footnote 6 to the table to 40 CFR 268.48(a), which has
already expired by its own terms. This statement maintains structural consistency with
the corresponding federal regulations.
S
7
SP
7
P
This constituent is not an underlying hazardous constituent, as defined at Section
728.102(i), because its UTS level is greater than its TC level. Thus, a treated selenium
waste would always be characteristically hazardous unless it is treated to below its
characteristic level.
S
8
SP
8
P
This standard is temporarily deferred for soil exhibiting a hazardous characteristic due to
USEPA hazardous waste numbers D004 through D011 only.
Note: NA means not applicable.
968
BOARD NOTE: Derived from table to 40 CFR 268.48(a)
S
(2002)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER d: UNDERGROUND INJECTION CONTROL AND
UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK PROGRAMS
PART 738
HAZARDOUS WASTE INJECTION RESTRICTIONS
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section
738.101 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
738.102 Definitions
738.103 Dilution Prohibited as a Substitute for Treatment
738.104 Case-by-Case Extensions of an Effective Date
738.105 Waste Analysis
SUBPART B: PROHIBITIONS ON INJECTION
Section
738.110
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Solvent Wastes
738.111
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Dioxin-Containing Wastes
738.112
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
California List Wastes
738.114
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
First Third Wastes
738.115
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Second Third Wastes
738.116
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Third Third Wastes
738.117 Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Newly-Listed Wastes
738.118 Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Newly-Listed and Identified Wastes
SUBPART C: PETITION STANDARDS AND PROCEDURES
Section
738.120 Petitions to Allow Injection of a Prohibited Waste
738.121 Required Information to Support Petitions
738.122 Submission, Review, and Approval or Denial of Petitions
738.123 Review of Adjusted Standards
738.124 Termination of Approved Petition
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 7.2, 13, and 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/7.2, 13, 22.4, and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R89-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 3059, effective February 20, 1990; amended in R89-
11 at 14 Ill. Reg. 11948, effective July 9, 1990; amended in R90-14 at 15 Ill. Reg. 11425,
effective July 24, 1991; amended in R92-13 at 17 Ill. Reg. 6190, effective April 5, 1993;
969
amended in R93-6 at 17 Ill. Reg. 15641, effective September 14, 1993; amended in R95-4 at 19
Ill. Reg. 9501, effective June 27, 1995; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 238,
effective December 16, 1997; amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 17486, effective
September 28, 1998; amended in R98-21/R99-2/R99-7 at 23 Ill. Reg. 1695, effective January 19,
1999; amended in R00-11/R01-1 at 24 Ill. Reg. 18576, effective December 7, 2000; amended in
R01-21/R01-23 at 25 Ill. Reg. 9161, effective July 9, 2001; amended in R02-1/R02-12/R02-17 at
26 Ill. Reg. 6835, effective April 22, 2002; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg.
________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section 738.101 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
a) This Part identifies hazardous wastes that are restricted from disposal into Class I
injection wells and defines those circumstances under which a waste, otherwise
prohibited from injection, may be injected.
b) The requirements of this Part apply to owners or operators of the following Class
I injection wells:
1) Hazardous waste injection wells that are used to inject hazardous waste;
and
2) Injection wells that are used to inject wastes
S
which
S
that once exhibited a
prohibited characteristic of hazardous waste identified in Subpart C of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721
S
.Subpart C
S
, at the point of generation, and which no
longer exhibit the characteristic at the point of injection.
c) Wastes otherwise prohibited from injection may continue to be injected under any
of the following circumstances:
1) If USEPA has granted an extension from the effective date of a
prohibition,
S
has been granted pursuant to
S
as described in Section 738.104;
or
2) If the Board has granted an adjusted standard
S
has been granted
S
in response
to a petition filed under Section 738.120; or
3) If the waste is generated by a conditionally exempt small quantity
generator, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.105.
d) A waste that is hazardous only because it exhibits a characteristic of hazardous
waste and which is otherwise prohibited from injection under this Part or 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728 is not prohibited from injection if the following is true of the
waste:
970
1) It is disposed into a non-hazardous or hazardous waste injection well, as
defined under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 730.106(a); and
2) It does not exhibit any prohibited characteristic of hazardous waste
identified in Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
S
.Subpart C
S
at the point of
injection.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.1
S
(1996)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.102 Definitions
“
S
EPA Hazardous Waste Number” means the number assigned by EPA pursuant to
each hazardous waste listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.Subpart D and to each
characteristic identified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.Subpart C.
“Injection interval” means that part of the injection zone in which the well is
screened
S
,
S
or in which the waste is otherwise directly emplaced.
“Transmissive fault or fracture” is a fault or fracture that has sufficient
permeability and vertical extent to allow fluids to move between formations.
“USEPA hazardous waste number” means the number assigned by USEPA
pursuant to each hazardous waste listed in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
and to each characteristic identified in Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.2
S
(1988), as added at 53 Fed. Reg. 28155, July 26,
1988
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.103 Dilution Prohibited as a Substitute for Treatment
a) The provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.103
S
shall
S
apply to owners or operators of
Class I injection wells used to inject a waste that is hazardous at the point of
generation whether or not the waste is hazardous at the point of injection.
b)
S
Owners or operators
S
The owner or operator of a Class I
S
nonhazardous
S
non-
hazardous waste injection
S
wells
S
well that
S
inject
S
injects waste formerly exhibiting
a hazardous characteristic
S
which
S
that has been removed by dilution may address
underlying hazardous constituents by treating the hazardous waste, by obtaining
an exemption pursuant to a petition filed under Section 738.120, or by complying
with the provisions set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.109.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.3
S
(1996)
S
(2005).
971
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.104 Case-by-Case Extensions of an Effective Date
The owner or operator of a Class I hazardous or
S
nonhazardous
S
non-hazardous waste injection
well may submit an application to USEPA for an extension of the effective date of any
applicable prohibition established under Subpart B of this Part pursuant to 40 CFR 268.5.
S
(See
35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.105.)
S
Any extension that is granted by USEPA will be deemed an extension
of the effective date of the derivative Board rule.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.4
S
(1996)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.105 Waste Analysis
S
Generators
S
The generator of hazardous
S
wastes
S
waste that
S
are
S
is disposed of into a Class I
injection
S
wells
S
well must comply with the applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.107(a) and (b).
S
Owners or operators
S
The owner or operator of a Class I hazardous waste
injection
S
wells
S
well must comply with the applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.107(c).
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.5
S
(1988), as added at 53 Fed. Reg. 28155, July 26,
1988
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART B: PROHIBITIONS ON INJECTION
Section 738.110
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Solvent Wastes
a) The spent solvent wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 by the following
S
EPA Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from
underground injection: F001, F002, F003, F004, and F005.
S
F001
S
F002
S
F003
S
F004
S
F005
b) The requirements of subsection (a)
S
above
S
of this Section do not apply under any
of the following circumstances:
1) If the
S
wastes meet
S
waste meets or
S
are
S
is treated to meet the standards of
972
Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728
S
.Subpart D
S
; or
2) If the Board has granted an adjusted standard
S
has been granted
S
in response
to a petition under Subpart C of this Part; or
3) During the period of extension of the applicable effective date, if an
extension has been granted
S
under
S
by USEPA as referenced in Section
S
738.Subpart D
S
738.104.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.10
S
(1991), as amended at 57 Fed. Reg. 8088, March
6, 1992
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.111
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Dioxin-Containing Wastes
a) The dioxin-containing wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 by the
following
S
EPA Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are
prohibited from underground injection: F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, F027, and
F028.
S
F020
S
F021
S
F022
S
F023
S
F026
S
F027
S
F028
b) The requirements of subsection (a) of this Section do not apply under any of the
following circumstances:
1) If the
S
wastes meet
S
waste meets or
S
are
S
is treated to meet the standards of
Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728
S
.Subpart D
S
; or
2) If the Board has granted an adjusted standard
S
has been granted
S
in response
to a petition under Subpart C of this Part; or
3) During the period of extension of the applicable effective date, if an
extension has been granted
S
under
S
by USEPA as referenced in Section
738.104.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.11
S
(1989)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
973
Section 738.112
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
California List Wastes
a) The hazardous wastes listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.132 containing
polychlorinated biphenyls at concentrations greater than or equal to 50 ppm or
halogenated organic compounds at concentrations greater than or equal to 10,000
mg/kg are prohibited from underground injection.
b) The following hazardous wastes are prohibited from underground injection:
1) Liquid hazardous wastes, including free liquids associated with any solid
or sludge, containing free cyanides at concentrations greater than or equal
to
S
1000 mg/l
S
1,000 mg/
ℓ
;
2) Liquid hazardous wastes, including free liquids associated with any solid
or sludge, containing the following metals (or elements) or compounds of
these metals (or elements) at concentrations greater than or equal to those
specified below:
A) Arsenic or compounds (as As) 500
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
;
B) Cadmium or compounds (as Cd) 100
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
;
C) Chromium (VI) or compounds (as Cr VI) 500
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
;
D) Lead or compounds (as Pb) 500
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
;
E) Mercury or compounds (as Hg) 20
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
;
F) Nickel or compounds (as Ni) 134
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
;
G) Selenium or compounds (as Se) 100
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
; and
H) Thallium or compounds (as Tl) 130
S
mg/l
S
mg/
ℓ
;
3) Liquid hazardous waste having a pH less than or equal to two (2.0); and
4) Hazardous wastes containing halogenated organic compounds in total
concentration less than 10,000 mg/kg but greater than or equal to
S
1000
S
1,000 mg/kg.
c) The requirements of subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply under any
of the following circumstances:
1) If the
S
wastes meet
S
waste meets or
S
are
S
is treated to meet the applicable
standards specified in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728
S
.Subpart D
S
; or
974
2) If the Board has granted an adjusted standard
S
has been granted
S
in response
to a petition under Subpart C of this Part; or
3) During the period of extension of the applicable effective date, if an
extension is granted
S
under
S
by USEPA as referenced in Section 738.104.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.12
S
(1990)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.114
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
First Third Wastes
a) Prohibitions.
1) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 by the following
S
EPA
Hazardous Waste number
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are
prohibited from underground injection: F006 (wastewaters and
nonwastewaters), F008, F009, F019.
S
F006 (wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
F008
S
F009
S
F019
2) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 by the following
S
EPA
Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from
underground injection: K001, K004, K008, K015 (wastewaters and
nonwastewaters), K016 (at concentrations greater than or equal to one
percent), K017, K018, K019, K020, K021 (wastewaters, and
nonwastewaters generated by the process described in the waste listing
description, and not those generated in the course of treating wastewater
forms of these wastes), K022 (wastewaters and nonwastewaters), K024,
K030, K031, K035, K036 (wastewaters, and nonwastewaters generated by
the process described in the waste listing description, and not those
generated in the course of treating wastewater forms of these wastes),
K037, K044, K045, K046 (wastewaters and nonwastewaters), K047,
K048, K049, K050, K051, K052, K060 (wastewaters, and nonwastewaters
generated by the process described in the waste listing description, and not
those generated in the course of treating wastewater forms of these
wastes), K061 (wastewaters and nonwastewaters), K062, K069 (calcium
sulfate nonwastewaters; all wastewaters; and noncalcium sulfate
nonwastewaters generated by the process described in the waste listing
description, and not those generated in the course of treating wastewater
forms of these wastes), K071, K073, K083, K084, K085, K086, K087,
K099, K101 (all wastewaters and nonwastewaters), K102 (all wastewaters
and nonwastewaters), K103, K104, and K106.
975
S
K001
S
K004
S
K008
S
K015
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K016
(at concentrations greater than or equal to one percent)
S
K017
S
K018
S
K019
S
K020
S
K021
(wastewaters, and nonwastewaters generated by the process
described in the waste listing description, and not those
generated in the course of treating wastewater forms of
these wastes)
S
K022
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K024
S
K030
S
K031
S
K035
S
K036
(wastewaters, and nonwastewaters generated by the process
described in the waste listing description, and not those
generated in the course of treating wastewater forms of
these wastes)
S
K037
S
K044
S
K045
S
K046
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K047
S
K048
S
K049
S
K050
S
K051
S
K052
S
K060
(wastewaters, and nonwastewaters generated by the process
described in the waste listing description, and not those
generated in the course of treating wastewater forms of
these wastes)
S
K061
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K062
S
K069
(calcium sulfate nonwastewaters; all wastewaters; and
noncalcium sulfate nonwastewaters generated by the
process described in the waste listing description, and not
those generated in the course of treating wastewater forms
of these wastes)
S
K071
S
K073
976
S
K083
S
K084
S
K085
S
K086
S
K087
S
K099
S
K101
(all wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K102
(all wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K103
S
K104
S
K106
3) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.133 by the following
S
EPA
Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from
underground injection: P001, P004, P005, P010, P011, P012, P015, P016,
P018, P020, P030, P036, P037, P039, P041, P048, P050, P058, P059,
P063, P068, P069, P070, P071, P081, P082, P084, P087, P089, P092,
P094, P097, P102, P105, P108, P110, P115, P120, P122, P123, U007,
U009, U010, U012, U016, U018, U019, U022, U029, U031, U036, U037,
U041, U043, U044, U046, U050, U051, U053, U061, U063, U064, U066,
U067, U074, U077, U078, U086, U089, U103, U105, U108, U115, U122,
U124, U129, U130, U133, U134, U137, U151, U154, U155, U157, U158,
U159, U171, U177, U180, U185, U188, U192, U200, U209, U210, U211,
U219, U220, U221, U223, U226, U227, U228, U237, U238, U248, and
U249.
S
P001
S
P004
S
P005
S
P010
S
P011
S
P012
S
P015
S
P016
S
P018
S
P020
S
P030
S
P036
S
P037
S
P039
S
P041
S
P048
S
P050
S
P058
S
P059
S
P063
977
S
P068
S
P069
S
P070
S
P071
S
P081
S
P082
S
P084
S
P087
S
P089
S
P092
S
P094
S
P097
S
P102
S
P105
S
P108
S
P110
S
P115
S
P120
S
P122
S
P123
S
U007
S
U009
S
U010
S
U012
S
U016
S
U018
S
U019
S
U022
S
U029
S
U031
S
U036
S
U037
S
U041
S
U043
S
U044
S
U046
S
U050
S
U051
S
U053
S
U061
S
U063
S
U064
S
U066
S
U067
S
U074
S
U077
978
S
U078
S
U086
S
U089
S
U103
S
U105
S
U108
S
U115
S
U122
S
U124
S
U129
S
U130
S
U133
S
U134
S
U137
S
U151
S
U154
S
U155
S
U157
S
U158
S
U159
S
U171
S
U177
S
U180
S
U185
S
U188
S
U192
S
U200
S
U209
S
U210
S
U211
S
U219
S
U220
S
U221
S
U223
S
U226
S
U227
S
U228
S
U237
S
U238
S
U248
S
U249
b)
S
Effective June 7, 1991, the
S
The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 by
the following
S
EPA Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste number are
prohibited from underground injection: K016 (at concentrations less than one
percent).
