ILLINOIS POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
May 21, 1998
IN THE MATTER OF: )
) R97-21
RCRA UPDATE, USEPA REGULATIONS ) (Identical-in-Substance
Rulemaking
(July 1, 1996, through December 31, 1996) ) - Land)
______________________________________
IN THE MATTER OF: )
) R98-3
UIC UPDATE, USEPA REGULATIONS ) (Identical-in-Substance
Rulemaking
(January 1, 1997, through June 30, 1997) ) - Land)
______________________________________
IN THE MATTER OF: )
) R98-5
RCRA UPDATE, USEPA REGULATIONS ) (Identical-in-Substance
Rulemaking
(January 1, 1997, through June 30, 1997) ) - Land)
Proposed Rule. Proposal for Public Comment.
ORDER OF THE BOARD (by K.M. Hennessey):
Pursuant to Sections 13(c) and 22.4(a) of the Environmental
Protection Act (Act) (415 ILCS 5/13(c) & 22.4(a) (1996)), the
Board proposes amendments to the Illinois regulations that are
“identical-in-substance” to hazardous waste regulations adopted
by the United States Environmental Protection Agency (USEPA) to
implement Subtitle C of the federal Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA Subtitle C), 42 U.S.C. §§ 6921 et seq.
(1996). The Board further proposes amendments to the Illinois
regulations that are “identical-in-substance” to underground
injection control (UIC) regulations adopted by the USEPA to
implement provisions of the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA), 42
USC § 300h et seq. (1996). The nominal time-frame of this
consolidated docket includes federal RCRA Subtitle C amendments
adopted by USEPA in the periods July 1, 1996, through December
31, 1996, and January 1, 1997, through June 30, 1997. The
nominal time-frame also includes federal UIC amendments adopted
in the period January 1, 1997, through June 30, 1997.
Section 22.4(a) provides for quick adoption of regulations
that are “identical-in-substance” to federal regulations adopted
by USEPA to implement Sections 3001 through 3005 of RCRA, 42
U.S.C. §§ 6921-6925 (1996)) and that Title VII of the Act and
Section 5 of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 ILCS
100/5-35 & 5-40 (1996)) shall not apply. Section 13(c) similarly
provides for quick adoption of regulations that are “identical-
in-substance” to federal regulations adopted by USEPA to
implement Section 1421 of SDWA, 42 U.S.C. § 300h (1996)).
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Because this consolidated rulemaking is not subject to Section 5
of the APA, it is not subject to first notice or to second notice
review by the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules (JCAR).
The federal RCRA Subtitle C regulations are found at 40 CFR 260
through 268, 270 through 271, 279, and, more recently, 273. The
federal UIC regulations are found at 40 CFR 144 through 148.
This order is supported by a proposed opinion adopted on the
same day. The Board will submit Notices of Proposed Amendments
for publication in the Illinois Register. The complete text of
the proposed rules follows.
IT IS SO ORDERED.
I, Dorothy M. Gunn, Clerk of the Illinois Pollution Control
Board, do hereby certify that the above order was adopted on the
21st day of May 1998 by a vote of 7-0.
Dorothy M. Gunn, Clerk
Illinois Pollution Control
Board
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TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER b: PERMITS
PART 703
RCRA PERMIT PROGRAM
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
703.100 Scope and Relation to Other Parts
703.101 Purpose
703.110 References
SUBPART B: PROHIBITIONS
Section
703.120 Prohibitions in General
703.121 RCRA Permits
703.122 Specific Inclusions in Permit Program
703.123 Specific Exclusions from Permit Program
703.124 Discharges of Hazardous Waste
703.125 Reapplications
703.126 Initial Applications
703.127 Federal Permits (Repealed)
SUBPART C: AUTHORIZATION BY RULE AND INTERIM STATUS
Section
703.140 Purpose and Scope
703.141 Permits by Rule
703.150 Application by Existing HWM Facilities and Interim
Status Qualifications
703.151 Application by New HWM Facilities
703.152 Amended Part A Application
703.153 Qualifying for Interim Status
703.154 Prohibitions During Interim Status
703.155 Changes During Interim Status
703.156 Interim Status Standards
703.157 Grounds for Termination of Interim Status
703.158 Permits for Less Than an Entire Facility
703.159 Closure by Removal
703.160 Procedures for Closure Determination
SUBPART D: APPLICATIONS
Section
703.180 Applications in General
703.181 Contents of Part A
703.182 Contents of Part B
703.183 General Information
703.184 Facility Location Information
703.185 Groundwater Protection Information
703.186 Exposure Information
703.187 Solid Waste Management Units
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703.188 Other Information
703.191 Public Participation: Pre-Application Public Notice
and Meeting
703.192 Public Participation: Public Notice of Application
703.193 Public Participation: Information Repository
703.200 Specific Part B Application Information
703.201 Containers
703.202 Tank Systems
703.203 Surface Impoundments
703.204 Waste Piles
703.205 Incinerators that Burn Hazardous Waste
703.206 Land Treatment
703.207 Landfills
703.208 Boilers and Industrial Furnaces Burning Hazardous Waste
703.209 Miscellaneous Units
703.210 Process Vents
703.211 Equipment
703.212 Drip Pads
703.213 Air Emission Controls for Tanks, Surface Impoundments,
and Containers
SUBPART E: SHORT TERM AND PHASED PERMITS
Section
703.221 Emergency Permits
703.222 Incinerator Conditions Prior to Trial Burn
703.223 Incinerator Conditions During Trial Burn
703.224 Incinerator Conditions After Trial Burn
703.225 Trial Burns for Existing Incinerators
703.230 Land Treatment Demonstration
703.231 Research, Development and Demonstration Permits
703.232 Permits for Boilers and Industrial Furnaces Burning
Hazardous Waste
SUBPART F: PERMIT CONDITIONS OR DENIAL
Section
703.240 Permit Denial
703.241 Establishing Permit Conditions
703.242 Noncompliance Pursuant to Emergency Permit
703.243 Monitoring
703.244 Notice of Planned Changes (Repealed)
703.245 Twenty-four Hour Reporting
703.246 Reporting Requirements
703.247 Anticipated Noncompliance
703.248 Information Repository
SUBPART G: CHANGES TO PERMITS
Section
703.260 Transfer
703.270 Modification
703.271 Causes for Modification
703.272 Causes for Modification or Reissuance
703.273 Facility Siting
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703.280 Permit Modification at the Request of the Permittee
703.281 Class 1 Modifications
703.282 Class 2 Modifications
703.283 Class 3 Modifications
703.Appendix A Classification of Permit Modifications
AUTHORITY: Implementing Section 22.4 and authorized by Section
27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R82-19, 53 PCB 131, at 7 Ill. Reg. 14289,
effective October 12, 1983; amended in R83-24 at 8 Ill. Reg. 206,
effective December 27, 1983; amended in R84-9 at 9 Ill. Reg.
11899, effective July 24, 1985; amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg.
1110, effective January 2, 1986; amended in R85-23 at 10 Ill.
Reg. 13284, effective July 28, 1986; amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill.
Reg. 14093, effective August 12, 1986; amended in R86-19 at 10
Ill. Reg. 20702, effective December 2, 1986; amended in R86-28 at
11 Ill. Reg. 6121, effective March 24, 1987; amended in R86-46 at
11 Ill. Reg. 13543, effective August 4, 1987; amended in R87-5 at
11 Ill. Reg. 19383, effective November 12, 1987; amended in R87-
26 at 12 Ill. Reg. 2584, effective January 15, 1988; amended in
R87-39 at 12 Ill. Reg. 13069, effective July 29, 1988; amended in
R88-16 at 13 Ill. Reg. 447, effective December 27, 1988; amended
in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18477, effective November 13, 1989;
amended in R89-9 at 14 Ill. Reg. 6278, effective April 16, 1990;
amended in R90-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 14492, effective August 22,
1990; amended in R90-11 at 15 Ill. Reg. 9616, effective June 17,
1991; amended in R91-1 at 15 Ill. Reg. 14554, effective September
30, 1991; amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9767, effective June
9, 1992; amended in R92-10 at 17 Ill. Reg. 5774, effective March
26, 1993; amended in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20794, effective
November 22, 1993; amended in R93-16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6898,
effective April 26, 1994; amended in R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12392,
effective July 29, 1994; amended in R94-5 at 18 Ill. Reg. 18316,
effective December 20, 1994; amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg.
9920, effective June 27, 1995; amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg.
11225, effective August 1, 1996; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at
22 Ill. Reg. 533, effective December 16, 1997; amended in R98-12
at 22 Ill. Reg. 7632, effective April 15, 1998; amended in R97-
21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________.
SUBPART B: PROHIBITIONS
Section 703.124 Discharges of Hazardous Waste
a) A person is not required to obtain a RCRA permit for
treatment or containment activities taken during
immediate response to any of the following situations:
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1) A discharge of a hazardous waste;
2) An imminent and substantial threat of a discharge
of hazardous waste;
3) A discharge of a material which, when discharged,
becomes a hazardous waste.; or
4) An immediate threat to human health, public
safety, property, or the environment from the
known or suspected presence of military munitions,
other explosive material, or an explosive device,
as determined by an explosive or munitions
emergency response specialist as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.110.
b) Any person who continues or initiates hazardous waste
treatment or containment activities after the immediate
response is over is subject to all applicable
requirements of this Part for those activities.
c) In the case of an emergency response involving military
munitions, the responding military emergency response
specialist’s organizational unit shall retain records
for three years after the date of the response that
identify the following: the date of the response, the
responsible persons responding, the type and
description of material addressed, and the disposition
of the material.
(Board NoteBOARD NOTE: See Derived from 40 CFR
270.1(c)(3) (1997).)
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART D: APPLICATIONS
Section 703.213 Air Emission Controls for Tanks, Surface
Impoundments, and Containers
Except as otherwise provided in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.101, owners
and operators of tanks, surface impoundments, or containers that
use air emission controls in accordance with the requirements of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart CC shall provide the following
additional information:
a) Documentation for each floating roof cover installed on
a tank subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.984(d)(1) or
(d)(2) that includes information prepared by the owner
or operator or provided by the cover manufacturer or
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vendor describing the cover design, and certification
by the owner or operator that the cover meets the
applicable design specifications, as listed in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 725.991(e)(1) or (f)(1).
b) Identification of each container area subject to the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart CC and
certification by the owner or operator that the
requirements of this Subpart are met.
c) Documentation for each enclosure used to control air
pollutant emissions from containers in accordance with
the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.984(d)(5) or
724.986(e)(1)(ii) that includes records for the most
recent set of calculations and measurements performed
by the owner or operator to verify that the enclosure
meets the criteria of a permanent total enclosure, as
specified in “Procedure T--Criteria for and
Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total
Enclosure” under 40 CFR 52.741, appendix B,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
d) Documentation for each floating membrane cover
installed on a surface impoundment in accordance with
the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.985(c) that
includes information prepared by the owner or operator
or provided by the cover manufacturer or vendor
describing the cover design, and certification by the
owner or operator that the cover meets the
specifications listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
264724.985(c)(1).
e) Documentation for each closed-vent system and control
device installed in accordance with the requirements of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.987 that includes design and
performance information, as specified in Section
703.124(c) and (d).
f) An emission monitoring plan for both Method 21 in 40
CFR 60, appendix A, incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, and control device monitoring
methods. This plan must include the following
information: monitoring points, monitoring methods for
control devices, monitoring frequency, procedures for
documenting exceedances, and procedures for mitigating
noncompliances.
g) When an owner or operator of a facility subject to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.Subpart CC cannot comply with 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart CC by the date of permit
issuance, the schedule of implementation required under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.982.
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BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.27(a) (19967), as
amended at 61 Fed. Reg. 59996 (Nov. 25, 1996).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART E: SHORT TERM AND PHASED PERMITS
Section 703.232 Permits for Boilers and Industrial Furnaces
Burning Hazardous Waste
a) General. Owners and operators of new boilers and
industrial furnaces (those not operating under the
interim status standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.203)
are subject to subsection (b) through (f) of this
Section. Boilers and industrial furnaces operating
under the interim status standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.203 are subject to subsection (g) of this Section.
b) Permit operating periods for new boilers and industrial
furnaces. A permit for a new boiler or industrial
furnace must specify appropriate conditions for the
following operating periods:
1) Pretrial burn period. For the period beginning
with initial introduction of hazardous waste and
ending with initiation of the trial burn, and only
for the minimum time required to bring the boiler
or industrial furnace to a point of operation
readiness to conduct a trial burn, not to exceed
720 hours operating time when burning hazardous
waste, the Agency shall establish permit
conditions in the Pretrial Burn Period of the
permit conditions, including but not limited to
allowable hazardous waste feed rates and operating
conditions. The Agency shall extend the duration
of this operational period once, for up to 720
additional hours, at the request of the applicant
when good cause is shown. The permit most be
modified to reflect the extension according to
Section 703.280 et seq.
A) Applicants must submit a statement, with Part
B of the permit application, that suggests
the conditions necessary to operate in
compliance with the standards of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.204 through 726.207 during this
period. This statement should include, at a
minimum, restrictions on the applicable
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operating requirements identified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.202 (e).
B) The Agency shall review this statement and
any other relevant information submitted with
Part B of the permit application and specify
requirements for this period sufficient to
meet the performance standards of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.204 through 726.207 based on
the Agency’s engineering judgment.
2) Trial burn period. For the duration of the trial
burn, the Agency shall establish conditions in the
permit for the purposes of determining feasibility
of compliance with the performance standards of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 through 726.207 and
determining adequate operating conditions under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.202(e). Applicants shall
propose a trial burn plan, prepared under
subsection (c) of this Section, to be submitted
with Part B of the permit application.
3) Post-trial burn period.
A) For the period immediately following
completion of the trial burn, and only for
the minimum period sufficient to allow sample
analysis, data computation and submission of
the trial burn results by the applicant, and
review of the trial burn results and
modification of the facility permit by the
Agency to reflect the trial burn results, the
Agency shall establish the operating
requirements most likely to ensure compliance
with the performance standards of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.204 through 726.207 based on
the Agency’s engineering judgment.
B) Applicants shall submit a statement, with
Part B of the application, that identifies
the conditions necessary to operate during
this period in compliance with the
performance standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.204 through 726.207. This statement
should include, at a minimum, restrictions on
the operating requirements provided by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.202 (e).
C) The Agency shall review this statement and
any other relevant information submitted with
Part B of the permit application and specify
requirements of this period sufficient to
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meet the performance standards of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.204 through 726.207 based on
the Agency’s engineering judgment.
4) Final permit period. For the final period of
operation the Agency shall develop operating
requirements in conformance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.202(e) that reflect conditions in the trial
burn plan and are likely to ensure compliance with
the performance standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.204 through 726.207. Based on the trial burn
results, the Agency shall make any necessary
modifications to the operating requirements to
ensure compliance with the performance standards.
The permit modification must proceed according to
Section 703.280 et seq.
c) Requirements for trial burn plans. The trial burn plan
must include the following information. The Agency, in
reviewing the trial burn plan, shall evaluate the
sufficiency of the information provided and may require
the applicant to supplement this information, if
necessary, to achieve the purposes of this subsection.
1) An analysis of each feed stream, including
hazardous waste, other fuels, and industrial
furnace feed stocks, as fired, that includes:
A) Heating value, levels of antimony, arsenic,
barium, beryllium, cadmium, chromium, lead,
mercury, silver, thallium, total
chlorine/chloride, and ash; and
B) Viscosity or description of the physical form
of the feed stream.
2) An analysis of each hazardous waste, as fired,
including:
A) An identification of any hazardous organic
constituents listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Appendix H that are present in the feed
stream, except that the applicant need not
analyze for constituents listed in
721.Appendix H that would reasonably not be
expected to be found in the hazardous waste.
The constituents excluded from analysis must
be identified as and the basis for this
exclusion explained. The analysis must be
conducted in accordance with analytical
techniques specified in “Test Methods for the
Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
??
Methods”, USEPA Publication SW-846, as
incorporated by reference at 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111 and Section 703.110, or their
equivalent.
B) An approximate quantification of the
hazardous constituents identified in the
hazardous waste, within the precision
produced by the analytical methods specified
in “Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods”, USEPA
Publication SW-846, as incorporated by
reference at 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111 and
Section 703.110, or other equivalent.
C) A description of blending procedures, if
applicable, prior to firing the hazardous
waste, including a detailed analysis of the
hazardous waste prior to blending, an
analysis of the material with which the
hazardous waste prior to blending, an
analysis of the material with which the
hazardous waste is blended, and blending
ratios.
3) A detailed engineering description of the boiler
or industrial furnace, including:
A) Manufacturer’s name and model number of the
boiler or industrial furnace;
B) Type of boiler or industrial furnace;
C) Maximum design capacity in appropriate units;
D) Description of the feed system for the
hazardous waste and, as appropriate, other
fuels and industrial furnace feedstocks;
E) Capacity of hazardous waste feed system;
F) Description of automatic hazardous waste feed
cutoff system(s);
G) Description of any pollution control system;
and
H) Description of stack gas monitoring and any
pollution control monitoring systems.
4) A detailed description of sampling and monitoring
procedures including sampling and monitoring
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locations in the system, the equipment to be used,
sampling and monitoring frequency, and sample
analysis.
5) A detailed test schedule for each hazardous waste
for which the trial burn is planned, including
date(s), duration, quantity of hazardous waste to
be burned, and other factors relevant to the
Agency’s decision under subsection (b)(2) of this
Section.
6) A detailed test protocol, including, for each
hazardous waste identified, the ranges of
hazardous waste feed rate, and, as appropriate,
the feed rates of other fuels and industrial
furnace feedstocks, and any other relevant
parameters that may affect the ability of the
boiler or industrial furnace to meet the
performance standards in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204
through 726.207.
7) A description of and planned operating conditions
for any emission control equipment that will be
used.
8) Procedures for rapidly stopping the hazardous
waste feed and controlling emissions in the event
of an equipment malfunction.
9) Such other information as the Agency finds
necessary to determine whether to approve the
trial burn plan in light of the purposes of this
subsection and the criteria in subsection (b)(2)
of this Section.
d) Trial burn procedures.
1) A trial burn must be conducted to demonstrate
conformance with the standards of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.104 through 726.107.
2) The Agency shall approve a trial burn plan if the
Agency finds that:
A) The trial burn is likely to determine whether
the boiler or industrial furnace can meet the
performance standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.104 through 726.107.
B) The trial burn itself will not present an
imminent hazard to human health and the
environment;
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C) The trial burn will help the Agency to
determine operating requirements to be
specified under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.102(e);
and
D) The information sought in the trial burn
cannot reasonably be developed through other
means.
3) The Agency shall send a notice to all persons on
the facility mailing list, as set forth in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 705.161(a), and to the appropriate units
of State and local government, as set forth in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 705.163(a)(5), announcing the
scheduled commencement and completion dates for
the trial burn. The applicant may not commence
the trial burn until after the Agency has issued
such notice.
A) This notice must be mailed within a
reasonable time period before the trial
burn. An additional notice is not required
if the trial burn is delayed due to
circumstances beyond the control of the
facility or the Agency.
B) This notice must contain:
i) The name and telephone number of
applicant’s contact person;
ii) The name and telephone number of the
Agency regional office appropriate for
the facility;
iii) The location where the approved trial
burn plan and any supporting documents
can be reviewed and copied; and
iv) An expected time period for commencement
and completion of the trial burn.
4) The applicant shall submit to the Agency a
certification that the trial burn has been carried
out in accordance with the approved trial burn
plan, and submit the results of all the
determinations required in subsection (c) of this
Section. The Agency shall, in the trial burn
plan, require that the submission be made within
90 days after completion of the trial burn, or
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later if the Agency determines that a later date
is acceptable.
5) All data collected during any trial burn must be
submitted to the Agency following completion of
the trial burn.
6) All submissions required by this subsection must
be certified on behalf of the applicant by the
signature of a person authorized to sign a permit
application or a report under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
702.126.
e) Special procedures for DRE trial burns. When a DRE
trial burn is required under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.104,
the Agency shall specify (based on the hazardous waste
analysis data and other information in the trial burn
plan) as trial Principal Organic Hazardous Constituents
(POHCs) those compounds for which destruction and
removal efficiencies must be calculated during the
trial burn. These trial POHCs will be specified by the
Agency based on information including the Agency’s
estimate of the difficulty of destroying the
constituents identified in the hazardous waste
analysis, their concentrations or mass in the hazardous
waste feed, and, for hazardous waste containing or
derived from wastes listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Subpart D, the hazardous waste organic
constituent(s) identified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Appendix G as the basis for listing.
f) Determinations based on trial burn. During each
approved trial burn (or as soon after the burn as is
practicable), the applicant shall make the following
determinations:
1) A quantitative analysis of the levels of antimony,
arsenic, barium, beryllium, cadmium, chromium,
lead, mercury, thallium, silver, and
chlorine/chloride in the feed streams (hazardous
waste, other fuels, and industrial furnace
feedstocks);
2) When a DRE trial burn is required under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.204(a):
A) A quantitative analysis of the trial POHCs in
the hazardous waste feed;
B) A quantitative analysis of the stack gas for
the concentration and mass emissions of the
trial POHCs; and
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C) A computation of destruction and removal
efficiency (DRE), in accordance with the DRE
formula specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.204(a).
3) When a trial burn for chlorinated dioxins and
furans is required under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.204(e), a quantitative analysis of the stack
gas for the concentration and mass emission rate
of the 2,3,7,8-chlorinated tetra- through octa-
congeners of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and
furans, and a computation showing conformance with
the emission standard.
4) When a trial burn for PM, metals, or HCl/Chlorine
gas is required under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.205,
726.206(c) or (d), or 726.207(b)(2) or (c), a
quantitative analysis of the stack gas for the
concentrations and mass emissions of PM, metals,
or HCl and chlorine gas and computations showing
conformance with the applicable emission
performance standards;
5) When a trial burn for DRE, metals, and
HCl/Chlorine gas is required under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.204(a), 726.206(c) or (d), or 726.207(b)-
(2) or (c), a quantitative analysis of the
scrubber water (if any), ash residues, other
residues, and products for the purpose of
estimating the fate of the trial POHCs, metals,
and chlorine/chloride;
6) An identification of sources of fugitive emissions
and their means of control;
7) A continuous measurement of carbon monoxide (CO),
oxygen, and, where required, hydrocarbons (HC), in
the stack gas; and
8) Such other information as the Agency specifies as
necessary to ensure that the trial burn will
determine compliance with the performance
standards 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 through
726.207 and to establish the operating conditions
required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.204 through
726.207 and of determining adequate operating
conditions under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.203, and to
establish the operating conditions required by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.202(e) as necessary to meet
those performance standards.
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g) Interim status boilers and industrial furnaces. For
the purpose of determining feasibility of compliance
with the performance standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.204 through 726.207 and of determining adequate
operating conditions under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.203,
applicants owning or operating existing boilers or
industrial furnaces operated under the interim status
standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.203 shall either
prepare and submit a trial burn plan and perform a
trial burn in accordance with the requirements of the
Section or submit other information as specified in
Section 703.208(a)(6). The Agency shall announce its
intention to approve of the trial burn plan in
accordance with the timing and distribution
requirements of subsection (d)(3) of this Section. The
contents of the notice must include: the name and
telephone number of a contact person at the facility;
the name and telephone number of Agency regional office
appropriate for the facility; the location where the
trial burn plan and any supporting documents can be
reviewed and copied; and a schedule of the activities
that are required prior to permit issuance, including
the anticipated time schedule for agency approval of
the plan and the time periods during which the trial
burn would be conducted. Applicants that submit a
trial burn plan and receive approval before submission
of the Part B permit application shall complete the
trial burn and submit the results specified in
subsection (f) of this Section with the Part B permit
application. If completion of this process conflicts
with the date set for submission of the Part B
application, the applicant shall contact the Agency to
establish a later date for submission of the Part B
application or the trial burn results. If the
applicant submits a trial burn plan with Part B of the
permit application, the trial burn must be conducted
and the results submitted within a time period prior to
permit issuance to be specified by the Agency.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.66 (1996).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART G: CHANGES TO PERMITS
Section 703.280 Permit Modification at the Request of the
Permittee
a) Class 1 modifications. See Section 703.281.
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b) Class 2 modifications. See Section 703.282.
c) Class 3 modifications. See Section 703.283.
d) Other modifications.
1) In the case of modifications not explicitly listed
in Appendix A, the permittee may submit a Class 3
modification request to the Agency, or the
permittee may request a determination by the
Agency that the modification be reviewed and
approved as a Class 1 or Class 2 modification. If
the permittee requests that the modification be
classified as a Class 1 or 2 modification, the
permittee shall provide the Agency with the
necessary information to support the requested
classification.
2) The Agency shall make the determination described
in subsection (d)(1), above, as promptly as
practicable. In determining the appropriate class
for a specific modification, the Agency shall
consider the similarity of the modification to
other modifications codified in Appendix A and the
following criteria:
A) Class 1 modifications apply to minor changes
that keep the permit current with routine
changes to the facility or its operation.
These changes do not substantially alter the
permit conditions or reduce the capacity of
the facility to protect human health or the
environment. In the case of Class 1
modifications, the Agency may require prior
approval.
B) Class 2 modifications apply to changes that
are necessary to enable a permittee to
respond, in a timely manner, to
i) Common variations in the types and
quantities of the wastes managed under
the facility permit,
ii) Technological advances, and
iii) Changes necessary to comply with new
regulations, where these changes can be
implemented without substantially
changing design specifications or
management practices in the permit.
??
C) Class 3 modifications substantially alter the
facility or its operation.
e) Temporary authorizations.
1) Upon request of the permittee, the Agency shall,
without prior public notice and comment, grant the
permittee a temporary authorization in accordance
with this subsection. Temporary authorizations
have a term of not more than 180 days.
2) Procedures.
A) The permittee may request a temporary
authorization for:
i) Any Class 2 modification meeting the
criteria in subsection (e)(3)(B), below,
and
ii) Any Class 3 modification that meets the
criteria in subsection (e)(3)(B)(i),
below; or that meets the criteria in
subsection (e)(3)(B)(iii) through (v),
below, and provides improved management
or treatment of a hazardous waste
already listed in the facility permit.
B) The temporary authorization request must
include:
i) A description of the activities to be
conducted under the temporary
authorization;
ii) An explanation of why the temporary
authorization is necessary; and
iii) Sufficient information to ensure
compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724
standards.
C) The permittee shall send a notice about the
temporary authorization request to all
persons on the facility mailing list
maintained by the Agency and to appropriate
units of State and local governments as
specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 705.163(a)-
(5). This notification must be made within
seven days after submission of the
authorization request.
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3) The Agency shall approve or deny the temporary
authorization as quickly as practical. To issue a
temporary authorization, the Agency shall find:
A) The authorized activities are in compliance
with the standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.
B) The temporary authorization is necessary to
achieve one of the following objectives
before action is likely to be taken on a
modification request:
i) To facilitate timely implementation of
closure or corrective action activities;
ii) To allow treatment or storage in tanks,
containers or in containment buildings
in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728;
iii) To prevent disruption of ongoing waste
management activities;
iv) To enable the permittee to respond to
sudden changes in the types or
quantities of the wastes managed under
the facility permit; or
v) To facilitate other changes to protect
human health and the environment.
4) A temporary authorization shall be reissued for
one additional term of up to 180 days provided
that the permittee has requested a Class 2 or 3
permit modification for the activity covered in
the temporary authorization, and:
A) The reissued temporary authorization
constitutes the Agency’s decision on a Class
2 permit modification in accordance with
Section 703.282(f)(1)(D) or (f)(2)(D), or
B) The Agency determines that the reissued
temporary authorization involving a Class 3
permit modification request is warranted to
allow the authorized activities to continue
while the modification procedures of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.283 are conducted.
f) Public notice and appeals of permit modification
decisions.
??
1) The Agency shall notify persons on the facility
mailing list and appropriate units of State and
local government within 10 days of any decision to
grant or deny a Class 2 or 3 permit modification
request. The Agency shall also notify such
persons within 10 days after an automatic
authorization for a Class 2 modification goes into
effect under Section 703.282(f)(3) or (f)(5).
2) The Agency’s decision to grant or deny a Class 2
or 3 permit modification request may be appealed
under the permit appeal procedures of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 705.212.
3) An automatic authorization that goes into effect
under Section 703.282(f)(3) or (f)(5) may be
appealed under the permit appeal procedures of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 705.212; however, the permittee may
continue to conduct the activities pursuant to the
automatic authorization until the Board enters a
final order on the appeal notwithstanding the
provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 705.204.
g) Newly regulated wastes and units.
1) The permittee is authorized to continue to manage
wastes listed or identified as hazardous under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721, or to continue to manage
hazardous waste in units newly regulated as
hazardous waste management units, if:
A) The unit was in existence as a hazardous
waste facility with respect to the newly
listed or characterized waste or newly
regulated waste management unit on the
effective date of the final rule listing or
identifying the waste, or regulating the
unit;
B) The permittee submits a Class 1 modification
request on or before the date on which the
waste becomes subject to the new
requirements;
C) The permittee is in compliance with the
applicable standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725
and 726;
D) The permittee also submits a complete class 2
or 3 modification request within 180 days
after the effective date of the rule listing
or identifying the waste, or subjecting the
??
unit to management standards under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724, 725 or 726; and
E) In the case of land disposal units, the
permittee certifies that such unit is in
compliance with all applicable requirements
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725 for groundwater
monitoring and financial responsibility
requirements on the date 12 months after the
effective date of the rule identifying or
listing the waste as hazardous, or regulating
the unit as a hazardous waste management
unit. If the owner or operator fails to
certify compliance with all these
requirements, the owner or operator loses
authority to operate under this Section.
2) New wastes or units added to a facility’s permit
under this subsection do not constitute expansions
for the purpose of the 25 percent capacity
expansion limit for Class 2 modifications.
h) Military hazardous waste munitions treatment and
disposal. The permittee is authorized to continue to
accept waste military munitions notwithstanding any
permit conditions barring the permittee from accepting
off-site wastes, if:
1) The facility was in existence as a hazardous waste
facility and the facility was already permitted to
handle the waste military munitions on the date
when the waste military munitions became subject
to hazardous waste regulatory requirements;
2) On or before the date when the waste military
munitions become subject to hazardous waste
regulatory requirements, the permittee submits a
Class 1 modification request to remove or amend
the permit provision restricting the receipt of
off-site waste munitions; and
3) The permittee submits a complete Class 2
modification request within 180 days of the date
when the waste military munitions became subject
to hazardous waste regulatory requirements.
hi) Permit modification list. The Agency shall maintain a
list of all approved permit modifications and shall
publish a notice once a year in a State-wide newspaper
that an updated list is available for review.
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Board NoteBOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 270.42(d)
through (hi) (19907), as amended at 56 Fed. Reg. 7206,
February 21, 1991, and at 56 Fed. Reg. 32688, July 17,
1991.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 720
HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM: GENERAL
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
720.101 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
720.102 Availability of Information; Confidentiality of
Information
720.103 Use of Number and Gender
SUBPART B: DEFINITIONS
Section
720.110 Definitions
720.111 References
SUBPART C: RULEMAKING PETITIONS AND OTHER PROCEDURES
Section
720.120 Rulemaking
720.121 Alternative Equivalent Testing Methods
720.122 Waste Delisting
720.123 Petitions for Regulation as Universal Waste
720.130 Procedures for Solid Waste Determinations
720.131 Solid Waste Determinations
720.132 Boiler Determinations
720.133 Procedures for Determinations
720.140 Additional regulation of certain hazardous waste
Recycling Activities on a case-by-case Basis
720.141 Procedures for case-by-case regulation of hazardous
waste Recycling Activities
720.Appendix A Overview of 40 CFR, Subtitle C Regulations
AUTHORITY: Implementing Section 22.4 and authorized by Section
27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R81-22, 43 PCB 427, at 5 Ill. Reg. 9781,
effective May 17, 1982; amended and codified in R81-22, 45 PCB
317, at 6 Ill. Reg. 4828, effective May 17, 1982; amended in R82-
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19 at 7 Ill. Reg. 14015, effective October 12, 1983; amended in
R84-9, 53 PCB 131 at 9 Ill. Reg. 11819, effective July 24, 1985;
amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg. 968, effective January 2, 1986;
amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill. Reg. 13998, effective August 12,
1986; amended in R86-19 at 10 Ill. Reg. 20630, effective December
2, 1986; amended in R86-28 at 11 Ill. Reg. 6017, effective March
24, 1987; amended in R86-46 at 11 Ill. Reg. 13435, effective
August 4, 1987; amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg. 19280, effective
November 12, 1987; amended in R87-26 at 12 Ill. Reg. 2450,
effective January 15, 1988; amended in R87-39 at 12 Ill. Reg.
12999, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R88-16 at 13 Ill. Reg.
362, effective December 27, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill.
Reg. 18278, effective November 13, 1989; amended in R89-2 at 14
Ill. Reg. 3075, effective February 20, 1990; amended in R89-9 at
14 Ill. Reg. 6225, effective April 16, 1990; amended in R90-10 at
14 Ill. Reg. 16450, effective September 25, 1990; amended in R90-
17 at 15 Ill. Reg. 7934, effective May 9, 1991; amended in R90-11
at 15 Ill. Reg. 9323, effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-1
at 15 Ill. Reg. 14446, effective September 30, 1991; amended in
R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9489, effective June 9, 1992; amended in
R92-1 at 16 Ill. Reg. 17636, effective November 6, 1992; amended
in R92-10 at 17 Ill. Reg. 5625, effective March 26, 1993; amended
in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20545, effective November 22, 1993;
amended in R93-16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6720, effective April 26, 1994;
amended in R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12160, effective July 29, 1994;
amended in R94-17 at 18 Ill. Reg. 17480, effective November 23,
1994; amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9508, effective June 27,
1995; amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 10929, August 1, 1996;
amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 256, effective
December 16, 1997; amended in R98-12 at 22 Ill. Reg. 7590,
effective April 15, 1998; amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22
Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART B: DEFINITIONS
Section 720.110 Definitions
When used in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 726 and 728 only, the
following terms have the meanings given below:
“Aboveground tank” means a device meeting the
definition of “tank” that is situated in such a way
that the entire surface area of the tank is completely
above the plane of the adjacent surrounding surface and
the entire surface area of the tank (including the tank
bottom) is able to be visually inspected.
“Act” or “RCRA” means the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as
amended by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
of 1976, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6901 et seq.)
??
“Active life” of a facility means the period from the
initial receipt of hazardous waste at the facility
until the Agency receives certification of final
closure.
“Active portion” means that portion of a facility where
treatment, storage or disposal operations are being or
have been conducted after May 19, 1980, and which is
not a closed portion. (See also “closed portion” and
“inactive portion”.)
“Administrator” means the Administrator of the U.S.
Environmental Protection Agency or the Administrator’s
designee.
“Agency” means the Illinois Environmental Protection
Agency.
“Ancillary equipment” means any device including, but
not limited to, such devices as piping, fittings,
flanges, valves and pumps, that is used to distribute,
meter or control the flow of hazardous waste from its
point of generation to storage or treatment tank(s),
between hazardous waste storage and treatment tanks to
a point of disposal onsite, or to a point of shipment
for disposal off-site.
“Aquifer” means a geologic formation, group of
formations or part of a formation capable of yielding a
significant amount of groundwater to wells or springs.
“Authorized representative” means the person
responsible for the overall operation of a facility or
an operational unit (i.e., part of a facility), e.g.,
the plant manager, superintendent or person of
equivalent responsibility.
“Battery” means a device consisting of one or more
electrically connected electrochemical cells that is
designed to receive, store, and deliver electric
energy. An electrochemical cell is a system consisting
of an anode, cathode, and an electrolyte, plus such
connections (electrical and mechanical) as may be
needed to allow the cell to deliver or receive
electrical energy. The term battery also includes an
intact, unbroken battery from which the electrolyte has
been removed.
“Board” means the Illinois Pollution Control Board.
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“Boiler” means an enclosed device using controlled
flame combustion and having the following
characteristics:
The unit must have physical provisions for
recovering and exporting thermal energy in the
form of steam, heated fluids or heated gases; and
the unit’s combustion chamber and primary energy
recovery Section(s) section(s) must be of integral
design. To be of integral design, the combustion
chamber and the primary energy recovery Section(s)
section(s) (such as waterwalls and superheaters)
must be physically formed into one manufactured or
assembled unit. A unit in which the combustion
chamber and the primary energy recovery Section(s)
section(s) are joined only by ducts or connections
carrying flue gas is not integrally designed;
however, secondary energy recovery equipment (such
as economizers or air preheaters) need not be
physically formed into the same unit as the
combustion chamber and the primary energy recovery
Section section. The following units are not
precluded from being boilers solely because they
are not of integral design: process heaters
(units that transfer energy directly to a process
stream), and fluidized bed combustion units; and
While in operation, the unit must maintain a
thermal energy recovery efficiency of at least 60
percent, calculated in terms of the recovered
energy compared with the thermal value of the
fuel; and
The unit must export and utilize at least 75
percent of the recovered energy, calculated on an
annual basis. In this calculation, no credit
shall be given for recovered heat used internally
in the same unit. (Examples of internal use are
the preheating of fuel or combustion air, and the
driving of induced or forced draft fans or
feedwater pumps); or
The unit is one which the Board has determined, on
a case-by-case basis, to be a boiler, after
considering the standards in Section 720.132.
“Carbon regeneration unit” means any enclosed thermal
treatment device used to regenerate spent activated
carbon.
“Certification” means a statement of professional
opinion based upon knowledge and belief.
??
“Closed Portion” means that portion of a facility which
an owner or operator has closed in accordance with the
approved facility closure plan and all applicable
closure requirements. (See also “active portion” and
“inactive portion”.)
“Component” means either the tank or ancillary
equipment of a tank system.
“Confined aquifer” means an aquifer bounded above and
below by impermeable beds or by beds of distinctly
lower permeability than that of the aquifer itself; an
aquifer containing confined groundwater.
“Container” means any portable device in which a
material is stored, transported, treated, disposed of
or otherwise handled.
“Containment Building building” means a hazardous waste
management unit that is used to store or treat
hazardous waste under the provisions of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.Subpart DD and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.Subpart
DD.
“Contingency plan” means a document setting out an
organized, planned and coordinated course of action to
be followed in case of a fire, explosion or release of
hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents which
could threaten human health or the environment.
“Corrective action management unit” or “CAMU” means an
area within a facility that is designated by the Agency
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart S for the purpose
of implementing corrective action requirements under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.201 and RCRA section 3008(h). A
CAMU shall only be used for the management of
remediation wastes pursuant to implementing such
corrective action requirements at the facility.
BOARD NOTE: USEPA must also designate a CAMU until it
grants this authority to the Agency. See the note
following 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.652.
“Corrosion expert” means a person who, by reason of
knowledge of the physical sciences and the principles
of engineering and mathematics, acquired by a
professional education and related practical
experience, is qualified to engage in the practice of
corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping
systems and metal tanks. Such a person must be
certified as being qualified by the National
Association of Corrosion Engineers (NACE) or be a
??
registered professional engineer who has certification
or licensing that includes education and experience in
corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping
systems and metal tanks.
“Designated facility” means a hazardous waste
treatment, storage or disposal facility,
Which:
Has received a RCRA permit (or interim
status) pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702,
703 and 705;
Has received a RCRA permit from USEPA
pursuant to 40 CFR 124 and 270 (1992);
Has received a RCRA permit from a state
authorized by USEPA pursuant to 40 CFR 271
(1992); or
Is regulated under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.106(c)(2) or 266.Subpart F; and
Which has been designated on the manifest by the
generator pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.120.
If a waste is destined to a facility in a state,
other than Illinois, which has been authorized by
USEPA pursuant to 40 CFR 271, but which has not
yet obtained authorization to regulate that waste
as hazardous, then the designated facility must be
a facility allowed by the receiving state to
accept such waste.
“Destination facility” means a facility that treats,
disposes of, or recycles a particular category of
universal waste, except those management activities
described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.113(a) and (c) and
733.133(a) and (c). A facility at which a particular
category of universal waste is only accumulated is not
a destination facility for the purposes of managing
that category of universal waste.
“Dike” means an embankment or ridge of either natural
or manmade materials used to prevent the movement of
liquids, sludges, solids or other materials.
“Director” means the Director of the Illinois
Environmental Protection Agency.
??
“Discharge” or “hazardous waste discharge” means the
accidental or intentional spilling, leaking, pumping,
pouring, emitting, emptying or dumping of hazardous
waste into or on any land or water.
“Disposal” means the discharge, deposit, injection,
dumping, spilling, leaking or placing of any solid
waste or hazardous waste into or on any land or water
so that such solid waste or hazardous waste or any
constituent thereof may enter the environment or be
emitted into the air or discharged into any waters,
including groundwaters.
“Disposal facility” means a facility or part of a
facility at which hazardous waste is intentionally
placed into or on any land or water and at which waste
will remain after closure. The term disposal facility
does not include a corrective action management unit
(CAMU) into which remediation wastes are placed.
“Drip pad” means an engineered structure consisting of
a curbed, free-draining base, constructed of non-
earthen materials and designed to convey preservative
kick-back or drippage from treated wood, precipitation
and surface water run-on to an associated collection
system at wood preserving plants.
“Electric lamp” means the bulb or tube portion of a
lighting device specifically designed to produce
radiant energy, most often in the ultraviolet, visible,
and infrared regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
BOARD NOTE: The definition of “electric lamp” was
added pursuant to Section 22.23a of the Act [415 ILCS
5/22.23a] (see P.A. 90-502, effective August 19,
1997).
“Elementary neutralization unit” means a device which:
Is used for neutralizing wastes which are
hazardous only because they exhibit the
corrosivity characteristic defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.122 or are listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Subpart D only for this reason; and
Meets the definition of tank, tank system,
container, transport vehicle or vessel in this
Section.
“EPA hazardous waste number” or “USEPA hazardous waste
number” means the number assigned by USEPA to each
??
hazardous waste listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.Subpart
D and to each characteristic identified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.Subpart C.
“EPA identification number” or “USEPA identification
number” means the number assigned by USEPA pursuant to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 722 through 725 to each generator,
transporter and treatment, storage or disposal
facility.
“EPA region” or “USEPA region” means the states and
territories found in any one of the following ten
regions:
Region I: Maine, Vermont, New Hampshire,
Massachusetts, Connecticut and Rhode Island
Region II: New York, New Jersey, Commonwealth of
Puerto Rico and the U.S. Virgin Islands
Region III: Pennsylvania, Delaware, Maryland,
West Virginia, Virginia and the District of
Columbia
Region IV: Kentucky, Tennessee, North Carolina,
Mississippi, Alabama, Georgia, South Carolina and
Florida
Region V: Minnesota, Wisconsin, Illinois,
Michigan, Indiana and Ohio
Region VI: New Mexico, Oklahoma, Arkansas,
Louisiana and Texas
Region VII: Nebraska, Kansas, Missouri and Iowa
Region VIII: Montana, Wyoming, North Dakota,
South Dakota, Utah and Colorado
Region IX: California, Nevada, Arizona, Hawaii,
Guam, American Samoa and Commonwealth of the
Northern Mariana Islands
Region X: Washington, Oregon, Idaho and Alaska
“Equivalent method” means any testing or analytical
method approved by the Board pursuant to Section
720.120.
“Existing hazardous waste management (HWM) facility” or
“existing facility” means a facility which was in
operation or for which construction commenced on or
??
before November 19, 1980. A facility had commenced
construction if the owner or operator had obtained the
federal, state, and local approvals or permits
necessary to begin physical construction and either:
A continuous on-site, physical construction
program had begun or
The owner or operator had entered into contractual
obligations -- -- which could not be canceled or
modified without substantial loss -- -- for
physical construction of the facility to be
completed within a reasonable time.
“Existing portion” means that land surface area of an
existing waste management unit, included in the
original Part A permit application, on which wastes
have been placed prior to the issuance of a permit.
“Existing tank system” or “existing component” means a
tank system or component that is used for the storage
or treatment of hazardous waste and that is in
operation, or for which installation has commenced on
or prior to July 14, 1986. Installation will be
considered to have commenced if the owner or operator
has obtained all federal, State state, and local
approvals or permits necessary to begin physical
construction of the site or installation of the tank
system and if either
A continuous on-site physical construction or
installation program has begun; or
The owner or operator has entered into contractual
obligations -- -- which cannot be canceled or
modified without substantial loss -- -- for
physical construction of the site or installation
of the tank system to be completed within a
reasonable time.
“Explosives or munitions emergency” means a situation
involving the suspected or detected presence of
unexploded ordnance (UXO), damaged or deteriorated
explosives or munitions, an improvised explosive device
(IED), other potentially explosive material or device,
or other potentially harmful military chemical
munitions or device, that creates an actual or
potential imminent threat to human health, including
safety, or the environment, including property, as
determined by an explosives or munitions emergency
response specialist. Such situations may require
immediate and expeditious action by an explosives or
??
munitions emergency response specialist to control,
mitigate, or eliminate the threat.
“Explosives or munitions emergency response” means all
immediate response activities by an explosives and
munitions emergency response specialist to control,
mitigate, or eliminate the actual or potential threat
encountered during an explosives or munitions
emergency. An explosives or munitions emergency
response may include in-place render-safe procedures,
treatment, or destruction of the explosives or
munitions and/or transporting those items to another
location to be rendered safe, treated, or destroyed.
Any reasonable delay in the completion of an explosives
or munitions emergency response caused by a necessary,
unforeseen, or uncontrollable circumstance will not
terminate the explosives or munitions emergency.
Explosives and munitions emergency responses can occur
on either public or private lands and are not limited
to responses at RCRA facilities.
“Explosives or munitions emergency response specialist”
means an individual trained in chemical or conventional
munitions or explosives handling, transportation,
render-safe procedures, or destruction techniques.
Explosives or munitions emergency response specialists
include U.S. Department of Defense (U.S. DOD) emergency
explosive ordnance disposal (EOD), technical escort
unit (TEU), and U.S. DOD-certified civilian or
contractor personnel and other federal, state, or local
government or civilian personnel who are similarly
trained in explosives or munitions emergency responses.
“Facility” means:
All contiguous land and structures, other
appurtenances, and improvements on the land used
for treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous
waste. A facility may consist of several
treatment, storage, or disposal operational units
(e.g., one or more landfills, surface
impoundments, or combinations of them).
For the purpose of implementing corrective action
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.201, all contiguous
property under the control of the owner or
operator seeking a permit under Subtitle C of
RCRA. This definition also applies to facilities
implementing corrective action under RCRA Section
3008(h).
??
“Federal agency” means any department, agency or other
instrumentality of the federal government, any
independent agency or establishment of the federal
government including any government corporation and the
Government Printing Office.
“Federal, state, and local approvals or permits
necessary to begin physical construction” means permits
and approvals required under federal, state, or local
hazardous waste control statutes, regulations or
ordinances.
“Final closure” means the closure of all hazardous
waste management units at the facility in accordance
with all applicable closure requirements so that
hazardous waste management activities under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 724 and 725 are no longer conducted at the
facility unless subject to the provisions of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722.134.
“Food-chain crops” means tobacco, crops grown for human
consumption and crops grown for feed for animals whose
products are consumed by humans.
“Freeboard” means the vertical distance between the top
of a tank or surface impoundment dike and the surface
of the waste contained therein.
“Free liquids” means liquids which readily separate
from the solid portion of a waste under ambient
temperature and pressure.
“Generator” means any person, by site, whose act or
process produce hazardous waste identified or listed in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 or whose act first causes a
hazardous waste to become subject to regulation.
“Groundwater” means water below the land surface in a
zone of saturation.
“Hazardous waste” means a hazardous waste as defined in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103.
“Hazardous waste constituent” means a constituent which
caused the hazardous waste to be listed in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.Subpart D, or a constituent listed in of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.124.
“Hazardous waste management unit” is a contiguous area
of land on or in which hazardous waste is placed, or
the largest area in which there is significant
likelihood of mixing hazardous waste constituents in
??
the same area. Examples of hazardous waste management
units include a surface impoundment, a waste pile, a
land treatment area, a landfill cell, an incinerator, a
tank and its associated piping and underlying
containment system and a container storage area. A
container alone does not constitute a unit; the unit
includes containers and the land or pad upon which they
are placed.
“Inactive portion” means that portion of a facility
which is not operated after November 19, 1980. (See
also “active portion” and “closed portion”.)
“Incinerator” means any enclosed device that:
Uses controlled flame combustion and neither:
Meets the criteria for classification as a
boiler, sludge dryer or carbon regeneration
unit, nor
Is listed as an industrial furnace; or
Meets the definition of infrared incinerator or
plasma arc incinerator.
“Incompatible waste” means a hazardous waste which is
unsuitable for:
Placement in a particular device or facility
because it may cause corrosion or decay of
containment materials (e.g., container inner
liners or tank walls); or
Commingling with another waste or material under
uncontrolled conditions because the commingling
might produce heat or pressure, fire or explosion,
violent reaction, toxic dusts, mists, fumes or
gases or flammable fumes or gases.
(See 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.Appendix E for
examples.)
“Industrial furnace” means any of the following
enclosed devices that are integral components of
manufacturing processes and that use thermal treatment
to accomplish recovery of materials or energy:
Cement kilns
Lime kilns
??
Aggregate kilns
Phosphate kilns
Coke ovens
Blast furnaces
Smelting, melting and refining furnaces (including
pyrometallurgical devices such as cupolas,
reverberator furnaces, sintering machines,
roasters and foundry furnaces)
Titanium dioxide chloride process oxidation
reactors
Methane reforming furnaces
Pulping liquor recovery furnaces
Combustion devices used in the recovery of sulfur
values from spent sulfuric acid
Halogen acid furnaces (HAFs) for the production of
acid from halogenated hazardous waste generated by
chemical production facilities where the furnace
is located on the site of a chemical production
facility, the acid product has a halogen acid
content of at least 3%, the acid product is used
in a manufacturing process and, except for
hazardous waste burned as fuel, hazardous waste
fed to the furnace has a minimum halogen content
of 20%, as generated
Any other such device as the Agency determines to
be an “Industrial Furnace” on the basis of one or
more of the following factors:
The design and use of the device primarily to
accomplish recovery of material products;
The use of the device to burn or reduce raw
materials to make a material product;
The use of the device to burn or reduce
secondary materials as effective substitutes
for raw materials, in processes using raw
materials as principal feedstocks;
The use of the device to burn or reduce
secondary materials as ingredients in an
??
industrial process to make a material
product;
The use of the device in common industrial
practice to produce a material product; and
Other relevant factors.
“Individual generation site” means the contiguous site
at or on which one or more hazardous wastes are
generated. An individual generation site, such as a
large manufacturing plant, may have one or more sources
of hazardous waste but is considered a single or
individual generation site if the site or property is
contiguous.
“Infrared incinerator” means any enclosed device which
uses electric powered resistance heaters as a source of
radiant heat followed by an afterburner using
controlled flame combustion and which is not listed as
an industrial furnace.
“Inground tank” means a device meeting the definition
of “tank” whereby a portion of the tank wall is
situated to any degree within the ground, thereby
preventing visual inspection of that external surface
area of the tank that is in the ground.
“In operation” refers to a facility which is treating,
storing or disposing of hazardous waste.
“Injection well” means a well into which fluids are
being injected. (See also “underground injection”.)
“Inner liner” means a continuous layer of material
placed inside a tank or container which protects the
construction materials of the tank or container from
the contained waste or reagents used to treat the
waste.
“Installation inspector” means a person who, by reason
of knowledge of the physical sciences and the
principles of engineering, acquired by a professional
education and related practical experience, is
qualified to supervise the installation of tank
systems.
“International shipment” means the transportation of
hazardous waste into or out of the jurisdiction of the
United States.
??
“Land treatment facility” means a facility or part of a
facility at which hazardous waste is applied onto or
incorporated into the soil surface; such facilities are
disposal facilities if the waste will remain after
closure.
“Landfill” means a disposal facility or part of a
facility where hazardous waste is placed in or on land
and which is not a pile, a land treatment facility, a
surface impoundment, an underground injection well, a
salt dome formation, a salt bed formation, an
underground mine, a cave, or a corrective action
management unit (CAMU).
“Landfill cell” means a discrete volume of a hazardous
waste landfill which uses a liner to provide isolation
of wastes from adjacent cells or wastes. Examples of
landfill cells are trenches and pits.
“LDS” means leak detection system.
“Leachate” means any liquid, including any suspended
components in the liquid, that has percolated through
or drained from hazardous waste.
“Liner” means a continuous layer of natural or manmade
materials beneath or on the sides of a surface
impoundment, landfill or landfill cell, which restricts
the downward or lateral escape of hazardous waste,
hazardous waste constituents or leachate.
“Leak-detection system” means a system capable of
detecting the failure of either the primary or
secondary containment structure or the presence of a
release of hazardous waste or accumulated liquid in the
secondary containment structure. Such a system must
employ operational controls (e.g., daily visual
inspections for releases into the secondary containment
system of aboveground tanks) or consist of an
interstitial monitoring device designed to detect
continuously and automatically the failure of the
primary or secondary containment structure or the
presence of a release of hazardous waste into the
secondary containment structure.
“Management” or “hazardous waste management” means the
systematic control of the collection, source
separation, storage, transportation, processing,
treatment, recovery and disposal of hazardous waste.
??
“Manifest” means the shipping document originated and
signed by the generator which contains the information
required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.Subpart B.
“Manifest document number” means the USEPA twelve digit
identification number assigned to the generator plus a
unique five digit document number assigned to the
manifest by the generator for recording and reporting
purposes.
“Mercury-containing lamp” means an electric lamp into
which mercury is purposely introduced by the
manufacturer for the operation of the lamp. Mercury-
containing lamps include, but are not limited to,
fluorescent lamps and high-intensity discharge lamps.
BOARD NOTE: The definition of “mercury-containing
lamp” was added pursuant to Section 22.23a of the Act
[415 ILCS 5/22.23a] (see P.A. 90-502, effective August
19, 1997).
“Military munitions” means all ammunition products and
components produced or used by or for the U.S.
Department of Defense or the U.S. Armed Services for
national defense and security, including military
munitions under the control of the U.S. Department of
Defense, the U.S. Coast Guard, the U.S. Department of
Energy (U.S. DOE), and National Guard personnel. The
term military munitions includes: confined gaseous,
liquid, and solid propellants, explosives,
pyrotechnics, chemical and riot control agents, smokes,
and incendiaries used by U.S. DOD components, including
bulk explosives and chemical warfare agents, chemical
munitions, rockets, guided and ballistic missiles,
bombs, warheads, mortar rounds, artillery ammunition,
small arms ammunition, grenades, mines, torpedoes,
depth charges, cluster munitions and dispensers,
demolition charges, and devices and components of these
items and devices. Military munitions do not include
wholly inert items, improvised explosive devices, and
nuclear weapons, nuclear devices, and nuclear
components of these items and devices. However, the
term does include non-nuclear components of nuclear
devices, managed under U.S. DOE's nuclear weapons
program after all sanitization operations required
under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, have
been completed.
“Mining overburden returned to the mine site” means any
material overlying an economic mineral deposit which is
??
removed to gain access to that deposit and is then used
for reclamation of a surface mine.
“Miscellaneous unit” means a hazardous waste management
unit where hazardous waste is treated, stored or
disposed of and which is not a container, tank, tank
system, surface impoundment, pile, land treatment unit,
landfill, incinerator, boiler, industrial furnace,
underground injection well with appropriate technical
standards under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 730, containment
building, corrective action management unit (CAMU), or
a unit eligible for a research, development and
demonstration permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.231.
“Movement” means that hazardous waste transported to a
facility in an individual vehicle.
“New hazardous waste management facility” or “new
facility” means a facility which began operation, or
for which construction commenced, after November 19,
1980. (See also “Existing hazardous waste management
facility”.)
“New tank system” or “new tank component” means a tank
system or component that will be used for the storage
or treatment of hazardous waste and for which
installation commenced after July 14, 1986; except,
however, for purposes of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.293(g)-
(2) and 725.293(g)(2), a new tank system is one for
which construction commences after July 14, 1986. (See
also “existing tank system”.)
“Onground tank” means a device meeting the definition
of “tank” that is situated in such a way that the
bottom of the tank is on the same level as the adjacent
surrounding surfaces so that the external tank bottom
cannot be visually inspected.
“On-site” means the same or geographically contiguous
property which may be divided by public or private
right-of-way, provided the entrance and exit between
the properties is at a crossroads intersection and
access is by crossing as opposed to going along the
right-of-way. Noncontiguous properties owned by the
same person but connected by a right-of-way which he
controls and to which the public does not have access
is also considered on-site property.
“Open burning” means the combustion of any material
without the following characteristics:
??
Control of combustion air to maintain adequate
temperature for efficient combustion;
Containment of the combustion reaction in an
enclosed device to provide sufficient residence
time and mixing for complete combustion; and
Control of emission of the gaseous combustion
products.
(See also “incineration” and “thermal treatment”.)
“Operator” means the person responsible for the overall
operation of a facility.
“Owner” means the person who owns a facility or part of
a facility.
“Partial closure” means the closure of a hazardous
waste management unit in accordance with the applicable
closure requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725 at
a facility which contains other active hazardous waste
management units. For example, partial closure may
include the closure of a tank (including its associated
piping and underlying containment systems), landfill
cell, surface impoundment, waste pile or other
hazardous waste management unit, while other units of
the same facility continue to operate.
“Person” means an individual, trust, firm, joint stock
company, federal agency, corporation (including a
government corporation), partnership, association,
state, municipality, commission, political subdivision
of a state or any interstate body.
“Personnel” or “facility personnel” means all persons
who work at or oversee the operations of a hazardous
waste facility and whose actions or failure to act may
result in noncompliance with the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724 or 725.
“Pesticide” means any substance or mixture of
substances intended for preventing, destroying,
repelling, or mitigating any pest or intended for use
as a plant regulator, defoliant, or desiccant, other
than any article that fulfills one of the following
descriptions:
It is a new animal drug under Section 201(v) of
the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA; 21
U.S.C. § 321(v)), incorporated by reference in
Section 720.111,
??
It is an animal drug that has been determined by
regulation of the federal Secretary of Health and
Human Services pursuant to FFDCA Section 512,
incorporated by reference in Section 720.111, to
be an exempted new animal drug, or
It is an animal feed under FFDCA Section 201(w)
(21 U.S.C. § 321(w)), incorporated by reference in
Section 720.111 that bears or contains any
substances described in either of the two
preceding subsections of this definition.
BOARD NOTE: The second exception of corresponding
40 CFR 260.10 reads as follows: “Is an animal
drug that has been determined by regulation of the
Secretary of Health and Human Services not to be a
new animal drug”. This is very similar to the
language of Section 2(u) of the Federal
Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act
(FIFRA; 7 U.S.C. § 136(u)). The three exceptions,
taken together, appear intended not to include as
“pesticide” any material within the scope of
federal Food and Drug Administration regulation.
The Board codified this provision with the intent
of retaining the same meaning as its federal
counterpart while adding the definiteness required
under Illinois law.
“Pile” means any noncontainerized accumulation of
solid, non-flowing hazardous waste that is used for
treatment or storage, and that is not a containment
building.
“Plasma arc incinerator” means any enclosed device
which uses a high intensity electrical discharge or arc
as a source of heat followed by an afterburner using
controlled flame combustion and which is not listed as
an industrial furnace.
“Point source” means any discernible, confined and
discrete conveyance including, but not limited to, any
pipe, ditch, channel, tunnel, conduit, well, discrete
fissure, container, rolling stock, concentrated animal
feeding operation or vessel or other floating craft
from which pollutants are or may be discharged. This
term does not include return flows from irrigated
agriculture.
“Publicly owned treatment works” or “POTW” is as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 310.110.
??
“Qualified groundwater scientist” means a scientist or
engineer who has received a baccalaureate or post-
graduate degree in the natural sciences or engineering,
and has sufficient training and experience in
groundwater hydrology and related fields, as
demonstrated by state registration, professional
certifications or completion of accredited university
courses that enable the individual to make sound
professional judgments regarding groundwater monitoring
and contaminant fate and transport.
BOARD NOTE: “State registration” includes, but is not
limited to, registration as a professional engineer
with the Department of Professional Regulation,
pursuant to 225 ILCS 325/1 and 68 Ill. Adm. Code 1380.
“Professional certification” includes, but is not
limited to, certification under the certified ground
water professional program of the National Ground Water
Association.
“Regional Administrator” means the Regional
Administrator for the EPA Region in which the facility
is located or the Regional Administrator’s designee.
“Remediation waste” means all solid and hazardous
wastes, and all media (including groundwater, surface
water, soils, and sediments) and debris that contain
listed hazardous wastes or which themselves exhibit a
hazardous waste characteristic which are managed for
the purpose of implementing corrective action
requirements under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.201 and RCRA
Section 3008(h). For a given facility, remediation
wastes may originate only from within the facility
boundary, but may include waste managed in implementing
RCRA sections 3004(v) or 3008(h) for releases beyond
the facility boundary.
“Replacement unit” means a landfill, surface
impoundment or waste pile unit from which all or
substantially all of the waste is removed, and which is
subsequently reused to treat, store or dispose of
hazardous waste. “Replacement unit” does not include a
unit from which waste is removed during closure, if the
subsequent reuse solely involves the disposal of waste
from that unit and other closing units or corrective
action areas at the facility, in accordance with a
closure or corrective action plan approved by USEPA or
the Agency.
“Representative sample” means a sample of a universe or
whole (e.g., waste pile, lagoon, groundwater) which can
be expected to exhibit the average properties of the
universe or whole.
??
“Runoff” means any rainwater, leachate or other liquid
that drains over land from any part of a facility.
“Runon” means any rainwater, leachate or other liquid
that drains over land onto any part of a facility.
“Saturated zone” or “zone of saturation” means that
part of the earth’s crust in which all voids are filled
with water.
“SIC Code” means Standard Industrial Code as defined in
Standard Industrial Classification Manual, incorporated
by reference in Section 720.111.
“Sludge” means any solid, semi-solid or liquid waste
generated from a municipal, commercial or industrial
wastewater treatment plant, water supply treatment
plant or air pollution control facility exclusive of
the treated effluent from a wastewater treatment plant.
“Sludge dryer” means any enclosed thermal treatment
device which is used to dehydrate sludge and which has
a total thermal input, excluding the heating value of
the sludge itself, of 2500 Btu/lb or less of sludge
treated on a wet weight basis.
“Small Quantity Generator” means a generator which
generates less than 1000 kg of hazardous waste in a
calendar month.
“Solid waste” means a solid waste as defined in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.102.
“Sorbent” means a material that is used to soak up free
liquids by either adsorption or absorption, or both.
“Sorb” means to either adsorb or absorb, or both.
“Sump” means any pit or reservoir that meets the
definition of tank and those troughs or trenches
connected to it that serve to collect hazardous waste
for transport to hazardous waste storage, treatment or
disposal facilities; except that, as used in the
landfill, surface impoundment and waste pile rules,
“sump” means any lined pit or reservoir that serves to
collect liquids drained from a leachate collection and
removal system or leak detection system for subsequent
removal from the system.
“State” means any of the several states, the District
of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the
??
Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa and the
Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
“Storage” means the holding of hazardous waste for a
temporary period, at the end of which the hazardous
waste is treated, disposed of or stored elsewhere.
“Surface impoundment” or “impoundment” means a facility
or part of a facility which is a natural topographic
depression, manmade excavation or diked area formed
primarily of earthen materials (although it may be
lined with manmade materials) which is designed to hold
an accumulation of liquid wastes or wastes containing
free liquids and which is not an injection well.
Examples of surface impoundments are holding, storage,
settling and aeration pits, ponds and lagoons.
“Tank” means a stationary device, designed to contain
an accumulation of hazardous waste which is constructed
primarily of nonearthen materials (e.g., wood,
concrete, steel, plastic) which provide structural
support.
“Tank system” means a hazardous waste storage or
treatment tank and its associated ancillary equipment
and containment system.
“Thermal treatment” means the treatment of hazardous
waste in a device which uses elevated temperatures as
the primary means to change the chemical, physical or
biological character or composition of the hazardous
waste. Examples of thermal treatment processes are
incineration, molten salt, pyrolysis, calcination, wet
air oxidation and microwave discharge. (See also
“incinerator” and “open burning”.)
“Thermostat” means a temperature control device that
contains metallic mercury in an ampule attached to a
bimetal sensing element and mercury-containing ampules
that have been removed from such a temperature control
device in compliance with the requirements of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 733.113(c)(2) or 733.133(c)(2).
“Totally enclosed treatment facility” means a facility
for the treatment of hazardous waste which is directly
connected to an industrial production process and which
is constructed and operated in a manner which prevents
the release of any hazardous waste or any constituent
thereof into the environment during treatment. An
example is a pipe in which waste acid is neutralized.
??
“Transfer facility” means any transportation related
facility including loading docks, parking areas,
storage areas and other similar areas where shipments
of hazardous waste are held during the normal course of
transportation.
“Transport vehicle” means a motor vehicle or rail car
used for the transportation of cargo by any mode. Each
cargo-carrying body (trailer, railroad freight car,
etc.) is a separate transport vehicle.
“Transportation” means the movement of hazardous waste
by air, rail, highway or water.
“Transporter” means a person engaged in the off-site
transportation of hazardous waste by air, rail, highway
or water.
“Treatability study” means:
A study in which a hazardous waste is subjected to
a treatment process to determine:
Whether the waste is amenable to the
treatment process.
What pretreatment (if any) is required.
The optimal process conditions needed to
achieve the desired treatment.
The efficiency of a treatment process for a
specific waste or wastes. Or,
The characteristics and volumes of residuals
from a particular treatment process.
Also included in this definition for the purpose
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.104(e) and (f) exemptions
are liner compatibility, corrosion and other
material compatibility studies and toxicological
and health effects studies. A “treatability
study” is not a means to commercially treat or
dispose of hazardous waste.