979
S
K016
(at concentrations less than one percent)
c) Prohibitions.
1)
S
Effective June 8, 1991, the
S
The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.131 by the following
S
EPA Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste
number are prohibited from underground injection: F007.
S
F007
2)
S
Effective June 8, 1991, the
S
The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.132 by the following
S
EPA Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste
numbers are prohibited from underground injection: K011
(nonwastewaters) and K013 (nonwastewaters).
S
K011
(nonwastewaters)
S
K013
(nonwastewaters)
d)
S
Effective May 8, 1992, the
S
The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 by
the following
S
EPA Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are
prohibited from underground injection: K011 (wastewaters), K013
(wastewaters), and K014.
S
K011
(wastewaters)
S
K013
(wastewaters)
S
K014
e) The requirements of subsections (a) through (d) of this Section do not apply under
any of the following circumstances:
1) If the
S
wastes meet
S
waste meets or
S
are
S
is treated to meet the applicable
standards specified in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728
S
.Subpart D
S
; or
2) If the Board has granted an adjusted standard
S
has been granted
S
in response
to a petition
S
under
S
by USEPA as referenced in Subpart C of this Part; or
3) During the period of extension of the applicable effective date, if an
extension is granted
S
under
S
by USEPA as referenced in Section 738.104.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.14
S
(1990)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
980
Section 738.115
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Second Third Wastes
a) Prohibitions.
1) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 by the following
S
EPA
Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from
underground injection: F010 and F024.
S
F010
S
F024
2) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 by the following
S
EPA
Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from
underground injection: K009 (nonwastewaters), K010, K025
(wastewaters, and nonwastewaters generated by the process described in
the waste listing description, and not those generated in the course of
treating wastewater forms of these wastes), K027, K028, K029
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters), K038, K039, K040, K041, K042,
K043, K095 (wastewaters and nonwastewaters), K096 (wastewaters and
nonwastewaters), K097, K098, K105, K113, K114, K115, and K116.
S
K009
(nonwastewaters)
S
K010
S
K025
(wastewaters, and nonwastewaters generated by the process
described in the waste listing description, and not those
generated in the course of treating wastewater forms of
these wastes)
S
K027
S
K028
S
K029
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K038
S
K039
S
K040
S
K041
S
K042
S
K043
S
K095
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K096
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K097
S
K098
S
K105
S
K113
S
K114
S
K115
S
K116
981
3) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.133 by the following
S
EPA
Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from
underground injection: P002, P003, P007, P008, P014, P026, P027, P029,
P040, P043, P044, P049, P054, P057, P060, P062, P066, P067, P072,
P074, P085, P098, P104, P106, P107, P111, P112, P113, P114, U002,
U003, U005, U008, U011, U014, U015, U020, U021, U023, U025, U026,
U028, U032, U035, U047, U049, U057, U058, U059, U060, U062, U070,
U073, U080, U083, U092, U093, U094, U095, U097, U098, U099, U101,
U106, U107, U109, U110, U111, U114, U116, U119, U127, U128, U131,
U135, U138, U140, U142, U143, U144, U146, U147, U149, U150, U161,
U162, U163, U164, U165, U168, U169, U170, U172, U173, U174, U176,
U178, U179, U189, U193, U196, U203, U205, U206, U208, U213, U214,
U215, U216, U217, U218, U235, U239, and U244.
S
P002
S
P003
S
P007
S
P008
S
P014
S
P026
S
P027
S
P029
S
P040
S
P043
S
P044
S
P049
S
P054
S
P057
S
P060
S
P062
S
P066
S
P067
S
P072
S
P074
S
P085
S
P098
S
P104
S
P106
S
P107
S
P111
S
P112
S
P113
S
P114
S
U002
S
U003
S
U005
982
S
U008
S
U011
S
U014
S
U015
S
U020
S
U021
S
U023
S
U025
S
U026
S
U028
S
U032
S
U035
S
U047
S
U049
S
U057
S
U058
S
U059
S
U060
S
U062
S
U070
S
U073
S
U080
S
U083
S
U092
S
U093
S
U094
S
U095
S
U097
S
U098
S
U099
S
U101
S
U106
S
U107
S
U109
S
U110
S
U111
S
U114
S
U116
S
U119
S
U127
S
U128
S
U131
S
U135
S
U138
S
U140
S
U142
983
S
U143
S
U144
S
U146
S
U147
S
U149
S
U150
S
U161
S
U162
S
U163
S
U164
S
U165
S
U168
S
U169
S
U170
S
U172
S
U173
S
U174
S
U176
S
U178
S
U179
S
U189
S
U193
S
U196
S
U203
S
U205
S
U206
S
U208
S
U213
S
U214
S
U215
S
U216
S
U217
S
U218
S
U235
S
U239
S
U244
b) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 by the following
S
EPA
Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from
underground injection pursuant to the treatment standards specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728.141 and 728.143 applicable to F011 and F012 wastewaters and
nonwastewaters: F011 (nonwastewaters) and F012 (nonwastewaters).
S
F011
(nonwastewaters)
S
F012
(nonwastewaters)
984
c)
S
Effective June 8, 1991, the
S
The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 by
the following
S
EPA Hazardous
Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste number are
prohibited from underground injection: K009 (wastewaters).
S
K009
(wastewaters)
d) The requirements of subsections (a) through (c) of this Section do not apply under
any of the following circumstances:
1) If the
S
wastes meet
S
waste meets or
S
are
S
is treated to meet the applicable
standards specified in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728
S
.Subpart D
S
; or
2) If the Board has granted an adjusted standard
S
has been granted
S
in response
to a petition under Subpart C of this Part; or
3) During the period of extension of the applicable effective date, if an
extension is granted
S
under
S
by USEPA as referenced in Section 738.104.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.15
S
(1990)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.116
S
Waste Specific
S
Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Third Third Wastes
a) Prohibitions.
1) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 by the following
S
EPA
Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from
underground injection: F025 and F039 (nonwastewaters).
S
F025
S
F039
(nonwastewaters)
2) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 by the following
S
EPA
Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from
underground injection: K002, K003, K005 (wastewaters and
nonwastewaters), K006, K007 (wastewaters and nonwastewaters), K023,
K026, K032, K033, K034, K093, K094, and K100.
S
K002
S
K003
S
K005
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K006
S
K007
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
K023
S
K026
985
S
K032
S
K033
S
K034
S
K093
S
K094
S
K100
3) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.133 by the following
S
EPA
Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from
underground injection: P006, P009, P013, P017, P021, P022, P023, P024,
P028, P031, P033, P034, P038, P042, P045, P046, P047, P051, P056,
P064, P065, P073, P075, P076, P077, P078, P088, P093, P095, P096,
P099, P101, P103, P109, P116, P118, P119, P121, U001, U004, U006,
U017, U024, U027, U030, U033, U034, U038, U039, U042, U045, U048,
U052, U055, U056, U068, U069, U071, U072, U075, U076, U079, U081,
U082, U084, U085, U087, U088, U090, U091, U096, U102, U112, U113,
U117, U118, U120, U121, U123, U125, U126, U132, U136, U141, U145,
U148, U152, U153, U156, U160, U166, U167, U181, U182, U183, U184,
U186, U187, U190, U191, U194, U197, U201, U202, U204, U207, U222,
U225, U234, U236, U240, U243, U246, and U247.
S
P006
S
P009
S
P013
S
P017
S
P021
S
P022
S
P023
S
P024
S
P028
S
P031
S
P033
S
P034
S
P038
S
P042
S
P045
S
P046
S
P047
S
P051
S
P056
S
P064
S
P065
S
P073
S
P075
S
P076
S
P077
986
S
P078
S
P088
S
P093
S
P095
S
P096
S
P099
S
P101
S
P103
S
P109
S
P116
S
P118
S
P119
S
P121
S
U001
S
U004
S
U006
S
U017
S
U024
S
U027
S
U030
S
U033
S
U034
S
U038
S
U039
S
U042
S
U045
S
U048
S
U052
S
U055
S
U056
S
U068
S
U069
S
U071
S
U072
S
U075
S
U076
S
U079
S
U081
S
U082
S
U084
S
U085
S
U087
S
U088
S
U090
S
U091
S
U096
987
S
U102
S
U112
S
U113
S
U117
S
U118
S
U120
S
U121
S
U123
S
U125
S
U126
S
U132
S
U136
S
U141
S
U145
S
U148
S
U152
S
U153
S
U156
S
U160
S
U166
S
U167
S
U181
S
U182
S
U183
S
U184
S
U186
S
U187
S
U190
S
U191
S
U194
S
U197
S
U201
S
U202
S
U204
S
U207
S
U222
S
U225
S
U234
S
U236
S
U240
S
U243
S
U246
S
U247
4) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121 or 721.124 by
characteristic alone and designated by the following
S
EPA Hazardous
988
Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from underground
injection: D001, D004, D005, D006, D008, D009 (wastewaters), D010,
D011, D012, D013, D014, D015, D016, and D017.
S
D001
S
D004
S
D005
S
D006
S
D008
S
D009
(wastewaters)
S
D010
S
D011
S
D012
S
D013
S
D014
S
D015
S
D016
S
D017
b) Mixed
S
radioactive/hazardous
S
radioactive and hazardous wastes in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.110, 728.111, and 728.112, which are mixed radioactive and hazardous
wastes, are prohibited from underground injection.
c) Prohibitions.
1)
S
Effective May 8, 1992, the
S
The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.131 by the following
S
EPA Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous waste
number are prohibited from underground injection: F039
(nonwastewaters).
S
F039 (nonwastewaters)
2)
S
Effective May 8, 1992, the
S
The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.122, 721.123, or 721.124 as hazardous based on a characteristic alone
and designated by the following
S
EPA Hazardous Waste
S
USEPA hazardous
waste numbers are prohibited from underground injection: D002
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters), D003 (wastewaters and
nonwastewaters), D007 (wastewaters and nonwastewaters), and D009
(nonwastewaters).
S
D002
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
D003
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
D007
(wastewaters and nonwastewaters)
S
D009
(nonwastewaters)
S
3)
The effective date of subsections (c)(1) and (c)(2) do not apply to the
989
wastes listed in Section 148.112(b) which are prohibited from
underground injection effective August 8, 1990.
d) The requirements of subsections (a) through (c) of this Section do not apply under
any of the following circumstances:
1) If the
S
wastes meet
S
waste meets or
S
are
S
is treated to meet the applicable
standards specified in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728
S
.Subpart D
S
; or
2) If the Board has granted an adjusted standard
S
has been granted
S
in response
to a petition under Subpart C of this Part; or
3) During the period of extension of the applicable effective date, if an
extension is granted
S
under
S
by USEPA as referenced in Section 738.104.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.16
S
(1990)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.117 Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Newly-Listed Wastes
a) The wastes specified in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
S
.Subpart D
S
by the
following USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from underground
injection: F037, F038, K107, K108, K109, K110, K111, K112, K117, K118,
K123, K124, K125, K126, K131, K136, U328, U353, and U359.
S
F037
S
F038
S
K107
S
K108
S
K109
S
K110
S
K111
S
K112
S
K117
S
K118
S
K123
S
K124
S
K125
S
K126
S
K131
S
K136
S
U328
S
U353
S
U359
990
b) The wastes specified in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721
S
.Subpart D
S
by the
following USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from underground
injection: K141, K142, K143, K144, K145, K147, K148, K149, K150, and K151.
S
K141
S
K142
S
K143
S
K144
S
K145
S
K147
S
K148
S
K149
S
K150
S
K151
c) This subsection (c) corresponds with 40 CFR 148.17(c), removed and marked
“reserved” by USEPA at 61 Fed. Reg. 15662 (April 8, 1996). This statement
maintains structural consistency with USEPA rules.
d)
S
Effective June 30, 1995, the
S
The wastes specified in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721
S
.Subpart D
S
by the following USEPA hazardous waste numbers are
prohibited from underground injection: K117, K118, K131, and K132.
S
K117
S
K118
S
K131
S
K132
e) The requirements of subsections (a)
S
and (b)
S
through (d) of this Section do not
apply under any of the following circumstances:
1) If the
S
wastes meet
S
waste meets or
S
are
S
is treated to meet the applicable
standards specified in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728
S
.Subpart D
S
; or
2) If the Board has granted an adjusted standard
S
has been granted
S
in response
to a petition under Subpart C of this Part; or
3) During the period of extension of the applicable effective date, if an
extension is granted
S
under
S
by USEPA as referenced in Section 738.104.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.17
S
(1996)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
991
Section 738.118 Waste-Specific Prohibitions:
S
-
S
Newly-Listed and Identified Wastes
a) All newly identified D004 through D011 wastes and characteristic mineral
processing wastes, except those identified in subsection (b) of this Section, are
prohibited from underground injection.
b) Characteristic hazardous wastes from titanium dioxide mineral processing, and
radioactive wastes mixed with newly identified D004 through D011 or mixed
with newly identified characteristic mineral processing wastes, are prohibited
from underground injection.
c) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 as USEPA hazardous waste
numbers F032, F034, F035 are prohibited from underground injection.
d) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 as USEPA hazardous waste
numbers F032, F034, F035 that are mixed with radioactive wastes are prohibited
from underground injection.
e) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as having the following
USEPA hazardous waste numbers are prohibited from underground injection:
K156, K157, K158, K159, K160, K161, P127, P128, P185, P188, P189, P190,
P191, P192, P194, P196, P197, P198, P199, P201, P202, P203, P204, P205,
U271, U277, U278, U279, U280, U364, U365, U366, U367, U372, U373, U375,
U376, U377, U378, U379, U381, U382, U383, U384, U385, U386, U387, U389,
U390, U391, U392, U393, U394, U395, U396, U400, U401, U402, U403, U404,
U407, U409, U410, and U411.
f) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as USEPA hazardous waste
number K088
S
is
S
are prohibited from underground injection.
g) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 as having the following USEPA
hazardous waste numbers and Mixed TC/Radioactive wastes are prohibited from
underground injection: D018, D019, D020, D021, D022, D023, D024, D025,
D026, D027, D028, D029, D030, D031, D032, D033, D034, D035, D036, D037,
D038, D039, D040, D041, D042, and D043.
h) This subsection (h) corresponds with 40 CFR 148.18(h), which USEPA has
removed and marked “reserved.” This statement maintains structural consistency
with the federal regulations.
i) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as USEPA hazardous waste
numbers K169 through K172 are prohibited from underground injection.
j) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as USEPA hazardous waste
numbers K174 and K175 are prohibited from underground injection.