“Treatment” means any method, technique or process,
including neutralization, designed to change the
physical, chemical or biological character or
composition of any hazardous waste so as to neutralize
such waste, or so as to recover energy or material
resources from the waste or so as to render such waste
non-hazardous or less hazardous; safer to transport,
??
store or dispose of; or amenable for recovery, amenable
for storage or reduced in volume.
“Treatment zone” means a soil area of the unsaturated
zone of a land treatment unit within which hazardous
constituents are degraded, transformed or immobilized.
“Underground injection” means the subsurface
emplacement of fluids through a bored, drilled or
driven well; or through a dug well, where the depth of
the dug well is greater than the largest surface
dimension. (See also “injection well”.)
“Underground tank” means a device meeting the
definition of “tank” whose entire surface area is
totally below the surface of and covered by the ground.
“Unfit-for-use tank system” means a tank system that
has been determined through an integrity assessment or
other inspection to be no longer capable of storing or
treating hazardous waste without posing a threat of
release of hazardous waste to the environment.
“United States” means the 50 States states, the
District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico,
the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa and the
Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
“Universal waste” means any of the following hazardous
wastes that are managed under the universal waste
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733:
Batteries, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.102;
Pesticides, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.103;
Thermostats, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.104; and
Mercury-containing lamps, as described in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 733.107.
BOARD NOTE: Mercury-containing lamps were added
as universal waste pursuant to Section 22.23a of
the Act [415 ILCS 5/22.23a] (see P.A. 90-502,
effective August 19, 1997).
“Universal waste handler” means either of the
following:
??
A generator (as defined in this Section) of
universal waste; or
The owner or operator of a facility, including all
contiguous property, that receives universal waste
from other universal waste handlers, accumulates
the universal waste, and sends that universal
waste to another universal waste handler, to a
destination facility, or to a foreign destination.
“Universal waste handler” does not mean:
A person that treats (except under the
provisions of Section 733.113(a) or (c) or
733.133(a) or (c)), disposes of, or recycles
universal waste; or
A person engaged in the off-site
transportation of universal waste by air,
rail, highway, or water, including a
universal waste transfer facility.
“Universal waste transporter” means a person engaged in
the off-site transportation of universal waste by air,
rail, highway, or water.
“Unsaturated zone” or “zone of aeration” means the zone
between the land surface and the water table.
“Uppermost aquifer” means the geologic formation
nearest the natural ground surface that is an aquifer,
as well as lower aquifers that are hydraulically
interconnected with this aquifer within the facility’s
property boundary.
“USDOT” or “Department of Transportation” means the
United States Department of Transportation.
“Used oil” means any oil that has been refined from
crude oil, or any synthetic oil, that has been used and
as a result of such use is contaminated by physical or
chemical impurities.
“USEPA” or “EPA” or “U.S. EPA” means the United States
Environmental Protection Agency.
“Vessel” includes every description of watercraft, used
or capable of being used as a means of transportation
on the water.
“Wastewater treatment unit” means a device which:
??
Is part of a wastewater treatment facility which
has an NPDES permit pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
309 or a pretreatment permit or authorization to
discharge pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 310; and
Receives and treats or stores an influent
wastewater which is a hazardous waste as defined
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103, or generates and
accumulates a wastewater treatment sludge which is
a hazardous waste as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.103, or treats or stores a wastewater
treatment sludge which is a hazardous waste as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103; and
Meets the definition of tank or tank system in
this Section.
“Water (bulk shipment)” means the bulk transportation
of hazardous waste which is loaded or carried on board
a vessel without containers or labels.
“Well” means any shaft or pit dug or bored into the
earth, generally of a cylindrical form, and often
walled with bricks or tubing to prevent the earth from
caving in.
“Well injection” (See “underground injection”).
“Zone of engineering control” means an area under the
control of the owner or operator that, upon detection
of a hazardous waste release, can be readily cleaned up
prior to the release of hazardous waste or hazardous
constituents to groundwater or surface water.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 720.111 References
a) The following publications are incorporated by
reference for the purposes of this Part and 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703 through 705, 721 through 726, 728, 730,
731, 733, 738, and 739:
ACI. Available from the American Concrete
Institute, Box 19150, Redford Station, Detroit,
Michigan 48219:
ACI 318-83: “Building Code Requirements for
Reinforced Concrete”, adopted September,
1983.
??
ANSI. Available from the American National
Standards Institute, 1430 Broadway, New York, New
York 10018, 212-354-3300:
ANSI B31.3 and B31.4. See ASME/ANSI B31.3
and B31.4.
API. Available from the American Petroleum
Institute, 1220 L Street, N.W., Washington, D.C.
20005, 202-682-8000:
“Cathodic Protection of Underground Petroleum
Storage Tanks and Piping Systems”, API
Recommended Practice 1632, Second Edition,
December, 1987.
“Evaporative Loss from External Floating-Roof
Tanks”, API Publication 2517, Third Edition,
February, 1989.
“Guide for Inspection of Refinery Equipment,
Chapter XIII, Atmospheric and Low Pressure
Storage Tanks”, 4th Edition, 1981, reaffirmed
December, 1987.
“Installation of Underground Petroleum
Storage Systems”, API Recommended Practice
1615, Fourth Edition, November, 1987.
APTI. Available from the Air and Waste Management
Association, Box 2861, Pittsburgh, PA 15230, 412-
232-3444:
APTI Course 415: Control of Gaseous
Emissions, USEPA Publication EPA-450/2-81-
005, December, 1981.
ASME. Available from the American Society of
Mechanical Engineers, 345 East 47th Street, New
York, NY 10017, 212-705-7722:
“Chemical Plant and Petroleum Refinery
Piping”, ASME/ANSI B31.3-1987, as
supplemented by B31.3a-1988 and B31.3b-1988.
Also available from ANSI.
“Liquid Transportation Systems for
Hydrocarbons, Liquid Petroleum Gas, Anhydrous
Ammonia, and Alcohols”, ASME/ANSI B31.4-1986,
as supplemented by B31.4a-1987. Also
available from ANSI.
??
ASTM. Available from American Society for Testing
and Materials, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, PA
19103, 215-299-5400:
ASTM C 94-90, Standard Specification for
Ready-Mixed Concrete, approved March 30,
1990.
ASTM D 88-87, Standard Test Method for
Saybolt Viscosity, April 24, 1981, reapproved
January, 1987.
ASTM D 93-85, Standard Test Methods for Flash
Point by Pensky-Martens Closed Tester,
approved October 25, 1985.
ASTM D 1946-90, Standard Practice for
Analysis of Reformed Gas by Gas
Chromatography, Aapproved March 30, 1990.
ASTM D 2161-87, Standard Practice for
Conversion of Kinematic Viscosity to Saybolt
Universal or to Saybolt Furol Viscosity,
March 27, 1987.
ASTM D 2267-88, Standard Test Method for
Aromatics in Light Naphthas and Aviation
Gasolines by Gas Chromatography, approved
November 17, 1988.
ASTM D 2382-88, Standard Test Method for Heat
of Combustion of Hydrocarbon Fuels by Bomb
Calorimeter (High Precision Method), approved
October 31, 1988.
ASTM D 2879-86, Standard Test Method for
Vapor Pressure-Temperature Relationship and
Initial Decomposition Temperature of Liquids
by Isoteniscope, approved October 31, 1986.
ASTM D 2879-92, Standard Test Method for
Vapor Pressure-Temperature Relationship and
Initial Decomposition Temperature of Liquids
by Isoteniscope, approved 1992.
ASTM D 3828-87, Standard Test Methods for
Flash Point of Liquids by Setaflash Closed
Tester, approved December 14, 1988.
ASTM E 168-88, Standard Practices for General
Techniques of Infrared Quantitative Analysis,
approved May 27, 1988.
??
ASTM E 169-87, Standard Practices for General
Techniques of Ultraviolet-Visible
Quantitative Analysis, approved February 1,
1987.
ASTM E 260-85, Standard Practice for Packed
Column Gas Chromatography, approved June 28,
1985.
ASTM E 926-88 C, Standard Test Methods for
Preparing Refuse-Derived Fuel (RDF) Samples
for Analysis of Metals, Bomb-Acid Digestion
Method, approved March 25, 1988.
ASTM Method G 21-70 (1984a) -- Standard
Practice for Determining Resistance of
Synthetic Polymer Materials to Fungi.
ASTM Method G 22-76 (1984b) -- Standard
Practice for Determining Resistance of
Plastics to Bacteria.
GPO. Available from the Superintendent of
Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office,
Washington, D.C. 20402, 202-783-3238:
Standard Industrial Classification Manual
(1972), and 1977 Supplement, republished in
1983.
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods”, USEPA Publication
number SW-846 (Third Edition, November,
1986), as amended by Updates I (July, 1992),
II (September, 1994), IIA (August, 1993), and
IIB (January, 1995), and III (December, 1996)
(Document Number 955-001-00000-1).
NACE. Available from the National Association of
Corrosion Engineers, 1400 South Creek Dr.,
Houston, TX 77084, 713-492-0535:
“Control of External Corrosion on Metallic
Buried, Partially Buried, or Submerged Liquid
Storage Systems”, NACE Recommended Practice
RP0285-85 RP-02-85, approved March, 1985.
NFPA. Available from the National Fire Protection
Association, Batterymarch Park, Boston, MA 02269,
617-770-3000 or 800-344-3555:
??
“Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code” NFPA
30, issued July 17, 1987. Also available
from ANSI.
NTIS. Available from the U.S. Department of
Commerce, National Technical Information Service,
5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161, 703-
487-4600:
APTI Course 415: Control of Gaseous
Emissions, USEPA Publication EPA-450/2-81-
005, December, 1981.
“Generic Quality Assurance Project Plan for
Land Disposal Restrictions Program”, EPA/530-
SW-87-011, March 15, 1987. (Document number
PB 88-170766.)
“Guidance Guideline on Air Quality Models”,
Revised 1986. (Document number PB86-245-248
(Guideline) and PB88-150-958 (Supplement),
also set forth at 40 CFR 51, appendix W).
“Methods for Chemical Analysis of Water and
Wastes”, Third Edition, March, 1983.
(Document number PB 84-128677).
“Methods Manual for Compliance with BIF
Regulations”, December, 1990. (Document
number PB91-120-006).
“Petitions to Delist Hazardous Wastes -- A
Guidance Manual, Second Edition”, EPA/530-R-
93-007, March, 1993. (Document Number PB 93-
169 365).
“Procedures Manual for Ground Water
Monitoring at Solid Waste Disposal
Facilities”, EPA-530/SW-611, 1977. (Document
number PB 84-174820).
“Screening Procedures for Estimating the Air
Quality Impact of Stationary Sources”,
October, 1992, Publication Number EPA-450/R-
92-019.
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods”, USEPA Publication
number SW-846 (Third Edition, November,
1986), as amended by Updates I (July, 1992),
II (September, 1994), IIA (August, 1993), IIB
??
(January, 1995), and III (December, 1996)
(Document Number 955-001-00000-1).
OECD. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development, Environment Directorate, 2 rue Andre
Pascal, 75775 Paris Cedex 16, France):
OECD Guideline for Testing of Chemicals,
Method 301B: “CO
2 Evolution (Modified Sturm
Test)”, adopted 17 July 1992.
Table 2.B of the Annex of OECD Council
Decision C(88)90(Final) of 27 May 1988.
STI. Available from the Steel Tank Institute, 728
Anthony Trail, Northbrook, IL 60062, 708-498-
1980:
“Standard for Dual Wall Underground Steel
Storage Tanks” (1986).
U.S. DOD. Available from the United States
Department of Defense:
“DOD Ammunition and Explosive Safety
Standards” (DOD 6055.9-STD), as in effect on
November 8, 1995
The Motor Vehicle Inspection Report (DD Form
626), as in effect on November 8, 1995.
Requisition Tracking Form (DD Form 1348), as
in effect on November 8, 1995.
The Signature and Talley Record (DD Form
1907), as in effect on November 8, 1995.
Special Instructions for Motor Vehicle
Drivers (DD Form 836), as in effect on
November 8, 1995.
USEPA. Available from United States Environmental
Protection Agency, Office of Drinking Water, State
Programs Division, WH 550 E, Washington, D.C.
20460:
“Technical Assistance Document: Corrosion,
Its Detection and Control in Injection
Wells”, EPA 570/9-87-002, August, 1987.
USEPA. Available from Receptor Analysis Branch,
USEPA (MD-14), Research Triangle Park, NC 27711:
??
“Screening Procedures for Estimating the Air
Quality Impact of Stationary Sources,
Revised”, October, 1992, Publication Number
EPA-450/R-92-019.
USEPA. Available from RCRA Information Center
(RIC), 1235 Jefferson-Davis Highway, first floor,
Arlington, VA 22203 (Docket # F-94-IEHF-FFFFF):
OECD Amber List of Wastes, Appendix 4 to the
OECD Council Decision C(92)39/FINAL
(Concerning the Control of Transfrontier
Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery
Operations) (May 1993).
OECD Green List of Wastes, Appendix 3 to the
OECD Council Decision C(92)39/FINAL
(Concerning the Control of Transfrontier
Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery
Operations) (May 1994).
OECD Red List of Wastes, Appendix 5 to the
OECD Council Decision C(92)39/FINAL
(Concerning the Control of Transfrontier
Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery
Operations) (May 1993).
Table 2.B of the Annex of OECD Council
Decision C(88)90(Final) (May 27, 1988).
U.S. GSA. Available from the United States
Government Services Administration:
Government Bill of Lading (GBL) (GSA Standard
Form 1109), as in effect on November 8, 1995.
b) Code of Federal Regulations. Available from the
Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing
Office, Washington, D.C. 20401, 202-783-3238:
10 CFR 20, Appendix B (1997)
40 CFR 51.100(ii) (1997)
40 CFR 51, Subpart Appendix W (1997)
40 CFR 52.741, Appendix B (1997)
40 CFR 60 (1997)
40 CFR 61, Subpart V (1997)
??
40 CFR 136 (1997)
40 CFR 142 (1997)
40 CFR 220 (1997)
40 CFR 260.20 (1997)
40 CFR 264 (1997)
40 CFR 268.Appendix IX (1997)
40 CFR 302.4, 302.5 and 302.6 (1997)
40 CFR 761 (1997)
49 CFR 171 (1997)
49 CFR 173 (1997)
49 CFR 178 (1997)
c) Federal Statutes
Section 3004 of the Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act (42 U.S.C. 6901 et seq.), as amended
through December 31, 1987.
Sections 201(v), 201(w), and 360b(j) of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA; 21
U.S.C. §§ 321(v), 321(w) & 512(j)), as amended
through October 25, 1994.
Section 1412 of the Department of Defense
Authorization Act of 1986, Pub. L. 99-145, 50
U.S.C. 1521(j)(1) (1997)
d) This Section incorporates no later editions or
amendments.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 721
IDENTIFICATION AND LISTING OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
??
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
721.101 Purpose and Scope
721.102 Definition of Solid Waste
721.103 Definition of Hazardous Waste
721.104 Exclusions
721.105 Special Requirements for Hazardous Waste Generated by
Small Quantity Generators
721.106 Requirements for Recyclable Materials
721.107 Residues of Hazardous Waste in Empty Containers
721.108 PCB Wastes Regulated under TSCA
721.109 Requirements for Universal Waste
SUBPART B: CRITERIA FOR IDENTIFYING THE
CHARACTERISTICS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE AND FOR LISTING
HAZARDOUS WASTES
Section
721.110 Criteria for Identifying the Characteristics of
Hazardous Waste
721.111 Criteria for Listing Hazardous Waste
SUBPART C: CHARACTERISTICS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section
721.120 General
721.121 Characteristic of Ignitability
721.122 Characteristic of Corrosivity
721.123 Characteristic of Reactivity
721.124 Toxicity Characteristic
SUBPART D: LISTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section
721.130 General
721.131 Hazardous Wastes From Nonspecific Sources
721.132 Hazardous Waste from Specific Sources
721.133 Discarded Commercial Chemical Products, Off-
Specification Species, Container Residues, and Spill
Residues Thereof
721.135 Wood Preserving Wastes
721.Appendix A Representative Sampling Methods
721.Appendix B Method 1311 Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure (TCLP)
721.Appendix C Chemical Analysis Test Methods
Table A Analytical Characteristics of Organic Chemicals
(Repealed)
Table B Analytical Characteristics of Inorganic Species
(Repealed)
Table C Sample Preparation/Sample Introduction Techniques
(Repealed)
721.Appendix G Basis for Listing Hazardous Wastes
721.Appendix H Hazardous Constituents
??
721.Appendix I Wastes Excluded by Administrative Action
Table A Wastes Excluded by U.S. EPA under 40 CFR 260.20
and 260.22 from Non-Specific Sources
Table B Wastes Excluded by USEPA under 40 CFR 260.20 and
260.22 from Specific Sources
Table C Wastes Excluded by U.S. EPA under 40 CFR 260.20
and 260.22 from Commercial Chemical Products, Off-
Specification Species, Container Residues, and
Soil Residues Thereof
Table D Wastes Excluded by the Board by Adjusted Standard
721.Appendix J Method of Analysis for Chlorinated Dibenzo-p-
Dioxins and Dibenzofurans (Repealed)
721.Appendix Z Table to Section 721.102
AUTHORITY: Implementing Section 22.4 and authorized by Section
27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R81-22, 43 PCB 427, at 5 Ill. Reg. 9781,
effective May 17, 1982; amended and codified in R81-22, 45 PCB
317, at 6 Ill. Reg. 4828, effective May 17, 1982; amended in R82-
18, 51 PCB 31, at 7 Ill. Reg. 2518, effective February 22, 1983;
amended in R82-19, 53 PCB 131, at 7 Ill. Reg. 13999, effective
October 12, 1983; amended in R84-34, 61 PCB 247, at 8 Ill. Reg.
24562, effective December 11, 1984; amended in R84-9, at 9 Ill.
Reg. 11834, effective July 24, 1985; amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill.
Reg. 998, effective January 2, 1986; amended in R85-2 at 10 Ill.
Reg. 8112, effective May 2, 1986; amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill.
Reg. 14002, effective August 12, 1986; amended in R86-19 at 10
Ill. Reg. 20647, effective December 2, 1986; amended in R86-28 at
11 Ill. Reg. 6035, effective March 24, 1987; amended in R86-46 at
11 Ill. Reg. 13466, effective August 4, 1987; amended in R87-32
at 11 Ill. Reg. 16698, effective September 30, 1987; amended in
R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg. 19303, effective November 12, 1987; amended
in R87-26 at 12 Ill. Reg. 2456, effective January 15, 1988;
amended in R87-30 at 12 Ill. Reg. 12070, effective July 12, 1988;
amended in R87-39 at 12 Ill. Reg. 13006, effective July 29, 1988;
amended in R88-16 at 13 Ill. Reg. 382, effective December 27,
1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18300, effective November
13, 1989; amended in R90-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 14401, effective
August 22, 1990; amended in R90-10 at 14 Ill. Reg. 16472,
effective September 25, 1990; amended in R90-17 at 15 Ill. Reg.
7950, effective May 9, 1991; amended in R90-11 at 15 Ill. Reg.
9332, effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-1 at 15 Ill. Reg.
14473, effective September 30, 1991; amended in R91-12 at 16 Ill.
Reg. 2155, effective January 27, 1992; amended in R91-26 at 16
Ill. Reg. 2600, effective February 3, 1992; amended in R91-13 at
16 Ill. Reg. 9519, effective June 9, 1992; amended in R92-1 at 16
Ill. Reg. 17666, effective November 6, 1992; amended in R92-10 at
17 Ill. Reg. 5650, effective March 26, 1993; amended in R93-4 at
17 Ill. Reg. 20568, effective November 22, 1993; amended in R93-
16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6741, effective April 26, 1994; amended in
R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12175, effective July 29, 1994; amended in
??
R94-17 at 18 Ill. Reg. 17490, effective November 23, 1994;
amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9522, effective June 27, 1995;
amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 10963, effective August 1,
1996; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 275,
effective December 16, 1997; amended in R98-12 at 22 Ill. Reg.
7615, effective April 15, 1998; amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at
22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section 721.101 Purpose and Scope
a) This Part identifies those solid wastes which are
subject to regulation as hazardous wastes under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, 705 and 722 through 725 and 728,
and which are subject to the notification requirements
of Section 3010 of the Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act (RCRA) (42 U.S.C. 6901 et seq.). In this
Part:
1) Subpart A defines the terms “solid waste” and
“hazardous waste,” identifies those wastes which
are excluded from regulation under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, 705 and 722 through 726 and 728,
and establishes special management requirements
for hazardous waste produced by conditionally
exempt small quantity generators and hazardous
waste which is recycled.
2) Subpart B sets forth the criteria used to identify
characteristics of hazardous waste and to list
particular hazardous wastes.
3) Subpart C identifies characteristics of hazardous
wastes.
4) Subpart D lists particular hazardous wastes.
b) Limitations on definition of solid waste:
1) The definition of solid waste contained in this
Part applies only to wastes that also are
hazardous for purposes of the regulations
implementing Subtitle C of the Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act RCRA. For example,
it does not apply to materials (such as non-
hazardous scrap, paper, textiles or rubber) that
are not otherwise hazardous wastes and that are
recycled.
??
2) This Part identifies only some of the materials
which are solid wastes and hazardous wastes under
Sections 1004(5), 1004(27) and 7003 of RCRA. A
material which is not defined as a solid waste in
this Part, or is not a hazardous waste identified
or listed in this Part, is still a hazardous waste
for purposes of those Sections if, in the case of
Section 7003 of RCRA, the statutory elements are
established.
c) For the purposes of Sections 721.102 and 721.106:
1) A “spent material” is any material that has been
used and as a result of contamination can no
longer serve the purpose for which it was produced
without processing.
2) “Sludge” has the same meaning used in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.110.
3) A “by-product” is a material that is not one of
the primary products of a production process and
is not solely or separately produced by the
production process. Examples are process residues
such as slags or distillation column bottoms. The
term does not include a co-product that is
produced for the general public’s use and is
ordinarily used in the form it is produced by the
process.
4) A material is “reclaimed” if it is processed to
recover a usable product, or if it is
regenerated. Examples are recovery of lead values
from spent batteries and regeneration of spent
solvents.
5) A material is “used or reused” if it is either:
A) Employed as an ingredient (including use as
an intermediate) in an industrial process to
make a product (for example, distillation
bottoms from one process used as feedstock in
another process). However, a material will
not satisfy this condition if distinct
components of the material are recovered as
separate end products (as when metals are
recovered from metal-containing secondary
materials); or
B) Employed in a particular function or
application as an effective substitute for a
commercial product (for example, spent pickle
??
liquor used as phosphorus precipitant and
sludge conditioner in wastewater treatment).
6) “Scrap metal” is bits and pieces of metal parts
(e.g., bars, turnings, rods, sheets, wire) or
metal pieces that may be combined together with
bolts or soldering (e.g., radiators, scrap
automobiles, railroad box cars) which when worn or
superfluous can be recycled.
7) A material is “recycled” if it is used, reused or
reclaimed.
8) A material is “accumulated speculatively” if it is
accumulated before being recycled. A material is
not accumulated speculatively, however, if the
person accumulating it can show that the material
is potentially recyclable and has a feasible means
of being recycled; and that -- —during the
calendar year (commencing on January 1) -- —the
amount of material that is recycled, or
transferred to a different site for recycling,
equals at least 75 percent by weight or volume of
the amount of that material accumulated at the
beginning of the period. In calculating the
percentage of turnover, the 75 percent requirement
is to be applied to each material of the same type
(e.g., slags from a single smelting process) that
is recycled in the same way (i.e., from which the
same material is recovered or that is used in the
same way). Materials accumulating in units that
would be exempt from regulation under Section
721.104(c) are not to be included in making the
calculation. (Materials that are already defined
as solid wastes also are not to be included in
making the calculation.). Materials are no longer
in this category once they are removed from
accumulation for recycling, however.
9) “Excluded scrap metal” is processed scrap metal,
unprocessed home scrap metal, and unprocessed
prompt scrap metal.
10) “Processed scrap metal” is scrap metal which has
been manually or physically altered to either
separate it into distinct materials to enhance
economic value or to improve the handling of
materials. Processed scrap metal includes, but is
not limited to, scrap metal that has been baled,
shredded, sheared, chopped, crushed, flattened,
cut, melted, or separated by metal type (i.e.,
sorted), and fines, drosses and related materials
??
that have been agglomerated. (Note: shredded
circuit boards being sent for recycling are not
considered processed scrap metal. They are
covered under the exclusion from the definition of
solid waste for shredded circuit boards being
recycled (Section 721.104(a)(13)).
11) “Home scrap metal” is scrap metal as generated by
steel mills, foundries, and refineries, such as
turnings, cuttings, punchings, and borings.
12) “Prompt scrap metal” is scrap metal as generated
by the metal working/fabrication industries, and
it includes such scrap metal as turnings,
cuttings, punchings, and borings. Prompt scrap
metal is also known as industrial or new scrap
metal.
d) The Agency has inspection authority pursuant to Section
3007 of Resource Conservation and Recovery Act RCRA and
Section 4 of the Environmental Protection Act.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 721.102 Definition of Solid Waste
a) Solid waste.
1) A solid waste is any discarded material that is
not excluded by Section 721.104(a) or that is not
excluded pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.130 and
720.131.
2) A discarded material is any material that is:
A) Abandoned, as explained in subsection (b)
below; or
B) Recycled, as explained in subsection (c)
below; or
C) Considered inherently waste-like, as
explained in subsection (d) below.; or
D) A military munition identified as a solid
waste in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.302.
b) Materials are solid waste if they are abandoned by
being:
1) Disposed of; or
??
2) Burned or incinerated; or
3) Accumulated, stored or treated (but not recycled)
before or in lieu of being abandoned by being
disposed of, burned or incinerated.
c) Materials are solid wastes if they are recycled--or
accumulated, stored or treated before recycling--as
specified in subsections (c)(1) through (c)(4) below if
they are:
1) Used in a manner constituting disposal.
A) Materials noted with a “yes” in column 1 of
table in Section 721.Appendix Z are solid
wastes when they are:
i) Applied to or placed on the land in a
manner that constitutes disposal; or
ii) Used to produce products that are
applied to or placed on the land or are
otherwise contained in products that are
applied to or placed on the land (in
which cases the product itself remains a
solid waste).
B) However, commercial chemical products listed
in Section 721.133 are not solid wastes if
they are applied to the land and that is
their ordinary manner of use.
2) Burned for energy recovery.
A) Materials noted with a “yes” in column 2 of
table in Section 721.Appendix Z are solid
wastes when they are:
i)
bBurned to recover energy;
ii) Used to produce a fuel or are otherwise
contained in fuels (in which case the
fuel itself remains a solid waste);
iii) Contained in fuels (in which case the
fuel itself remains a solid waste).
B) However, commercial chemical products listed
in Section 721.133 are not solid wastes if
they are themselves fuels.
??
3) Reclaimed. Materials noted with a “yes” in column
3 of the table in Section 721.Appendix Z are solid
wastes when reclaimed.
4) Accumulated speculatively. Materials noted with
“yes” in column 4 of table in Section 721.Appendix
Z are solid wastes when accumulated speculatively.
d) Inherently waste-like materials. The following
materials are solid wastes when they are recycled in
any manner:
1) Hazardous waste numbers F020, F021 (unless used as
an ingredient to make a product at the site of
generation), F022, F023, F026, and F028.
2) Secondary materials fed to a halogen acid furnace
that exhibit a characteristic of a hazardous waste
or are listed as a hazardous waste as defined in
721.Subparts C or D of this Part, except for
brominated material that meets the following
criteria:
A) The material must contain a bromine
concentration of at least 45%;
B) The material must contain less than a total
of 1% of toxic organic compounds listed in
Section 721.Appendix H; and
C) The material is processed continually on-site
in the halogen acid furnace via direct
conveyance (hard piping).
3) The following criteria are used to add wastes to
the list:
A) Disposal method or toxicity.
i) The materials are ordinarily disposed
of, burned, or incinerated; or
ii) The materials contain toxic constituents
listed in Section 721.Appendix H and
these constituents are not ordinarily
found in raw materials or products for
which the materials substitute (or are
found in raw materials or products in
smaller concentrations) and are not used
or reused during the recycling process;
and
??
B) The material may pose a substantial hazard to
human health and the environment when
recycled.
e) Materials that are not solid waste when recycled.
1) Materials are not solid wastes when they can be
shown to be recycled by being:
A) Used or reused as ingredients in an
industrial process to make a product,
provided the materials are not being
reclaimed; or
B) Used or reused as effective substitutes for
commercial products; or
C) Returned to the original process from which
they are generated without first being
reclaimed. The materials must be returned as
a substitute for feedstock materials. In
cases where the original process to which the
material is returned is a secondary process,
the materials must be managed so there is no
placement on the land.
2) The following materials are solid wastes, even if
the recycling involves use, reuse, or return to
the original process (described in subsections
(e)(1)(A) through (e)(1)(C) above):
A) Materials used in a manner constituting
disposal or used to produce products that are
applied to the land; or
B) Materials burned for energy recovery, used to
produce a fuel, or contained in fuels; or
C) Materials accumulated speculatively; or
D) Materials listed in subsections (d)(1) and
(d)(2) above.
f) Documentation of claims that materials are not solid
wastes or are conditionally exempt from regulation.
Respondents in actions to enforce regulations
implementing Subtitle C of the Resource Conservation
Recovery Act RCRA or Section 21 of the Environmental
Protection Act that raise a claim that a certain
material is not a solid waste or that the material is
conditionally exempt from regulation must demonstrate
that there is a known market or disposition for the
??
material and that they meet the terms of the exclusion
or exemption. In doing so, the person must provide
appropriate documentation (such as contracts showing
that a second person uses the material as an ingredient
in a production process) to demonstrate that the
material is not a waste or that the material is exempt
from regulation. In addition, owners or operators of
facilities claiming that they actually are recycling
materials must show that they have the necessary
equipment to do so.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 721.104 Exclusions
a) Materials that are not solid wastes. The following
materials are not solid wastes for the purpose of this
Part:
1) Sewage:
A) Domestic sewage; and
B) Any mixture of domestic sewage and other
waste that passes through a sewer system to
publicly-owned treatment works for treatment.
C) “Domestic sewage” means untreated sanitary
wastes that pass through a sewer system.
2) Industrial wastewater discharges that are point
source discharges with National Pollutant
Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permits
issued by the Agency pursuant to Section 12(f) of
the Environmental Protection Act and 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 309.
BOARD NOTE: This exclusion applies only to the
actual point source discharge. It does not
exclude industrial wastewaters while they are
being collected, stored, or treated before
discharge, nor does it exclude sludges that are
generated by industrial wastewater treatment.
3) Irrigation return flows.
4) Source, special nuclear, or by-product material as
defined by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as
amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.).
??
5) Materials subjected to in-situ mining techniques
that are not removed from the ground as part of
the extraction process.
6) Pulping liquors (i.e., black liquor liquors) that
are reclaimed in a pulping liquor recovery furnace
and then reused in the pulping process, unless
accumulated speculatively, as defined in Section
721.101(c).
7) Spent sulfuric acid used to produce virgin
sulfuric acid unless it is accumulated
speculatively, as defined in Section 721.101(c).
8) Secondary materials that are reclaimed and
returned to the original process or processes in
which they were generated where they are reused in
the production process, provided:
A) Only tank storage is involved, and the entire
process through completion of reclamation is
closed by being entirely connected with pipes
or other comparable enclosed means of
conveyance;
B) Reclamation does not involve controlled flame
combustion (such as occurs in boilers,
industrial furnaces or incinerators);
C) The secondary materials are never accumulated
in such tanks for over twelve months without
being reclaimed; and
D) The reclaimed material is not used to produce
a fuel or used to produce products that are
used in a manner constituting disposal.
9) Wood preserving wastes.
A) Spent wood preserving solutions that have
been used and which are reclaimed and reused
for their original intended purpose; and
B) Wastewaters from the wood preserving process
that have been reclaimed and which are reused
to treat wood.
10) Hazardous waste numbers K060, K087, K141, K142,
K143, K144, K145, K147, and K148, and any wastes
from the coke by-products processes that are
hazardous only because they exhibit the toxicity
characteristic specified in Section 721.124, when
??
subsequent to generation these materials are
recycled to coke ovens, to the tar recovery
process as a feedstock to produce coal tar, or are
mixed with coal tar prior to the tar’s sale or
refining. This exclusion is conditioned on there
being no land disposal of the waste from the point
it is generated to the point it is recycled to
coke ovens, to tar recovery, to the tar refining
processes, or prior to when it is mixed with coal.
11) Nonwastewater splash condenser dross residue from
the treatment of hazardous waste number K061 in
high temperature metals recovery units, provided
it is shipped in drums (if shipped) and not land
disposed before recovery.
12) Recovered oil from petroleum refining,
exploration, and production and from
transportation incident thereto that is to be
inserted into the petroleum refining process (SIC
Code 2911) at or before a point (other than direct
insertion into a coker) where contaminants are
removed. This exclusion applies to recovered oil
stored or transported prior to insertion, except
that the oil must not be stored in a manner
involving placement on the land and the oil must
not be accumulated speculatively before being
recycled. Recovered oil is oil that has been
reclaimed from secondary materials (such as
wastewater) generated from normal petroleum
refining, exploration, and production, and from
transportation practices. Recovered oil includes
oil that is recovered from refinery wastewater
collection and treatment systems, oil recovered
from oil and gas drilling operations, and oil
recovered from wastes removed from crude oil
storage tanks. Recovered oil does not include
(among other things) oil-bearing hazardous wastes
listed in Subpart D of this Part (e.g., K048
through K052, F037, and F038). However, oil
recovered from such wastes may be considered
recovered oil. Recovered oil also does not
include used oil as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
739.100.
13) Excluded scrap metal (processed scrap metal,
unprocessed home scrap metal, and unprocessed
prompt scrap metal) being recycled.
14) Shredded circuit boards being recycled, provided
that they meet the following conditions:
??
A) The circuit boards are stored in containers
sufficient to prevent a release to the
environment prior to recovery; and
B) The circuit boards are free of mercury
switches, mercury relays and nickel-cadmium
batteries and lithium batteries.
b) Solid wastes that are not hazardous wastes. The
following solid wastes are not hazardous wastes:
1) Household waste, including household waste that
has been collected, transported, stored, treated,
disposed, recovered (e.g., refuse-derived fuel),
or reused. “Household waste” means any waste
material (including garbage, trash, and sanitary
wastes in septic tanks) derived from households
(including single and multiple residences, hotels,
and motels, bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew
quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds, and day-use
recreation areas). A resource recovery facility
managing municipal solid waste shall not be deemed
to be treating, storing, disposing of, or
otherwise managing hazardous wastes for the
purposes of regulation under this Part, if such
facility:
A) Receives and burns only:
i) Household waste (from single and
multiple dwellings, hotels, motels, and
other residential sources); and
ii) Solid waste from commercial or
industrial sources that does not contain
hazardous waste, and
B) Such facility does not accept hazardous waste
and the owner or operator of such facility
has established contractual requirements or
other appropriate notification or inspection
procedures to assure that hazardous wastes
are not received at or burned in such
facility.
BOARD NOTE: The U.S. Supreme Court
determined, in City of Chicago v.
Environmental Defense Fund, Inc., -- 511 U.S.
-- 328, 114 S. Ct. 1588, 128 L. Ed. 2d 302
(1994), that this exclusion and RCRA section
3001(i) (42 U.S.C. § 6921(i)) do not exclude
the ash from facilities covered by this
??
subsection from regulation as a hazardous
waste. At 59 Fed. Reg. 29372 (June 7, 1994),
USEPA granted facilities managing ash from
such facilities that is determined a
hazardous waste under Subpart C of this Part
until December 7, 1994 to file a Part A
permit application pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 703.181. At 60 Fed. Reg. 6666 (Feb. 3,
1995), USEPA stated that it interpreted that
the point at which ash becomes subject to
RCRA Subtitle C regulation is when that
material leaves the combustion building
(including connected air pollution control
equipment).
2) Solid wastes generated by any of the following
that are returned to the soil as fertilizers:
A) The growing and harvesting of agricultural
crops, or
B) The raising of animals, including animal
manures.
3) Mining overburden returned to the mine site.
4) Fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and
flue gas emission control waste generated
primarily from the combustion of coal or other
fossil fuels, except as provided in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.212 for facilities that burn or process
hazardous waste.
5) Drilling fluids, produced waters, and other wastes
associated with the exploration, development, or
production of crude oil, natural gas, or
geothermal energy.
6) Chromium wastes:
A) Wastes that fail the test for the toxicity
characteristic (Sections 721.124 and
721.Appendix B) because chromium is present
or which are listed in Subpart D of this Part
due to the presence of chromium, that do not
fail the test for the toxicity characteristic
for any other constituent or which are not
listed due to the presence of any other
constituent, and that do not fail the test
for any other characteristic, if it is shown
by a waste generator or by waste generators
that:
??
i) The chromium in the waste is exclusively
(or nearly exclusively) trivalent
chromium;
ii) The waste is generated from an
industrial process that uses trivalent
chromium exclusively (or nearly
exclusively) and the process does not
generate hexavalent chromium; and
iii) The waste is typically and frequently
managed in non-oxidizing environments.
B) Specific wastes that meet the standard in
subsection (b)(6)(A) of this Section (so long
as they do not fail the test for the toxicity
characteristic for any other constituent and
do not exhibit any other characteristic) are:
i) Chrome (blue) trimmings generated by the
following subcategories of the leather
tanning and finishing industry: hair
pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, hair
save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish,
retan/wet finish, no beamhouse, through-
the-blue, and shearling;
ii) Chrome (blue) shavings generated by the
following subcategories of the leather
tanning and finishing industry: hair
pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, hair
save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish,
retan/wet finish, no beamhouse, through-
the-blue, and shearling;
iii) Buffing dust generated by the following
subcategories of the leather tanning and
finishing industry: hair pulp/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, hair save/chrome
tan/retan/wet finish, retan/wet finish,
no beamhouse, through-the-blue;
iv) Sewer screenings generated by the
following subcategories of the leather
tanning and finishing industry: hair
pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish, hair
save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish,
retan/wet finish, no beamhouse, through-
the-blue, and shearling;
??
v) Wastewater treatment sludges generated
by the following subcategories of the
leather tanning and finishing industry:
hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish,
hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish,
retan/wet finish, no beamhouse, through-
the-blue, and shearling;
vi) Wastewater treatment sludges generated
by the following subcategories of the
leather tanning and finishing industry:
hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish,
hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish,
and through-the-blue;
vii) Waste scrap leather from the leather
tanning industry, the shoe manufacturing
industry, and other leather product
manufacturing industries; and
viii) Wastewater treatment sludges from
the production of titanium dioxide
pigment using chromium-bearing ores by
the chloride process.
7) Solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation,
and processing of ores and minerals (including
coal, phosphate rock, and overburden from the
mining of uranium ore), except as provided by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.212 for facilities that burn or
process hazardous waste. For purposes of this
subsection, beneficiation of ores and minerals is
restricted to the following activities: crushing,
grinding, washing, dissolution, crystallization,
filtration, sorting, sizing, drying, sintering,
pelletizing, briquetting, calcining to remove
water or carbon dioxide, roasting, autoclaving or
chlorination in preparation for leaching (except
where the roasting or autoclaving or chlorination
and leaching sequence produces a final or
intermediate product that does not undergo further
beneficiation or processing), gravity
concentration, magnetic separation, electrostatic
separation, floatation, ion exchange, solvent
extraction, electrowinning, precipitation,
amalgamation, and heap, dump, vat tank, and in
situ leaching. For the purposes of this
subsection, solid waste from the processing of
ores and minerals includes only the following
wastes:
A) Slag from primary copper processing,
??
B) Slag from primary lead processing,
C) Red and brown muds from bauxite refining,
D) Phosphogypsum from phosphoric acid
production,
E) Slag from elemental phosphorus production,
F) Gasifier ash from coal gasification,
G) Process wastewater from coal gasification,
H) Calcium sulfate wastewater treatment plant
sludge from primary copper processing,
I) Slag tailings from primary copper processing,
J) Fluorogypsum from hydrofluoric acid
production,
K) Process wastewater from hydrofluoric acid
production,
L) Air pollution control dust or sludge from
iron blast furnaces,
M) Iron blast furnace slag,
N) Treated residue from roasting and leaching of
chrome ore,
O) Process wastewater from primary magnesium
processing by the anhydrous process,
P) Process wastewater from phosphoric acid
production,
Q) Basic oxygen furnace and open hearth furnace
air pollution control dust or sludge from
carbon steel production,
R) Basic oxygen furnace and open hearth furnace
slag from carbon steel production,
S) Chloride processing waste solids from
titanium tetrachloride production, and
T) Slag from primary zinc smelting.
??
8) Cement kiln dust waste, except as provided by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.212 for facilities that burn or
process hazardous waste.
9) Solid waste that consists of discarded arsenical-
treated wood or wood products that fails the test
for the toxicity characteristic for hazardous
waste codes D004 through D017 and which is not a
hazardous waste for any other reason if the waste
is generated by persons that utilize the
arsenical-treated wood and wood products for these
materials’ intended end use.
10) Petroleum-contaminated media and debris that fail
the test for the toxicity characteristic of
Section 721.124 (hazardous waste codes D018
through D043 only) and which are subject to
corrective action regulations under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 731.
11) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 261.4(b)-
(11), which expired by its own terms on January
25, 1993. This statement maintains structural
parity with USEPA regulations.
12) Used chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants from totally
enclosed heat transfer equipment, including mobile
air conditioning systems, mobile refrigeration,
and commercial and industrial air conditioning and
refrigeration systems, that uses chlorofluoro-
carbons as the heat transfer fluid in a
refrigeration cycle, provided the refrigerant is
reclaimed for further use.
13) Non-terne plated used oil filters that are not
mixed with wastes listed in Subpart D of this
Part, if these oil filters have been gravity hot-
drained using one of the following methods:
A) Puncturing the filter anti-drain back valve
or the filter dome end and hot-draining;
B) Hot-draining and crushing;
C) Dismantling and hot-draining; or
D) Any other equivalent hot-draining method that
will remove used oil.
14) Used oil re-refining distillation bottoms that are
used as feedstock to manufacture asphalt products.
??
c) Hazardous wastes that are exempted from certain
regulations. A hazardous waste that is generated in a
product or raw material storage tank, a product or raw
material transport vehicle or vessel, a product or raw
material pipeline, or in a manufacturing process unit,
or an associated non-waste-treatment manufacturing
unit, is not subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, 705, and 722 through 725, and 728 or to
the notification requirements of Section 3010 of RCRA
until it exits the unit in which it was generated,
unless the unit is a surface impoundment, or unless the
hazardous waste remains in the unit more than 90 days
after the unit ceases to be operated for manufacturing
or for storage or transportation of product or raw
materials.
d) Samples
1) Except as provided in subsection (d)(2) of this
Section, a sample of solid waste or a sample of
water, soil, or air that is collected for the sole
purpose of testing to determine its
characteristics or composition is not subject to
any requirements of this Part or 35 Ill. Adm. Code
702, 703, 705, and 722 through 728. The sample
qualifies when:
A) The sample is being transported to a
laboratory for the purpose of testing;
B) The sample is being transported back to the
sample collector after testing;
C) The sample is being stored by the sample
collector before transport to a laboratory
for testing;
D) The sample is being stored in a laboratory
before testing;
E) The sample is being stored in a laboratory
for testing but before it is returned to the
sample collector; or
F) The sample is being stored temporarily in the
laboratory after testing for a specific
purpose (for example, until conclusion of a
court case or enforcement action where
further testing of the sample may be
necessary).
??
2) In order to qualify for the exemption in
subsection (d)(1)(A) or (d)(1)(B) of this Section,
a sample collector shipping samples to a
laboratory and a laboratory returning samples to a
sample collector shall:
A) Comply with U.S. Department of Transportation
(DOT), U.S. Postal Service (USPS), or any
other applicable shipping requirements; or
B) Comply with the following requirements if the
sample collector determines that DOT, USPS,
or other shipping requirements do not apply
to the shipment of the sample:
i) Assure that the following information
accompanies the sample: The sample
collector’s name, mailing address, and
telephone number; the laboratory’s name,
mailing address, and telephone number;
the quantity of the sample; the date of
the shipment; and a description of the
sample.
ii) Package the sample so that it does not
leak, spill, or vaporize from its
packaging.
3) This exemption does not apply if the laboratory
determines that the waste is hazardous but the
laboratory is no longer meeting any of the
conditions stated in subsection (d)(1) of this
Section.
e) Treatability study samples.
1) Except as is provided in subsection (e)(2) of this
Section, a person that generates or collects
samples for the purpose of conducting treatability
studies, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110,
are not subject to any requirement of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721 through 723 or to the notification
requirements of Section 3010 of the Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act. Nor are such
samples included in the quantity determinations of
Section 721.105 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134(d)
when:
A) The sample is being collected and prepared
for transportation by the generator or sample
collector;
??
B) The sample is being accumulated or stored by
the generator or sample collector prior to
transportation to a laboratory or testing
facility; or
C) The sample is being transported to the
laboratory or testing facility for the
purpose of conducting a treatability study.
2) The exemption in subsection (e)(1) of this Section
is applicable to samples of hazardous waste being
collected and shipped for the purpose of
conducting treatability studies provided that:
A) The generator or sample collector uses (in
“treatability studies”) no more than 10,000
kg of media contaminated with non-acute
hazardous waste, 1000 kg of non-acute
hazardous waste other than contaminated
media, 1 kg of acute hazardous waste, or 2500
kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous
waste for each process being evaluated for
each generated wastestream;
B) The mass of each shipment does not exceed
10,000 kg; the 10,000 kg quantity may be all
media contaminated with non-acute hazardous
waste, or may include 2500 kg of media
contaminated with acute hazardous waste, 1000
kg of hazardous waste, and 1 kg of acute
hazardous waste;
C) The sample must be packaged so that it does
not leak, spill, or vaporize from its
packaging during shipment and the
requirements of subsections (e)(2)(C)(i) or
(e)(2)(C)(ii) of this Section are met.
i) The transportation of each sample
shipment complies with U.S. Department
of Transportation (DOT), U.S. Postal
Service (USPS), or any other applicable
shipping requirements; or
ii) If the DOT, USPS, or other shipping
requirements do not apply to the
shipment of the sample, the following
information must accompany the sample:
The name, mailing address, and telephone
number of the originator of the sample;
the name, address, and telephone number
of the facility that will perform the
??
treatability study; the quantity of the
sample; the date of the shipment; and, a
description of the sample, including its
USEPA hazardous waste number;
D) The sample is shipped to a laboratory or
testing facility that is exempt under
subsection (f) of this Section, or has an
appropriate RCRA permit or interim status;
E) The generator or sample collector maintains
the following records for a period ending
three years after completion of the
treatability study:
i) Copies of the shipping documents;
ii) A copy of the contract with the facility
conducting the treatability study;
iii) Documentation showing: The amount of
waste shipped under this exemption; the
name, address, and USEPA identification
number of the laboratory or testing
facility that received the waste; the
date the shipment was made; and whether
or not unused samples and residues were
returned to the generator; and
F) The generator reports the information
required in subsection (e)(2)(E)(iii) of this
Section in its report under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.141.
3) The Agency may grant requests on a case-by-case
basis for up to an additional two years for
treatability studies involving bioremediation.
The Agency may grant requests, on a case-by-case
basis, for quantity limits in excess of those
specified in subsections (e)(2)(A), (e)(2)(B), and
(f)(4) of this Section, for up to an additional
5000 kg of media contaminated with non-acute
hazardous waste, 500 kg of non-acute hazardous
waste, 2500 kg of media contaminated with acute
hazardous waste, and 1 kg of acute hazardous
waste:
A) In response to requests for authorization to
ship, store, and conduct further treatability
studies on additional quantities in advance
of commencing treatability studies. Factors
to be considered in reviewing such requests
??
include the nature of the technology, the
type of process (e.g., batch versus
continuous), the size of the unit undergoing
testing (particularly in relation to scale-up
considerations), the time or quantity of
material required to reach steady-state
operating conditions, or test design
considerations, such as mass balance
calculations.
B) In response to requests for authorization to
ship, store, and conduct treatability studies
on additional quantities after initiation or
completion of initial treatability studies
when: There has been an equipment or
mechanical failure during the conduct of the
treatability study, there is need to verify
the results of a previously-conducted
treatability study, there is a need to study
and analyze alternative techniques within a
previously-evaluated treatment process, or
there is a need to do further evaluation of
an ongoing treatability study to determine
final specifications for treatment.
C) The additional quantities allowed and
timeframes allowed in subsections (e)(3)(A)
and (e)(3)(B) of this Section are subject to
all the provisions in subsections (e)(1) and
(e)(2)(B) through (e)(2)(F) of this Section.
The generator or sample collector shall apply
to the Agency and provide in writing the
following information:
i) The reason why the generator or sample
collector requires additional time or
quantity of sample for the treatability
study evaluation and the additional time
or quantity needed;
ii) Documentation accounting for all samples
of hazardous waste from the wastestream
that have been sent for or undergone
treatability studies, including the date
each previous sample from the waste
stream was shipped, the quantity of each
previous shipment, the laboratory or
testing facility to which it was
shipped, what treatability study
processes were conducted on each sample
shipped, and the available results of
each treatability study;
??
iii) A description of the technical
modifications or change in
specifications that will be evaluated
and the expected results;
iv) If such further study is being required
due to equipment or mechanical failure,
the applicant shall include information
regarding the reason for the failure or
breakdown and also include what
procedures or equipment improvements
have been made to protect against
further breakdowns; and
v) Such other information as the Agency
determines is necessary.
4) Final Agency determinations pursuant to this
subsection may be appealed to the Board.
f) Samples undergoing treatability studies at laboratories
or testing facilities. Samples undergoing treatability
studies and the laboratory or testing facility
conducting such treatability studies (to the extent
such facilities are not otherwise subject to RCRA
requirements) are not subject to any requirement of
this Part, or of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 705, 722
through 726, and 728 or to the notification
requirements of Section 3010 of the Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act, provided that the
requirements of subsections (f)(1) through (f)(11) of
this Section are met. A mobile treatment unit may
qualify as a testing facility subject to subsections
(f)(1) through (f)(11) of this Section. Where a group
of mobile treatment units are located at the same site,
the limitations specified in subsections (f)(1) through
(f)(11) of this Section apply to the entire group of
mobile treatment units collectively as if the group
were one mobile treatment unit.
1) No less than 45 days before conducting
treatability studies, the facility notifies the
Agency in writing that it intends to conduct
treatability studies under this subsection (f).
2) The laboratory or testing facility conducting the
treatability study has a USEPA identification
number.
3) No more than a total of 10,000 kg of “as received”
media contaminated with non-acute hazardous waste,
??
2500 kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous
waste, or 250 kg of other “as received” hazardous
waste is subject to initiation of treatment in all
treatability studies in any single day. “As
received” waste refers to the waste as received in
the shipment from the generator or sample
collector.
4) The quantity of “as received” hazardous waste
stored at the facility for the purpose of
evaluation in treatability studies does not exceed
10,000 kg, the total of which can include 10,000
kg of media contaminated with non-acute hazardous
waste, 2500 kg of media contaminated with acute
hazardous waste, 1000 kg of non-acute hazardous
wastes other than contaminated media, and 1 kg of
acute hazardous waste. This quantity limitation
does not include treatment materials (including
nonhazardous solid waste) added to “as received”
hazardous waste.
5) No more than 90 days have elapsed since the
treatability study for the sample was completed,
or no more than one year (two years for
treatability studies involving bioremediation) has
elapsed since the generator or sample collector
shipped the sample to the laboratory or testing
facility, whichever date first occurs. Up to 500
kg of treated material from a particular waste
stream from treatability studies may be archived
for future evaluation up to five years from the
date of initial receipt. Quantities of materials
archived are counted against the total storage
limit for the facility.
6) The treatability study does not involve the
placement of hazardous waste on the land or open
burning of hazardous waste.
7) The facility maintains records for three years
following completion of each study that show
compliance with the treatment rate limits and the
storage time and quantity limits. The following
specific information must be included for each
treatability study conducted:
A) The name, address, and USEPA identification
number of the generator or sample collector
of each waste sample;
B) The date the shipment was received;
??
C) The quantity of waste accepted;
D) The quantity of “as received” waste in
storage each day;
E) The date the treatment study was initiated
and the amount of “as received” waste
introduced to treatment each day;
F) The date the treatability study was
concluded;
G) The date any unused sample or residues
generated from the treatability study were
returned to the generator or sample collector
or, if sent to a designated facility, the
name of the facility and the USEPA
identification number.
8) The facility keeps, on-site, a copy of the
treatability study contract and all shipping
papers associated with the transport of
treatability study samples to and from the
facility for a period ending three years from the
completion date of each treatability study.
9) The facility prepares and submits a report to the
Agency by March 15 of each year that estimates the
number of studies and the amount of waste expected
to be used in treatability studies during the
current year, and includes the following
information for the previous calendar year:
A) The name, address, and USEPA identification
number of the facility conducting the
treatability studies;
B) The types (by process) of treatability
studies conducted;
C) The names and addresses of persons for whom
studies have been conducted (including their
USEPA identification numbers);
D) The total quantity of waste in storage each
day;
E) The quantity and types of waste subjected to
treatability studies;
F) When each treatability study was conducted;
and
??
G) The final disposition of residues and unused
sample from each treatability study.
10) The facility determines whether any unused sample
or residues generated by the treatability study
are hazardous waste under Section 721.103 and, if
so, are subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and
721 through 728, unless the residues and unused
samples are returned to the sample originator
under the exemption of subsection (e) of this
Section.
11) The facility notifies the Agency by letter when
the facility is no longer planning to conduct any
treatability studies at the site.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 721.105 Special Requirements for Hazardous Waste
Generated by Small Quantity Generators
a) A generator is a conditionally exempt small quantity
generator in a calendar month if it generates no more
than 100 kilograms of hazardous waste in that month.
35 Ill. Adm. Code 700 explains the relation of this to
the 100 kg/mo exception of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 809.
b) Except for those wastes identified in subsections (e),
(f), (g) and (j) of this Section, a conditionally
exempt small quantity generator’s hazardous wastes are
not subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702,
703, 705 and 722 through 726 and 728, and the
notification requirements of Section 3010 of Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act, provided the generator
complies with the requirements of subsections (f), (g)
and (j) of this Section.
c) When making the quantity determinations of this Part
and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722, the generator must include
all hazardous waste that it generates, except the
following hazardous waste:
1) Hazardous waste that is exempt from regulation
under Section 721.104(c) through (f), 721.106(a)-
(3), 721.107(a)(1), or 721.108;
2) Hazardous waste that is managed immediately upon
generation only in on-site elementary
neutralization units, wastewater treatment units,
??
or totally enclosed treatment facilities, as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110;
3) Hazardous waste that is recycled, without prior
storage or accumulation, only in an on-site
process subject to regulation under Section
721.106(c)(2);
4) Hazardous waste that is used oil managed under the
requirements of Section 721.106(a)(4) and 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 739;
5) Hazardous waste that is spent lead-acid batteries
managed under the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.Subpart G; and
6) Hazardous waste that is universal waste managed
under Section 721.109 and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.
d) In determining the quantity of hazardous waste it
generates, a generator need not include:
1) Hazardous waste when it is removed from on-site
storage; or
2) Hazardous waste produced by on-site treatment
(including reclamation) of its hazardous waste so
long as the hazardous waste that is treated was
counted once; or
3) Spent materials that are generated, reclaimed and
subsequently reused on-site, so long as such spent
materials have been counted once.
e) If a generator generates acute hazardous waste in a
calendar month in quantities greater than set forth
below, all quantities of that acute hazardous waste are
subject to full regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702,
703, 705 and 722 through 726 and 728, and the
notification requirements of Section 3010 of the
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act:
1) A total of one kilogram of one or more of the
acute hazardous wastes listed in Section 721.131,
721.132, or 721.133(e); or
2) A total of 100 kilograms of any residue or
contaminated soil, waste or other debris resulting
from the clean-up of a spill, into or on any land
or water, of any one or more of the acute
hazardous wastes listed in Section 721.131,
721.132, or 721.133(e).
??
BOARD NOTE: “Full regulation” means those
regulations applicable to generators of greater
than 1000 kg of non-acute hazardous waste in a
calendar month.
f) In order for acute hazardous wastes generated by a
generator of acute hazardous wastes in quantities equal
to or less than those set forth in subsection (e)(1) or
(e)(2) of this Section to be excluded from full
regulation under this Section, the generator must
comply with the following requirements:
1) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.111.
2) The generator may accumulate acute hazardous waste
on-site. If the generator accumulates at any time
acute hazardous wastes in quantities greater than
set forth in subsection (e)(1) or (e)(2) of this
Section, all of those accumulated wastes are
subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702,
703, 705 and 722 through 726 and 728, and the
applicable notification requirements of Section
3010 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act. The time period of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.134(a), for accumulation of wastes on-site,
begins when the accumulated wastes exceed the
applicable exclusion limit.
3) A conditionally exempt small quantity generator
may either treat or dispose of its acute hazardous
waste in an on-site facility or ensure delivery to
an off-site treatment, storage, or disposal
facility, , any of which, if located in the United
States, meets any of the following conditions:
A) The facility is permitted under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702 and 703;
B) The facility has interim status under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703 and 725;
C) The facility is authorized to manage
hazardous waste by a state with a hazardous
waste management program approved by USEPA
pursuant to 40 CFR 271;
D) The facility is permitted, licensed, or
registered by a state to manage municipal or
industrial solid waste and, if managed in a
municipal solid waste landfill facility, the
??
landfill is subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 810
through 814 or 40 CFR 258;
E)
The facility is permitted, licensed, or
registered by a state to manage non-municipal
non-hazardous waste and, if managed in a non-
municipal non-hazardous waste disposal unit,
the unit is subject to the requirements of 40
CFR 257.5 through 257.30;
BOARD NOTE: The Illinois non-hazardous waste
landfill regulations, 35 Ill. Adm. Code 810
through 814, do not allow the disposal of
hazardous waste in a landfill regulated under
those rules. The Board intends that
subsections (f)(3)(D) and (f)(3)(E) of this
Section impose a federal requirement on the
hazardous waste generator. The Board
specifically does not intend that these
subsections authorize any disposal of
conditionally-exempt small quantity generator
waste in a landfill not specifically
permitted to accept the particular hazardous
waste.
EF) The facility is a facility one that:
i) Beneficially uses or reuses or
legitimately recycles or reclaims its
waste; or
ii) Treats its waste prior to beneficial use
or reuse, or legitimate recycling or
reclamation; or
FG) For universal waste managed under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 733 or 40 CFR 273, the facility is
a universal waste handler or destination
facility subject to the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 733 or 40 CFR 273.
g) In order for hazardous waste generated by a
conditionally exempt small quantity generator in
quantities of less than 100 kilograms of hazardous
waste during a calendar month to be excluded from full
regulation under this Section, the generator must
comply with the following requirements:
??
1) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.111;
2) The conditionally exempt small quantity generator
may accumulate hazardous waste on-site. If it
accumulates at any time more than a total of 1000
kilograms of the generator’s hazardous waste, all
of those accumulated wastes are subject to
regulation under the special provisions of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722 applicable to generators of between
100 kg and 1000 kg of hazardous waste in a
calendar month as well as the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 705 and 723 through 726
and 728, and the applicable notification
requirements of Section 3010 of the Resource
Conservation and Recovery Act. The time period of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134(d) for accumulation of
wastes on-site begins for a small quantity
generator when the accumulated wastes exceed 1000
kilograms;
3) A conditionally exempt small quantity generator
may either treat or dispose of its hazardous waste
in an on-site facility or ensure delivery to an
off-site treatment, storage, or disposal facility,
any of which, if located in the United States,
meets any of the following conditions:
A) The facility is permitted under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702 and 703;
B) The facility has interim status under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703 and 725;
C) The facility is authorized to manage
hazardous waste by a state with a hazardous
waste management program approved by USEPA
under 40 CFR 271 (1986);
D) The facility is permitted, licensed, or
registered by a state to manage municipal or
industrial solid waste and, if managed in a
municipal solid waste landfill facility, the
landfill is subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 810
through 814 or 40 CFR 258;
E)
The facility is permitted, licensed, or
registered by a state to manage non-municipal
non-hazardous waste and, if managed in a non-
municipal non-hazardous waste disposal unit,
??
the unit is subject to the requirements of 40
CFR 257.5 through 257.30;
BOARD NOTE: The Illinois non-hazardous waste
landfill regulations, 35 Ill. Adm. Code 810
through 814, do not allow the disposal of
hazardous waste in a landfill regulated under
those rules. The Board intends that
subsections (g)(3)(D) and (f)(3)(E) of this
Section impose a federal requirement on the
hazardous waste generator. The Board
specifically does not intend that these
subsections authorize any disposal of
conditionally-exempt small quantity generator
waste in a landfill not specifically
permitted to accept the particular hazardous
waste.
EF) The facility is a facility one that:
i) Beneficially uses or re-uses, or
legitimately recycles or reclaims the
small quantity generator’s waste; or
ii) Treats its waste prior to beneficial use
or re-use, or legitimate recycling or
reclamation; or
FG) For universal waste managed under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 733 or 40 CFR 273, the facility is
a universal waste handler or destination
facility subject to the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 733 or 40 CFR 273.
h) Hazardous waste subject to the reduced requirements of
this Section may be mixed with non-hazardous waste and
remain subject to these reduced requirements even
though the resultant mixture exceeds the quantity
limitations identified in this Section, unless the
mixture meets any of the characteristics of hazardous
wastes identified in Subpart C.
i) If a small quantity generator mixes a solid waste with
a hazardous waste that exceeds a quantity exclusion
level of this Section, the mixture is subject to full
regulation.
??
j) If a conditionally exempt small quantity generator’s
hazardous wastes are mixed with used oil, the mixture
is subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739, if it is destined
to be burned for energy recovery. Any material
produced from such a mixture by processing, blending,
or other treatment is also so regulated if it is
destined to be burned for energy recovery.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 721.106 Requirements for Recyclable Materials
a) Recyclable materials:
1) Hazardous wastes that are recycled are subject to
the requirements for generators, transporters, and
storage facilities of subsections (b) and (c) of
this Section, except for the materials listed in
subsections (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this Section.
Hazardous wastes that are recycled will be known
as “recyclable materials”.
2) The following recyclable materials are not subject
to the requirements of this Section but are
regulated under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.Subparts C
through H and all applicable provisions in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705.
A) Recyclable materials used in a manner
constituting disposal (35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.Subpart C);
B) Hazardous wastes burned for energy recovery
in boilers and industrial furnaces that are
not regulated under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.Subpart O or 725.Subpart O (35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.Subpart H);
C) Recyclable materials from which precious
metals are reclaimed (35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.Subpart F);
D) Spent lead-acid batteries that are being
reclaimed (35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.Subpart G).
3) The following recyclable materials are not subject
to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722 through
726, 728, or 702, 703, or 705 and are not subject
to the notification requirements of Section 3010
of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act:
??
A) Industrial ethyl alcohol that is reclaimed
except that, unless provided otherwise in an
international agreement as specified in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 722.158:
i) A person initiating a shipment for
reclamation in a foreign country and any
intermediary arranging for the shipment
shall comply with the requirements
applicable to a primary exporter in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 722.153; 722.156(a)(1)
through (a)(4), (a)(6), and (b); and
722.157; shall export such materials
only upon consent of the receiving
country and in conformance with the
USEPA Acknowledgment of Consent, as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.Subpart
E; and shall provide a copy of the USEPA
Acknowledgment of Consent to the
shipment to the transporter transporting
the shipment for export;
ii) Transporters transporting a shipment for
export shall not accept a shipment if
the transporter knows that the shipment
does not conform to the USEPA
Acknowledgement of Consent, shall ensure
that a copy of the USEPA Acknowledgement
of Consent accompanies the shipment, and
shall ensure that it is delivered to the
facility designated by the person
initiating the shipment;
B) Scrap metal that is not excluded under
Section 721.104(a)(13);
C) Fuels produced from the refining of oil-
bearing hazardous wastes along with normal
process streams at a petroleum refining
facility if such wastes result from normal
petroleum refining, production, and
transportation practices (this exemption does
not apply to fuels produced from oil
recovered from oil-bearing hazardous waste
where such recovered oil is already excluded
under Section 721.104(a)(12));
D) Petroleum refining wastes.
i) Hazardous waste fuel produced from oil-
bearing hazardous wastes from petroleum
refining, production, or transportation
??
practices or produced from oil reclaimed
from such hazardous wastes, where such
hazardous wastes are reintroduced into a
process that does not use distillation
or does not produce products from crude
oil, so long as the resulting fuel meets
the used oil specification under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 726.140(e) and so long as no
other hazardous wastes are used to
produce the hazardous waste fuel;
ii) Hazardous waste fuel produced from oil-
bearing hazardous waste from petroleum
refining production, and transportation
practices, where such hazardous wastes
are reintroduced into a refining process
after a point at which contaminants are
removed, so long as the fuel meets the
used oil fuel specification under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.140(e); and
iii) Oil reclaimed from oil-bearing hazardous
wastes from petroleum refining,
production, and transportation
practices, which reclaimed oil is burned
as a fuel without reintroduction to a
refining process, so long as the
reclaimed oil meets the used oil fuel
specification under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.140(e); and
E) Petroleum coke produced from petroleum
refinery hazardous wastes containing oil by
the same person that generated the wastes
unless the resulting coke product exceeds one
or more of the characteristics of hazardous
waste in 721.Subpart C.
4) Used oil that is recycled and is also a hazardous
waste solely because it exhibits a hazardous
characteristic is not subject to the requirements
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 728, but it is
regulated under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739. Used oil
that is recycled includes any used oil that is
reused for any purpose following its original use
(including the purpose for which the oil was
originally used). Such term includes, but is not
limited to, oil that is re-refined, reclaimed,
burned for energy recovery, or reprocessed.
5) Hazardous waste that is exported to or imported
from designated member countries of the
??