992
k)
S
Effective May 20, 2002, the
S
The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as
USEPA hazardous waste numbers K176, K177, and K178 are prohibited from
underground injection.
l) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as USEPA hazardous waste
number K181 are prohibited from underground injection.
S
l
S
m) The requirements of subsections (a) through
S
(k)
S
(l) of this Section do not apply
under any of the following circumstances:
1) If the
S
wastes meet
S
waste meets or
S
are
S
is treated to meet the applicable
standards specified in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728; or
2) If the Board has granted an
S
exemption from a prohibition has been granted
S
adjusted standard in response to a petition under Subpart C of this Part; or
3) During the period of extension of the applicable effective date, if an
extension has been granted
S
under
S
by USEPA as referenced in Section
738.104.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.18 (2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART C: PETITION STANDARDS AND PROCEDURES
Section 738.120 Petitions to Allow Injection of a Prohibited Waste
a) Any person seeking an exemption from a prohibition under Subpart B of this Part
for the injection of a restricted hazardous waste, including a hazardous waste that
exhibits a characteristic of hazardous waste and which contains underlying
hazardous constituents at the point of generation, but which no longer exhibits a
characteristic of hazardous waste when injected into a Class I injection well or
wells,
S
shall
S
must submit a petition for an adjusted standard to the Board, pursuant
to Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
106.Subpart G
S
104, demonstrating that, to a
reasonable degree of certainty, there will be no migration of hazardous
constituents from the injection zone for as long as the waste remains hazardous.
This demonstration requires a showing
S
that
S
of the following:
1) The hydrogeological and geochemical conditions at the
S
site(s)
S
site and the
physiochemical nature of the waste
S
stream(s)
S
stream are such that reliable
predictions can be made
S
that
S
with regard to each of the following:
A) Fluid movement conditions are such that the injected fluids will
not migrate within 10,000 years in either of the following ways:
993
i) Vertically upward out of the injection zone; or
ii) Laterally within the injection zone to a point of discharge
or interface with an
S
Underground Source
S
underground
source of
S
Drinking Water
S
drinking water (USDW), as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 730; or
B) Before the injected fluids migrate out of the injection zone or to a
point of discharge or interface with a USDW, the fluid will no
longer be hazardous because of attenuation, transformation, or
immobilization of hazardous constituents within the injection zone
by hydrolysis, chemical interactions, or other means; and
2) For each well, the petition has fulfilled the following requirements:
A)
S
Demonstrated
S
It has demonstrated that the injection well’s area of
review complies with the substantive requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 730.163;
B)
S
Located,
S
It has located, identified, and ascertained the condition of
all wells within the injection well’s area of review (as specified in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 730.163) that penetrate the injection zone or the
confining zone by use of a protocol acceptable to the Board that
meets the substantive requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 730.164;
C)
S
Submitted
S
It has provided a corrective action plan that meets the
substantive requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 730.164, the
implementation of which
S
shall
S
will become a condition of any
adjusted standard granted; and
D)
S
Submitted
S
It has provided the results of pressure and radioactive
tracer tests performed within one year prior to submission of the
petition demonstrating the mechanical integrity of the well’s long
string casing, injection tube, annular seal, and bottom hole cement.
In cases where the petition has not been approved or denied within
one year after the initial demonstration of mechanical integrity, the
Board may require the owner or operator to perform the tests again
and submit the results of the new tests.
BOARD NOTE: The requirements of subsection (a)(2) of this Section
need not be incorporated in a permit at the time the Board grants an
adjusted standard.
b) A demonstration under subsection (a)(1)(A) of this Section must identify the
strata within the injection zone which will confine fluid movement above the
injection interval, and it must include a showing that this strata is free of known
994
transmissive faults of fractures and that there is a confining zone above the
injection zone.
c) A demonstration under subsection (a)(1)(B) of this Section must identify the
strata within the injection zone where waste transformation will be accomplished,
and it must include a showing that this strata is free of known transmissive faults
or fractures and that there is a confining zone above the injection zone.
d) A demonstration may include
S
a showing that
S
either of the following features,
which will become a condition of the adjusted standard:
1) Treatment methods that the owner or operator will use to reduce the
toxicity or mobility of the wastes
S
, the implementation of which will
become a condition of any adjusted standard, must be utilized
S
; or
2) A monitoring plan
S
, the implementation of which will become a condition
of any adjusted standard,
S
S
must be utilized
S
that the owner or operator will
use to enhance confidence in one or more aspects of the demonstration.
e) Any person that has been granted an adjusted standard pursuant to this Section
may submit a petition for reissuance of the adjusted standard to include an
additional restricted waste or wastes or to modify any conditions
S
placed
S
imposed
on that adjusted standard by the Board. The Board will reissue the adjusted
standard if the petitioner complies with subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this
Section.
f) Any person that has been granted an adjusted standard pursuant to this Section
may submit a petition to modify that adjusted standard to include an additional
(hazardous) waste or wastes. The Board
S
may
S
will grant the modification if it
determines, to a reasonable degree of certainty, that the additional waste or wastes
will behave hydraulically and chemically in a manner similar to previously
included wastes and that
S
it
S
the additional waste or wastes will not interfere with
the containment capability of the injection zone.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.20
S
(1996)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.121 Required Information to Support Petitions
a) Information submitted in support of a Section 738.120 petition must meet the
following
S
criteria
S
requirements:
1) All data from waste analyses and any new testing performed by the
petitioner must be approved by the Board and must provide data that are
accurate, reproducible, and performed in accordance with quality
995
assurance standards;
2)
S
Estimation
S
The following must be true with regard to estimation and
monitoring techniques and the identification of applicable existing
S
EPA-
certified
S
USEPA-certified test protocols:
A) All estimation and monitoring techniques must be approved by the
Board; and
B) The petition must identify all applicable USEPA-certified test
protocols in existence at the time the estimation and monitoring
was performed;
3) Predictive models must have been verified and validated, must be
appropriate for the specific site,
S
wastestreams
S
waste streams, and injection
conditions of the operation, and they must be calibrated for existing sites
where sufficient data are available;
4) A quality assurance and quality control plan addressing all aspects of the
demonstration must be provided to and approved by the Board;
5) Reasonably conservative values must be used whenever values taken from
the literature or estimated on the basis of known information are used
instead of site-specific measurements; and
6) An analysis must be performed to identify and assess aspects of the
demonstration that contribute significantly to uncertainty. The petitioner
S
shall
S
must conduct a sensitivity analysis to determine the effect that
significant uncertainty may contribute to the demonstration. The
demonstration must then be based on conservative assumptions identified
in the analysis.
b) Any petitioner under Section 738.120(a)(1)(A)
S
shall
S
must provide sufficient site-
specific information to support the demonstration, such as the following:
1)
S
Thickness,
S
The thickness, porosity, permeability and extent of the various
strata in the injection zone;
2)
S
Thickness,
S
The thickness, porosity, permeability, extent and continuity of
the confining zone;
3)
S
Hydraulic
S
The hydraulic
gradient in the injection zone;
4)
S
Hydrostatic
S
The hydrostatic pressure in the injection zone; and
5)
S
Geochemical
S
The geochemical conditions of the site.
996
c) In addition to the information in subsection
S
738.121(b)
S
(b) of this Section, any
petitioner under Section 738.120(a)(1)(B) of this Part
S
shall
S
must provide
sufficient waste-specific information to ensure reasonably reliable predictions
about the waste transformation. The petitioner
S
shall
S
must provide the information
necessary to support the demonstration, such as the following:
1)
S
Description
S
A description of the chemical processes or other means that
will lead to waste transformation; and
2) Results of laboratory experiments verifying the waste transformation.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.21
S
(1988), as added at 53 Fed. Reg. 28156, July 26,
1988
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.122 Submission, Review, and Approval or Denial of Petitions
a) Any petition submitted to the Board, pursuant to Section 738.120(a) of this Part,
must include the following:
1) An identification of the specific waste or wastes and the specific injection
well or wells for which the demonstration will be made;
2) A waste analysis fully describing the chemical and physical characteristics
of the subject wastes;
3) Such additional information as the Board requires to support the petition
under Section 738.120 and Section 738.121 of this Part; and
4)
S
This
S
The following statement signed by the petitioner or an authorized
representative:
I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and
am familiar with the information submitted in this petition and all
attached documents, and that, based on my inquiry of those
individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information,
I believe that submitted information is true, accurate and complete.
I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false
information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.
b) The Board will provide public notice and an opportunity for public comment in
accordance with the procedures in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
106.Subpart G
S
104.
997
c) An adjusted standard will apply only to the underground injection of the specific
restricted waste or wastes identified in the petition into a Class I hazardous waste
injection well or wells specifically identified in the petition (unless the adjusted
standard is modified or reissued pursuant to Section 738.120(e) or (f)).
d) Upon request by any petitioner who obtains an adjusted standard for a well under
this Subpart C, the Agency
S
shall
S
must initiate and reasonably expedite the
necessary procedures to issue or reissue a permit or permits for the hazardous
waste well or wells covered by the adjusted standard for a term not to exceed
S
ten
S
10 years.
e) Each adjusted standard granted under this Part is subject to the following
condition, whether or not this condition appears as part of the adjusted standard,
and the Board will include this condition as part of each adjusted standard
granted: “This adjusted standard does not affect the enforceability of any
provisions of the Environmental Protection Act, Board rules, or other laws, except
to the extent that its provisions expressly state otherwise.”
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.22
S
(1988), as added at 53 Fed. Reg. 28156, July 26,
1988
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.123 Review of Adjusted Standards
a) Agency review.
1) When considering whether to reissue a permit for the operation of a Class
I hazardous waste injection well, the Agency
S
shall
S
must review any
adjusted
S
standard(s)
S
standard granted by the Board pursuant to this
Subpart C.
2) If the Agency determines that new information shows that the basis for
granting the adjusted standard may no longer be valid, the Agency
S
shall
S
must request in writing that the permittee submit a petition to the Board to
modify the adjusted standard.
3) All petitions requested by the Agency pursuant to subsection (a)(2) of this
Section must be filed pursuant to section 738.120(f). Such a petition may
seek reaffirmation of the adjusted standard without modification.
4) Permittee's failure to file a petition, Agency petitions for reconsideration,
and Board reconsideration of adjusted standards
S
:
S
.
A) If the permittee fails to file a petition requested by the Agency
under subsection (a)(2) of this Section, the Agency may petition
998
the Board for reconsideration of any adjusted standard granted
under this Part at any time during the effectiveness of that adjusted
standard, the limitation periods of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
101.300
S
101.520 and
S
101.301
S
101.904 notwithstanding.
B) Board review.
i) The Board may conduct a plenary review of the substance
of any adjusted standard on reconsideration to the same
extent that it would review a new petition for an adjusted
standard.
ii) The Board may treat a motion for reconsideration of an
adjusted standard as a new petition under Section 738.120
and require that the full requirements of that
S
section
S
Section and of Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
S
106.Subpart
G
S
104 apply to the proceeding, with the Agency acting as
the petitioner.
b) Whenever the Board determines that the basis for approval of a petition may no
longer be valid, the Board will require a new demonstration in accordance with
Section 738.120.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.23
S
(1988), as added at 53 Fed. Reg. 28157, July 26,
1988
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 738.124 Termination of Approved Petition
a) Termination through an enforcement action.
1)
S
Enforcement actions
S
An enforcement action against an
S
owners or
operators
S
owner or operator having an adjusted
S
standards
S
standard and
S
limitations
S
limitation on Agency petitions for reconsideration of an
adjusted
S
standards
S
standard:
A) Any person may file an enforcement action against an owner or
operator of an underground injection well pursuant to Section 33
of the Environmental Protection Act
S
, Ill. Rev. Stat. ch. 111 1/2,
par. 1033,
S
[415 ILCS 5/33] for any violation of the Act or Board
rules, notwithstanding the existence of any adjusted standard.
B) The Agency may petition the Board for reconsideration of any
adjusted standard at any time during the effectiveness of that
adjusted standard, the limitation periods of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
999
S
101.300
S
101.520 and
S
101.301
S
101.904 notwithstanding.