Organization for Economic Cooperation and
Development (OECD), as defined in Section
722.158(a)(1), for the purpose of recovery is
subject to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.Subpart H if it is subject to either the
hazardous waste manifesting requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 722 or the universal waste
management standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733.
b) Generators and transporters of recyclable materials are
subject to the applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722 and 723 and the notification requirements
under Section 3010 of the Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act, except as provided in subsection (a) of
this Section.
c) Storage and recycling:
1) Owners or operators of facilities that store
recyclable materials before they are recycled are
regulated under all applicable provisions of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705; 724.Subparts A
through L, AA, BB, and CC; and 725.Subparts A
through L, AA, BB, and CC; 726; 728; and the
notification requirement under Section 3010 of the
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, except as
provided in subsection (a) of this Section. (The
recycling process itself is exempt from
regulation, except as provided in subsection (d)
of this Section.)
2) Owners or operators of facilities that recycle
recyclable materials without storing them before
they are recycled are subject to the following
requirements, except as provided in subsection (a)
of this Section:
A) Notification requirements under Section 3010
of the Resource Conservation and Recovery
Act,
B) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.171 and 725.172
(dealing with the use of the manifest and
manifest discrepancies), and
C) subsection (d) of this Section.
d) Owners or operators of facilities required to have a
RCRA permit pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703 with
hazardous waste management units that recycle hazardous
wastes are subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subparts AA
and BB and 725.Subparts AA and BB.
??
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 721.121 Characteristic of Ignitability
a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of
ignitability if a representative sample of the waste
has any of the following properties:
1) It is a liquid, other than an aqueous solution
containing less than 24 percent alcohol by volume,
and has a flash point less than 60°C (140°F), as
determined by a Pensky-Martens Closed Cup Tester,
using the test method specified in ASTM D-93,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111, or a Setaflash Closed Cup Tester, using
the test method specified in ASTM Standard D-3228
D-3828, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111, or as determined by an equivalent
test method approved by the Board (35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.120).
2) It is not a liquid and is capable, under standard
temperature and pressure, of causing fire through
friction, absorption of moisture or spontaneous
chemical changes and, when ignited, burns so
vigorously and persistently that it creates a
hazard.
3) It is an ignitable compressed gas as defined in 49
CFR 173.300, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111, and as determined by the test
methods described in that regulation or equivalent
test methods approved by the Board (35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.120).
4) It is an oxidizer as defined in 49 CFR 173.151,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111.
b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of
ignitability has the EPA Hazardous Waste Number of
D001.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
??
SUBPART D: LISTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section 721.132 Hazardous Waste from Specific Sources
The following solid wastes are listed hazardous wastes from
specific sources unless they are excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.120 and 720.122 and listed in Section 721.Appendix I.
EPA
Hazardous
Waste No. Industry and Hazardous Waste
Hazard
Code
Wood Preservation:
K001 Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of
wastewaters from wood preserving processes
that use creosote or pentachlorophenol.
(T)
Inorganic Pigments:
K002 Wastewater treatment sludge from the
production of chrome yellow and orange
pigments.
(T)
K003 Wastewater treatment sludge from the
production of molybdate orange pigments.
(T)
K004 Wastewater treatment sludge from the
production of zinc yellow pigments.
(T)
K005 Wastewater treatment sludge from the
production of chrome green pigments.
(T)
K006 Wastewater treatment sludge from the
production of chrome oxide green pigments
(anhydrous and hydrated).
(T)
K007 Wastewater treatment sludge from the
production of iron blue pigments.
(T)
K008 Oven residue from the production of chrome
oxide green pigments.
(T)
Organic Chemicals:
K009 Distillation bottoms from the production of
acetaldehyde from ethylene.
(T)
K010 Distillation side cuts from the production
of acetaldehyde from ethylene.
(T)
K011 Bottom stream from the wastewater stripper (R,T)
??
in the production of acrylonitrile.
K013 Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column
in the production of acrylonitrile.
(T)
K014 Bottoms from the acetonitrile purification
column in the production of acrylonitrile.
(T)
K015 Still bottoms from the distillation of
benzyl chloride.
(T)
K016 Heavy ends or distillation residues from the
production of carbon tetrachloride.
(T)
K017 Heavy ends (still bottoms) from the
purification column in the production of
epichlorohydrin.
(T)
K018 Heavy ends from the fractionation column in
ethyl chloride production.
(T)
K019 Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene
dichloride in ethylene dichloride
production.
(T)
K020 Heavy ends from the distillation of vinyl
chloride in vinyl chloride monomer
production.
(T)
K021 Aqueous spent antimony catalyst waste from
fluoromethanes production.
(T)
K022 Distillation bottom tars from the production
of phenol/acetone from cumene.
(T)
K023 Distillation light ends from the production
of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene.
(T)
K024 Distillation bottoms from the production of
phthalic anhydride from naphthalene.
(T)
K093 Distillation light ends from the production
of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene.
(T)
K094 Distillation bottoms from the production of
phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene.
(T)
K025 Distillation bottoms from the production of
nitrobenzene by the nitration of benzene.
(T)
K026 Stripping still tails from the production of
methyl ethyl pyridines.
(T)
??
K027 Centrifuge and distillation residues from
toluene diisocyanate production.
(R,T)
K028 Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator
reactor in the production of 1,1,1-tri-
chloroethane.
(T)
K029 Waste from the product stream stripper in
the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
(T)
K095 Distillation bottoms from the production of
1,1,1-trichloroethane.
(T)
K096 Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from
the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
(T)
K030 Column bottoms or heavy ends from the
combined production of trichloroethylene and
perchloroethylene.
(T)
K083 Distillation bottoms from aniline
production.
(T)
K103 Process residues from aniline extraction
from the production of aniline.
(T)
K104 Combined wastewater streams generated from
nitrobenzene/aniline production.
(T)
K085 Distillation or fractionation column bottoms
from the production of chlorobenzenes.
(T)
K105 Separated aqueous stream from the reactor
product washing step in the production of
chlorobenzenes.
(T)
K107 Column bottoms from product separation from
the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine
(UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
(C,T)
K108 Condensed column overheads from product
separation and condensed reactor vent gases
from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine
(UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
(I,T)
K109 Spent filter cartridges from the product
purification from the production of 1,1-di-
methylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid
hydrazides.
(T)
K110 Condensed column overheads from intermediate (T)
??
separation from the production of 1,1-di-
methylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid
hydrazides.
K111 Product wastewaters from the production of
dinitrotoluene via nitration of toluene.
(C,T)
K112 Reaction by-product water from the drying
column in the production of toluenediamine
via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
(T)
K113 Condensed liquid light ends from the
purification of toluenediamine in the
production of toluenediamine via
hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
(T)
K114 Vicinals from the purification of toluenedi-
amine in the production of toluenediamine
via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
(T)
K115 Heavy ends from the purification of
toluenediamine in the production of
toluenediamine via hydrogenation of di-
nitrotoluene.
(T)
K116 Organic condensate from the solvent recovery
column in the production of toluene di-
isocyanate via phosgenation of toluenedi-
amine.
(T)
K117 Wastewater from the reactor vent gas
scrubber in the production of ethylene di-
bromide via bromination of ethene.
(T)
K118 Spent adsorbent solids from purification of
ethylene dibromide in the production of
ethylene dibromide via bromination of
ethene.
(T)
K136 Still bottoms from the purification of
ethylene dibromide in the production of
ethylene dibromide via bromination of
ethene.
(T)
K156 Organic waste (including heavy ends, still
bottoms, light ends, spent solvents,
filtrates, and decantates) from the
production of carbamates and carbamoyl
oximes. (This listing does not apply to
wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-
iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.)
(T)
??
K157 Wastewaters (including scrubber waters,
condenser waters, washwaters, and separation
waters) from the production of carbamates
and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does
not apply to wastes generated from the
manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-
butylcarbamate.)
(T)
K158 Bag house dusts and filter/separation solids
from the production of carbamates and
carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not
apply to wastes generated from the
manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-
butylcarbamate.)
(T)
K159 Organics from the treatment of thiocarbamate
wastes.
(T)
K161 Purification solids (including filtration,
evaporation, and centrifugation solids), bag
house dust and floor sweepings from the
production of dithiocarbamate acids and
their salts. (This listing does not include
K125 or K126.)
(R,T)
Inorganic Chemicals:
K071 Brine purification muds from the mercury
cell process in chlorine production, where
separately prepurified brine is not used.
(T)
K073 Chlorinated hydrocarbon waste from the
purification step of the diaphragm cell
process using graphite anodes in chlorine
production.
(T)
K106 Wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury
cell process in chlorine production.
(T)
Pesticides:
K031 By-product salts generated in the production
of MSMA and cacodylic acid.
(T)
K032 Wastewater treatment sludge from the
production of chlordane.
(T)
K033 Wastewater and scrub water from the
chlorination of cyclopentadiene in the
production of chlordane.
(T)
??
K034 Filter solids from the filtration of hexa-
chlorocyclopentadiene in the production of
chlordane.
(T)
K097 Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane
chlorinator in the production of chlordane.
(T)
K035 Wastewater treatment sludges generated in
the production of creosote.
(T)
K036 Still bottoms from toluene reclamation
distillation in the production of di-
sulfoton.
(T)
K037 Wastewater treatment sludges from the
production of disulfoton.
(T)
K038 Wastewater from the washing and stripping of
phorate production.
(T)
K039 Filter cake from the filtration of diethyl-
phosphorodithioic acid in the production of
phorate.
(T)
K040 Wastewater treatment sludge from the
production of phorate.
(T)
K041 Wastewater treatment sludge from the
production of toxaphene.
(T)
K098 Untreated process wastewater from the
production of toxaphene.
(T)
K042 Heavy ends or distillation residues from the
distillation of tetrachlorobenzene in the
production of 2,4,5-T.
(T)
K043 2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the production
of 2,4-D.
(T)
K099 Untreated wastewater from the production of
2,4-D.
(T)
K123 Process wastewater (including supernates,
filtrates and washwaters) from the
production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid
and its salts.
(T)
K124 Reactor vent scrubber water from the
production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid
and its salts.
(C,T)
K125 Filtration, evaporation and centrifugation (T)
??
solids from the production of ethylenebisdi-
thiocarbamic acid and its salts.
K126 Baghouse dust and floor sweepings in milling
and packaging operations from the production
or formulation of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic
acid and its salts.
(T)
K131 Wastewater from the reactor and spent
sulfuric acid from the acid dryer from the
production of methyl bromide.
(C,T)
K132 Spent absorbent and wastewater separator
solids from the production of methyl
bromide.
(T)
Explosives:
K044 Wastewater treatment sludges from the
manufacturing and processing of explosives.
(R)
K045 Spent carbon from the treatment of
wastewater containing explosives.
(R)
K046 Wastewater treatment sludges from the
manufacturing, formulation and loading of
lead-based initiating compounds.
(T)
K047 Pink/red water from TNT operations. (R)
Petroleum Refining:
K048 Dissolved air flotation (DAF) float from the
petroleum refining industry.
(T)
K049 Slop oil emulsion solids from the petroleum
refining industry.
(T)
K050 Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from
the petroleum refining industry.
(T)
K051 API separator sludge from the petroleum
refining industry.
(T)
K052 Tank bottoms (leaded) from the petroleum
refining industry.
(T)
Iron and Steel:
K061 Emission control dust/sludge from the
primary production of steel in electric
furnaces.
(T)
??
K062 Spent pickle liquor generated by steel
finishing operations of facilities within
the iron and steel industry (SIC Codes 331
and 332) (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.110).
(C,T)
Primary Copper:
K064 Acid plant blowdown slurry or sludge
resulting from the thickening of blowdown
slurry from primary copper production.
(T)
Primary Lead:
K065 Surface impoundment solids contained in and
dredged from surface impoundments at primary
lead smelting facilities.
(T)
Primary Zinc:
K066 Sludge from treatment of process wastewater
or acid plant blowdown from primary zinc
production.
(T)
BOARD NOTE: This waste listing is the
subject of a judicial remand in American
Mining Congress v. EPA, 907 F.2d 1179
(D.D.C. 1990). The Board intends that this
listing not become enforceable in Illinois
until the first date upon which the Board
RCRA program becomes “not equivalent to the
Federal program”, within the meaning of
Section 3006(b) of the RCRA Act, 42 U.S.C.
6926(b), the Board RCRA rules become “less
stringent” than the USEPA rules, as this
phrase is used in Section 3009, 42 U.S.C.
6929, or the Board RCRA rules are not
“identical in substance” with the federal
rules as that term is intended by 415 ILCS
5/7.2 and 22.4 as a result of some action by
USEPA with regard to this listing in
response to the American Mining Congress
remand.
Primary Aluminum:
K088 Spent potliners from primary aluminum
reduction.
(T)
Ferroalloys:
???
K090 Emission control dust or sludge from
ferrochromiumsilicon production.
(T)
K091 Emission control dust or sludge from
ferrochromium production.
(T)
Secondary Lead:
K069 Emission control dust/sludge from secondary
lead smelting.
(T)
BOARD NOTE: This listing is
administratively stayed for sludge generated
from secondary acid scrubber systems. The
stay will remain in effect until this note
is removed.
K100 Waste leaching solution from acid leaching
of emission control dust/sludge from
secondary lead smelting.
(T)
Veterinary Pharmaceuticals:
K084 Wastewater treatment sludges generated
during the production of veterinary
pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-
arsenic compounds.
(T)
K101 Distillation tar residues from the
distillation of aniline-based compounds in
the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals
from arsenic or organoarsenic organo-arsenic
compounds.
(T)
K102 Residue from use of activated carbon for
decolorization in the production of
veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or
organo-arsenic compounds.
(T)
Ink Formulation:
K086 Solvent washes and sludges, caustic washes
and sludges, or water washes and sludges
from cleaning tubs and equipment used in the
formulation of ink from pigments, dryers,
soaps and stabilizers containing chromium
and lead.
(T)
Coking:
K060 Ammonia still lime sludge from coking
operations.
(T)
???
K087 Decanter tank tar sludge from coking
operations.
(T)
K141 Process residues from the recovery of coal
tar, including, but not limited to,
collecting sump residues from the production
of coke from coal or the recovery of coke
by-products produced from coal. This
listing does not include K087 (decanter tank
tar sludges from coking operations).
(T)
K142 Tar storage tank residues from the
production of coke from coal or from the
recovery of coke by-products produced from
coal.
(T)
K143 Process residues from the recovery of light
oil, including, but not limited to, those
generated in stills, decanters, and wash oil
recovery units from the recovery of coke by-
products produced from coal.
(T)
K144 Wastewater sump residues from light oil
refining, including, but not limited to,
intercepting or contamination sump sludges
from the recovery of coke by-products
produced from coal.
(T)
K145 Residues from naphthalene collection and
recovery operations from the recovery of
coke by-products produced from coal.
(T)
K147 Tar storage tank residues from coal tar
refining.
(T)
K148 Residues from coal tar distillation,
including but not limited to, still bottoms.
(T)
K149 Distillation bottoms from the production of
alpha
α
- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes,
ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl
chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of
these functional groups. (This waste does
not include still bottoms from the
distillation of benzyl chloride.)
(T)
K150 Organic residuals, excluding spent carbon
adsorbent, from the spent chlorine gas and
hydrochloric acid recovery processes
associated with the production of alpha
α
-
(or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-
(T)
???
chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and
compounds with mixtures of these functional
groups.
K151 Wastewater treatment sludges, excluding
neutralization and biological sludges,
generated during the treatment of
wastewaters from the production of alpha-
α
(or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-
chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and
compounds with mixtures of these functional
groups.
(T)
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 721.133 Discarded Commercial Chemical Products, Off-
Specification Species, Container Residues, and
Spill Residues Thereof
The following materials or items are hazardous wastes if and when
they are discarded or intended to be discarded as described in
Section 721.102(a)(2)(A), when they are mixed with waste oil or
used oil or other material and applied to the land for dust
suppression or road treatment, when they are otherwise applied to
the land in lieu of their original intended use or when they are
contained in products that are applied to land in lieu of their
original intended use, or when, in lieu of their original
intended use, they are produced for use as (or as a component of)
a fuel, distributed for use as a fuel, or burned as a fuel.
a) Any commercial chemical product, or manufacturing
chemical intermediate having the generic name listed in
subsection (e) or (f) of this Section.
b) Any off-specification commercial chemical product or
manufacturing chemical intermediate which, if it met
specifications, would have the generic name listed in
subsection (e) or (f) of this Section.
c) Any residue remaining in a container or inner liner
removed from a container that has held any commercial
chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate
having the generic name listed in subsection (e) or (f)
of this Section, unless the container is empty as
defined in Section 721.107(b)(3).
BOARD NOTE: Unless the residue is being beneficially
used or reused, or legitimately recycled or reclaimed,
or being accumulated, stored, transported, or treated
prior to such use, reuse, recycling, or reclamation,
???
the Board considers the residue to be intended for
discard, and thus a hazardous waste. An example of a
legitimate reuse of the residue would be where the
residue remains in the container and the container is
used to hold the same commercial chemical product or
manufacturing chemical intermediate it previously
held. An example of the discard of the residue would
be where the drum is sent to a drum reconditioner that
reconditions the drum but discards the residue.
d) Any residue or contaminated soil, water, or other
debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill into or on
any land or water of any commercial chemical product or
manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic
name listed in subsection (e) or (f) of this Section,
or any residue or contaminated soil, water, or other
debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill into or on
any land or water, of any off-specification chemical
product or manufacturing chemical intermediate which,
if it met specifications, would have the generic name
listed in subsection (e) or (f) of this Section.
BOARD NOTE: The phrase “commercial chemical product or
manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic
name listed in ...” refers to a chemical substance that
is manufactured or formulated for commercial or
manufacturing use which consists of the commercially
pure grade of the chemical, any technical grades of the
chemical that are produced or marketed, and all
formulations in which the chemical is the sole active
ingredient. It does not refer to a material, such as a
manufacturing process waste, that contains any of the
substances listed in subsection (e) or (f) of this
Section. Where a manufacturing process waste is deemed
to be a hazardous waste because it contains a substance
listed in subsection (e) or (f) of this Section, such
waste will be listed in either Sections 721.131 or
721.132 or will be identified as a hazardous waste by
the characteristics set forth in Subpart C.
e) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing
chemical intermediates, or off-specification commercial
chemical products or manufacturing chemical
intermediates referred to in subsections (a) through
(d) of this Section, are identified as acute hazardous
waste (H) and are subject to the small quantity
exclusion defined in Section 721.105(e). These wastes
and their corresponding USEPA Hazardous Waste Numbers
are:
BOARD NOTE: For the convenience of the regulated
community the primary hazardous properties of these
???
materials have been indicated by the letters T
(Toxicity), and R (Reactivity). The absence of a
letter indicates that the compound only is listed for
acute toxicity.
Hazardous
Waste No.
Chemical
Abstracts
No. Substance
P023 107-20-0 Acetaldehyde, chloro-
P002 591-08-2 Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)
P057 640-19-7 Acetamide, 2-fluoro-
P058 62-74-8 Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt
P002 591-08-2 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea
P003 107-02-8 Acrolein
P070 116-06-3 Aldicarb
P203 1646-88-4 Aldicarb sulfone
P004 309-00-2 Aldrin
P005 107-18-6 Allyl alcohol
P006 20859-73-8 Aluminum phosphide (R,T)
P007 2763-96-4 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol
P008 504-24-5 4-Aminopyridine
P009 131-74-8 Ammonium picrate (R)
P119 7803-55-6 Ammonium vanadate
P099 506-61-6 Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-,
potassium
P010 7778-39-4 Arsenic acid H
3AsO
4
P012 1327-53-3 Arsenic oxide As
2O
3
P011 1303-28-2 Arsenic oxide As
2O
5
P011 1303-28-2 Arsenic pentoxide
P012 1327-53-3 Arsenic trioxide
P038 692-42-2 Arsine, diethyl-
P036 696-28-6 Arsonous dichloride, phenyl-
P054 151-56-4 Aziridine
P067 75-55-8 Aziridine, 2-methyl
P013 542-62-1 Barium cyanide
P024 106-47-8 Benzenamine, 4-chloro-
P077 100-01-6 Benzenamine, 4-nitro-
P028 100-44-7 Benzene, (chloromethyl)-
P042 51-43-4 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-
(methylamino)ethyl]-, (R)-
P046 122-09-8 Benzeneethanamine,
alpha
α
,alpha
α
-dimethyl-
P014 108-98-5 Benzenethiol
P127 1563-66-2 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-
dimethyl-, methylcarbamate
P188 57-64-7 Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-,
compound with (3aS-cis)-
1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-
trimethylpyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-yl
methylcarbamate ester (1:1)
???
P001 81-81-2
*
2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-
3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, and
salts, when present at
concentrations greater than 0.3%
P028 100-44-7 Benzyl chloride
P015 7440-41-7 Beryllium powder
P017 598-31-2 Bromoacetone
P018 357-57-3 Brucine
P045 39196-18-6 2-Butanone,3,3-dimethyl-1-
(methylthio)-, O-[methylamino)-
carbonyl] oxime
P021 592-01-8 Calcium cyanide
P021 592-01-8 Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)
2
P189 55285-14-8 Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino)-
thio]methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-
dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester
P191 644-64-4 Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-
[(dimethyl-amino)carbonyl]-5-
methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester
P192 119-38-0 Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-
methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-
pyrazol-5-yl ester
P190 1129-41-5 Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methyl-
phenyl ester
P127 1563-66-2 Carbofuran
P022 75-15-0 Carbon disulfide
P095 75-44-5 Carbonic dichloride
P189 55285-14-8 Carbosulfan
P023 107-20-0 Chloroacetaldehyde
P024 106-47-8 p-Chloroaniline
P026 5344-82-1 1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea
P027 542-76-7 3-Chloropropionitrile
P029 544-92-3 Copper cyanide
P029 544-92-3 Copper cyanide CuCN
P202 64-00-6 m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate
P030 Cyanides (soluble cyanide salts),
not otherwise specified
P031 460-19-5 Cyanogen
P033 506-77-4 Cyanogen chloride
P033 506-77-4 Cyanogen chloride CNCl
P034 131-89-5 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol
P016 542-88-1 Dichloromethyl ether
P036 696-28-6 Dichlorophenylarsine
P037 60-57-1 Dieldrin
P038 692-42-2 Diethylarsine
P041 311-45-5 Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate
P040 297-97-2 O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl
phosphorothioate
P043 55-91-4 Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP)
P191 644-64-4 Dimetilan
P004 309-00-2 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-
???
1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-,
(1alpha
α
,4alpha
α
,4abeta
β
,5alpha
α
,
8alpha
α
,8abeta
β
)-
P060 465-73-6 1,4,5,8-Di-methanonaphthalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-
1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-,
(1alpha
α
,4alpha
α
,4abeta
β
,5beta
β
,8
beta
β
,8abeta
β
)-
P037 60-57-1 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]-
oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-
1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-,
(1aalpha
α
,2beta
β
,2aalpha
α
,3beta
β
,
6beta
β
,6aalpha
α
,7beta
β
,7aalpha
α
)-
P051 72-20-8
*
2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]-
oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-
1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-,
(1aalpha
α
,2beta
β
,2abeta
β
,3alpha
α
,
6alpha
α
,6abeta
β
,7beta
β
,7a
alpha
α
)-
, and metabolites
P044 60-51-5 Dimethoate
P046 122-09-8
alpha
α
,alpha
α
-Dimethylphenethyl-
amine
P047 534-52-1
*
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol and salts
P048 51-28-5 2,4-Dinitrophenol
P020 88-85-7 Dinoseb
P085 152-16-9 Diphosphoramide, octamethyl-
P111 107-49-3 Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl
ester
P039 298-04-4 Disulfoton
P049 541-53-7 Dithiobiuret
P185 26419-73-8 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde,
2,4-dimethyl-, O-[(methylamino)-
carbonyl]oxime
P050 115-29-7 Endosulfan
P088 145-73-3 Endothall
P051 72-20-8 Endrin
P051 72-20-8 Endrin, and metabolites
P042 51-43-4 Epinephrine
P031 460-19-5 Ethanedinitrile
P194 23135-22-0 Ethanimidothioc acid, 2-(di-
methylamino)-N-[[(methylamino)-
carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl
ester
P066 16752-77-5 Ethanimidothioic acid, N-
[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-,
methyl ester
P101 107-12-0 Ethyl cyanide
P054 151-56-4 Ethylenimine
P097 52-85-7 Famphur
P056 7782-41-4 Fluorine
???
P057 640-19-7 Fluoroacetamide
P058 62-74-8 Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt
P198 23422-53-9 Formetanate hydrochloride
P197 17702-57-7 Formparanate
P065 628-86-4 Fulminic acid, mercury (2+) salt
(R,T)
P059 76-44-8 Heptachlor
P062 757-58-4 Hexaethyl tetraphosphate
P116 79-19-6 Hydrazinecarbothioamide
P068 60-34-4 Hydrazine, methyl-
P063 74-90-8 Hydrocyanic acid
P063 74-90-8 Hydrogen cyanide
P096 7803-51-2 Hydrogen phosphide
P060 465-73-6 Isodrin
P192 119-38-0 Isolan
P202 64-00-6 3-Isopropylphenyl-N-methyl-
carbamate
P007 2763-96-4 3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(amino-
methyl)-
P196 15339-36-3 Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamo-
dithioato-S,S')-
P196 15339-36-3 Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate
P092 62-38-4 Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl-
P065 628-86-4 Mercury fulminate (R,T)
P082 62-75-9 Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
P064 624-83-9 Methane, isocyanato-
P016 542-88-1 Methane, oxybis[chloro-
P112 509-14-8 Methane, tetranitro- (R)
P118 75-70-7 Methanethiol, trichloro-
P198 23422-53-9 Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N'-
[3-[[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxy]-
phenyl]-, monohydrochloride
P197 17702-57-7 Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N'-
[2-methyl-4-[[(methylamino)-
carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-
P199 2032-65-7 Methiocarb
P050 115-29-7 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodi-
oxathiepen, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexa-
chloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-,
3-oxide
P059 76-44-8 4,7-Methano-1H-indene,
1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-
3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-
P066 16752-77-5 Methomyl
P068 60-34-4 Methyl hydrazine
P064 624-83-9 Methyl isocyanate
P069 75-86-5 2-Methyllactonitrile
P071 298-00-0 Methyl parathion
P190 1129-41-5 Metolcarb
P129 315-8-4 Mexacarbate
P072 86-88-4
alpha
α
-Naphthylthiourea
???
P073 13463-39-3 Nickel carbonyl
P073 13463-39-3 Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)
4, (T-4)-
P074 557-19-7 Nickel cyanide
P074 557-19-7 Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)
2
P075 54-11-5
*
Nicotine, and salts
P076 10102-43-9 Nitric oxide
P077 100-01-6 p-Nitroaniline
P078 10102-44-0 Nitrogen dioxide
P076 10102-43-9 Nitrogen oxide NO
P078 10102-44-0 Nitrogen oxide NO
2
P081 55-63-0 Nitroglycerine (R)
P082 62-75-9 N-Nitrosodimethylamine
P084 4549-40-0 N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine
P085 152-16-9 Octamethylpyrophosphoramide
P087 20816-12-0 Osmium oxide OsO
4, (T-4)-
P087 20816-12-0 Osmium tetroxide
P088 145-73-3 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-
dicarboxylic acid
P194 23135-22-0 Oxamyl
P089 56-38-2 Parathion
P034 131-89-5 Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-
P128 315-18-4 Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-
dimethyl-, methylcarbamate
(ester)
P199 2032-65-7 Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methyl-
thio)-, methylcarbamate
P048 51-28-5 Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-
P047 534-52-1
*
Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-,
and salts
P202 64-00-6 Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-,
methyl carbamate
P201 2631-37-0 Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methyl-
ethyl)-, methyl carbamate
P020 88-85-7 Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-
dinitro-
P009 131-74-8 Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, ammonium
salt (R)
P092 62-38-4 Phenylmercury acetate
P093 103-85-5 Phenylthiourea
P094 298-02-2 Phorate
P095 75-44-5 Phosgene
P096 7803-51-2 Phosphine
P041 311-45-5 Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-
nitrophenyl ester
P039 298-04-4 Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-di-
ethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl]
ester
P094 298-02-2 Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-di-
ethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester
P044 60-51-5 Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-di-
methyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-
oxoethyl]ester
???
P043 55-91-4 Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-
methylethyl)ester
P089 56-38-2 Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl
O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester
P040 297-97-2 Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl
O-pyrazinyl ester
P097 52-85-7 Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(di-
methylamino)sulfonyl)]phenyl]
O,O-dimethyl ester
P071 298-00-0 Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-di-
methyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester
P204 57-47-6 Physostigmine
P188 57-64-7 Physostigmine salicylate
P110 78-00-2 Plumbane, tetraethyl-
P098 151-50-8 Potassium cyanide
P098 151-50-8 Potassium cyanide KCN
P099 506-61-6 Potassium silver cyanide
P201 2631-37-0 Promecarb
P203 1646-88-4 Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-
sulfonyl)-, O-[(methylamino)-
carbonyl] oxime
P070 116-06-3 Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-
thio)-, O-[(methylamino)-
carbonyl]oxime
P101 107-12-0 Propanenitrile
P027 542-76-7 Propanenitrile, 3-chloro-
P069 75-86-5 Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-
methyl-
P081 55-63-0 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate-
(R)
P017 598-31-2 2-Propanone, 1-bromo-
P102 107-19-7 Propargyl alcohol
P003 107-02-8 2-Propenal
P005 107-18-6 2-Propen-1-ol
P067 75-55-8 1,2-Propylenimine
P102 107-19-7 2-Propyn-1-ol
P008 504-24-5 4-Pyridinamine
P075 54-11-5
*
Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-
pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)- and salts
P204 57-47-6 Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-ol,
1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-
trimethyl-, methylcarbamate
(ester), (3aS-cis)-
P114 12039-52-0 Selenious acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
P103 630-10-4 Selenourea
P104 506-64-9 Silver cyanide
P104 506-64-9 Silver cyanide AgCN
P105 26628-22-8 Sodium azide
P106 143-33-9 Sodium cyanide
P106 143-33-9 Sodium cyanide NaCN
P108 57-24-9
*
Strychnidin-10-one, and salts
???
P018 357-57-3 Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-di-
methoxy-
P108 57-24-9
*
Strychnine and salts
P115 7446-18-6 Sulfuric acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
P109 3689-24-5 Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate
P110 78-00-2 Tetraethyl lead
P111 107-49-3 Tetraethylpyrophosphate
P112 509-14-8 Tetranitromethane (R)
P062 757-58-4 Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl
ester
P113 1314-32-5 Thallic oxide
P113 1314-32-5 Thallium oxide Tl
2O
3
P114 12039-52-0 Thallium (I) selenite
P115 7446-18-6 Thallium (I) sulfate
P109 3689-24-5 Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl
ester
P045 39196-18-4 Thiofanox
P049 541-53-7 Thioimidodicarbonic diamide
[(H
2N)C(S)]
2NH
P014 108-98-5 Thiophenol
P116 79-19-6 Thiosemicarbazide
P026 5344-82-1 Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)-
P072 86-88-4 Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl-
P093 103-85-5 Thiourea, phenyl-
P123 8001-35-2 Toxaphene
P185 26419-73-8 Tirpate
P118 75-70-7 Trichloromethanethiol
P119 7803-55-6 Vanadic acid, ammonium salt
P120 1314-62-1 Vanadium oxide V
2O
5
P120 1314-62-1 Vanadium pentoxide
P084 4549-40-0 Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
P001 81-81-2
*
Warfarin, and salts, when present
at concentrations greater than
0.3%
P121 557-21-1 Zinc cyanide
P121 557-21-1 Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)
2
P205 137-30-4 Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamo-
dithioato-S,S')-
P122 1314-84-7 Zinc phosphide Zn
3P
2, when present
at concentrations greater than
10% (R,T)
P205 137-30-4 Ziram
BOARD NOTE: An asterisk (*) following the CAS number
indicates that the CAS number is given for the parent
compound only.
f) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing
chemical intermediates, or off-specification commercial
chemical products referred to in subsections (a)
through (d) of this Section, are identified as toxic
???
wastes (T) unless otherwise designated and are subject
to the small quantity exclusion defined in Section
721.105(a) and (g). These wastes and their
corresponding USEPA Hazardous Waste Numbers are:
BOARD NOTE: For the convenience of the regulated
community, the primary hazardous properties of these
materials have been indicated by the letters T
(Toxicity), R (Reactivity), I (Ignitability), and C
(Corrosivity). The absence of a letter indicates that
the compound is only listed for toxicity.
Hazardous
Waste No.
Chemical
Abstracts
No. Substance
U394 30558-43-1 A2213
U001 75-07-0 Acetaldehyde (I)
U034 75-87-6 Acetaldehyde, trichloro-
U187 62-44-2 Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)-
U005 53-96-3 Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl-
U240 P 94-75-7 Acetic acid, (2,4-dichloro-
phenoxy)-, salts and esters
U112 141-78-6 Acetic acid, ethyl ester (I)
U144 301-04-2 Acetic acid, lead (2+) salt
U214 563-68-8 Acetic acid, thallium (1+) salt
See F027 93-76-5 Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichloro-
phenoxy)-
UOO2U002
67-64-1 Acetone (I)
UOO3U003
75-05-8 Acetonitrile (I,T)
U004 98-86-2 Acetophenone
U005 53-96-3 2-Acetylaminofluorene
U006 75-36-5 Acetyl chloride (C,R,T)
U007 79-06-1 Acrylamide
U008 79-10-7 Acrylic acid (I)
U009 107-13-1 Acrylonitrile
U011 61-82-5 Amitrole
U012 62-53-3 Aniline (I,T)
U136 75-60-5 Arsinic acid, dimethyl-
U014 492-80-8 Auramine
U015 115-02-6 Azaserine
U010 50-07-7 Azirino[2',3':3,4]pyrrolo[1,2-a]-
indole-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-
[[(aminocarbonyl)oxy]methyl]-
1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-
methoxy-5-methyl-, [1a-S-
(1aalpha
α
,8beta
β
,8aalpha
α
,8balpha
α
)]-
U280 101-27-9 Barban
U278 22781-23-3 Bendiocarb
U364 22961-82-6 Bendiocarb phenol
???
U271 17804-35-2 Benomyl
U157 56-49-5 Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-di-
hydro-3-methyl-
U016 225-51-4 Benz(c)acridine
U017 98-87-3 Benzal chloride
U192 23950-58-5 Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-
dimethyl-2-propynyl)-
U018 56-55-3 Benz[a]anthracene
U094 57-97-6 Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl-
U012 62-53-3 Benzenamine (I,T)
U014 492-80-8 Benzenamine, 4,4'-carbonimidoyl-
bis[N,N-dimethyl-
U049 3165-93-3 Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl-,
hydrochloride
U093 60-11-7 Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-
(phenylazo)-
U328 95-53-4 Benzenamine, 2-methyl-
U353 106-49-0 Benzenamine, 4-methyl-
U158 101-14-4 Benzenamine, 4,4'-methylenebis[2-
chloro-
U222 636-21-5 Benzenamine, 2-methyl-,
hydrochloride
U181 99-55-8 Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro-
U019 71-43-2 Benzene (I,T)
U038 510-15-6 Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-
alpha
α
-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha
α
-
hydroxy-, ethyl ester
U030 101-55-3 Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy-
U035 305-03-3 Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-
chloroethyl)amino]-
U037 108-90-7 Benzene, chloro-
U221 25376-45-8 Benzenediamine, ar-methyl-
U028 117-81-7 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid,
bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester
U069 84-74-2 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, di-
butyl ester
U088 84-66-2 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, di-
ethyl ester
U102 131-11-3 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, di-
methyl ester
U107 117-84-0 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, di-
octyl ester
U070 95-50-1 Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-
U071 541-73-1 Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-
U072 106-46-7 Benzene, 1,4-dichloro-
U060 72-54-8 Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2-dichloroethyl-
idene)bis[4-chloro-
U017 98-87-3 Benzene, (dichloromethyl)-
U223 26471-62-5 Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl-
(R,T)
U239 1330-20-7 Benzene, dimethyl- (I,T)
???
U201 108-46-3 1,3-Benzenediol
U127 118-74-1 Benzene, hexachloro-
U056 110-82-7 Benzene, hexahydro- (I)
U220 108-88-3 Benzene, methyl-
U105 121-14-2 Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-
U106 606-20-2 Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro-
U055 98-82-8 Benzene, (1-methylethyl)- (I)
U169 98-95-3 Benzene, nitro-
U183 608-93-5 Benzene, pentachloro-
U185 82-68-8 Benzene, pentachloronitro-
U020 98-09-9 Benzenesulfonic acid chloride
(C,R)
U020 98-09-9 Benzenesulfonyl chloride (C,R)
U207 95-94-3 Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro-
U061 50-29-3 Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloro-
ethylidene)bis[4-chloro-
U247 72-43-5 Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloro-
ethylidene)bis[4-methoxy-
U023 98-07-7 Benzene, (trichloromethyl)-
U234 99-35-4 Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro-
U021 92-87-5 Benzidene
U202 P 81-07-2 1,2-Benzisothiazol-3(2H)-one,
1,1-dioxide, and salts
U203 94-59-7 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)-
U141 120-58-1 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)-
U090 94-58-6 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl-
U278 22781-23-3 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-di-
methyl-, methyl carbamate
U364 22961-82-6 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-
dimethyl-
U367 1563-38-8 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-
dimethyl-
U064 189-55-9 Benzo[rst]pentaphene
U248 P 81-81-2 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-
3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, and
salts, when present at
concentrations of 0.3% or less
U022 50-32-8 Benzo[a]pyrene
U197 106-51-4 p-Benzoquinone
U023 98-07-7 Benzotrichloride (C,R,T)
U085 1464-53-5 2,2'-Bioxirane
U021 92-87-5 [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine
U073 91-94-1 [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine,
3,3'-dichloro-
U091 119-90-4 [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine,
3,3'-dimethoxy-
U095 119-93-7 [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine,
3,3'-dimethyl-
U225 75-25-2 Bromoform
U030 101-55-3 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether
U128 87-68-3 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexa-
chloro-
???
U172 924-16-3 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso-
U031 71-36-3 1-Butanol (I)
U159 78-93-3 2-Butanone (I,T)
U160 1338-23-4 2-Butanone, peroxide (R,T)
U053 4170-30-3 2-Butenal
U074 764-41-0 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- (I,T)
U143 303-34-4 2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-
[[2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxy-
ethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy]-
methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-
pyrrolizin-1-yl ester, [1S-
[1alpha
α
(Z), 7(2S*,3R*),
7aalpha
α
]]-
U031 71-36-3 n-Butyl alcohol (I)
U136 75-60-5 Cacodylic acid
U032 13765-19-0 Calcium chromate
U372 10605-21-7 Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-
yl, methyl ester
U271 17804-35-2 Carbamic acid, [1-[(butylamino)-
carbonyl]-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl]-,
methyl ester
U280 101-27-9 Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-,
4-chloro-2-butynyl ester
U238 51-79-6 Carbamic acid, ethyl ester
U178 615-53-2 Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-,
ethyl ester
U373 122-42-9 Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methyl-
ethyl ester
U409 23564-05-8 Carbamic acid, [1,2-phenylenebis-
(iminocarbonothioyl)]bis-,
dimethyl ester
U097 79-44-7 Carbamic chloride, dimethyl-
U114 P 111-54-6 Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-
ethanediylbis-, salts and esters
U062 2303-16-4 Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methyl-
ethyl)-, S-(2,3-dichloro-2-
propenyl) ester
U389 2303-17-5 Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methyl-
ethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-
propenyl) ester
U387 52888-80-9 Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-
(phenylmethyl) ester
U279 63-25-2 Carbaryl
U372 10605-21-7 Carbendazim
U367 1563-38-8 Carbofuran phenol
U215 6533-73-9 Carbonic acid, dithallium (1+)
salt
U033 353-50-4 Carbonic difluoride
U156 79-22-1 Carbonochloridic acid, methyl
ester (I,T)
U033 353-50-4 Carbon oxyfluoride (R,T)
???
U211 56-23-5 Carbon tetrachloride
U034 75-87-6 Chloral
U035 305-03-3 Chlorambucil
U036 57-74-9
Chlordane, alpha
α
and gamma
γ
isomers
U026 494-03-1 Chlornaphazin
U037 108-90-7 Chlorobenzene
U038 510-15-6 Chlorobenzilate
U039 59-50-7 p-Chloro-m-cresol
U042 110-75-8 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether
U044 67-66-3 Chloroform
U046 107-30-2 Chloromethyl methyl ether
U047 91-58-7
beta
β
-Chloronaphthalene
U048 95-57-8 o-Chlorophenol
U049 3165-93-3 4-Chloro-o-toluidine,
hydrochloride
U032 13765-19-0 Chromic acid H
2CrO
4, calcium salt
U050 218-01-9 Chrysene
U051 Creosote
U052 1319-77-3 Cresol (Cresylic acid)
U053 4170-30-3 Crotonaldehyde
U055 98-82-8 Cumeme (I)
U246 506-68-3 Cyanogen bromide CNBr
U197 106-51-4 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione
U056 110-82-7 Cyclohexane (I)
U129 58-89-9 Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexa-
chloro-,
(1alpha
α
,2alpha
α
,3beta
β
,4alpha
α
,5
alpha
α
,6beta
β
)-
U057 108-94-1 Cyclohexanone (I)
U130 77-47-4 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-
hexachloro-
U058 50-18-0 Cyclophosphamide
U240 P 94-75-7 2,4-D, salts and esters
U059 20830-81-3 Daunomycin
U060 72-54-8 DDD
U061 50-29-3 DDT
U062 2303-16-4 Diallate
U063 53-70-3 Dibenz[a,h]anthracene
U064 189-55-9 Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene
U066 96-12-8 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane
U069 84-74-2 Dibutyl phthalate
U070 95-50-1 o-Dichlorobenzene
U071 541-73-1 m-Dichlorobenzene
U072 106-46-7 p-Dichlorobenzene
U073 91-94-1 3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine
U074 764-41-0 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (I,T)
U075 75-71-8 Dichlorodifluoromethane
U078 75-35-4 1,1-Dichloroethylene
U079 156-60-5 1,2-Dichloroethylene
U025 111-44-4 Dichloroethyl ether
???
U027 108-60-1 Dichloroisopropyl ether
U024 111-91-1 Dichloromethoxy ethane
U081 120-83-2 2,4-Dichlorophenol
U082 87-65-0 2,6-Dichlorophenol
U084 542-75-6 1,3-Dichloropropene
U085 1464-53-5 1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane (I,T)
U395 5952-26-1 Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate
U108 123-91-1 1,4-Diethyleneoxide
U028 117-81-7 Diethylhexyl phthalate
U086 1615-80-1 N,N'-Diethylhydrazine
U087 3288-58-2 O,O-Diethyl S-methyl di-
thiophosphate
U088 84-66-2 Diethyl phthalate
U089 56-53-1 Diethylstilbestrol
U090 94-58-6 Dihydrosafrole
U091 119-90-4 3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine
U092 124-40-3 Dimethylamine (I)
U093 60-11-7 p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene
U094 57-97-6 7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene
U095 119-93-7 3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine
U096 80-15-9
alpha
α
, alpha
α
-Dimethyl-
benzylhydroperoxide (R)
U097 79-44-7 Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride
U098 57-14-7 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine
U099 540-73-8 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine
U101 105-67-9 2,4-Dimethylphenol
U102 131-11-3 Dimethyl phthalate
U103 77-78-1 Dimethyl sulfate
U105 121-14-2 2,4-Dinitrotoluene
U106 606-20-2 2,6-Dinitrotoluene
U107 117-84-0 Di-n-octyl phthalate
U108 123-91-1 1,4-Dioxane
U109 122-66-7 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine
U110 142-84-7 Dipropylamine (I)
U111 621-64-7 Di-n-propylnitrosamine
U041 106-89-8 Epichlorohydrin
U001 75-07-0 Ethanal (I)
U404 121-44-8 Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl-
U174 55-18-5 Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-
U155 91-80-5 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-
N'-2-pyridinyl-N'-(2-thienyl-
methyl)-
U067 106-93-4 Ethane, 1,2-dibromo-
U076 75-34-3 Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-
U077 107-06-2 Ethane, 1,2-dichloro-
U131 67-72-1 Ethane, hexachloro-
U024 111-91-1 Ethane, 1,1'-[methylenebis(oxy)]-
bis[2-chloro-
U117 60-29-7 Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis- (I)
U025 111-44-4 Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis[2-chloro-
U184 76-01-7 Ethane, pentachloro-
???
U208 630-20-6 Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro-
U209 79-34-5 Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-
U218 62-55-5 Ethanethioamide
U226 71-55-6 Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-
U227 79-00-5 Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-
U410 59669-26-0 Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N'-
[thiobis[(methylimino)carbonyl-
oxy]]bis-, dimethyl ester
U394 30558-43-1 Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-
(dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-oxo-,
methyl ester
U359 110-80-5 Ethanol, 2-ethoxy-
U173 1116-54-7 Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitrosoimino)bis-
U395 5952-26-1 Ethanol, 2,2'-oxybis-,
dicarbamate
U004 98-86-2 Ethanone, 1-phenyl-
U043 75-01-4 Ethene, chloro-
U042 110-75-8 Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)-
U078 75-35-4 Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-
U079 156-60-5 Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)-
U210 127-18-4 Ethene, tetrachloro-
U228 79-01-6 Ethene, trichloro-
U112 141-78-6 Ethyl acetate (I)
U113 140-88-5 Ethyl acrylate (I)
U238 51-79-6 Ethyl carbamate (urethane)
U117 60-29-7 Ethyl ether
U114 P 111-54-6 Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid,
salts and esters
U067 106-93-4 Ethylene dibromide
U077 107-06-2 Ethylene dichloride
U359 110-80-5 Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether
U115 75-21-8 Ethylene oxide (I,T)
U116 96-45-7 Ethylenethiourea
U076 75-34-3 Ethylidene dichloride
U118 97-63-2 Ethyl methacrylate
U119 62-50-0 Ethyl methanesulfonate
U120 206-44-0 Fluoranthene
U122 50-00-0 Formaldehyde
U123 64-18-6 Formic acid (C,T)
U124 110-00-9 Furan (I)
U125 98-01-1 2-Furancarboxaldehyde (I)
U147 108-31-6 2,5-Furandione
U213 109-99-9 Furan, tetrahydro- (I)
U125 98-01-1 Furfural (I)
U124 110-00-9 Furfuran (I)
U206 18883-66-4 Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-
methyl-3-nitrosoureido)-, D-
U206 18883-66-4 D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-[[(methyl-
nitrosoamino)-carbonyl]amino]-
U126 765-34-4 Glycidylaldehyde
U163 70-25-7 Guanidine, N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-
nitroso-
???
U127 118-74-1 Hexachlorobenzene
U128 87-68-3 Hexachlorobutadiene
U130 77-47-4 Hexachlorocyclopentadiene
U131 67-72-1 Hexachloroethane
U132 70-30-4 Hexachlorophene
U243 1888-71-7 Hexachloropropene
U133 302-01-2 Hydrazine (R,T)
U086 1615-80-1 Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl-
U098 57-14-7 Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl-
U099 540-73-8 Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl-
U109 122-66-7 Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl-
U134 7664-39-3 Hydrofluoric acid (C,T)
U134 7664-39-3 Hydrogen fluoride (C,T)
U135 7783-06-4 Hydrogen sulfide
U135 7783-06-4 Hydrogen sulfide H
2S
U096 80-15-9 Hydroperoxide, 1-methyl-1-phenyl-
ethyl- (R)
U116 96-45-7 2-Imidazolidinethione
U137 193-39-5 Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene
U190 85-44-9 1,3-Isobenzofurandione
U140 78-83-1 Isobutyl alcohol (I,T)
U141 120-58-1 Isosafrole
U142 143-50-0 Kepone
U143 303-34-4 Lasiocarpene
U144 301-04-2 Lead acetate
U146 1335-32-6 Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetra-
hydroxytri-
U145 7446-27-7 Lead phosphate
U146 1335-32-6 Lead subacetate
U129 58-89-9 Lindane
U163 70-25-7 MNNG
U147 108-31-6 Maleic anhydride
U148 123-33-1 Maleic hydrazide
U149 109-77-3 Malononitrile
U150 148-82-3 Melphalan
U151 7439-97-6 Mercury
U152 126-98-7 Methacrylonitrile (I,T)
U092 124-40-3 Methanamine, N-methyl- (I)
U029 74-83-9 Methane, bromo-
U045 74-87-3 Methane, chloro- (I,T)
U046 107-30-2 Methane, chloromethoxy-
U068 74-95-3 Methane, dibromo-
U080 75-09-2 Methane, dichloro-
U075 75-71-8 Methane, dichlorodifluoro-
U138 74-88-4 Methane, iodo-
U119 62-50-0 Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester
U211 56-23-5 Methane, tetrachloro-
U153 74-93-1 Methanethiol (I,T)
U225 75-25-2 Methane, tribromo-
U044 67-66-3 Methane, trichloro-
U121 75-69-4 Methane, trichlorofluoro-
U036 57-74-9 4,7-Methano-1H-indene,
???
1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-
2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro-
U154 67-56-1 Methanol (I)
U155 91-80-5 Methapyrilene
U142 143-50-0 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta[cd]-
pentalen-2-one,
1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-
decachlorooctahydro-
U247 72-43-5 Methoxychlor
U154 67-56-1 Methyl alcohol (I)
U029 74-83-9 Methyl bromide
U186 504-60-9 1-Methylbutadiene (I)
U045 74-87-3 Methyl chloride (I,T)
U156 79-22-1 Methyl chlorocarbonate (I,T)
U226 71-55-6 Methylchloroform
U157 56-49-5 3-Methylcholanthrene
U158 101-14-4 4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloro-
aniline)
U068 74-95-3 Methylene bromide
U080 75-09-2 Methylene chloride
U159 78-93-3 Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (I,T)
U160 1338-23-4 Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide
(R,T)
U138 74-88-4 Methyl iodide
U161 108-10-1 Methyl isobutyl ketone (I)
U162 80-62-6 Methyl methacrylate (I,T)
U161 108-10-1 4-Methyl-2-pentanone (I)
U164 56-04-2 Methylthiouracil
U010 50-07-7 Mitomycin C
U059 20830-81-3 5,12-Naphthacenedione, 8-acetyl-
10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-
alpha
α
-L-lyxo-hexapyranosyl)-
oxyl]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-
trihydroxy-1-methoxy-, (8S-cis)-
U167 134-32-7 1-Naphthalenamine
U168 91-59-8 2-Naphthalenamine
U026 494-03-1 Naphthaleneamine, N,N'-bis(2-
chloroethyl)-
U165 91-20-3 Naphthalene
U047 91-58-7 Naphthalene, 2-chloro-
U166 130-15-4 1,4-Naphthalenedione
U236 72-57-1 2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid,
3,3'-[(3,3'-dimethyl-[1,1'-
biphenyl]-4,4'-diyl)bis(azo)bis-
[5-amino-4-hydroxy]-, tetrasodium
salt
U279 63-25-2 1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate
U166 130-15-4 1,4-Naphthoquinone
U167 134-32-7
alpha
α
-Naphthylamine
U168 91-59-8
beta
β
-Naphthylamine
U217 10102-45-1 Nitric acid, thallium (1+) salt
???
U169 98-95-3 Nitrobenzene (I,T)
U170 100-02-7 p-Nitrophenol
U171 79-46-9 2-Nitropropane (I,T)
U172 924-16-3 N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine
U173 1116-54-7 N-Nitrosodiethanolamine
U174 55-18-5 N-Nitrosodiethylamine
U176 759-73-9 N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea
U177 684-93-5 N-Nitroso-N-methylurea
U178 615-53-2 N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane
U179 100-75-4 N-Nitrosopiperidine
U180 930-55-2 N-Nitrosopyrrolidine
U181 99-55-8 5-Nitro-o-toluidine
U193 1120-71-4 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide
U058 50-18-0 2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine,
N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-
, 2-oxide
U115 75-21-8 Oxirane (I,T)
U126 765-34-4 Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde
U041 106-89-8 Oxirane, (chloromethyl)-
U182 123-63-7 Paraldehyde
U183 608-93-5 Pentachlorobenzene
U184 76-01-7 Pentachloroethane
U185 82-68-8 Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB)
See F027 87-86-5 Pentachlorophenol
U161 108-10-1 Pentanol, 4-methyl-
U186 504-60-9 1,3-Pentadiene (I)
U187 62-44-2 Phenacetin
U188 108-95-2 Phenol
U048 95-57-8 Phenol, 2-chloro-
U039 59-50-7 Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl-
U081 120-83-2 Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-
U082 87-65-0 Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-
U089 56-53-1 Phenol, 4,4'-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-
ethenediyl)bis-, (E)-
U101 105-67-9 Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-
U052 1319-77-3 Phenol, methyl-
U132 70-30-4 Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis[3,4,6-
trichloro-
U411 114-26-1 Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-,
methylcarbamate
U170 100-02-7 Phenol, 4-nitro-
See F027 87-86-5 Phenol, pentachloro-
See F027 58-90-2 Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro-
See F027 95-95-4 Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro-
See F027 88-06-2 Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro-
U150 148-82-3 L-Phenylalanine, 4-[bis(2-chloro-
ethyl)amino]-
U145 7446-27-7 Phosphoric acid, lead (2+) salt
(2:3)
U087 3288-58-2 Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-di-
ethyl S-methyl ester
U189 1314-80-3 Phosphorus sulfide (R)
???
U190 85-44-9 Phthalic anhydride
U191 109-06-8 2-Picoline
U179 100-75-4 Piperidine, 1-nitroso-
U192 23950-58-5 Pronamide
U194 107-10-8 1-Propanamine (I,T)
U111 621-64-7 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-
propyl-
U110 142-84-7 1-Propanamine, N-propyl- (I)
U066 96-12-8 Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-
U083 78-87-5 Propane, 1,2-dichloro-
U149 109-77-3 Propanedinitrile
U171 79-46-9 Propane, 2-nitro- (I,T)
U027 108-60-1 Propane, 2,2'-oxybis[2-chloro-
See F027 93-72-1 Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-tri-
chlorophenoxy)-
U193 1120-71-4 1,3-Propane sultone
U235 126-72-7 1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-,
phosphate (3:1)
U140 78-83-1 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- (I,T)
U002 67-64-1 2-Propanone (I)
U007 79-06-1 2-Propenamide
U084 542-75-6 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-
U243 1888-71-7 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexa-
chloro-
U009 107-13-1 2-Propenenitrile
U152 126-98-7 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- (I,T)
U008 79-10-7 2-Propenoic acid (I)
U113 140-88-5 2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester (I)
U118 97-63-2 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-,
ethyl ester
U162 80-62-6 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-,
methyl ester (I,T)
U373 122-42-9 Propham
U411 114-26-1 Propoxur
See F027 93-72-1 Propionic acid, 2-(2,4,5-tri-
chlorophenoxy)-
U194 107-10-8 n-Propylamine (I,T)
U083 78-87-5 Propylene dichloride
U387 52888-80-9 Prosulfocarb
U148 123-33-1 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro-
U196 110-86-1 Pyridine
U191 109-06-8 Pyridine, 2-methyl-
U237 66-75-1 2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-
[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]-
U164 58-04-2 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-
6-methyl-2-thioxo-
U180 930-55-2 Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso-
U200 50-55-5 Reserpine
U201 108-46-3 Resorcinol
U202 P 81-07-2 Saccharin and salts
U203 94-59-7 Safrole
U204 7783-00-8 Selenious acid
???
U204 7783-00-8 Selenium dioxide
U205 7488-56-4 Selenium sulfide
U205 7488-56-4 Selenium sulfide SeS
2 (R,T)
U015 115-02-6 L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester)
See F027 93-72-1 Silvex (2,4,5-TP)
U206 18883-66-4 Streptozotocin
U103 77-78-1 Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester
U189 1314-80-3 Sulfur phosphide (R)
See F027 93-76-5 2,4,5-T
U207 95-94-3 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene
U208 630-20-6 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane
U209 79-34-5 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane
U210 127-18-4 Tetrachloroethylene
See F027 58-90-2 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol
U213 109-99-9 Tetrahydrofuran (I)
U214 563-68-8 Thallium (I) acetate
U215 6533-73-9 Thallium (I) carbonate
U216 7791-12-0 Thallium (I) chloride
U216 7791-12-0 Thallium chloride TlCl
U217 10102-45-1 Thallium (I) nitrate
U218 62-55-5 Thioacetamide
U410 59669-26-0 Thiodicarb
U153 74-93-1 Thiomethanol (I,T)
U244 137-26-8 Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide
[(H
2N)C(S)]
2S
2, tetramethyl-
U409 23564-05-8 Thiophanate-methyl
U219 62-56-6 Thiourea
U244 137-26-8 Thiram
U220 108-88-3 Toluene
U221 25376-45-8 Toluenediamine
U223 26471-62-5 Toluene diisocyanate (R,T)
U328 95-53-4 o-Toluidine
U353 106-49-0 p-Toluidine
U222 636-21-5 o-Toluidine hydrochloride
U389 2303-17-5 Triallate
U011 61-82-5 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine
U227 79-00-5 1,1,2-Trichloroethane
U228 79-01-6 Trichloroethylene
U121 75-69-4 Trichloromonofluoromethane
See F027 95-95-4 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol
See F027 88-06-2 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol
U404 121-44-8 Triethylamine
U234 99-35-4 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene (R,T)
U182 123-63-7 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl-
U235 126-72-7 Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate
U236 72-57-1 Trypan blue
U237 66-75-1 Uracil mustard
U176 759-73-9 Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-
U177 684-93-5 Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso-
U043 75-01-4 Vinyl chloride
U248 P 81-81-2 Warfarin, and salts, when present
at concentrations of 0.3% or less
???
U239 1330-20-7 Xylene (I)
U200 50-55-5 Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid,
11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-tri-
methoxybenzoyl)oxy]-, methyl
ester,
(3beta
β
,16beta
β
,17alpha
α
,18beta
β
,
20alpha
α
)-
U249 1314-84-7 Zinc phosphide Zn
3P
2, when present
at concentrations of 10% or less
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 721.Appendix H Hazardous Constituents
Common Name Chemical Abstracts
Name
Chemical
Abstract
s Number
Hazar
dous
Waste
Numbe
r
A2213 Ethanimidothioic acid,
2- (dimethylamino)-N-
hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl
ester
30558-
43-1
U394
Acetonitrile Same 75-05-8 U003
Acetophenone Ethanone, 1-phenyl- 98-86-2 U004
2-Acetylaminofluorene Acetamide, N-9H-
fluoren-2-yl-
53-96-3
UOO5U
005
Acetyl chloride Same 75-36-5 U006
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea Acetamide, N-
(aminothioxomethyl)-
591-08-2 P002
Acrolein 2-Propenal 107-02-8 P003
Acrylamide 2-Propenamide 79-06-1 U007
Acrylonitrile 2-Propenenitrile 107-13-1 U009
Aflatoxins Same 1402-68-
2
Aldicarb Propanal, 2-methyl-2-
(methylthio)-, O-
[(methylamino)carbonyl
]oxime
116-06-3 P070
Aldicarb sulfone Propanal, 2-methyl-2-
(methylsulfonyl)-, O-
[(methylamino)-
carbonyl]oxime
1646-88-
4
P203
Aldrin 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaph-
thalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-
hexachloro-
309-00-2 P004
???
1,4,4a,5,8,8a-
hexahydro-, (1-
alpha
α
,4-alpha
α
,4a-
beta
β
,5-alpha
α
,8-
alpha
α
,8a-beta
β
)-
Allyl alcohol 2-Propen-1-ol 107-18-6 P005
Allyl chloride 1-Propene, 3-chloro- 107-18-6
Aluminum phosphide Same 20859-
73-8
P006
4-Aminobiphenyl [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4-
amine
92-67-1
5-(Aminomethyl)-3-
isoxazolol
3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-
(aminomethyl)-
2763-96-
4
P007
4-Aminopyridine 4-Pyridinamine 504-24-5 P008
Amitrole 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-
amine
61-82-5 U011
Ammonium vanadate Vanadic acid, ammonium
salt
7803-55-
6
U119
Aniline Benzenamine 62-53-3 U012
Antimony Same 7440-36-
0
Antimony compounds,
N.O.S. (not otherwise
specified)
Aramite Sulfurous acid, 2-
chloroethyl-, 2-[4-
(1,1-dimethylethyl)-
phenoxy]-1-methylethyl
ester
140-57-8
Arsenic Arsenic 7440-38-
2
Arsenic compounds, N.O.S.
Arsenic acid Arsenic acid H
3AsO
4
7778-39-
4
P010
Arsenic pentoxide Arsenic oxide As
2O
5
1303-28-
2
PO11P
011
Arsenic trioxide Arsenic oxide As
2O
3
1327-53-
3
P012
Auramine Benzenamine, 4,4'-
carbonimidoylbis[N, N-
dimethyl-
492-80-8 U014
Azaserine L-Serine, diazoacetate
(ester)
115-02-6 U015
Barban Carbamic acid, (3-
chlorophenyl)-, 4-
chloro-2-butynyl ester
101-27-9 U280
Barium Same 7440-39-
3
Barium compounds, N.O.S.
Barium cyanide Same 542-62-1 P013
Bendiocarb 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol- 22781- U278
???
2,2-dimethyl-, methyl
carbamate
23-3
Bendiocarb phenol 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol-
2,2-dimethyl-,
22961-
82-6
U364
Benomyl Carbamic acid, [1-
[(butylamino)-
carbonyl]-1H-benz-
imidazol-2-yl]-,
methyl ester
17804-
35-2
U271
Benz[c]acridine Same 225-51-4 U016
Benz[a]anthracene Same 56-55-3 U018
Benzal chloride Benzene,
(dichloromethyl)-
98-87-3 U017
Benzene Same 71-43-2 U018
Benzenearsonic acid Arsonic acid, phenyl- 98-05-5
Benzidine [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-
diamine
92-87-5 U021
Benzo[b]fluoranthene Benz[e]acephenanthryle
ne
205-99-2
Benzo[j]fluoranthene Same 205-82-3
Benzo(k)fluoranthene Same 207-08-9
Benzo[a]pyrene Same 50-32-8 U022
p-Benzoquinone 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-
1,4-dione
106-51-4 U197
Benzotrichloride Benzene,
(trichloromethyl)-
98-07-7 U023
Benzyl chloride Benzene,
(chloromethyl)-
100-44-7 P028
Beryllium powder Same 7440-41-
7
P015
Beryllium compounds,
N.O.S.
Bis(pentamethylene)-
thiuram tetrasulfide
Piperidine, 1,1'-
(tetrathiodicarbono-
thioyl)-bis-
120-54-7
Bromoacetone 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- 598-31-2 P017
Bromoform Methane, tribromo- 75-25-2 U225
4-Bromophenyl phenyl
ether
Benzene, 1-bromo-4-
phenoxy-
101-55-3 U030
Brucine Strychnidin-10-one,
2,3-dimethoxy-
357-57-3 P018
Butylate Carbamothioic acid,
bis(2-methylpropyl)-,
S-ethyl ester
2008-41-
5
Butyl benzyl phthalate 1,2-
Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, butyl
phenylmethyl ester
85-68-7
Cacodylic acid Arsenic acid,
dimethyl-
75-60-5 U136
Cadmium Same 7440-43-
9
???
Cadmium compounds, N.O.S.
Calcium chromate Chromic acid H
2CrO
4,
calcium salt
13765-
19-0
U032
Calcium cyanide Calcium cyanide
Ca(CN)
2
592-01-8 P021
Carbaryl 1-Naphthalenol,
methylcarbamate
63-25-2 U279
Carbendazim Carbamic acid, 1H-
benzimidazol-2-yl,
methyl ester
10605-
21-7
U372
Carbofuran 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-
dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-,
methylcarbamate
1563-66-
2
P127
Carbofuran phenol 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-
dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-
1563-38-
8
U367
Carbosulfan Carbamic acid,
[(dibutylamino)thio]
methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-
2,2-dimethyl-7-benzo-
furanyl ester
55285-
14-8
P189
Carbon disulfide Same 75-15-0 P022
Carbon oxyfluoride Carbonic difuoride 353-50-4 U033
Carbon tetrachloride Methane, tetrachloro- 56-23-5 U211
Chloral Acetaldehyde,
trichloro-
75-87-6 U034
Chlorambucil Benzenebutanoic acid,
4[bis-(2-chloroethyl)-
amino]-
305-03-3 U035
Chlordane 4,7-Methano-1H-indene,
1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octa-
chloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-
hexahydro-
57-74-9 U036
Chlordane, alpha
α
and
gamma
γ
isomers
U036
Chlorinated benzenes,
N.O.S.
Chlorinated ethane,
N.O.S.
Chlorinated
fluorocarbons, N.O.S.
Chlorinated naphthalene,
N.O.S.
Chlorinated phenol,
N.O.S.
Chlornaphazine Naphthalenamine, N,N'-
bis(2-chloroethyl)-
494-03-1 U026
Chloroacetaldehyde Acetaldehyde, chloro- 107-20-0 P023
Chloroalkyl ethers,
N.O.S.
p-Chloroaniline Benzenamine, 4-chloro- 106-47-8 P024
Chlorobenzene Benzene, chloro- 108-90-7 U037
???
Chlorobenzilate Benzeneacetic acid, 4-
chloro-alpha
α
-(4-
chlorophenyl)-alpha
α
-
hydroxy-, ethyl ester
510-15-6 U038
p-Chloro-m-cresol Phenol, 4-chloro-3-
methyl-
59-50-7 U039
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether Ethene, (2-
chloroethoxy)-
110-75-8 U042
Chloroform Methane, trichloro- 67-66-3 U044
Chloromethyl methyl ether Methane,
chloromethoxy-
107-30-2 U046
beta
β
-Chloronaphthalene
Naphthalene, 2-chloro- 91-58-7 U047
o-Chlorophenol Phenol, 2-chloro- 95-57-8 U048
1-(o-Chloro-
phenyl)thiourea
Thiourea, (2-chloro-
phenyl)-
5344-82-
1
P026
Chloroprene 1,3-Butadiene, 2-
chloro-
126-99-8
3-Chloropropionitrile Propanenitrile, 3-
chloro-
542-76-7 P027
Chromium Same 7440-47-
3
Chromium compounds,
N.O.S.