2) In any action under subsection (a)(1) of this Section, if the Board finds a
violation of the Act or Board regulations, the Board may terminate any
adjusted standard granted under Section 738.120 for any of the following
causes:
A) Noncompliance by the owner or operator with any condition of the
adjusted standard;
B) The owner or operator's failure in the petition or during the review
and approval to disclose fully all relevant facts, or the petitioner's
misrepresentation of any relevant facts at any time; or
C) A determination that new information shows that the basis for
approval of the petition is no longer valid.
b) In any action under subsection (a)(1) of this Section, the Board will terminate an
adjusted standard granted under Section 738.120 for the following
S
cases
S
causes:
1) The petitioner's willful withholding during the review and approval of the
petition of facts directly and materially relevant to the Board’s decision on
the petition;
2) A determination that there has been migration from the injection zone or
the well that is not in accordance with the terms of the adjusted standard,
except that the Board, may at its discretion decide not to terminate where
both of the following conditions are fulfilled:
A) The migration resulted from a mechanical failure of the well that
can be promptly corrected
S
promptly
S
through a repair to the
injection well itself or from an undetected well or conduit that can
be plugged promptly; and
B) The requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 730.167 are satisfied.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.24
S
(1988), as added at 53 Fed. Reg. 28157, July 26,
1988
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
1000
PART 739
STANDARDS FOR THE MANAGEMENT OF USED OIL
SUBPART A: DEFINITIONS
Section
739.100 Definitions
SUBPART B: APPLICABILITY
Section
739.110 Applicability
739.111 Used Oil Specifications
739.112 Prohibitions
SUBPART C: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL GENERATORS
Section
739.120 Applicability
739.121 Hazardous Waste Mixing
739.122 Used Oil Storage
739.123 On-Site Burning in Space Heaters
739.124 Off-Site Shipments
SUBPART D: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL COLLECTION CENTERS AND
AGGREGATION POINTS
Section
739.130 Do-It-Yourselfer Used Oil Collection Centers
739.131 Used Oil Collection Centers
739.132 Used Oil Aggregate Points Owned by the Generator
SUBPART E: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL TRANSPORTER AND
TRANSFER FACILITIES
Section
739.140 Applicability
739.141 Restrictions on Transporters that Are Not Also Processors
739.142 Notification
739.143 Used Oil Transportation
739.144 Rebuttable Presumption for Used Oil
739.145 Used Oil Storage at Transfer Facilities
739.146 Tracking
739.147 Management of Residues
SUBPART F: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL PROCESSORS
Section
739.150 Applicability
739.151 Notification
739.152 General Facility Standards
739.153 Rebuttable Presumption for Used Oil
1001
739.154 Used Oil Management
739.155 Analysis Plan
739.156 Tracking
739.157 Operating Record and Reporting
739.158 Off-Site Shipments of Used Oil
739.159 Management of Residues
SUBPART G: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL BURNERS THAT BURN OFF-
SPECIFICATION USED OIL FOR ENERGY RECOVERY
Section
739.160 Applicability
739.161 Restriction on Burning
739.162 Notification
739.163 Rebuttable Presumption for Used Oil
739.164 Used Oil Storage
739.165 Tracking
739.166 Notices
739.167 Management of Residues
SUBPART H: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL FUEL MARKETERS
Section
739.170 Applicability
739.171 Prohibitions
739.172 On-Specification Used Oil Fuel
739.173 Notification
739.174 Tracking
739.175 Notices
SUBPART I:
S
STANDARDS FOR USE AS A DUST SUPPRESSANT
S
DISPOSAL OF USED OIL
Section
739.180 Applicability
739.181 Disposal
739.182 Use As a Dust Suppressant
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 7.2 and 22.4 and authorized by Section 27 of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/7.2, 22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20954, effective November 22, 1993; amended in
R93-16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6931, effective April 26, 1994; amended in R94-17 at 18 Ill. Reg. 17616,
effective November 23, 1994; amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 10036, effective June 27, 1995;
amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 767, effective December 16, 1997; amended in
R98-21/R99-2/R99-7 at 23 Ill. Reg. 2274, effective January 19, 1999; amended in R04-16 at 28
Ill. Reg. 10706, effective July 19, 2004; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg.
________, effective ______________________.
1002
SUBPART B: APPLICABILITY
Section 739.110 Applicability
This Section identifies those materials that are subject to regulation as used oil under this Part.
This Section also identifies some materials that are not subject to regulation as used oil under
this Part, and indicates whether these materials may be subject to regulation as hazardous waste
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 720 through 726, and 728.
a) Used oil. Used oil is presumed to be recycled, unless a used oil handler disposes
of used oil or sends used oil for disposal. Except as provided in Section 739.111,
the regulations of this Part apply to used oil and to materials identified in this
Section as being subject to regulation as used oil, whether or not the used oil or
material exhibits any characteristics of hazardous waste identified in Subpart C of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
b) Mixtures of used oil and hazardous waste.
1) Listed hazardous waste.
A) A mixture of used oil and hazardous waste that is listed in Subpart
D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 is subject to regulation as hazardous
waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703, 720 through 726, and 728,
rather than as used oil under this Part.
B) Rebuttable presumption for used oil. Used oil containing more
than 1,000 ppm total halogens is presumed to be a hazardous waste
because it has been mixed with halogenated hazardous waste listed
in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
S
Persons
S
An owner or
operator may rebut this presumption by demonstrating that the
used oil does not contain hazardous waste (for example, by
S
using
an analytical method from SW-846, incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, to show
S
showing that the used oil does
not contain significant concentrations of halogenated hazardous
constituents listed in Appendix H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721).
i) This rebuttable presumption does not apply to
metalworking oils or fluids containing chlorinated
paraffins, if they are processed, through a tolling
arrangement as described in Section 739.124(c), to reclaim
metalworking oils or fluids. This presumption does apply
to metalworking oils or fluids if such oils or fluids are
recycled in any other manner, or disposed.
ii) This rebuttable presumption does not apply to used oils
contaminated with chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) removed
1003
from refrigeration units where the CFCs are destined for
reclamation. This rebuttable presumption does apply to
used oils contaminated with CFCs that have been mixed
with used oil from sources other than refrigeration units.
2) Characteristic hazardous waste. A mixture of used oil and hazardous
waste that exhibits a hazardous waste characteristic identified in Subpart C
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 and a mixture of used oil and hazardous waste
that is listed in Subpart D of this Part solely because it exhibits one or
more of the characteristics of hazardous waste identified in Subpart C of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 is subject to the following:
A) Except as provided in subsection (b)(2)(C) of this Section,
regulation as hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703, 720
through 726, and 728 rather than as used oil under this Part, if the
resultant mixture exhibits any characteristics of hazardous waste
identified in Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721; or
B) Except as provided in subsection (b)(2)(C) of this Section,
regulation as used oil under this Part, if the resultant mixture does
not exhibit any characteristics of hazardous waste identified under
Subpart C of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
C) Regulation as used oil under this Part, if the mixture is of used oil
and a waste that is hazardous solely because it exhibits the
characteristic of ignitability (e.g., ignitable-only mineral spirits),
provided that the resultant mixture does not exhibit the
characteristic of ignitability under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121.
3) Conditionally exempt small quantity generator hazardous waste. A
mixture of used oil and conditionally exempt small quantity generator
hazardous waste regulated under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.105 is subject to
regulation as used oil under this Part.
c) Materials containing or otherwise contaminated with used oil.
1) Except as provided in subsection (c)(2) of this Section, the following is
true of a material containing or otherwise contaminated with used oil from
which the used oil has been properly drained or removed to the extent
possible so that no visible signs of free-flowing oil remain in or on the
material:
A) The material is not used oil, so it is not subject to this Part, and
B) If applicable, the material is subject to the hazardous waste
regulations of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703, 705, 720 through 726, and
1004
728.
2) A material containing or otherwise contaminated with used oil that is
burned for energy recovery is subject to regulation as used oil under this
Part.
3) Used oil drained or removed from materials containing or otherwise
contaminated with used oil is subject to regulation as used oil under this
Part.
d) Mixtures of used oil with products.
1) Except as provided in subsection (d)(2) of this Section, mixtures of used
oil and fuels or other fuel products are subject to regulation as used oil
under this Part.
2) Mixtures of used oil and diesel fuel mixed on-site by the generator of the
used oil for use in the generator’s own vehicles are not subject to this Part
once the used oil and diesel fuel have been mixed. Prior to mixing, the
used oil is subject to the requirements of Subpart C of this Part.
e) Materials derived from used oil.
1) The following is true of materials that are reclaimed from used oil, which
are used beneficially, and which are not burned for energy recovery or
used in a manner constituting disposal (e.g., re-refined lubricants):
A) The materials are not used oil and thus are not subject to this Part,
and
B) The materials are not solid wastes and are thus not subject to the
hazardous waste regulations of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703, 720 through
726, and 728, as provided in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(e)(1).
2) Materials produced from used oil that are burned for energy recovery
(e.g., used oil fuels) are subject to regulation as used oil under this Part.
3) Except as provided in subsection (e)(4) of this Section, the following is
true of materials derived from used oil that are disposed of or used in a
manner constituting disposal:
A) The materials are not used oil and thus are not subject to this Part,
and
B) The materials are solid wastes and thus are subject to the
hazardous waste regulations of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703, 720 through
1005
726, and 728 if the materials are listed or identified as hazardous
waste.
4) Used oil re-refining distillation bottoms that are used as feedstock to
manufacture asphalt products are not subject to this Part.
f) Wastewater. Wastewater, the discharge of which is subject to regulation under
either Section 402 or Section 307(b) of the federal Clean Water Act (including
wastewaters at facilities that have eliminated the discharge of wastewater),
contaminated with de minimis quantities of used oil are not subject to the
requirements of this Part. For purposes of this subsection, “de minimis”
quantities of used oils are defined as small spills, leaks, or drippings from pumps,
machinery, pipes, and other similar equipment during normal operations or small
amounts of oil lost to the wastewater treatment system during washing or draining
operations. This exception will not apply if the used oil is discarded as a result of
abnormal manufacturing operations resulting in substantial leaks, spills, or other
releases, or to used oil recovered from wastewaters.
g) Used oil introduced into crude oil pipelines or a petroleum refining facility.
1) Used oil mixed with crude oil or natural gas liquids (e.g., in a production
separator or crude oil stock tank) for insertion into a crude oil pipeline is
exempt from the requirements of this Part. The used oil is subject to the
requirements of this Part prior to the mixing of used oil with crude oil or
natural gas liquids.
2) Mixtures of used oil and crude oil or natural gas liquids containing less
than one percent used oil that are being stored or transported to a crude oil
pipeline or petroleum refining facility for insertion into the refining
process at a point prior to crude distillation or catalytic cracking are
exempt from the requirements of this Part.
3) Used oil that is inserted into the petroleum refining process before crude
distillation or catalytic cracking without prior mixing with crude oil is
exempt from the requirements of this Part, provided that the used oil
contains less than one percent of the crude oil feed to any petroleum
refining facility process unit at any given time. Prior to insertion into the
petroleum refining process, the used oil is subject to the requirements of
this Part.
4) Except as provided in subsection (g)(5) of this Section, used oil that is
introduced into a petroleum refining facility process after crude distillation
or catalytic cracking is exempt from the requirements of this Part only if
the used oil meets the specification of Section 739.111. Prior to insertion
into the petroleum refining facility process, the used oil is subject to the
requirements of this Part.
1006
5) Used oil that is incidentally captured by a hydrocarbon recovery system or
wastewater treatment system as part of routine process operations at a
petroleum refining facility and inserted into the petroleum refining facility
process is exempt from the requirements of this Part. This exemption does
not extend to used oil that is intentionally introduced into a hydrocarbon
recovery system (e.g., by pouring collected used oil into the wastewater
treatment system).
6) Tank bottoms from stock tanks containing exempt mixtures of used oil
and crude oil or natural gas liquids are exempt from the requirements of
this Part.
h) Used oil on vessels. Used oil produced on vessels from normal shipboard
operations is not subject to this Part until it is transported ashore.
i) Used oil containing PCBs. Used oil containing PCBs, as defined at 40 CFR 761.3
(Definitions), incorporated by reference at 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), at any
concentration less than 50 ppm is subject to the requirements of this Part unless,
because of dilution, it is regulated under federal 40 CFR 761 as a used oil
containing PCBs at 50 ppm or greater. PCB-containing used oil subject to the
requirements of this Part may also be subject to the prohibitions and requirements
of 40 CFR 761, including 40 CFR 761.20(d) and (e). Used oil containing PCBs at
concentrations of 50 ppm or greater is not subject to the requirements of this Part,
but is subject to regulation under federal 40 CFR 761. No person may avoid these
provisions by diluting used oil containing PCBs, unless otherwise specifically
provided for in this Part or federal 40 CFR 761.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART C: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL GENERATORS
Section 739.120 Applicability
a) General. This Subpart C applies to all generators of used oil, except the following:
1) Household “do-it-yourselfer” used oil generators. Household “do-it-
yourselfer” used oil generators are not subject to regulation under this Part.
2) Vessels. Vessels at sea or at port are not subject to this Subpart C. For
purposes of this Subpart C, used oil produced on vessels from normal
shipboard operations is considered to be generated at the time it is
transported ashore. The owner or operator of the vessel and the persons
removing or accepting used oil from the vessel are co-generators of the used
oil and are both responsible for managing the waste in compliance with this
Subpart C once the used oil is transported ashore. The co-generators may
1007
decide among themselves which party will fulfill the requirements of this
Subpart C.
3) Diesel fuel. Mixtures of used oil and diesel fuel mixed by the generator of
the used oil for use in the generator’s own vehicles are not subject to this Part
once the used oil and diesel fuel have been mixed. Prior to mixing, the used
oil fuel is subject to the requirements of this Subpart C.
4) Farmers. Farmers who generate an average of 25 gallons per month or less
of used oil from vehicles or machinery used on the farm in a calendar year
are not subject to the requirements of this Part.
b) Other applicable provisions. A used oil generator that conducts any of the following
activities is subject to the requirements of other applicable provisions of this Part, as
indicated in subsections (b)(1) through (b)(5):
1) A generator that transports used oil, except under the self-transport
provisions of Section 739.124(a) and (b), must also comply with Subpart E
of this Part.
2) A generator that processes or re-refines used oil.
A) Except as provided in subsection (b)(2)(B) of this Section, a
generator that processes or re-refines used oil must also comply with
Subpart F of this Part.
B) A generator that performs the following activities is not a used oil
processor, provided that the used oil is generated on-site and is not
being sent off-site to a burner of on- or off-specification used oil fuel:
i) Filtering, cleaning, or otherwise reconditioning used oil
before returning it for reuse by the generator;
ii) Separating used oil from wastewater generated on-site to
make the wastewater acceptable for discharge or reuse
pursuant to Section 402 or 307(b) for the federal Clean Water
Act (33 USC 1317 or 1342), 40 CFR 403 through 499, or 35
Ill. Adm. Code 310 or 309, governing the discharge of
wastewaters;
iii) Using oil mist collectors to remove small droplets of used oil
from in-plant air to make plant air suitable for continued
recirculation;
iv) Draining or otherwise removing used oil from materials
containing or otherwise contaminated with used oil in order
1008
to remove excessive oil to the extent possible pursuant to
Section 739.110(c); or
v) Filtering, separating, or otherwise reconditioning used oil
before burning it in a space heater pursuant to Section
739.123.
3) A generator that burns off-specification used oil for energy recovery, except
under the on-site space heater provisions of Section 739.123, must also
comply with Subpart G of this Part.
4) A generator that directs shipments of off-specification used oil from their
facility to a used oil burner or first claims that used oil that is to be burned for
energy recovery meets the used oil fuel specifications set forth in Section
739.111 must also comply with Subpart H of this Part.