Chrysene Same 218-01-9 U050
Citrus red No. 2 2-Naphthalenol, 1-
[(2,5-dimethoxy-
phenyl)azo]-
6358-53-
8
Coal tar creosote Same 8007-45-
2
Copper cyanide Copper cyanide CuCN 544-92-3 P029
Copper dimethyldithio-
carbamate
Copper, bis(dimethyl-
carbamodithioato-
S,S')-,
137-29-1
Creosote Same U051
Cresols (Cresylic acid) Phenol, methyl- 1319-77-
3
U052
Crotonaldehyde 2-Butenal 4170-30-
3
U053
m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate Phenol, 3-(methyl-
ethyl)-, methyl
carbamate
64-00-6 P202
Cyanides (soluble salts
and complexes), N.O.S.
P030
Cyanogen Ethanedinitrile 460-19-5 P031
Cyanogen bromide Cyanogen bromide
(CN)Br
506-68-3 U246
Cyanogen chloride Cyanogen chloride
(CN)Cl
506-77-4 P033
Cycasin
Beta
β
-D-
glucopyranoside,
(methyl-ONN-
14901-
08-7
???
azoxy)methyl-
Cycloate Carbamothioic acid,
cyclohexylethyl-, S-
ethyl ester
1134-23-
2
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-
phenol
Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-
4,6-dinitro-
131-89-5 P034
Cyclophosphamide 2H-1,3,2-
Oxazaphosphorin-2-
amine, N,N-bis(2-
chloro-
ethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-
oxide
50-18-0 U058
2,4-D Acetic acid, (2,4-
dichlorophenoxy)-
94-75-7 U240
2,4-D, salts and esters Acetic acid, (2,4-
dichlorophenoxy)-,
salts and esters
U240
Daunomycin 5, 12-
Naphthacenedione, 8-
acetyl-10-[(3-amino-
2,3,6-trideoxy-
alpha
α
-L-lyxo-hexo-
pyranosyl)oxy]-
7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-
6,8,11-trihydroxy-l-
methoxy-, 8S-cis)-
20830-
81-3
U059
Dazomet 2H-1,3,5-thiadiazine-
2-thione, tetrahydro-
3,5-dimethyl
533-74-4
DDD Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2-
dichloroethyl-
idene)bis[4-chloro-
72-54-8 U060
DDE Benzene, 1,1'-
(dichloroethenyl-
idene)bis[4-chloro-
72-55-9
DDT Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-
trichloro-
ethylidene)bis[4-
chloro-
50-29-3 U061
Diallate Carbamothioic acid,
bis(1-methylethyl)-,
S-(2,3-dichloro-2-pro-
penyl) ester
2303-16-
4
U062
Dibenz[a,h]acridine Same 226-36-8
Dibenz[a,j]acridine Same 224-42-0
Dibenz[a,h]anthracene Same 53-70-3 U063
7H-Dibenzo[c,g]carbazole Same 194-59-2
Dibenzo[a,e]pyrene Naphtho[1,2,3,4-def]-
chrysene
192-65-4
Dibenzo[a,h]pyrene Dibenzo[b,def]chrysene 189-64-0
Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene Benzo[rst]pentaphene 189-55-9 U064
???
1,2-Dibromo-3-
chloropropane
Propane, 1,2-dibromo-
3-chloro-
96-12-8 U066
Dibutyl phthalate 1,2-
Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, dibutyl ester
84-74-2 U069
o-Dichlorobenzene Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- 95-50-1 U070
m-Dichlorobenzene Benzene, 1,3-dichloro- 541-73-1 U071
p-Dichlorobenzene Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- 106-46-7 U072
Dichlorobenzene, N.O.S. Benzene, dichloro- 25321-
22-6
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-
diamine, 3,3'-
dichloro-
91-94-1 U073
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene 2-Butene, 1,4-
dichloro-
764-41-0 U074
Dichlorodifluoromethane Methane,
dichlorodifluoro-
75-71-8 U075
Dichloroethylene, N.O.S. Dichloroethylene 25323-
30-2
1,1-Dichloroethylene Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- 75-35-4 U078
1,2-Dichloroethylene Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-,
(E)-
156-60-5 U079
Dichloroethyl ether Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis[2-
chloro-
111-44-4 U025
Dichloroisopropyl ether Propane, 2,2'-
oxybis[2-chloro-
108-60-1 U027
Dichloromethoxyethane Ethane, 1,1'-
[methylenebis(oxy)bis-
[2-chloro-
111-91-1 U024
Dichloromethyl ether Methane,
oxybis[chloro-
542-88-1 P016
2,4-Dichlorophenol Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- 120-83-2 U081
2,6-Dichlorophenol Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- 87-65-0 U082
Dichlorophenylarsine Arsonous dichloride,
phenyl-
696-28-6 P036
Dichloropropane, N.O.S. Propane, dichloro- 26638-
19-7
Dichloropropanol, N.O.S. Propanol, dichloro- 26545-
73-3
Dichloropropene, N.O.S. 1-Propene, dichloro- 26952-
23-8
1,3-Dichloropropene 1-Propene, 1,3-
dichloro-
542-75-6 U084
Dieldrin 2,7:3,6-
Dimethanonaphth[2, 3-
b]oxirene,3,4,5,6,9,9-
hexachloro-
1a,2,2a,3,6, 6a,7,7a-
octahydro-,
(1aalpha
α
,2beta
β
,2aalp
ha
α
,3beta
β
,6beta
β
,6aal
60-57-1 P037
???
pha
α
,7beta
β
,7aalpha
α
)-
1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane 2,2'-Bioxirane 1464-53-
5
U085
Diethylarsine Arsine, diethyl- 692-42-2 P038
Diethylene glycol,
dicarbamate
Ethanol, 2,2'-oxybis-,
dicarbamate
5952-26-
1
U395
1,4-Diethyleneoxide 1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 U108
Diethylhexyl phthalate 1,2-
Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, bis(2-
ethylhexyl) ester
117-81-7 U028
N,N'-Diethylhydrazine Hydrazine, 1,2-
diethyl-
1615-80-
1
U086
O,O-Diethyl-S-methyl
dithiophosphate
Phosphorodithioic
acid, O,O-diethyl S-
methyl ester
3288-58-
2
U087
Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl
phosphate
Phosphoric acid,
diethyl 4-nitrophenyl
ester
311-45-5 P041
Diethyl phthalate 1,2-
Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, diethyl ester
84-66-2 U088
O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl
phosphorothioate
Phosphorothioic acid,
O,O-diethyl O-
pyrazinyl ester
297-97-2 P040
Diethylstilbestrol Phenol, 4,4'-(1,2-
diethyl-1,2-ethene-
diyl)bis-, (E)-
56-53-1 U089
Dihydrosafrole 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-
propyl-
94-58-6 U090
Diisopropylfluorophosph-
ate (DFP)
Phosphorofluoridic
acid, bis(1-
methylethyl) ester
55-91-4 P043
Dimethoate Phosphorodithioic
acid, O,O-dimethyl S-
[2-(methylamino)-2-
oxoethyl] ester
60-51-5 P044
Dimetilan Carbamic acid,
dimethyl-, 1-
[(dimethylamino)
carbonyl]-5-methyl-1H-
pyrazol-3-yl ester
644-64-4 P191
3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-
diamine, 3,3'-
dimethoxy-
119-90-4 U091
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene Benzenamine, N,N-
dimethyl-4-(phenyl-
azo)-
60-11-7 U093
7,12-Dimethyl-
benz[a]anthracene
Benz[a]anthracene,
7,12-dimethyl-
57-97-6 U094
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'- 119-93-7 U095
???
diamine, 3,3'-
dimethyl-
Dimethylcarbamoyl
chloride
Carbamic chloride,
dimethyl-
79-44-7 U097
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine Hydrazine, 1,1-
dimethyl-
57-14-7 U098
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine Hydrazine, 1,2-
dimethyl-
540-73-8 U099
alpha
α
,alpha
α
-
Dimethylphenethylamine
Benzeneethanamine,
alpha
α
, alpha
α
-
dimethyl-
122-09-8 P046
2,4-Dimethylphenol Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- 105-67-9 U101
Dimethylphthalate 1,2-
Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, dimethyl ester
131-11-3 U102
Dimethyl sulfate Sulfuric acid,
dimethyl ester
77-78-1 U103
Dinitrobenzene, N.O.S. Benzene, dinitro- 25154-
54-5
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-
dinitro-
534-52-1 P047
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol
salts
P047
2,4-Dinitrophenol Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- 51-28-5 P048
2,4-Dinitrotoluene Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-
dinitro-
121-14-2 U105
2,6-Dinitrotoluene Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-
dinitro-
606-20-2 U106
Dinoseb Phenol, 2-(1-
methylpropyl)-4,6-
dinitro-
88-85-7 P020
Di-n-octyl phthalate 1,2-
Benzenedicarboxylic
acid, dioctyl ester
117-84-0 U107
Diphenylamine Benzenamine, N-phenyl- 122-39-4
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine Hydrazine, 1,2-
diphenyl-
122-66-7 U109
Di-n-propylnitrosamine 1-Propanamine, N-
nitroso-N-propyl-
621-64-7 U111
Disulfiram Thioperoxydicarbonic
diamide, tetraethyl
97-77-8
Disulfoton Phosphorodithioic
acid, O,O-diethyl S-
[2-(ethylthio)ethyl]
ester
298-04-4 P039
Dithiobiuret Thioimidodicarbonic
diamide [(H
2N)C(S)]
2NH
541-53-7 P049
Endosulfan 6, 9-Methano-2,4,3-
benzodioxathie-
pen,6,7,8,9,10,10-
hexachloro-
115-29-7 P050
???
1,5,5a,6,9,9a-
hexahydro-, 3-oxide,
Endothal 7-
Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]hepta
ne-2,3-dicarboxylic
acid
145-73-3 P088
Endrin 2,7:3,6-
Dimethanonaphth[2,3-
b]oxirene,
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexa-
chloro-
1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-
octahydro-, (1a
alpha
α
,2beta
β
,2abeta
β
,
3alpha
α
,6alpha
α
,6abet
a
β
,7beta
β
,7aalpha
α
)-,
72-20-8 P051
Endrin metabolites P051
Epichlorohydrin Oxirane,
(chloromethyl)-
106-89-8 U041
Epinephrine 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-
hydroxy-2-(methyl-
amino)ethyl]-, (R)-
51-43-4 P042
EPTC Carbamothioic acid,
dipropyl-, S-ethyl
ester
759-94-4
Ethyl carbamate
(urethane)
Carbamic acid, ethyl
ester
51-79-6 U238
Ethyl cyanide Propanenitrile 107-12-0 P101
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic
acid
Carbamodithioic acid,
1,2-ethanediylbis-
111-54-6 U114
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic
acid, salts and esters
U114
Ethylene dibromide Ethane, 1,2-dibromo- 106-93-4 U067
Ethylene dichloride Ethane, 1,2-dichloro- 107-06-2
Ethylene glycol monoethyl
ether
Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- 110-80-5 U359
Ethyleneimine Aziridine 151-56-4 P054
Ethylene oxide Oxirane 75-21-8 U115
Ethylenethiourea 2-Imidazolidinethione 96-45-7 U116
Ethylidine dichloride Ethane, 1,1-dichloro- 75-34-3 U076
Ethyl methacrylate 2-Propenoic acid, 2-
methyl-, ethyl ester
97-63-2 U118
Ethyl methanesulfonate Methanesulfonic acid,
ethyl ester
62-50-0 U119
Ethyl Ziram Zinc, bis(diethyl-
carbamodithioato-
S,S')-
14324-
55-1
U407
Famphur Phosphorothioc acid,
O-[4-
[(dimethylamino)sulfon
yl]phenyl] O,O-
52-85-7 P097
???
dimethyl ester
Ferbam Iron, tris(dimethyl-
carbamodithioato-
S,S')-,
14484-
64-1
Fluoranthene Same 206-44-0 U120
Fluorine Same 7782-41-
4
P056
Fluoroacetamide Acetamide, 2-fluoro- 640-19-7 P057
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium
salt
Acetic acid, fluoro-,
sodium salt
62-74-8 P058
Formaldehyde Same 50-00-0 U122
Formetanate hydrochloride Methanimidamide, N,N-
dimethyl-N'-[3-
[[(methylamino)-
carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-,
monohydrochloride
23422-
53-9
P198
Formic acid Same 64-18-16 U123
Formparanate Methanimidamide, N,N-
dimethyl-N'-[2-methyl-
4-[[(methylamino)-
carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-
17702-
57-7
P197
Glycidylaldehyde Oxiranecarboxaldehyde 765-34-4 U126
Halomethanes, N.O.S.
Heptachlor 4,7-Methano-1H-
indene,1,4,5,6,7,8,8-
heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-
tetrahydro-
76-44-8 P059
Heptachlor epoxide 2,5-Methano-2H-
indeno[1, 2b]oxirene,
2,3,4,5,6,7,7-hepta-
chloro-
1a,1b,5,5a,6,6a-hexa-
hydro-,
(1aalpha
α
,1bbeta
β
,2alp
ha
α
,5alpha
α
,5abeta
β
,6b
eta
β
,6aalpha
α
)-
1024-57-
3
Heptachlor epoxide
(alpha
α
, beta
β
, and
gamma
γ
isomers)
Heptachlorodibenzofurans
Heptachlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins
Hexachlorobenzene Benzene, hexachloro- 118-74-1 U127
Hexachlorobutadiene 1,3-Butadiene,
1,1,2,3,4,4-hexa-
chloro-
87-68-3 U128
Hexachlorocyclo-
pentadiene
1,3-Cyclopentadiene,
1,2,3,4,5,5-hexa-
chloro-
77-47-4 U130
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins
???
Hexachlorodibenzofurans
Hexachloroethane Ethane, hexachloro- 67-72-1 U131
Hexachlorophene Phenol, 2,2'-
methylenebis[3,4,6-
trichloro-
70-30-4 U132
Hexachloropropene 1-Propene,
1,1,2,3,3,3-
hexachloro-
1888-71-
7
U243
Hexaethyltetraphosphate Tetraphosphoric acid,
hexaethyl ester
757-58-4 P062
Hydrazine Same 302-01-2 U133
Hydrogen cyanide Hydrocyanic acid 74-90-8 P063
Hydrogen fluoride Hydrofluoric acid 7664-39-
3
U134
Hydrogen sulfide Hydrogen sulfide
H2SH
2S
7783-06-
4
U135
Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene Same 193-39-5 U137
3-Iodo-2-propynyl-n-
butylcarbamate
Carbamic acid, butyl-,
3-iodo-2-propynyl
ester
55406-
53-6
Isobutyl alcohol 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- 78-83-1 U140
Isodrin 1,4:5,8-Dimethanonaph-
thalene,1,2,3,4,10,10-
hexachloro-
1,4,4a,5,8,8a-
hexahydro-,
(1alpha
α
,4alpha
α
,4abe
ta
β
,5beta
β
,8beta
β
,8abe
ta
β
)-,
465-73-6 P060
Isolan Carbamic acid,
dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1-
(1-methylethyl)-1H-
pyrazol-5-yl ester
119-38-0 P192
Isosafrole 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-
(1-propenyl)-
120-58-1 U141
Kepone 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-
cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-
2-one,
1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,
6-decachlorooctahydro-
,
143-50-0 U142
Lasiocarpine 2-Butenoic acid, 2-
methyl-, 7-[[2,3-
dihydroxy-2-(1-
methoxyethyl)-3-
methyl-1-
oxobutoxy]methyl]-
2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-
1H-pyrrolizin-l-yl
ester, [1S-[1-
alpha
α
(Z),7(2S*,3R*),
303-34-1 U143
???
7aalpha
α
]]-
Lead Same 7439-92-
1
Lead and compounds,
N.O.S.
Lead acetate Acetic acid, lead (2+)
salt
301-04-2 U144
Lead phosphate Phosphoric acid, lead
(2+) salt (2:3)
7446-27-
7
U145
Lead subacetate Lead, bis(acetato-O)-
tetrahydroxytri-
1335-32-
6
U146
Lindane Cyclohexane,
1,2,3,4,5,6-hexa-
chloro-,
1alpha
α
,2alpha
α
,3beta
β
,4alpha
α
,5
alpha
α
,6bet
a
β
)-
58-89-9 U129
Maleic anhydride 2,5-Furandione 108-31-6 U147
Maleic hydrazide 3,6-Pyridazinedione,
1,2-dihydro-
123-33-1 U148
Malononitrile Propanedinitrile 109-77-3 U149
Manganese dimethyldithio-
carbamate
Manganese,
bis(dimethylcarbamo-
dithioato-S,S')-,
15339-
36-3
P196
Melphalan L-Phenylalanine, 4-
[bis(2-chloroethyl)-
amino]-
148-82-3 U150
Mercury Same 7439-97-
6
U151
Mercury compounds, N.O.S.
Mercury fulminate Fulminic acid, mercury
(2+) salt
628-86-4 P065
Metam Sodium Carbamodithioic acid,
methyl-, monosodium
salt
137-42-8
Methacrylonitrile 2-Propenenitrile, 2-
methyl-
126-98-7 U152
Methapyrilene 1,2-Ethanediamine,
N,N-dimethyl-N'-2-
pyridinyl-N'-(2-
thienylmethyl)-
91-80-5 U155
Methiocarb Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-
4-(methylthio)-,
methylcarbamate
2032-65-
7
P199
Metholmyl Ethanimidothioic acid,
N-[[(methyl-
amino)carbonyl]oxy]-,
methyl ester
16752-
77-5
P066
Methoxychlor Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-
trichloroethyl-
idene)bis[4-methoxy-
72-43-5 U247
???
Methyl bromide Methane, bromo- 74-83-9 U029
Methyl chloride Methane, chloro- 74-87-3 U045
Methylchlorocarbonate Carbonochloridic acid,
methyl ester
79-22-1 U156
Methyl chloroform Ethane, 1,1,1-
trichloro-
71-55-6 U226
3-Methylcholanthrene Benz[j]aceanthrylene,
1,2-dihydro-3-methyl-
56-49-5 U157
4,4'-Methylenebis(2-
chloroaniline)
Benzenamine, 4,4'-
methylenebis[2-chloro-
101-14-4 U158
Methylene bromide Methane, dibromo- 74-95-3 U068
Methylene chloride Methane, dichloro- 75-09-2 U080
Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) 2-Butanone 78-93-3 U159
Methyl ethyl ketone
peroxide
2-Butanone, peroxide 1338-23-
4
U160
Methyl hydrazine Hydrazine, methyl- 60-34-4 P068
Methyl iodide Methane, iodo- 74-88-4 U138
Methyl isocyanate Methane, isocyanato- 624-83-9 P064
2-Methyllactonitrile Propanenitrile, 2-
hydroxy-2-methyl-
75-86-5 P069
Methyl methacrylate 2-Propenoic acid, 2-
methyl-, methyl ester
80-62-6 U162
Methyl methanesulfonate Methanesulfonic acid,
methyl ester
66-27-3
Methyl parathion Phosphorothioic acid,
O,O-dimethyl O-(4-
nitrophenyl) ester
298-00-0 P071
Methylthiouracil 4-(1H)-Pyrimidinone,
2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-
2-thioxo-
56-04-2 U164
Metolcarb Carbamic acid, methyl-
, 3-methylphenyl ester
1129-41-
5
P190
Mexacarbate Phenol, 4-
(dimethylamino)-3,5-
dimethyl-, methyl-
carbamate (ester)
315-18-4 P128
Mitomycin C Azirino[2', 3':3,
4]pyrrolo[1, 2-
a]indole-4, 7-dione,
6-amino-8-[[(amino-
carbonyl)oxy]methyl]-
1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-
hexahydro-8a-methoxy-
5-methyl-, [1a-S-
(1aalpha
α
,8beta
β
,8aalp
ha
α
,8balpha
α
)]-,
50-07-7 U010
Molinate 1H-Azepine-1-carbo-
thioic acid,
hexahydro-, S-ethyl
ester
2212-67-
1
MNNG Guanidine, N-methyl- 70-25-7 U163
???
N'-nitro-N-nitroso-
Mustard gas Ethane, 1,1'-
thiobis[2-chloro-
505-60-2 U165
Naphthalene Same 91-20-3 U165
1,4-Naphthoquinone 1,4-Naphthalenedione 130-15-4 U166
alpha
α
-Naphthylamine
1-Naphthalenamine 134-32-7 U167
beta
β
-Naphthylamine
2-Naphthalenamine 91-59-8 U168
alpha
α
-Naphthylthiourea
Thiourea, 1-
naphthalenyl-
86-88-4 P072
Nickel Same 7440-02-
0
Nickel compounds, N.O.S.
Nickel carbonyl Nickel carbonyl
Ni(CO)
4, (T-4)-
13463-
39-3
P073
Nickel cyanide Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)
2
557-19-7 P074
Nicotine Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-
2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)-
54-11-5 P075
Nicotine salts P075
Nitric oxide Nitrogen oxide NO 10102-
43-9
P076
p-Nitroaniline Benzenamine, 4-nitro- 100-01-6 P077
Nitrobenzene Benzene, nitro- 98-95-3 P078
Nitrogen dioxide Nitrogen oxide NO
2
10102-
44-0
P078
Nitrogen mustard Ethanamine, 2-chloro-
N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-
methyl-
51-75-2
Nitrogen mustard, hydro-
chloride salt
Nitrogen mustard N-oxide Ethanamine, 2-chloro-
N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-
methyl-, N-oxide
126-85-2
Nitrogen mustard, N-
oxide, hydrochloride salt
Nitroglycerin 1,2,3-Propanetriol,
trinitrate
55-63-0 P081
p-Nitrophenol Phenol, 4-nitro- 100-02-7 U170
2-Nitropropane Propane, 2-nitro- 79-46-9 U171
Nitrosamines, N.O.S. 35576-
91-1
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-
N-nitroso-
924-16-3 U172
N-Nitrosodiethanolamine Ethanol, 2,2'-
(nitrosoimino)bis-
1116-54-
7
U173
N-Nitrosodiethylamine Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-
nitroso-
55-18-5 U174
N-Nitrosodimethylamine Methanamine, N-methyl-
N-nitroso-
62-75-9 P082
N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea Urea, N-ethyl-N-
nitroso-
759-73-9 U176
N-Nitrosomethylethylamine Ethanamine, N-methyl- 10595-
???
N-nitroso- 95-6
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea Urea, N-methyl-N-
nitroso-
684-93-5 U177
N-Nitroso-N-
methylurethane
Carbamic acid,
methylnitroso-, ethyl
ester
615-53-2 U178
N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine Vinylamine, N-methyl-
N-nitroso-
4549-40-
0
P084
N-Nitrosomorpholine Morpholine, 4-nitroso- 59-89-2
N-Nitrosonornicotine Pyridine, 3-(1-
nitroso-2-
pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)-
16543-
55-8
N-Nitrosopiperidine Piperidine, 1-nitroso- 100-75-4 U179
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine Pyrrolidine, 1-
nitroso-
930-55-2 U180
N-Nitrososarcosine Glycine, N-methyl-N-
nitroso-
13256-
22-9
5-Nitro-o-toluidine Benzenamine, 2-methyl-
5-nitro-
99-55-8 U181
Octamethylpyrophosphor-
amide
Diphosphoramide,
octamethyl-
152-16-9 P085
Osmium tetroxide Osmium oxide OsO
4, (T-
4)
20816-
12-0
P087
Oxamyl Ethanimidothioc acid,
2-(dimethylamino)-N-
[[(methylamino)-
carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-,
methyl ester
23135-
22-0
P194
Paraldehyde 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-
trimethyl-
123-63-7 U182
Parathion Phosphorothioic acid,
O,O-diethyl O-(4-
nitrophenyl) ester
56-38-2 P089
Pebulate Carbamothioic acid,
butylethyl-, S-propyl
ester
1114-71-
2
Pentachlorobenzene Benzene, pentachloro- 608-93-5 U183
Pentachlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins
Pentachlorodibenzofurans
Pentachloroethane Ethane, pentachloro- 76-01-7 U184
Pentachloronitrobenzene
(PCNB)
Benzene,
pentachloronitro-
82-68-8 U185
Pentachlorophenol Phenol, pentachloro- 87-86-5 See
F027
Phenacetin Acetamide, N-(4-
ethoxyphenyl)-
62-44-2 U187
Phenol Same 108-95-2 U188
Phenylenediamine Benzenediamine 25265-
76-3
Phenylmercury acetate Mercury, (acetato-
O)phenyl-
62-38-4 P092
???
Phenylthiourea Thiourea, phenyl- 103-85-5 P093
Phosgene Carbonic dichloride 75-44-5 P095
Phosphine Same 7803-51-
2
P096
Phorate Phosphorodithioic
acid, O,O-diethyl S-
[(ethylthio)methyl]
ester
298-02-2 P094
Phthalic acid esters,
N.O.S.
Phthalic anhydride 1,3-Isobenzofurandione 85-44-9 U190
Physostigmine Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-
ol, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-
hexahydro-1,3a,8-
trimethyl-, methyl-
carbamate (ester),
(3aS-cis)-
57-47-6 P204
Physostigmine salicylate Benzoic acid, 2-
hydroxy-, compound
with (3aS-cis)-
1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexa-
hydro-1,3a,8-
trimethylpyrrolo[2,3-
b]indol-5-yl methyl-
carbamate ester (1:1)
57-64-7 P188
2-Picoline Pyridine, 2-methyl- 109-06-8 U191
Polychlorinated
biphenyls, N.O.S.
Potassium cyanide Same 151-50-8 P098
Potassium dimethyldithio-
carbamate
Carbamodithioc acid,
dimethyl, potassium
salt
128-03-0
Potassium n-hydroxy-
methyl-n-methyl-dithio-
carbamate
Carbamodithioc acid,
(hydroxymethyl)methyl-
, monopotassium salt
51026-
28-9
Potassium n-methyldithio-
carbamate
Carbamodithioc acid,
methyl-monopotassium
salt
137-41-7
Potassium silver cyanide Argentate(1-),
bis(cyano-C)-,
potassium)
506-61-6 P099
Potassium
pentachlorophenate
Pentachlorophenol,
potassium salt
7778736 None
Promecarb Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-
methylethyl)-, methyl
carbamate
2631-37-
0
P201
Pronamide Benzamide, 3,5-
dichloro-N-(1,1-di-
methyl-2-propynyl)-
23950-
58-5
U192
1,3-Propane sultone 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-
dioxide
1120-71-
4
U193
Propham Carbamic acid, phenyl- 122-42-9 U373
???
, 1-methylethyl ester
Propoxur Phenol, 2-(1-methyl-
ethoxy)-, methyl-
carbamate
114-26-1 U411
n-Propylamine 1-Propanamine 107-10-8 U194
Propargyl alcohol 2-Propyn-1-ol 107-19-7 P102
Propylene dichloride Propane, 1,2-dichloro- 78-87-5 U083
1,2-Propylenimine Aziridine, 2-methyl- 75-55-8 P067
Propylthiouracil 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone,
2,3-dihydro-6-propyl-
2-thioxo-
51-52-5
Prosulfocarb Carbamothioic acid,
dipropyl-, S-(phenyl-
methyl) ester
52888-
80-9
U387
Pyridine Same 110-86-1 U196
Reserpine Yohimban-16-carboxylic
acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-
18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxy-
benzoyl)oxy]-, methyl
ester,
(3beta
β
,16beta
β
,17alph
a
α
,18beta
β
,20alpha
α
)-,
50-55-5 U200
Resorcinol 1,3-Benzenediol 108-46-3 U201
Saccharin 1,2-Benzisothiazol-
3(2H)-one, 1,1-dioxide
81-07-2 U202
Saccharin salts U202
Safrole 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-
(2-propenyl)-
94-59-7 U203
Selenium Same 7782-49-
2
Selenium compounds,
N.O.S.
Selenium dioxide Selenious acid 7783-00-
8
U204
Selenium sulfide Selenium sulfide SeS
2
7488-56-
4
U205
Selenium, tetrakis-
(dimethyl-dithiocarbamate
Carbamodithioic acid,
dimethyl-, tetra-
anhydrosulfide with
orthothioselenious
acid
144-34-3
Selenourea Same 630-10-4 P103
Silver Same 7440-22-
4
Silver compounds, N.O.S.
Silver cyanide Silver cyanide AgCN 506-64-9 P104
Silvex (2,4,5-TP) Propanoic acid, 2-
(2,4,5-
trichlorophenoxy)-
93-72-1 See
F027
Sodium cyanide Sodium cyanide NaCN 143-33-9 P106
Sodium dibutyldithio- Carbamodithioic acid, 136-30-1
???
carbamate dibutyl-, sodium salt
Sodium diethyldithio-
carbamate
Carbamodithioic acid,
diethyl-, sodium salt
148-18-5
Sodium dimethyldithio-
carbamate
Carbamodithioic acid,
dimethyl-, sodium salt
128-04-1
Sodium pentachlorophenate Pentachlorophenol,
sodium salt
131522 None
Streptozotocin D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-
[[methylnitroso-
amino)carbonyl]amino]-
18883-
66-4
U206
Strychnine Strychnidin-10-one 57-24-9 P108
Strychnine salts P108
Sulfallate Carbamodithioic acid,
diethyl-, 2-chloro-2-
propenyl ester
95-06-7
TCDD Dibenzo[b,e][1,4]dioxi
n, 2,3,7,8-
tetrachloro-
1746-01-
6
Tetrabutylthiuram
disulfide
Thioperoxydicarbonic
diamide, tetrabutyl
1634-02-
2
Tetramethylthiuram
monosulfide
Bis(dimethylthio-
carbamoyl) sulfide
97-74-5
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlo-
robenzene
Benzene, 1,2,4,5-
tetrachloro-
95-94-3 U207
Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins
Tetrachlorodibenzofurans
Tetrachloroethane, N.O.S. Ethane, tetrachloro-,
N.O.S.
25322-
20-7
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane Ethane, 1,1,1,2-
tetrachloro-
630-20-6 U208
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane Ethane, 1,1,2,2-
tetrachloro-
79-34-5 U209
Tetrachloroethylene Ethene, tetrachloro- 127-18-4 U210
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol Phenol, 2,3,4,6-
tetrachloro-
58-90-2 See
F027
2,3,4,6-Tetrachloro-
phenol, potassium salt
Same 53535276 None
2,3,4,6-Tetrachloro-
phenol, sodium salt
Same 25567559 None
Tetraethyldithiopyrophos-
phate
Thiodiphosphoric acid,
tetraethyl ester
3689-24-
5
P109
Tetraethyl lead Plumbane, tetraethyl- 78-00-2 P110
Tetraethylpyrophosphate Diphosphoric acid,
tetraethyl ester
107-49-3 P111
Tetranitromethane Methane, tetranitro- 509-14-8 P112
Thallium Same 7440-28-
0
Thallium compounds
Thallic oxide Thallium oxide Tl
2O
3
1314-32-
5
P113
Thallium (I) acetate Acetic acid, thallium 563-68-8 U214
???
(1+) salt
Thallium (I) carbonate Carbonic acid,
dithallium (1+) salt
6533-73-
9
U215
Thallium (I) chloride Thallium chloride TlCl 7791-12-
0
U216
Thallium (I) nitrate Nitric acid, thallium
(1+) salt
10102-
45-1
U217
Thallium selenite Selenious acid,
dithallium (1+) salt
12039-
52-0
P114
Thallium (I) sulfate Sulfuric acid,
dithallium (1+) salt
7446-18-
6
P115
Thioacetamide Ethanethioamide 62-55-5 U218
Thiodicarb Ethanimidothioic acid,
N,N'-[thiobis[(methyl-
imino)carbonyloxy]]-
bis-, dimethyl ester
59669-
26-0
U410
Thiofanox 2-Butanone, 3,3-
dimethyl-1-(methyl-
thio)-, O-
[(methylamino)carbonyl
]oxime
39196-
18-4
P045
Thiophanate-methyl Carbamic acid, [1,2-
phyenylenebis(imino-
carbonothioyl)]-bis-,
dimethyl ester
23564-
05-8
U409
Thiomethanol Methanethiol 74-93-1 U153
Thiophenol Benzenethiol 108-98-5 P014
Thiosemicarbazide Hydrazinecarbothioamid
e
79-19-6 P116
Thiourea Same 62-56-6 P219
Thiram Thioperoxydicarbonic
diamide [(H
2N)C(S)]
2S
2,
tetramethyl-
137-26-8 U244
Tirpate 1,3-Dithiolane-2-
carboxaldehyde, 2,4-
dimethyl-, O-[(methyl-
amino)carbonyl] oxime
26419-
73-8
P185
Toluene Benzene, methyl- 108-88-3 U220
Toluenediamine Benzenediamine, ar-
methyl-
25376-
45-8
U221
Toluene-2,4-diamine 1,3-Benzenediamine, 4-
methyl-
95-80-7
Toluene-2,6-diamine 1,3-Benzenediamine, 2-
methyl-
823-40-5
Toluene-3,4-diamine 1,2-Benzenediamine, 4-
methyl-
496-72-0
Toluene diisocyanate Benzene, 1,3-
diisocyanatomethyl-
26471-
62-5
U223
o-Toluidine Benzenamine, 2-methyl- 95-53-4 U328
o-Toluidine hydrochloride Benzeneamine, 2-
methyl-, hydrochloride
636-21-5 U222
p-Toluidine Benzenamine, 4-methyl- 106-49-0 U353
???