5) A generator that disposes of used oil
S
, including the use of used oil as a dust
suppressant,
S
must also comply with Subpart I of this Part.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 739.122 Used Oil Storage
A used oil generator is subject to all applicable federal Spill Prevention, Control and
Countermeasures (40 CFR 112) in addition to the requirements of this Subpart C. A used oil
generator is also subject to the Underground Storage Tank (35 Ill. Adm. Code 731) standards for
used oil stored in underground tanks whether or not the used oil exhibits any characteristics of
hazardous waste, in addition to the requirements of this Subpart C.
a) Storage units. A used oil generator may not store used oil in units other than tanks,
containers, or units subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725.
b) Condition of units. The following must be true of containers and aboveground tanks
used to store used oil at a generator facility:
1) The containers must be in good condition (no severe rusting, apparent
structural defects or deterioration); and
2) The containers may not be leaking (no visible leaks).
c) Labels.
1) Containers and aboveground tanks used to store used oil at generator
facilities must be labeled or marked clearly with the words “Used Oil.”
2) Fill pipes used to transfer used oil into underground storage tanks at
1009
generator facilities must be labeled or marked clearly with the words “Used
Oil.”
d) Response to releases. Upon detection of a release of used oil to the environment that
is not subject to the federal requirements of subpart F of 40 CFR 280
S
, Subpart F
S
and
which has occurred after October 4, 1996, a generator must perform the following
cleanup steps:
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR 279.22(d) applies to releases that
“occurred after the effective date of the authorized used oil program for the State
in which the release is located.” The Board adopted the used oil standards in
docket R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20954, effective November 22, 1993. USEPA
approved the Illinois standards at 61 Fed. Reg. 40521 (Aug. 5, 1996), effective
October 4, 1996. The Board has interpreted “the effective date of the authorized
used oil program” to mean the October 4, 1996 date of federal authorization of the
Illinois program, and we substituted that date for the federal effective date
language. Had USEPA written something like “the effective date of the used oil
program in the authorized State in which the release is located,” the Board would
have used the November 22, 1993 effective date of the Illinois used oil standards.
1) Stop the release;
2) Contain the released used oil;
3) Properly clean up and manage the released used oil and other materials; and
4) If necessary, repair or replace any leaking used oil storage containers or tanks
prior to returning them to service.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART E: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL TRANSPORTER AND
TRANSFER FACILITIES
Section 739.140 Applicability
a) General. Except as provided in subsections (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this Section, this
Subpart E applies to all used oil transporters. A used oil transporter is a person that
transports used oil, a person that collects used oil from more than one generator and
transport the collected oil, and an owner or operator of a used oil transfer facility.
1) This Subpart E does not apply to on-site transportation.
2) This Subpart E does not apply to a generator that transports shipments of
used oil totaling 55 gallons or less from the generator to a used oil collection
center as specified in Section 739.124(a).
1010
3) This Subpart E does not apply to a generator that transports shipments of
used oil totaling 55 gallons or less from the generator to a used oil
aggregation point owned or operated by the same generator as specified in
Section 739.124(b).
4) This Subpart E does not apply to transportation of used oil from household
do-it-yourselfers to a regulated used oil generator, collection center,
aggregation point, processor, or burner subject to the requirements of this
Part. Except as provided in subsections (a)(1) through (a)(3) of this Section,
this Subpart E does, however, apply to transportation of collected household
do-it-yourselfer used oil from regulated used oil generators, collection
centers, aggregation points, or other facilities where household do-it-
yourselfer used oil is collected.
BOARD NOTE: A generator that qualifies for an exemption under Section
739.124 may still be subject to the State’s special waste hauling permit
requirements under Part 809.
b) Imports and exports. A transporter that imports used oil from abroad or export used
oil outside of the United States are subject to the requirements of this Subpart E from
the time the used oil enters and until the time it exits the United States.
c) Trucks used to transport hazardous waste. Unless trucks previously used to transport
hazardous waste are emptied as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.107 prior to
transporting used oil, the used oil is considered to have been mixed with the
hazardous waste and must be managed as hazardous waste unless, under the
provisions of Section 739.110(b), the hazardous waste and used oil mixture is
determined not to be hazardous waste.
d) Other applicable provisions. A used oil transporter that conducts the following
activities are also subject to other applicable provisions of this Part as indicated in
subsections (d)(1) through (d)(5) of this Section:
1) A transporter that generates used oil must also comply with Subpart C of this
Part;
2) A transporter that processes or re-refines used oil, except as provided in
Section 739.141, must also comply with Subpart F of this Part;
3) A transporter that burns off-specification used oil for energy recovery must
also comply with Subpart G of this Part;
4) A transporter that directs shipments of off-specification used oil from its
facility to a used oil burner or first claims that used oil that is to be burned for
energy recovery meets the used oil fuel specifications set forth in Section
1011
739.111 must also comply with Subpart H of this Part; and
5) A transporter that disposes of used oil
S
, including the use of used oil as a
dust suppressant,
S
must also comply with Subpart I of this Part.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 739.143 Used Oil Transportation
a) Deliveries. A used oil transporter must deliver all used oil received to one of the
following:
1) Another used oil transporter, provided that the transporter has obtained a
USEPA identification number and an Illinois special waste identification
number;
2) A used oil processing facility that has obtained a USEPA identification
number and an Illinois special waste identification number;
3) An off-specification used oil burner facility that has obtained a USEPA
identification number and an Illinois special waste identification number; or
4) An on-specification used oil burner facility.
b)
S
U.S. DOT
S
USDOT requirements. A used oil transporter must comply with all
applicable USDOT requirements
S
under the U.S. Department of Transportation
S
in
49 CFR 171 through 180. A person transporting used oil that meets the definition of
a hazardous material in 49 CFR 171.8 (Definitions and Abbreviations),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), must comply with all
applicable
S
U.S. Department of Transportation
S
USDOT Hazardous Materials
Regulations in 49 CFR 171
S
through
S
(General Information, Regulations, and
Definitions), 172 (Hazardous Materials Table, Special Provisions, Hazardous
Materials Communications, Emergency Response Information, and Training
Requirements), 173 (Shippers--General Requirements for Shipments and
Packages), 174 (Carriage by Rail), 175 (Carriage by Aircraft), 176 (Carriage by
Vessel), 177 (Carriage by Public Highway), 178 (Specifications for Packagings),
179 (Specifications for Tank Cars), and 180 (Continuing Qualification and
Maintenance of Packagings), incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111(b).
c) Used oil discharges.
1) In the event of a discharge of used oil during transportation, the transporter
must take appropriate immediate action to protect human health and the
environment (e.g., notify local authorities, dike the discharge area).
1012
2) If a discharge of used oil occurs during transportation and an official (State or
local government or a
S
Federal Agency
S
federal agency) acting within the
scope of official responsibilities determines that immediate removal of the
used oil is necessary to protect human health or the environment, that official
may authorize the removal of the used oil by a transporter that does not have
a USEPA identification number and an Illinois special waste identification
number.
3) An air, rail, highway, or water transporter that has discharged used oil must
do the following:
A) Give notice, if required by federal 49 CFR 171.15 (Immediate
Notice of Certain Hazardous Materials Incidents), incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), to the National
Response Center (800-424-8802 or 202-426-2675); and
B) Report in writing as required by federal 49 CFR 171.16 (Detailed
Hazardous Materials Incident Reports), incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b), to the Director, Office of
Hazardous Materials Regulations, Materials Transportation Bureau,
Department of Transportation, Washington, DC 20590.
4) A water transporter that has discharged used oil must give notice as required
by federal 33 CFR 153.203 (Procedure for the Notice of Discharge),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111(b).
5) A transporter must clean up any used oil discharged that occurs during
transportation or take such action as may be required or approved by federal,
state, or local officials so that the used oil discharge no longer presents a
hazard to human health or the environment.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 739.144 Rebuttable Presumption for Used Oil
a) To ensure that used oil is not a hazardous waste under the rebuttable presumption of
Section 739.110(b)(1)(ii), the used oil transporter must determine whether the total
halogen content of used oil being transporter or stored at a transfer facility is above
or below 1,000 ppm.
b) The transporter must make this determination by the following means:
1) Testing the used oil; or
2) Applying knowledge of the halogen content of the used oil in light of the
materials or processes used.
1013
c) If the used oil contains greater than or equal to 1,000 ppm total halogens, it is
presumed to be a hazardous waste because it has been mixed with halogenated
hazardous waste listed in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721. The owner or
operator may rebut the presumption by demonstrating that the used oil does not
contain hazardous waste (for example, by
S
using an analytical method from SW-846,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, to show
S
showing that the
used oil does not contain significant concentrations of halogenated hazardous
constituents listed in Appendix H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721).
1) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to metalworking oils and fluids
containing chlorinated paraffins, if they are processed, through a tolling
arrangement as described in Section 739.124(c), to reclaim metalworking oils
and fluids. The presumption does apply to metalworking oils and fluids if
such oils and fluids are recycled in any other manner, or disposed.
2) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to used oils contaminated with
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) removed from refrigeration units if the CFC are
destined for reclamation. The rebuttable presumption does apply to used oils
contaminated with CFCs that have been mixed with used oil from sources
other than refrigeration units.
d) Record retention. Records of analyses conducted or information used to comply
with subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section must be maintained by the
transporter for at least three years.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 739.145 Used Oil Storage at Transfer Facilities
A used oil transporter is subject to all applicable Spill Prevention, Control and Countermeasures (40
CFR 112) in addition to the requirements of this Subpart E. A used oil transporter is also subject to
the Underground Storage Tank (35 Ill. Adm. Code 731) standards for used oil stored in underground
tanks whether or not the used oil exhibits any characteristics of hazardous waste, in addition to the
requirements of this Subpart.
a) Applicability. This Section applies to used oil transfer facilities. Used oil transfer
facilities are transportation-related facilities including loading docks, parking areas,
storage areas, and other areas where shipments of used oil are held for more than 24
hours during the normal course of transportation and not longer than 35 days. A
transfer facility that store used oil for more than 35 days are subject to regulation
under Subpart F.
b) Storage units. An owner or operator of a used oil transfer facility may not store used
oil in units other than tanks, containers, or units subject to regulation under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724 or 725.
1014
c) Condition of units. The following must be true of containers and aboveground tanks
used to store used oil at a transfer facility:
1) The containers must be in good condition (no severe rusting, apparent
structural defects or deterioration); and
2) The containers may not be leaking (no visible leaks).
d) Secondary containment for containers. Containers used to store used oil at a transfer
facility must be equipped with a secondary containment system.
1) The secondary containment system must consist of the following, at a
minimum:
A) Both of the following:
i) Dikes, berms, or retaining walls; and
ii) A floor. The floor must cover the entire area within the dikes,
berms, or retaining walls; or
B) An equivalent secondary containment system.
2) The entire containment system, including walls and floors, must be
sufficiently impervious to used oil to prevent any used oil released into the
containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil,
groundwater, or surface water.
e) Secondary containment for existing aboveground tanks. Existing aboveground tanks
used to store used oil at a transfer facility must be equipped with a secondary
containment system.
1) The secondary containment system must consist of the following, at a
minimum:
A) Both of the following:
i) Dikes, berms, or retaining walls; and
ii) A floor. The floor must cover the entire area within the dike,
berm, or retaining wall except areas where existing portions
of the tank meet the ground; or
B) An equivalent secondary containment system.
1015
2) The entire containment system, including walls and floors, must be
sufficiently impervious to used oil to prevent any used oil released into the
containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil,
groundwater, or surface water.
f) Secondary containment for new aboveground tanks. New aboveground tanks used to
store used oil at a transfer facility must be equipped with a secondary containment
system.
1) The secondary containment system must consist of the following, at a
minimum:
A) Both of the following:
i) Dikes, berms, or retaining walls; and
ii) A floor. The floor must cover the entire area within the dike,
berm, or retaining wall; or
B) An equivalent secondary containment system.
2) The entire containment system, including walls and floors, must be
sufficiently impervious to used oil to prevent any used oil released into the
containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil,
groundwater, or surface water.
g) Labels.
1) Containers and aboveground tanks used to store used oil at transfer facilities
must be labeled or marked clearly with the words “Used Oil.”
2) Fill pipes used to transfer used oil into underground storage tanks at transfer
facilities must be labeled or marked clearly with the words “Used Oil.”
h) Response to releases. Upon detection of a release of used oil to the environment that
is not subject to the federal requirements of subpart F of 40 CFR 280
S
, Subpart F
S
and
which has occurred after October 4, 1996, an owner or operator of a transfer facility
must perform the following cleanup steps:
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR 279.45(h) applies to releases that
“occurred after the effective date of the authorized used oil program for the State in
which the release is located.” The Board adopted the used oil standards in docket
R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20954, effective November 22, 1993. USEPA approved the
Illinois standards at 61 Fed. Reg. 40521 (Aug. 5, 1996), effective October 4,
1996. The Board has interpreted “the effective date of the authorized used oil
program” to mean the October 4, 1996 date of federal authorization of the Illinois
1016
program, and we substituted that date for the federal effective date language. Had
USEPA written something like “the effective date of the used oil program in the
authorized State in which the release is located,” the Board would have used the
November 22, 1993 effective date of the Illinois used oil standards.
1) Stop the release;
2) Contain the released used oil;
3) Properly clean up and manage the released used oil and other materials; and
4) If necessary, repair or replace any leaking used oil storage containers or tanks
prior to returning them to service.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART F: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL PROCESSORS
Section 739.150 Applicability
a) The requirements of this Subpart F apply to owners and operators of facilities that
process used oil. Processing means chemical or physical operations designed to
produce from used oil, or to make used oil more amenable for production of, fuel
oils, lubricants, or other used oil-derived products. Processing includes, but is not
limited to the following: blending used oil with virgin petroleum products, blending
used oils to meet the fuel specification, filtration, simple distillation, chemical or
physical separation, and re-refining. The requirements of this Subpart F do not apply
to the following:
1) A transporter that conducts incidental processing operations that occur during
the normal course of transportation, as provided in Section 739.141; or
2) A burner that conducts incidental processing operations that occur during the
normal course of used oil management prior to burning, as provided in
Section 739.161(b).
b) Other applicable provisions. A used oil processor that conducts the following
activities are also subject to the requirements of other applicable provisions of this
Part, as indicated in subsections (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this Section.
1) A processor that generates used oil must also comply with Subpart C of this
Part;
2) A processor that transports used oil must also comply with Subpart E of this
Part;
1017
3) Except as provided in subsections (b)(3)(A) and (b)(3)(B) of this Section, a
processor that burns off-specification used oil for energy recovery must also
comply with Subpart G of this Part. Processors burning used oil for energy
recovery under the following conditions are not subject to Subpart G of this
Part:
A) The used oil is burned in an on-site space heater that meets the
requirements of Section 739.123; or
B) The used oil is burned for purposes of processing used oil, which is
considered burning incidentally to used oil processing;
4) A processor that directs shipments of off-specification used oil from their
facility to a used oil burner or first claim that used oil that is to be burned for
energy recovery meets the used oil fuel specifications set forth in Section
739.111 must also comply with Subpart H of this Part; and
5) A
S
processors
S
processor that disposes of used oil
S
, including the use of used
oil as a dust suppressant,
S
also must comply with Subpart I of this Part.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 739.153 Rebuttable Presumption for Used Oil
a) To ensure that used oil is not a hazardous waste under the rebuttable presumption of
Section 739.110(b)(1)(ii), the owner or operator of a used oil processing facility must
determine whether the total halogen content of used oil managed at the facility is
above or below 1,000 ppm.
b) The owner or operator must make this determination by the following means:
1) Testing the used oil; or
2) Applying knowledge of the halogen content of the used oil in light of the
materials or processes used.
c) If the used oil contains greater than or equal to 1,000 ppm total halogens, it is
presumed to be a hazardous waste because it has been mixed with halogenated
hazardous waste listed in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721. The owner or
operator may rebut the presumption by demonstrating that the used oil does not
contain hazardous waste (for example, by
S
using an analytical method from SW-846,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, to show
S
showing that the
used oil does not contain significant concentrations of halogenated hazardous
constituents listed in Appendix H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721).
1) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to metalworking oils and fluids
1018
containing chlorinated paraffins, if they are processed, through a tolling
arrangement as described in Section 739.124(c), to reclaim metalworking oils
and fluids. The presumption does apply to metalworking oils and fluids if
such oils and fluids are recycled in any other manner, or disposed.
2) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to used oils contaminated with
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) removed from refrigeration units if the CFC are
destined for reclamation. The rebuttable presumption does apply to used oils
contaminated with CFCs that have been mixed with used oil from sources
other than refrigeration units.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 739.154 Used Oil Management
A used oil processor is subject to all applicable Spill Prevention, Control and Countermeasures (40
CFR 112) in addition to the requirements of this Subpart F. A used oil processor or re-refiner is also
subject to the Underground Storage Tank (35 Ill. Adm. Code 731) standards for used oil stored in
underground tanks whether or not the used oil exhibits any characteristics of hazardous waste, in
addition to the requirements of this Subpart F.
a) Management units. A used oil processor may not store used oil in units other than
tanks, containers, or units subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725.
b) Condition of units. The following must be true of containers and aboveground tanks
used to store or process used oil at a processing facility:
1) The containers must be in good condition (no severe rusting, apparent
structural defects or deterioration); and
2) The containers may not be leaking (no visible leaks).
c) Secondary containment for containers. Containers used to store or process used oil
at processing and re-refining facilities must be equipped with a secondary
containment system.
1) The secondary containment system must consist of the following, at a
minimum:
A) Both of the following:
i) Dikes, berms, or retaining walls; and
ii) A floor. The floor must cover the entire area within the dike,
berm, or retaining wall; or
1019
B) An equivalent secondary containment system.
2) The entire containment system, including walls and floor, must be
sufficiently impervious to used oil to prevent any used oil released into the
containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil,
groundwater, or surface water.
d) Secondary containment for existing aboveground tanks. Existing aboveground tanks
used to store or process used oil at processing and re-refining facilities must be
equipped with a secondary containment system.
1) The secondary containment system must consist of the following, at a
minimum:
A) Both of the following:
i) Dikes, berms, or retaining walls; and
ii) A floor. The floor must cover the entire area within the dike,
berm, or retaining wall except areas where existing portions
of the tank meet the ground; or
B) An equivalent secondary containment system.
2) The entire containment system, including walls and floor, must be
sufficiently impervious to used oil to prevent any used oil released into the
containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil,
groundwater, or surface water.
e) Secondary containment for new aboveground tanks. New aboveground tanks used to
store or process used oil at processing and re-refining facilities must be equipped
with a secondary containment system.
1) The secondary containment system must consist of the following, at a
minimum:
A) Both of the following:
i) Dikes, berms, or retaining walls; and
ii) A floor. The floor must cover the entire area within the dike,
berm, or retaining wall; or
B) An equivalent secondary containment system.
2) The entire containment system, including walls and floor, must be
1020
sufficiently impervious to used oil to prevent any used oil released into the
containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil,
groundwater, or surface water.
f) Labels.
1) Containers and aboveground tanks used to store used oil at processing
facilities must be labeled or marked clearly with the words “Used Oil.”
2) Fill pipes used to transfer used oil into underground storage tanks at
processing facilities must be labeled or marked clearly with the words “Used
Oil.”
g) Response to releases. Upon detection of a release of used oil to the environment that
is not subject to the federal requirements of subpart F of 40 CFR 280
S
, Subpart F
S
and
which has occurred after October 4, 1996, a processor must perform the following
cleanup steps:
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR 279.54(g) applies to releases that
“occurred after the effective date of the authorized used oil program for the State in
which the release is located.” The Board adopted the used oil standards in docket
R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20954, effective November 22, 1993. USEPA approved the
Illinois standards at 61 Fed. Reg. 40521 (Aug. 5, 1996), effective October 4,
1996. The Board has interpreted “the effective date of the authorized used oil
program” to mean the October 4, 1996 date of federal authorization of the Illinois
program, and we substituted that date for the federal effective date language. Had
USEPA written something like “the effective date of the used oil program in the
authorized State in which the release is located,” the Board would have used the
November 22, 1993 effective date of the Illinois used oil standards.
1) Stop the release;
2) Contain the released used oil;
3) Properly clean up and manage the released used oil and other materials; and
4) If necessary, repair or replace any leaking used oil storage containers or tanks
prior to returning them to service.
h) Closure.
1) Aboveground tanks. An owner or operator that stores or processes used oil
in aboveground tanks must comply with the following requirements:
A) At closure of a tank system, the owner or operator must remove or
decontaminate used oil residues in tanks, contaminated containment
1021
system components, contaminated soils, and structures and
equipment contaminated with used oil, and manage them as
hazardous waste, unless the materials are not hazardous waste under
this chapter.
B) If the owner or operator demonstrates that not all contaminated soils
can be practicably removed or decontaminated as required in
subsection (h)(1)(A) of this Section, then the owner or operator must
close the tank system and perform post-closure care in accordance
with the closure and post-closure care requirements that apply to
hazardous waste landfills (35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.410).
2) Containers. An owner or operator that stores used oil in containers must
comply with the following requirements:
A) At closure, containers holding used oils or residues of used oil must
be removed from the site;
B) The owner or operator must remove or decontaminate used oil
residues, contaminated containment system components,
contaminated soils, and structures and equipment contaminated with
used oil, and manage them as hazardous waste, unless the materials
are not hazardous waste 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART G: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL BURNERS THAT BURN OFF-
SPECIFICATION USED OIL FOR ENERGY RECOVERY
Section 739.160 Applicability
a) General. The requirements of this Subpart G apply to used oil burners except as
specified in subsections (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this Section. A used oil burner is a
facility where used oil not meeting the specification requirements in Section 739.111
is burned for energy recovery in devices identified in Section 739.161(a). Facilities
burning used oil for energy recovery under the following conditions are not subject
to this Subpart G:
1) The used oil is burned by the generator in an on-site space heater under the
provisions of Section 739.123; or
2) The used oil is burned by a processor for purposes of processing used oil,
which is considered burning incidentally to used oil processing.
b) Other applicable provisions. A used oil burner that conducts the following activities
is also subject to the requirements of other applicable provisions of this Part as
1022
indicated below.
1) A burner that generates used oil must also comply with Subpart C of this
Part;
2) A burner that transports used oil must also comply with Subpart E of this
Part;
3) Except as provided in Section 739.161(b), a burner that processes or re-
refines used oil must also comply with Subpart F of this Part;
4) A burner that directs shipments of off-specification used oil from their
facility to a used oil burner or first claim that used oil that is to be burned for
energy recovery meets the used oil fuel specifications set forth in Section
739.111 must also comply with Subpart H of this Part; and
5) A burner that disposes of used oil
S
, including the use of used oil as a dust
suppressant,
S
must comply with Subpart I of this Part.
c) Specification fuel. This Subpart G does not apply to a person burning used oil that
meets the used oil fuel specification of Section 739.111, provided that the burner
complies with the requirements of Subpart H of this Part.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 739.163 Rebuttable Presumption for Used Oil
a) To ensure that used oil managed at a used oil burner facility is not hazardous waste
under the rebuttable presumption of Section 739.110(b)(1)(ii), a used oil burner must
determine whether the total halogen content of used oil managed at the facility is
above or below 1,000 ppm.
b) The used oil burner must determine if the used oil contains above or below 1,000
ppm total halogens by the following means:
1) Testing the used oil;
2) Applying knowledge of the halogen content of the used oil in light of the
materials or processes used; or
3) If the used oil has been received from a processor subject to regulation under
Subpart F of this Part, using information provided by the processor.
c) If the used oil contains greater than or equal to 1,000 ppm total halogens, it is
presumed to be a hazardous waste because it has been mixed with halogenated
hazardous waste listed in Subpart D of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721. The owner or
1023
operator may rebut the presumption by demonstrating that the used oil does not
contain hazardous waste (for example, by
S
using an analytical method from SW-846,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, to show
S
showing that the
used oil does not contain significant concentrations of halogenated hazardous
constituents listed in Appendix H of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721).
1) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to metalworking oils or fluids
containing chlorinated paraffins, if they are processed, through a tolling
arrangement as described in Section 739.124(c), to reclaim metalworking oils
or fluids. The presumption does apply to metalworking oils or fluids if such
oils and fluids are recycled in any other manner, or disposed.
2) The rebuttable presumption does not apply to used oils contaminated with
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) removed from refrigeration units where the
CFCs are destined for reclamation. The rebuttable presumption does apply to
used oils contaminated with CFCs that have been mixed with used oil from
sources other than refrigeration units.
d) Record retention. Records of analyses conducted or information used to comply
with subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section must be maintained by the burner
for at least three years.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 739.164 Used Oil Storage
A used oil burner is subject to all applicable Spill Prevention, Control and Countermeasures (federal
40 CFR 112) in addition to the requirements of this Subpart G. A used oil burner is also subject to
the Underground Storage Tank (35 Ill. Adm. Code 731) standards for used oil stored in underground
tanks whether or not the used oil exhibits any characteristics of hazardous waste, in addition to the
requirements of this Subpart G.
a) Storage units. A used oil burner may not store used oil in units other than tanks,
containers, or units subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725.
b) Condition of units. The following must be true of containers and aboveground tanks
used to store used oil at a burner facility:
1) The containers must be in good condition (no severe rusting, apparent
structural defects or deterioration); and
2) The containers may not be leaking (no visible leaks).
c) Secondary containment for containers. Containers used to store used oil at a burner
facility must be equipped with a secondary containment system.
1024
1) The secondary containment system must consist of the following, at a
minimum:
A) Dikes, berms, or retaining walls; and
B) A floor. The floor must cover the entire area within the dike, berm,
or retaining wall.
2) The entire containment system, including walls and floor, must be
sufficiently impervious to used oil to prevent any used oil released into the
containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil,
groundwater, or surface water.
d) Secondary containment for existing aboveground tanks. Existing aboveground tanks
used to store used oil at burner facilities must be equipped with a secondary
containment system.
1) The secondary containment system must consist of the following, at a
minimum:
A) Both of the following:
i) Dikes, berms, or retaining walls; and
ii) A floor. The floor must cover the entire area within the dike,
berm, or retaining wall except areas where existing portions
of the tank meet the ground; or
B) An equivalent secondary containment system.
2) The entire containment system, including walls and floor, must be
sufficiently impervious to used oil to prevent any used oil released into the
containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil,
groundwater, or surface water.
e) Secondary containment for existing aboveground tanks. A new aboveground tank
used to store used oil at burner facilities must be equipped with a secondary
containment system.
1) The secondary containment system must consist of the following, at a
minimum:
A) Both of the following:
i) Dikes, berms, or retaining walls; and
1025
ii) A floor. The floor must cover the entire area within the dike,
berm, or retaining wall; or
B) An equivalent secondary containment system.
2) The entire containment system, including walls and floor, must be
sufficiently impervious to used oil to prevent any used oil released into the
containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil,
groundwater, or surface water.
f) Labels.
1) A container or aboveground tank used to store used oil at a burner facility
must be labeled or marked clearly with the words “Used Oil.”
2) Fill pipes used to transfer used oil into underground storage tanks at burner
facilities must be labeled or marked clearly with the words “Used Oil.”
g) Response to releases. Upon detection of a release of used oil to the environment that
is not subject to the federal requirements of subpart F of 40 CFR 280
S
, Subpart F
S
and
which has occurred after October 4, 1996, a burner must perform the following
cleanup steps:
BOARD NOTE: Corresponding 40 CFR 279.64(g) applies to releases that
“occurred after the effective date of the authorized used oil program for the State in
which the release is located.” The Board adopted the used oil standards in docket
R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20954, effective November 22, 1993. USEPA approved the
Illinois standards at 61 Fed. Reg. 40521 (Aug. 5, 1996), effective October 4,
1996. The Board has interpreted “the effective date of the authorized used oil
program” to mean the October 4, 1996 date of federal authorization of the Illinois
program, and we substituted that date for the federal effective date language. Had
USEPA written something like “the effective date of the used oil program in the
authorized State in which the release is located,” the Board would have used the
November 22, 1993 effective date of the Illinois used oil standards.
1) Stop the release;
2) Contain the released used oil;
3) Properly clean up and manage the released used oil and other materials; and
4) If necessary, repair or replace any leaking used oil storage containers or tanks
prior to returning them to service.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
1026
SUBPART H: STANDARDS FOR USED OIL FUEL MARKETERS
Section 739.175 Notices
a) Certification. Before a used oil generator, transporter, or processor directs the first
shipment of off-specification used oil fuel to a burner, it must obtain a one-time
written and signed notice from the burner certifying the following:
1) That the burner has notified USEPA stating the location and general
description of used oil management activities; and
2) That the burner will burn the off-specification used oil only in an industrial
furnace or boiler identified in Section 739.161(a).
b) Certification retention. The certification described in subsection (a) of this Section
must be maintained for three years from the date the last shipment of off-
specification used oil is shipped to the burner.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART I:
S
STANDARDS FOR USE AS A DUST SUPPRESSANT
S
DISPOSAL OF USED OIL
Section 739.180 Applicability
The requirements of this Subpart I apply to all used oils that cannot be recycled and are therefore
being disposed of.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 739.181 Disposal
a) Disposal of hazardous used oils. A used oil that is identified as a hazardous waste
and which cannot be recycled in accordance with this Part must be managed in
accordance with the hazardous waste management requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 703, 720 through 726, and 728.
b) Disposal of nonhazardous used oils. A used oil that is not a hazardous waste and
cannot be recycled under this Part must be disposed of in accordance with the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 807 through 815 and 40 CFR 257 and 258.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
1027
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER i: SOLID WASTE AND SPECIAL WASTE HAULING
PART 810
SOLID WASTE DISPOSAL: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
810.101 Scope and Applicability
810.102 Severability
810.103 Definitions
810.104 Incorporations by Reference
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 5, 21, 21.1, 22, 22.17, and 28.1 and authorized by
Section 27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/5, 21, 21.1, 22, 22.17, 28.1 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R88-7 at 14 Ill. Reg. 15838, effective September 18, 1990; amended in
R93-10 at 18 Ill. Reg. 1268, effective January 13, 1994; amended in R90-26 at 18 Ill. Reg.
12457, effective August 1, 1994; amended in R95-9 at 19 Ill. Reg. 14427, effective September
29, 1995; amended in R96-1 at 20 Ill. Reg. 11985, effective August 15, 1996; amended in R97-
20 at 21 Ill. Reg. 15825, effective November 25, 1997; amended in R04-5/R04-15 at 28 Ill. Reg.
9090, effective June 18, 2004; amended in R05-1 at 29 Ill. Reg. 5028, effective March 22, 2005;
amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________.
Section 810.104 Incorporations by Reference
a) The Board incorporates the following material by reference:
1) Code of Federal Regulations:
40 CFR 141.40
S
(1996)
S
(2005) (Monitoring Requirements for
Unregulated Contaminants).
Appendix II to 40 CFR 258
S
.Appendix II (1996)
S
(2005), as
corrected at 70 Fed. Reg. 44150 (August 1, 2005) (List of
Hazardous and Organic Constituents).
2) American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, 1211 Avenue of the
Americas, New York NY 10036:
Auditing Standards--Current Text, August 1, 1990 Edition.
3) ASTM. American Society for Testing and Materials, 1976 Race Street,
Philadelphia PA 19103 215-299-5585:
Method D2234-76, “Test Method for Collection of Gross Samples
1028
of Coal,” approved 1976.
Method D3987-85, “Standard Test Method for Shake Extraction of
Solid Waste with Water,” approved 1985.
4) GASB. Government Accounting Standards Board, 401 Merritt 7, P.O.
Box 5116, Norwalk CT 06856-5116:
Statement 18.
5) U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Publication Department, 2803 52nd Ave.,
Hyattville, Maryland 20781, 301-394-0081:
Engineering Manual 1110-2-1906 Appendix VII, Falling-Head
Permeability Cylinder (1986).
6) U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, D.C. 20402, Ph: 202-783-
3238:
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
S
methods,
S
Methods,”
S
EPA Publication
S
USEPA publication number
EPA-530/SW-846 (Third Edition, 1986; Revision 6, January
2005), as amended by Update I
S
(November, 1990):
S
(July 1992), II
(September 1994), IIA (August 1993), IIB (January 1995), III
(December 1996), IIIA (April 1998), and IIIB (November 2004)
(document number 955-001-00000-1).
b) This incorporation includes no later amendments or editions.
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER i: SOLID WASTE AND SPECIAL WASTE HAULING
PART 811
STANDARDS FOR NEW SOLID WASTE LANDFILLS
SUBPART A: GENERAL STANDARDS FOR ALL LANDFILLS
Section
811.101 Scope and Applicability
811.102 Location Standards
811.103 Surface Water Drainage
811.104 Survey Controls
811.105 Compaction
1029
811.106 Daily Cover
811.107 Operating Standards
811.108 Salvaging
811.109 Boundary Control
811.110 Closure and Written Closure Plan
811.111 Postclosure Maintenance
811.112 Recordkeeping Requirements for MSWLF Units
SUBPART B: INERT WASTE LANDFILLS
Section
811.201 Scope and Applicability
811.202 Determination of Contaminated Leachate
811.203 Design Period
811.204 Final Cover
811.205 Final Slope and Stabilization
811.206 Leachate Sampling
811.207 Load Checking
SUBPART C: PUTRESCIBLE AND CHEMICAL WASTE LANDFILLS
Section
811.301 Scope and Applicability
811.302 Facility Location
811.303 Design Period
811.304 Foundation and Mass Stability Analysis
811.305 Foundation Construction
811.306 Liner Systems
811.307 Leachate Drainage System
811.308 Leachate Collection System
811.309 Leachate Treatment and Disposal System
811.310 Landfill Gas Monitoring
811.311 Landfill Gas Management System
811.312 Landfill Gas Processing and Disposal System
811.313 Intermediate Cover
811.314 Final Cover System
811.315 Hydrogeological Site Investigations
811.316 Plugging and Sealing of Drill Holes
811.317 Groundwater Impact Assessment
811.318 Design, Construction, and Operation of Groundwater Monitoring Systems
811.319 Groundwater Monitoring Programs
811.320 Groundwater Quality Standards
811.321 Waste Placement
811.322 Final Slope and Stabilization
811.323 Load Checking Program
811.324 Corrective Action Measures for MSWLF Units
811.325 Selection of remedy for MSWLF Units
811.326 Implementation of the corrective action program at MSWLF Units
1030
SUBPART D: MANAGEMENT OF SPECIAL WASTES AT LANDFILLS
Section
811.401 Scope and Applicability
811.402 Notice to Generators and Transporters
811.403 Special Waste Manifests
811.404 Identification Record
811.405 Recordkeeping Requirements
811.406 Procedures for Excluding Regulated Hazardous Wastes
SUBPART E: CONSTRUCTION QUALITY ASSURANCE PROGRAMS
Section
811.501 Scope and Applicability
811.502 Duties and Qualifications of Key Personnel
811.503 Inspection Activities
811.504 Sampling Requirements
811.505 Documentation
811.506 Foundations and Subbases
811.507 Compacted Earth Liners
811.508 Geomembranes
811.509 Leachate Collection Systems
SUBPART G: FINANCIAL ASSURANCE
Section
811.700 Scope, Applicability and Definitions
811.701 Upgrading Financial Assurance
811.702 Release of Financial Institution
811.703 Application of Proceeds and Appeals
811.704 Closure and Postclosure Care Cost Estimates
811.705 Revision of Cost Estimate
811.706 Mechanisms for Financial Assurance
811.707 Use of Multiple Financial Mechanisms
811.708 Use of a Financial Mechanism for Multiple Sites
811.709 Trust Fund for Unrelated Sites
811.710 Trust Fund
811.711 Surety Bond Guaranteeing Payment
811.712 Surety Bond Guaranteeing Performance
811.713 Letter of Credit
811.714 Closure Insurance
811.715 Self-Insurance for Non-commercial Sites
811.716 Local Government Financial Test
811.717 Local Government Guarantee
811.718 Discounting
811.719 Corporate Financial Test
811.720 Corporate Guarantee
1031
811.Appendix A Financial Assurance Forms
Illustration A Trust Agreement
Illustration B Certificate of Acknowledgment
Illustration C Forfeiture Bond
Illustration D Performance Bond
Illustration E Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit
Illustration F Certificate of Insurance for Closure and/or Postclosure Care
Illustration G Operator’s Bond Without Surety
Illustration H Operator’s Bond With Parent Surety
Illustration I Letter from Chief Financial Officer
811.Appendix B Section-by-Section correlation between the Standards of the RCRA
Subtitle D MSWLF regulations and the Board’s nonhazardous waste
landfill regulations.
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 5, 21, 21.1, 22, 22.17 and 28.1 and authorized by Section
27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/5, 21, 21.1, 22, 22.17, 28.1, and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R88-7 at 14 Ill. Reg. 15861, effective September 18, 1990; amended in
R92-19 at 17 Ill. Reg. 12413, effective July 19, 1993; amended in R93-10 at 18 Ill. Reg. 1308,
effective January 13, 1994; expedited correction at 18 Ill. Reg. 7504, effective July 19, 1993;
amended in R90-26 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12481, effective August 1, 1994; amended in R95-13 at 19 Ill.
Reg. 12257, effective August 15, 1995; amended in R96-1 at 20 Ill. Reg. 12000, effective
August 15, 1996; amended in R97-20 at 21 Ill. Reg.15831, effective November 25, 1997;
amended in R98-9 at 22 Ill. Reg.11491, effective June 23, 1998; amended in R99-1 at 23 Ill.
Reg. 2794, effective February 17, 1999; amended in R98-29 at 23 Ill. Reg.6880, effective July 1,
1999; amended in R04-5/R04-15 at 28 Ill. Reg. 9107, effective June 18, 2004; amended in R05-1
at 29 Ill. Reg. 5044, effective March 22, 2005; amended in R06-5/R06-6/R06-7 at 30 Ill. Reg.
________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART A:
GENERAL STANDARDS FOR ALL LANDFILLS
Section 811.107 Operating Standards
a) Phasing of Operations.
1) Waste must be placed in a manner and at such a rate that mass stability is
provided during all phases of operation. Mass stability means that the
mass of waste deposited will not undergo settling or slope failure that
interrupts operations at the facility or causes damage to any of the various
landfill operations or structures, such as the liner, leachate or drainage
collection system, gas collection system, or monitoring system.
2) The phasing of operations at the facility must be designed in such a way as
to allow the sequential construction, filling, and closure of discrete units
or parts of units.
1032
3) The operator must design and sequence the waste placement operation in
each discrete unit or parts of units, in conjunction with the overall
operations of the facility, so as to shorten the operational phase and allow
wastes to be built up to the planned final grade.
b) Size and Slope of Working Face.
1) The working face of the unit must be no larger than is necessary, based on
the terrain and equipment used in waste placement, to conduct operations
in a safe and efficient manner.
2) The slopes of the working face area must be no steeper than two to one
(horizontal to vertical) unless the waste is stable at steeper slopes.
c) Equipment.
Equipment must be maintained and available for use at the facility during all
hours of operation, so as to achieve and maintain compliance with the
requirements of this Part.
d) Utilities.
All utilities, including but no limited to heat, lights, power and communications
equipment, necessary for safe operation in compliance with the requirements of
this Part must be available at the facility at all times.
e) Maintenance.
The operator must maintain and operate all systems and related appurtenances and
structures in a manner that facilitates proper operations in compliance with this
Part.
f) Open Burning.
Open burning is prohibited, except in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 200
through 245.
g) Dust Control.
The operator must implement methods for controlling dust, so as to prevent wind
dispersal of particulate matter.
h) Noise Control.
The facility must be designed, constructed, and maintained to minimize the level
1033
of equipment noise audible outside the facility. The facility must not cause or
contribute to a violation of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 900 through 905 or of Section 24 of
the Act [415 ILCS 5/24].
i) Vector Control.
The operator must implement measures to control the population of disease and
nuisance vectors.
j) Fire Protection.
The operator must institute fire protection measures including, but not limited to,
maintaining a supply of water onsite and radio or telephone access to the nearest
fire department.
k) Litter Control.
1) The operator must patrol the facility daily to check for litter accumulation.
All litter must be collected and placed in the fill or in a secure, covered
container for later disposal.
2) The facility must not accept solid waste from vehicles that do not utilize
devices such as covers or tarpaulins to control litter, unless the nature of
the solid waste load is such that it cannot cause any litter during its
transportation to the facility.
l) Mud Tracking. The facility must implement methods, such as use of wheel
washing units, to prevent tracking of mud by hauling vehicles onto public
roadways.
m) Liquids Restrictions for MSWLF Units.
1) Bulk or noncontainerized liquid waste may not be placed in MSWLF
units, unless one of the following conditions is true:
A) The waste is household waste other than septic waste;
B) The waste is leachate or gas condensate derived from the MSWLF
unit and the MSWLF unit, whether it is a new or existing MSWLF
unit or lateral expansion, is designed with a composite liner and
leachate collection system that complies with the requirements of
Sections 811.306 through 811.309; or
C) The Agency has issued an RD&D permit pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 813.112(a)(2) that allows the placement of noncontainerized
liquids in the landfill, and that permit is in effect.
1034
2) Containers holding liquid waste may not be placed in an MSWLF unit,
unless one of the following conditions is true:
A) The container is a small container similar in size to that normally
found in household waste;
B) The container is designed to hold liquids for use other than
storage; or
C) The waste is household waste.
3) For purposes of this Section, the following definitions apply:
A) “Liquid waste” means any waste material that is determined to
contain “free liquids,” as defined by Method
S
9095
S
9095B (Paint
Filter Liquids Test) (Revision 2, November 2004), as described in
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Wastes, Physical/Chemical
Methods,”
S
(USEPA Pub. No.
S
USEPA publication number EPA-
530/SW-846
S
)
S
, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
810.104.
B) “Gas condensate” means the liquid generated as a result of gas
recovery processes at the MSWLF unit.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (m)(1) through (m)(3) are derived from 40 CFR
258.28
S
(2004)
S
(2005). Subsection (m)(1)(C) of this Section relating to RD&D
permits is derived from 40 CFR 258.4(a)(2)
S
(2004)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
SUBPART G: FINANCIAL ASSURANCE
Section 811.710 Trust Fund
a) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this Subpart G by
establishing a trust fund
S
which
S
that conforms to the requirements of this Section
and submitting an original signed duplicate of the trust agreement to the Agency.
b) The trustee
S
shall
S
must be an entity
S
which
S
that has the authority to act as a trustee
and of whom either of the following is true:
1)
S
Whose
S
It is an entity whose trust operations are examined by the Illinois
Commissioner of Banks and Trust Companies pursuant to the Illinois
Banking Act
S
(Ill. Rev. Stat. 1991, ch. 17, pars. 301 et seq.
S
[205 ILCS 5
S
/1
et seq.
S
]
S
)
S
; or
1035
2)
S
Who
S
It is an entity that complies with the Corporate Fiduciary Act
S
(Ill.
Rev. Stat. 1991, ch. 17, pars. 1551-1 et seq.
S
[205 ILCS 620
S
/1-1 et seq.
S
]
S
)
S
.
c) The trust agreement must be on the forms specified in Appendix A, Illustration A
of this Part, and the trust agreement must be accompanied by a formal
certification of acknowledgement, on the form specified in Appendix A,
Illustration B of this Part.
d) Payments into the trust
S
:
S
.
1) For closure and post-closure care
S
:
S
.
A) The owner or operator
S
shall
S
must make a payment into the trust
fund each year during the pay-in period.
B) The pay-in period is the number of years remaining until the
assumed closure date.
C) Annual payments are determined by the following formula:
S
Annual payment = (CE-CV)/Y
Annual payment =
Y
CV
CE
−
S
where
S
Where the variables are defined as follows:
CE = Current cost estimate
CV = Current value of the trust fund
Y = Number of years remaining in the pay in
period.
D) The owner or operator
S
shall
S
must make the first annual payment
prior to the initial receipt of waste for disposal. The owner or
operator
S
shall
S
must also, prior to such initial receipt of waste,
submit to the Agency a receipt from the trustee for the first annual
payment.
E) Subsequent annual payments must be made no later than 30 days
after each anniversary of the first payment.
F) The owner or operator may accelerate payments into the trust fund,
1036
or may deposit the full amount of the current cost estimate at the
time the fund is established.
G) An owner or operator required to provide additional financial
assurance for an increase in the cost estimate because of an
amendment to this Subchapter i may provide such additional
financial assurance pursuant to this subsection (d)(1)(G). The
owner or operator may provide the increase by contributing to a
new or existing trust fund pursuant to this Section. Subsection
(d)(2) of this Section notwithstanding, the pay-in period for such
additional financial assurance
S
shall
S
must be not less than three
years.
2) For corrective action at MSWLF units
S
:
S
.
A) The owner or operator
S
shall
S
must make payments into the trust
fund annually over one-half of the estimated length of the
corrective action program in the case of corrective action for
known releases. This period is referred to as the pay-in period.
B) The owner or operator
S
shall
S
must make the first payment into the
trust fund equal to at least one-half of the current cost estimate for
corrective action divided by the number of years in the corrective
action pay-in period, as defined in subsection (d)(2)(A) of this
S
section
S
Section. The amount of subsequent payments must be
determined by the following formula:
S
Next payment = (RB-CV)/Y
Next payment =
Y
CV
RB
−
S
where
S
Where the variables are defined as follows:
RB = Most recent estimate of the required trust fund
balance for corrective action (i.e., the total costs
that will be incurred during the second half of the
corrective action period)
S
;
S
CV = Current value of the trust fund
S
; and
S
Y = Number of years remaining in the pay-in
period.
C) The owner or operator
S
shall
S
must make the initial payment into the
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trust fund no later than 120 days after the remedy has been selected
in accordance with the requirements of Section 811.325.
S
Board Note. Changes to subsection
S
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (d) of this
Section
S
are
S
is partly derived from 40 CFR 258.74 (a)(2), (a)(4), and (a)(5)
S
(1992)
S
(2005).
e) The trustee
S
shall
S
must evaluate the trust fund annually, as of the day the trust was
created or on such earlier date as may be provided in the agreement. The trustee
S
shall
S
must notify the owner or operator and the Agency of the value within 30
days after the evaluation date.
f) If the owner or operator of a MSWLF unit establishes a trust fund after having
used one or more alternative mechanisms specified in this Subpart G, the initial
payment into the trust fund must be at least the amount that the fund would
contain if the trust fund were established initially and annual payments made
according to the specifications of this Section.
S
Board Note.
S
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (f) of this Section is derived from 40
CFR 258.74 (a)(6)
S
(1992)
S
(2005).
g) Release of excess funds
S
:
S
.
1) If the value of the financial assurance is greater than the total amount of
the current cost estimate, the owner or operator may submit a written
request to the Agency for a release of the amount in excess of the current
cost estimate.
2) Within 60 days after receiving a request from the owner or operator for a
release of funds, the Agency
S
shall
S
must instruct the trustee to the owner or
operator to release such funds as the Agency specifies in writing to be in
excess of the current cost estimate.
h) Reimbursement for closure, postclosure care, and corrective action expenses
S
:
S
.
1) After initiating closure or corrective action, an owner or operator, or any
other person authorized to perform closure,
S
or
S
postclosure care, or
corrective action, may request reimbursement for closure,
S
or
S
postclosure
care, or corrective action expenditures, by submitting itemized bills to the
Agency.
2) Within 60 days after receiving the itemized bills for closure,
S
or
S
postclosure care,
S
activities
S
or correction action activities, the Agency
S
shall
S
must determine whether the expenditures are in accordance with the
closure,
S
or
S
postclosure care, or corrective action plan. The Agency
S
shall
S
must instruct the trustee to make reimbursement in such amounts as the
1038
Agency specifies in writing as expenditures in accordance with the
closure,
S
or
S
postclosure care, or corrective action plan.
3) If the Agency determines, based on such information as is available to it,
that the cost of closure and postclosure care or corrective action will be
greater than the value of the trust fund, it
S
shall
S
must withhold
reimbursement of such amounts as it determines are necessary to preserve
the fund in order to accomplish closure and postclosure care or corrective
action until it determines that the owner or operator is no longer required
to maintain financial assurance for closure and postclosure care or
corrective action. In the event the fund is inadequate to pay all claims, the
Agency
S
shall
S
must pay claims according to the following priorities:
A) Persons with whom the Agency has contracted to perform closure,
S
or
S
postclosure care, or corrective action activities (first priority);
B) Persons who have completed closure,
S
or
S
postclosure care, or
corrective action authorized by the Agency (second priority);
C) Persons who have completed work
S
which
S
that furthered the
closure,
S
or
S
postclosure care, or corrective action (third priority);
D) The owner or operator and related business entities (last priority).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
Section 811.716 Local Government Financial Test
A unit of local government owner or operator that satisfies the requirements of subsections (a)
through (c) of this Section may demonstrate financial assurance up to the amount specified in
subsection (d) of this Section.
a) Financial component.
1) The unit of local government owner or operator
S
shall
S
must satisfy
subsection (a)(1)(A) or (a)(1)(B) of this Section, as applicable:
A) If the owner or operator has outstanding, rated, general obligation
bonds that are not secured by insurance, a letter of credit, or other
collateral or guarantee, it must have a current rating of Aaa, Aa, A,
or Baa, as issued by Moody's, or AAA, AA, A, or BBB, as issued
by Standard and Poor's, on all such general obligation bonds; or
B) The owner or operator
S
shall
S
must satisfy each of the following
financial ratios based on the owner or operator's most recent
audited annual financial statement:
1039
i) A ratio of cash plus marketable securities to total
expenditures greater than or equal to 0.05; and
ii) A ratio of annual debt service to total expenditures less
than or equal to 0.20.
2) The unit of local government owner or operator
S
shall
S
must prepare its
financial statements in conformity with Generally Accepted Accounting
Principles for governments and have its financial statements audited by an
independent certified public accountant or the Comptroller of the State of
Illinois pursuant to the Governmental Account Audit Act [50 ILCS 310].
3) A unit of local government is not eligible to assure its obligations under
this Section if any of the following is true:
A) It is currently in default on any outstanding general obligation
bonds;
B) It has any outstanding general obligation bonds rated lower than
Baa as issued by Moody's or BBB as issued by Standard and
Poor's;
C) It operated at a deficit equal to five percent or more of total annual
revenue in each of the past two fiscal years; or
D) It receives an adverse opinion, disclaimer of opinion, or other
qualified opinion from the independent certified public accountant
or the Comptroller of the State of Illinois pursuant to the
Governmental Account Audit Act [50 ILCS 310] auditing its
financial statement as required under subsection (a)(2) of this
Section. However, the Agency
S
shall
S
must evaluate qualified
opinions on a case-by-case basis and allow use of the financial test
in cases where the Agency deems the qualification insufficient to
warrant disallowance of use of the test.
4)
S
The following terms
S
Terms used in this Section are defined as follows:
“Cash plus marketable securities” is all the cash plus marketable
securities held by the unit of local government on the last day of a
fiscal year, excluding cash and marketable securities designated to
satisfy past obligations such as pensions.
“Debt service” is the amount of principal and interest due on a loan
in a given time period, typically the current year.
1040
“Deficit” equals total annual revenues minus total annual
expenditures.
“Total revenues” include revenues from all taxes and fees but does
not include the proceeds from borrowing or asset sales, excluding
revenue from funds managed by a unit of local government on
behalf of a specific third party.
“Total expenditures” include all expenditures excluding capital
outlays and debt repayment.
b) Public notice component.
1) The unit of local government owner or operator
S
shall
S
must place a
reference to the closure and post-closure care costs assured through the
financial test into its next comprehensive annual financial report (CAFR)
S
after November 27, 1997
S
, or prior to the initial receipt of waste at the
facility, whichever is later.
2) Disclosure must include the nature and source of closure and post-closure
care requirements, the reported liability at the balance sheet date, the
estimated total closure and post-closure care cost remaining to be
recognized, the percentage of landfill capacity used to date, and the
estimated landfill life in years.
3) A reference to corrective action costs must be placed in the CAFR not
later than 120 days after the corrective action remedy has been selected in
accordance with the requirements of Sections 811.319(d) and 811.325.
4) For the first year the financial test is used to assure costs at a particular
facility, the reference may instead be placed in the operating record until
issuance of the next available CAFR if timing does not permit the
reference to be incorporated into the most recently issued CAFR or
budget.
5) For closure and post-closure costs, conformance with Government
Accounting Standards Board Statement 18, incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 810.104, assures compliance with this public notice
component.
c) Recordkeeping and reporting requirements.
1) The unit of local government owner or operator must place the following
items in the facility's operating record:
A) A letter signed by the unit of local government's chief financial
1041
officer that provides the following information:
i)
S
Lists
S
It lists all the current cost estimates covered by a
financial test, as described in subsection (d) of this Section;
ii)
S
Provides
S
It provides evidence and certifies that the unit of
local government meets the conditions of subsections
(a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of this Section; and
iii)
S
Certifies
S
It certifies that the unit of local government meets
the conditions of subsections (b) and
S
(f)(4)
S
(d) of this
Section.
B) The unit of local government's independently audited year-end
financial statements for the latest fiscal year (except for a unit of
local government where audits are required every two years, where
unaudited statements may be used in years when audits are not
required), including the unqualified opinion of the auditor who
must be an independent certified public accountant (CPA) or the
Comptroller of the State of Illinois pursuant to the Governmental
Account Audit Act [50 ILCS 310].
C) A report to the unit of local government from the unit of local
government's independent CPA or the Comptroller of the State of
Illinois pursuant to the Governmental Account Audit Act [50 ILCS
310] based on performing an agreed upon procedures engagement
relative to the financial ratios required by subsection (a)(1)(B) of
this Section, if applicable, and the requirements of subsections
(a)(2), (a)(3)(C), and (a)(3)(D) of this Section. The CPA or
Comptroller's report should state the procedures performed and the
CPA or Comptroller's findings; and
D) A copy of the comprehensive annual financial report (CAFR) used
to comply with subsection (b) of this Section or certification that
the requirements of General Accounting Standards Board
Statement 18, incorporated by reference in Section 810.104, have
been met.
2) The items required in subsection (c)(1) of this Section must be placed in
the facility operating record as follows:
A) In the case of closure and post-closure care,
S
either
S
before
November 27, 1997
S
,
S
or prior to the initial receipt of waste at the
facility, whichever is later; or
B) In the case of corrective action, not later than 120 days after the
1042
corrective action remedy is selected in accordance with the
requirements of Sections 811.319(d) and 811.325.
3) After the initial placement of the items in the facility operating record, the
unit of local government owner or operator
S
shall
S
must update the
information and place the updated information in the operating record
within 180 days following the close of the owner or operator's fiscal year.
4) The unit of local government owner or operator is no longer required to
meet the requirements of subsection (c) of this Section when either of the
following occurs:
A) The owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance as
specified in this Section; or
B) The owner or operator is released from the requirements of this
Section in accordance with Section 811.326(g), 811.702(b), or
811.704(j) or (k)(6).
5) A unit of local government must satisfy the requirements of the financial
test at the close of each fiscal year. If the unit of local government owner
or operator no longer meets the requirements of the local government
financial test it
S
shall
S
must, within 210 days following the close of the
owner or operator's fiscal year, obtain alternative financial assurance that
meets the requirements of this Subpart, place the required submissions for
that assurance in the operating record, and notify the Agency that the
owner or operator no longer meets the criteria of the financial test and that
alternative assurance has been obtained.
6) The Agency, based on a reasonable belief that the unit of local
government owner or operator may no longer meet the requirements of the
local government financial test, may require additional reports of financial
condition from the unit of local government at any time. If the Agency
determines, on the basis of such reports or other information, that the
owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of the local
government financial test, the unit of local government must provide
alternative financial assurance in accordance with this Subpart.
d) Calculation of Costs to
S
be
S
Be Assured. The portion of the closure, post-closure,
and corrective action costs that an owner or operator may assure under this
Section is determined as follows:
1) If the unit of local government owner or operator does not assure other
environmental obligations through a financial test, it may assure closure,
post-closure, and corrective action costs that equal up to 43 percent of the
unit of local government's total annual revenue.
1043
2) If the unit of local government assures other environmental obligations
through a financial test, including those associated with UIC facilities
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 704.213, petroleum underground storage tank
facilities under 40 CFR 280, PCB storage facilities under 40 CFR 761, and
hazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal facilities under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724 and 725, it must add those costs to the closure, post-
closure, and corrective action costs it seeks to assure under this Section.
The total that may be assured must not exceed 43 percent of the unit of
local government's total annual revenue.
3) The owner or operator must obtain an alternative financial assurance
instrument for those costs that exceed the limits set in subsections (d)(1)
and (d)(2) of this Section.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 258.74(f)
S
, added at 61 Fed. Reg. 60327 (Nov. 27, 1996)
S
(2005).
(Source: Amended at 30 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________)
I, Dorothy M. Gunn, Clerk of the Illinois Pollution Control Board, certify that the Board
adopted the above Order on January 5, 2006, by a vote of 4-0.
Dorothy M. Gunn, Clerk
Illinois Pollution Control Board