Toxaphene Same 8001-35-
2
P123
Triallate Carbamothioic acid,
bis(1-methylethyl)-,
S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-
propenyl) ester
2303-17-
5
U389
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene Benzene, 1,2,4-
trichloro-
120-82-1
1,1,2-Trichloroethane Ethane, 1,1,2-
trichloro-
79-00-5 U227
Trichloroethylene Ethene, trichloro- 79-01-6 U228
Trichloromethanethiol Methanethiol,
trichloro-
75-70-7 P118
Trichloromonofluoro-
methane
Methane,
trichlorofluoro-
75-69-4 U121
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol Phenol, 2,4,5-
trichloro-
95-95-4 See
F027
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol Phenol, 2,4,6-
trichloro-
88-06-2 See
F027
2,4,5-T Acetic acid, (2,4,5-
trichlorophenoxy)-
93-76-5 See
F027
Trichloropropane, N.O.S. 25735-
29-9
1,2,3-Trichloropropane Propane, 1,2,3-
trichloro-
96-18-4
Triethylamine Ethanamine, N,N-
diethyl-
121-44-8 U404
O,O,O-Triethylphosphoro-
thioate
Phosphorothioic acid,
O,O,O-triethyl ester
126-68-1
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene Benzene, 1,3,5-
trinitro-
99-35-4 U234
Tris(l-aziridinyl)-
phosphine sulfide
Aziridine, 1,1',1”-
phosphinothioylidyne-
tris-
52-24-4
Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl)
phosphate
1-Propanol, 2,3-
dibromo-, phosphate
(3:1)
126-72-7 U235
Trypan blue 2,7-
Naphthalenedisulfonic
acid, 3,3'-[(3,3'-
dimethyl[1,1'-
biphenyl]-4,4'-diyl)-
bis(azo)]bis[5-amino-
4-hydroxy-,
tetrasodium salt
72-57-1 U236
Uracil mustard 2,4-(1H,3H)-
Pyrimidinedione, 5-
[bis(2-
chloroethyl)amino]-
66-75-1 U237
Vanadium pentoxide Vanadium oxide V
2O
5
1314-62-
1
P120
Vernolate Carbamothioc acid, 1929-77-
???
dipropyl-, S-propyl
ester
7
Vinyl chloride Ethene, chloro- 75-01-4 U043
Warfarin 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one,
4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-
phenylbutyl)-, when
present at
concentrations less
than 0.3%
81-81-2 U248
Warfarin 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one,
4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-
phenylbutyl)-, when
present at
concentrations greater
than 0.3%
81-81-2 P001
Warfarin salts, when
present at concentrations
less than 0.3%
U248
Warfarin salts, when
present at concentrations
greater than 0.3%
P001
Zinc cyanide Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)
2
557-21-1 P121
Zinc phosphide Zinc phosphide P
2Zn
3,
when present at
concentrations greater
than 10%
1314-84-
7
P122
Zinc phosphide Zinc phosphide P
2Zn
3,
when present at
concentrations of 10%
or less
1314-84-
7
U249
Ziram Zinc, bis(dimethyl-
carbamodithioato-
S,S')- (T-4)-
137-30-4 P205
Note: The abbreviation N.O.S. (not otherwise specified)
signifies those members of the general class not specifically
listed by name in this Section.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 721.Appendix Z Table to Section 721.102
Table
*1 *2 *3 *4
Spent materials Yes Yes Yes Yes
???
Sludges (listed in
Section 721.131 or
721.132)
Yes Yes Yes Yes
Sludges exhibiting a
characteristic of
hazardous waste
Yes Yes No Yes
By-products (listed in
Section 721.131 or
721.132)
Yes Yes Yes Yes
By-products exhibiting a
characteristic of
hazardous waste
Yes Yes No Yes
Commercial chemical
products listed in
Section 721.133
Yes Yes No No
Scrap metal other than
excluded scrap metal (see
Section 721.101(c)(9))
Yes Yes Yes Yes
Yes - Defined as a solid waste
No - Not defined as a solid waste
*1 - Use constituting disposal (Section 721.102(c)(1))
*2 - Burning for energy recovery or use to produce a fuel
(Section 721.102(c)(2))
*3 - Reclamation (Section 721.102(c)(3))
*4 - Speculative accumulation (Section 721.102(c)(4))
BOARD NOTE: Derived from Table 1 to 40 CFR 261.2(c)(4) (19947).
The terms “spent materials”, “sludges”, “by-products”, and “scrap
metal” and “processed scrap metal” are defined in Section
721.101.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 722
STANDARDS APPLICABLE TO GENERATORS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
???
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section
722.110 Purpose, Scope and Applicability
722.111 Hazardous Waste Determination
722.112 USEPA Identification Numbers
SUBPART B: THE MANIFEST
Section
722.120 General Requirements
722.121 Acquisition of Manifests
722.122 Number of Copies
722.123 Use of the Manifest
SUBPART C: PRE-TRANSPORT REQUIREMENTS
Section
722.130 Packaging
722.131 Labeling
722.132 Marking
722.133 Placarding
722.134 Accumulation Time
SUBPART D: RECORDKEEPING AND REPORTING
Section
722.140 Recordkeeping
722.141 Annual Reporting
722.142 Exception Reporting
722.143 Additional Reporting
722.144 Special Requirements for Generators of between 100 and
1000 kilograms per month
SUBPART E: EXPORTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section
722.150 Applicability
722.151 Definitions
722.152 General Requirements
722.153 Notification of Intent to Export
722.154 Special Manifest Requirements
722.155 Exception Report
722.156 Annual Reports
722.157 Recordkeeping
722.158 International Agreements
SUBPART F: IMPORTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section
722.160 Imports of Hazardous Waste
SUBPART G: FARMERS
Section
722.170 Farmers
???
SUBPART H: TRANSFRONTIER SHIPMENTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
FOR RECOVERY WITHIN THE OECD
Section
722.180 Applicability
722.181 Definitions
722.182 General Conditions
722.183 Notification and Consent
722.184 Tracking Document
722.185 Contracts
722.186 Provisions Relating to Recognized Traders
722.187 Reporting and Recordkeeping
722.189 OECD Waste Lists
722.Appendix A Hazardous Waste Manifest
AUTHORITY: Implementing Section 22.4 and authorized by Section
27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R81-22, 43 PCB 427, at 5 Ill. Reg. 9781,
effective May 17, 1982; amended and codified in R81-22, 45 PCB
317, at 6 Ill. Reg. 4828, effective May 17, 1982; amended in R82-
18, 51 PCB 31, at 7 Ill. Reg. 2518, effective February 22, 1983;
amended in R84-9 at 9 Ill. Reg. 11950, effective July 24, 1985;
amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg. 1131, effective January 2,
1986; amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill. Reg. 14112, effective August
12, 1986; amended in R86-19 at 10 Ill. Reg. 20709, effective
December 2, 1986; amended in R86-46 at 11 Ill. Reg. 13555,
effective August 4, 1987; amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg. 19392,
effective November 12, 1987; amended in R87-39 at 12 Ill. Reg.
13129, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R88-16 at 13 Ill. Reg.
452, effective December 27, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill.
Reg. 18523, effective November 13, 1989; amended in R90-10 at 14
Ill. Reg. 16653, effective September 25, 1990; amended in R90-11
at 15 Ill. Reg. 9644, effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-1
at 15 Ill. Reg. 14562, effective October 1, 1991; amended in R91-
13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9833, effective June 9, 1992; amended in R92-1
at 16 Ill. Reg. 17696, effective November 6, 1992; amended in
R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20822, effective November 22, 1993; amended
in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9935, effective June 27, 1995; amended
in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 11236, effective August 1, 1996;
amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 603, effective
December 16, 1997; amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg.
________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section 722.110 Purpose, Scope and Applicability
a) These regulations establish standards for generators of
hazardous waste.
???
b) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.105(c) and (d) must be used to
determine the applicability of provisions of this Part
that are dependent on calculations of the quantity of
hazardous waste generated per month.
c) A generator that treats, stores or disposes of
hazardous waste on-site must only comply with the
following Sections of this Part with respect to that
waste: Section 722.111 for determining whether or not
the generator has a hazardous waste, Section 722.112
for obtaining an USEPA identification number, Section
722.140(c) and (d) for recordkeeping, Section 722.143
for additional reporting and, if applicable, Section
722.170 for farmers.
d) Any person that exports or imports hazardous waste
subject to the hazardous waste manifesting requirements
of this Part or subject to the universal waste
management standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733 to or
from countries listed in Section 722.158(a)(1) for
recovery must comply with Subpart H of this Part.
e) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 262.10(e), a
federal provision imposing the generator standards on a
person importing hazardous waste into the United
States. The regulation of international trade is a
matter within the exclusive authority of the federal
government. This statement maintains structural
consistency with USEPA rules.
ef) A farmer that generates waste pesticides which are
hazardous waste and that complies with all of the
requirements of Section 722.151722.170 is not required
to comply with other standards in this Part, or 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, 724 725 or 728 with respect to such
pesticides.
fg) A person that generates a hazardous waste as defined by
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 is subject to the compliance
requirements and penalties prescribed in Title VIII and
XII of the Environmental Protection Act if he does not
comply with the requirements of this Part.
gh) An owner or operator that initiates a shipment of
hazardous waste from a treatment, storage or disposal
facility must comply with the generator standards
established in this Part.
i) A person responding to an explosives or munitions
emergency in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.101(g)(8)(A)(iv) or (g)(8)(D) or 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.101(g)(8)(A)(iv) or (g)(8)(D) and 35 Ill. Adm. Code
???
703.121(c)(3)(A)(iv) or (C) is not required to comply
with the standards of this Part.
BOARD NOTE: The provisions of Section 722.134 are
applicable to the on-site accumulation of hazardous
waste by generators. Therefore, the provisions of
Section 722.134 only apply to owners or operators that
are shipping hazardous waste which they generated at
that facility. A generator that treats, stores or
disposes of hazardous waste on-site must comply with
the applicable standards and permit requirements set
forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 724, 725, 726 and
728.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART B: THE MANIFEST
Section 722.120 General Requirements
a) A generator who transports, or offers for
transportation, hazardous waste for off-site treatment,
storage or disposal must prepare a manifest before
transporting the waste off-site.
b) A generator must designate on the manifest one facility
which is permitted to handle the waste described on the
manifest.
c) A generator may also designate on the manifest one
alternate facility which is permitted to handle his
waste in the event an emergency prevents delivery of
the waste to the primary designated facility.
d) If the transporter is unable to deliver the hazardous
waste to the designated facility or the alternate
facility, the generator must either designate another
facility or instruct the transporter to return the
waste.
e) The requirements of this Subpart do not apply to
hazardous waste produced by generators of greater than
100 kg but less than 1000 kg in a calendar month where:
1) The waste is reclaimed under a contractual
agreement pursuant to which:
A) The type of waste and frequency of shipments
are specified in the agreement:
???
B) The vehicle used to transport the waste to
the recycling facility and to deliver
regenerated material back to the generator is
owned and operated by the reclaimer of the
waste; and
2) The generator maintains a copy of the reclamation
agreement in his files for a period of at least
three years after termination or expiration of the
agreement.
f) The requirements of this Subpart B and Section
722.132(b) do not apply to the transport of hazardous
wastes on a public or private right-of-way within or
along the border of contiguous property under the
control of the same person, even if such contiguous
property is divided by a public or private right-of-
way. Notwithstanding 35 Ill. Adm. Code 723.110(a), the
generator or transporter shall comply with the
requirements for transporters set forth in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 723.130 and 723.131 in the event of a discharge of
hazardous waste on a public or private right-of-way.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART E: EXPORTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
Section 722.158 International Agreements
a) Any person that exports or imports hazardous waste
subject to either the manifest requirements of this
Part or the universal waste management standards of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 733 which is shipped to or from
designated member countries of the Organization for
Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), as defined
in subsection (a)(1) of this Section, for purposes of
recovery is subject to the requirements of 722.Subpart
H of this Part. The requirements of Subparts E and F
of this Part do not apply where 722.Subpart H of this
Part applies.
1) For the purposes of this Subpart, the designated
OECD countries are Australia, Austria, Belgium,
Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Greece,
Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg,
Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Portugal, Spain,
Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, the United Kingdom,
and the United States.
???
2) Only for the purposes of transit under this
Subpart, Canada and Mexico are considered OECD
member countries.
b) Any person that exports hazardous waste to or imports
hazardous waste from any designated OECD member country
for purposes other than recovery (e.g., incineration,
disposal), Mexico (for any purpose), or Canada (for any
purpose) remains subject to the requirements of
Subparts E and F of this Part.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART H: TRANSFRONTIER SHIPMENTS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
FOR RECOVERY WITHIN THE OECD
Section 722.180 Applicability
a) The requirements of this Subpart apply to imports and
exports of wastes that are considered hazardous under
U.S. national procedures and which are destined for
recovery operations in any of the countries listed in
Section 722.158(a)(1). A waste is considered hazardous
under U.S. national procedures if it meets the
definition of hazardous waste in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.103 and it is subject to either the manifesting
requirements in Subpart B of this Part, or to the
universal waste management standards of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 733.
b) Any person (notifier, consignee, or recovery facility
operator) that mixes two or more wastes (including
hazardous and non-hazardous wastes) or otherwise
subjects two or more wastes (including hazardous and
non-hazardous wastes) to physical or chemical
transformation operations, and thereby creates a new
hazardous waste, becomes a generator and assumes all
subsequent generator duties under this Subchapter and
any notifier duties under this Subpart, as applicable.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 722.184 Tracking Document
a) All U.S. parties subject to the contract provisions of
Section 722.185 must ensure that a tracking document
meeting the conditions of subsection (b) of this
Section accompanies each transfrontier shipment of
wastes subject to amber-list or red-list controls from
???
the initiation of the shipment until it reaches the
final recovery facility, including cases in which the
waste is stored or exchanged by the consignee prior to
shipment to the final recovery facility, except as
provided in Section 262.184subsections (a)(1) and (a)-
(2) of this Section.
1) For shipments of hazardous waste within the U.S.
solely by water (bulk shipments only), the
generator must forward the tracking document with
the manifest to the last water (bulk shipment)
transporter to handle the waste in the U.S. if
exported by water (in accordance with the manifest
routing procedures at Section 722.123(c)).
2) For rail shipments of hazardous waste within the
U.S. which originate at the site of generation,
the generator must forward the tracking document
with the manifest (in accordance with the routing
procedures for the manifest in Section 722.123(d))
to the next non-rail transporter, if any, or the
last rail transporter to handle the waste in the
U.S. if exported by rail.
b) The tracking document must include all information
required under Section 722.183 (for notification) and
the following:
1) The date shipment commenced;
2) The name (if not notifier), address, and telephone
and telefax numbers of primary exporter;
3) The company name and USEPA identification number
of all transporters;
4) Identification (license, registered name or
registration number) of means of transport,
including types of packaging;
5) Any special precautions to be taken by
transporters;
6) A certification or declaration signed by notifier
that no objection to the shipment has been lodged
as follows:
“I certify that the above information is complete
and correct to the best of my knowledge. I also
certify that legally-enforceable written
contractual obligations have been entered into,
that any applicable insurance or other financial
???
guarantees are or shall be in force covering the
transfrontier movement, and that:”
“1. All necessary consents have been received;” OR
“2. The shipment is directed at a recovery
facility within the OECD area and no objection has
been received from any of the concerned countries
within the 30 day tacit consent period;” OR
“3. The shipment is directed at a recovery
facility pre-authorized for that type of waste
within the OECD area, such an authorization has
not been revoked, and no objection has been
received from any of the concerned countries.”
(delete sentences that are not applicable)
“Name: _____________________________________
Signature: __________________________________
Date: _____________________________________”; and
7) The appropriate signatures for each custody
transfer (e.g., transporter, consignee, and owner
or operator of the recovery facility).
c) Notifiers also must comply with the special manifest
requirements of Section 722.154(a), (b), (c), (e), and
(i) and consignees must comply with the import
requirements of Subpart F of this Part.
d) Each U.S. person that has physical custody of the waste
from the time the movement commences until it arrives
at the recovery facility must sign the tracking
document (e.g., transporter, consignee, and owner or
operator of the recovery facility).
e) Within three working days of the receipt of imports
subject to this Subpart, the owner or operator of the
U.S. recovery facility must send signed copies of the
tracking document to the notifier, to the Office of
Enforcement and Compliance Assurance, Office of
Compliance, Enforcement Planning, Targeting and Data
Division (2222A), Environmental Protection Agency, 401
M St., SW., Washington, DC 20460, and to the competent
authorities of the exporting and transit countries.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
???
Section 722.187 Reporting and Recordkeeping
a) Annual reports. For all waste movements subject to
this Subpart, persons (e.g., notifiers, recognized
traders) that meet the definition of primary exporter
in Section 722.151 shall file an annual report with the
Office of Enforcement and Compliance Assurance, Office
of Compliance, Enforcement Planning, Targeting and Data
Division (2222A), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency,
401 M St., SW., Washington, DC 20460 and the Illinois
Environmental Protection Agency, Bureau of Land,
Division of Land Pollution Control, P.O. Box 19276,
Springfield, IL 62706-927662794, no later than March 1
of each year summarizing the types, quantities,
frequency, and ultimate destination of all such
hazardous waste exported during the previous calendar
year. (If the primary exporter is required to file an
annual report for waste exports that are not covered
under this Subpart, the person filing may include all
export information in one report provided the following
information on exports of waste destined for recovery
within the designated OECD member countries is
contained in a separate Section). Such reports shall
include the following information:
1) The USEPA identification number, name, and mailing
and site address of the notifier filing the
report;
2) The calendar year covered by the report;
3) The name and site address of each final recovery
facility;
4) By final recovery facility, for each hazardous
waste exported, a description of the hazardous
waste, the USEPA hazardous waste number (from 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.Subpart C or 721.Subpart D),
the designation of waste type(s) from the OECD
waste list and applicable waste code from the OECD
lists, DOT hazard class, the name and USEPA
identification number (where applicable) for each
transporter used, the total amount of hazardous
waste shipped pursuant to this Subpart, and number
of shipments pursuant to each notification;
5) In even numbered years, for each hazardous waste
exported, except for hazardous waste produced by
exporters of greater than 100 kilograms (kg) but
less than 1000 kg in a calendar month, and except
for hazardous waste for which information was
already provided pursuant to Section 722.141:
???
A) A description of the efforts undertaken
during the year to reduce the volume and
toxicity of waste generated; and
B) A description of the changes in volume and
toxicity of the waste actually achieved
during the year in comparison to previous
years to the extent such information is
available for years prior to 1984; and
6) A certification signed by the person acting as
primary exporter that states as follows:
“I certify under penalty of law that I have
personally examined and am familiar with the
information submitted in this and all attached
documents, and that based on my inquiry of those
individuals immediately responsible for obtaining
the information, I believe that the submitted
information is true, accurate, and complete. I am
aware that there are significant penalties for
submitting false information including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.”
b) Exception reports. Any person that meets the
definition of primary exporter in Section 722.151 shall
file with USEPA and the Agency an exception report in
lieu of the requirements of Section 722.142 if any of
the following occurs:
1) The person has not received a copy of the tracking
documentation signed by the transporter stating
point of departure of the waste from the United
States within 45 days from the date it was
accepted by the initial transporter;
2) Within 90 days from the date the waste was
accepted by the initial transporter, the notifier
has not received written confirmation from the
recovery facility that the hazardous waste was
received; or
3) The waste is returned to the United States.
c) Recordkeeping.
1) Persons that meet the definition of primary
exporter in Section 722.151 shall keep the
following records:
???
A) A copy of each notification of intent to
export and all written consents obtained from
the competent authorities of concerned
countries, for a period of at least three
years from the date the hazardous waste was
accepted by the initial transporter;
B) A copy of each annual report, for a period of
at least three years from the due date of the
report; and
C) A copy of any exception reports and a copy of
each confirmation of delivery (i.e., tracking
documentation) sent by the recovery facility
to the notifier, for at least three years
from the date the hazardous waste was
accepted by the initial transporter or
received by the recovery facility, whichever
is applicable.
2) The periods of retention referred to in this
Section are extended automatically during the
course of any unresolved enforcement action
regarding the regulated activity or as requested
by USEPA or the Agency.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 722.Appendix A Hazardous Waste Manifest
The Board incorporates by reference 40 CFR 262, Appendix (198897),
as amended at 53 Fed. Reg. 45090, November 8, 1988. This Part
incorporates no later amendments or editions. The Agency shall
prepare manifest forms based on 40 CFR 262, Appendix, with such
changes as are necessary under Illinois law.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 723
STANDARDS APPLICABLE TO TRANSPORTERS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
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SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section
723.110 Scope
723.111 USEPA Identification Number
723.112 Transfer Facility Requirements
SUBPART B: COMPLIANCE WITH THE MANIFEST SYSTEM AND
RECORDKEEPING
Section
723.120 The Manifest System
723.121 Compliance with the Manifest
723.122 Recordkeeping
SUBPART C: HAZARDOUS WASTE DISCHARGES
Section
723.130 Immediate Action
723.131 Discharge Clean Up
AUTHORITY: Implementing Section 22.4 and authorized by Section
27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R81-22, 43 PCB 427, at 5 Ill. Reg. 9781,
effective May 17, 1982; amended and codified in R81-22, 45 PCB
17, at 6 Ill. Reg. 4828, effective May 17, 1982; amended in R84-
9, at 9 Ill. Reg. 11961, effective July 24, 1985; amended in R86-
19, at 10 Ill. Reg. 20718, effective December 2, 1986; amended in
R86-46 at 11 Ill. Reg. 13570, effective August 4, 1987; amended
in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg. 19412, effective November 12, 1987;
amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9945, effective June 27, 1995;
amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 589, effective
December 16, 1997; amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg.
________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section 723.110 Scope
a) These regulations establish standards which apply to
persons transporting hazardous waste into, out of or
through Illinois if the transportation requires a
manifest under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.
b) These regulations do not apply to on-site
transportation of hazardous waste by generators or by
owners or operators of permitted hazardous waste
management facilities.
c) A transporter of hazardous waste must also comply with
35 Ill. Adm. Code 722, “Standards Applicable to
Generators of Hazardous Waste”, if he:
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1) Transports hazardous waste into the United States
from abroad; or
2) Mixes hazardous waste of different DOT shipping
descriptions by placing them into a single
container.
BOARD NOTE: Transporters that store hazardous
waste are required to comply with the storage
standards in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724 and 725 and the
permit requirements of 40 CFR 122.
d) A transporter of hazardous waste subject to the
manifesting requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722 or
the waste management standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 733
that is being imported from or exported to any of the
countries listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.158(a)(1) for
purposes of recovery is subject to this Subpart and to
all other relevant requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.Subpart H, including, but not limited to, 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722.184 for tracking documents.
e) The regulations in this Part do not apply to
transportation during an explosives or munitions
emergency response, conducted in accordance with 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.101(g)(8)(A)(iv) or (g)(8)(D) or 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.101(g)(8)(A)(iv) or (g)(8)(D), and
35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.121(c)(3)(A)(iv) or (C).
f) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.303 identifies how the
requirements of this Part apply to military munitions
classified as solid waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.302.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 724
STANDARDS FOR OWNERS AND OPERATORS OF HAZARDOUS WASTE
TREATMENT, STORAGE, AND DISPOSAL FACILITIES
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
724.101 Purpose, Scope and Applicability
724.103 Relationship to Interim Status Standards
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SUBPART B: GENERAL FACILITY STANDARDS
Section
724.110 Applicability
724.111 Identification Number
724.112 Required Notices
724.113 General Waste Analysis
724.114 Security
724.115 General Inspection Requirements
724.116 Personnel Training
724.117 General Requirements for Ignitable, Reactive or
Incompatible Wastes
724.118 Location Standards
724.119 Construction Quality Assurance Program
SUBPART C: PREPAREDNESS AND PREVENTION
Section
724.130 Applicability
724.131 Design and Operation of Facility
724.132 Required Equipment
724.133 Testing and Maintenance of Equipment
724.134 Access to Communications or Alarm System
724.135 Required Aisle Space
724.137 Arrangements with Local Authorities
SUBPART D: CONTINGENCY PLAN AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Section
724.150 Applicability
724.151 Purpose and Implementation of Contingency Plan
724.152 Content of Contingency Plan
724.153 Copies of Contingency Plan
724.154 Amendment of Contingency Plan
724.155 Emergency Coordinator
724.156 Emergency Procedures
SUBPART E: MANIFEST SYSTEM, RECORDKEEPING AND
REPORTING
Section
724.170 Applicability
724.171 Use of Manifest System
724.172 Manifest Discrepancies
724.173 Operating Record
724.174 Availability, Retention and Disposition of Records
724.175 Annual Report
724.176 Unmanifested Waste Report
724.177 Additional Reports
SUBPART F: RELEASES FROM SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT UNITS
Section
724.190 Applicability
724.191 Required Programs
724.192 Groundwater Protection Standard
724.193 Hazardous Constituents
???
724.194 Concentration Limits
724.195 Point of Compliance
724.196 Compliance Period
724.197 General Groundwater Monitoring Requirements
724.198 Detection Monitoring Program
724.199 Compliance Monitoring Program
724.200 Corrective Action Program
724.201 Corrective Action for Solid Waste Management Units
SUBPART G: CLOSURE AND POST-CLOSURE
Section
724.210 Applicability
724.211 Closure Performance Standard
724.212 Closure Plan; Amendment of Plan
724.213 Closure; Time Allowed For Closure
724.214 Disposal or Decontamination of Equipment, Structures
and Soils
724.215 Certification of Closure
724.216 Survey Plat
724.217 Post-closure Care and Use of Property
724.218 Post-closure Plan; Amendment of Plan
724.219 Post-closure Notices
724.220 Certification of Completion of Post-closure Care
SUBPART H: FINANCIAL REQUIREMENTS
Section
724.240 Applicability
724.241 Definitions of Terms As Used In This Subpart
724.242 Cost Estimate for Closure
724.243 Financial Assurance for Closure
724.244 Cost Estimate for Post-closure Care
724.245 Financial Assurance for Post-closure Care
724.246 Use of a Mechanism for Financial Assurance of Both
Closure and Post-closure Care
724.247 Liability Requirements
724.248 Incapacity of Owners or Operators, Guarantors or
Financial Institutions
724.251 Wording of the Instruments
SUBPART I: USE AND MANAGEMENT OF CONTAINERS
Section
724.270 Applicability
724.271 Condition of Containers
724.272 Compatibility of Waste With Container
724.273 Management of Containers
724.274 Inspections
724.275 Containment
724.276 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.277 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.278 Closure
724.279 Air Emission Standards
???
SUBPART J: TANK SYSTEMS
Section
724.290 Applicability
724.291 Assessment of Existing Tank System’s Integrity
724.292 Design and Installation of New Tank Systems or
Components
724.293 Containment and Detection of Releases
724.294 General Operating Requirements
724.295 Inspections
724.296 Response to Leaks or Spills and Disposition of Leaking
or unfit-for-use Tank Systems
724.297 Closure and Post-Closure Care
724.298 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.299 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.300 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART K: SURFACE IMPOUNDMENTS
Section
724.320 Applicability
724.321 Design and Operating Requirements
724.322 Action Leakage Rate
724.323 Response Actions
724.326 Monitoring and Inspection
724.327 Emergency Repairs; Contingency Plans
724.328 Closure and Post-closure Care
724.329 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.330 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.331 Special Requirements for Hazardous Wastes F020, F021,
F022, F023, F026 and F027
724.332 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART L: WASTE PILES
Section
724.350 Applicability
724.351 Design and Operating Requirements
724.352 Action Leakage Rate
724.353 Response Action Plan
724.354 Monitoring and Inspection
724.356 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.357 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.358 Closure and Post-closure Care
724.359 Special Requirements for Hazardous Wastes F020, F021,
F022, F023, F026 and F027
SUBPART M: LAND TREATMENT
Section
724.370 Applicability
724.371 Treatment Program
724.372 Treatment Demonstration
724.373 Design and Operating Requirements
724.376 Food-chain Crops
724.378 Unsaturated Zone Monitoring
???
724.379 Recordkeeping
724.380 Closure and Post-closure Care
724.381 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.382 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.383 Special Requirements for Hazardous Wastes F020, F021,
F022, F023, F026 and F027
SUBPART N: LANDFILLS
Section
724.400 Applicability
724.401 Design and Operating Requirements
724.402 Action Leakage Rate
724.403 Monitoring and Inspection
724.404 Response Actions
724.409 Surveying and Recordkeeping
724.410 Closure and Post-closure Care
724.412 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
724.413 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
724.414 Special Requirements for Bulk and Containerized Liquids
724.415 Special Requirements for Containers
724.416 Disposal of Small Containers of Hazardous Waste in
Overpacked Drums (Lab Packs)
724.417 Special Requirements for Hazardous Wastes F020, F021,
F022, F023, F026 and F027
SUBPART O: INCINERATORS
Section
724.440 Applicability
724.441 Waste Analysis
724.442 Principal Organic Hazardous Constituents (POHCs)
724.443 Performance Standards
724.444 Hazardous Waste Incinerator Permits
724.445 Operating Requirements
724.447 Monitoring and Inspections
724.451 Closure
SUBPART S: CORRECTIVE ACTION FOR SOLID WASTE
MANAGEMENT UNITS
Section
724.652 Corrective Action Management Units
724.653 Temporary Units
SUBPART W: DRIP PADS
Section
724.670 Applicability
724.671 Assessment of existing drip pad integrity
724.672 Design and installation of new drip pads
724.673 Design and operating requirements
724.674 Inspections
724.675 Closure
???
SUBPART X: MISCELLANEOUS UNITS
Section
724.700 Applicability
724.701 Environmental Performance Standards
724.702 Monitoring, Analysis, Inspection, Response, Reporting
and Corrective Action
724.703 Post-closure Care
SUBPART AA: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR PROCESS VENTS
Section
724.930 Applicability
724.931 Definitions
724.932 Standards: Process Vents
724.933 Standards: Closed-ventVent Systems and Control Devices
724.934 Test methods Methods and procedures Procedures
724.935 Recordkeeping requirements
724.936 Reporting Requirements
SUBPART BB: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR EQUIPMENT LEAKS
Section
724.950 Applicability
724.951 Definitions
724.952 Standards: Pumps in Light Liquid Service
724.953 Standards: Compressors
724.954 Standards: Pressure Relief Devices in Gas/Vapor
Service
724.955 Standards: Sampling Connecting Systems
724.956 Standards: Open-ended Valves or Lines
724.957 Standards: Valves in Gas/Vapor or Light Liquid Service
724.958 Standards: Pumps, Valves, Pressure Relief Devices and
Other Connectors
724.959 Standards: Delay of Repair
724.960 Standards: Closed-vent Systems and Control Devices
724.961 Alternative Percentage Standard for Valves
724.962 Skip Period Alternative for Valves
724.963 Test Methods and Procedures
724.964 Recordkeeping Requirements
724.965 Reporting Requirements
SUBPART CC: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR TANKS, SURFACE
IMPOUNDMENTS, AND CONTAINERS
Section
724.980 Applicability
724.981 Definitions
724.982 Standards: General
724.983 Waste Determination Procedures
724.984 Standards: Tanks
724.985 Standards: Surface Impoundments
724.986 Standards: Containers
724.987 Standards: Closed-vent Systems and Control Devices
724.988 Inspection and Monitoring Requirements
724.989 Recordkeeping Requirements
???
724.990 Reporting Requirements
724.991 Alternative Control Requirements for Tanks
SUBPART DD: CONTAINMENT BUILDINGS
Section
724.1100 Applicability
724.1101 Design and operating standards
724.1102 Closure and Post-closure Care
SUBPART EE: HAZARDOUS WASTE MUNITIONS AND EXPLOSIVES
STORAGE
Section
724.1200 Applicability
724.1201 Design and Operating Standards
724.1202 Closure and Post-Closure Care
724.Appendix A Recordkeeping Instructions
724.Appendix B EPA Report Form and Instructions (Repealed)
724.Appendix D Cochran’s Approximation to the Behrens-Fisher
Student’s T-Test
724.Appendix E Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste
724.Appendix I Groundwater Monitoring List
AUTHORITY: Implementing Section 22.4 and authorized by Section
27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R82-19, 53 PCB 131, at 7 Ill. Reg. 14059,
effective October 12, 1983; amended in R84-9 at 9 Ill. Reg.
11964, effective July 24, 1985; amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg.
1136, effective January 2, 1986; amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill. Reg.
14119, effective August 12, 1986; amended in R86-28 at 11 Ill.
Reg. 6138, effective March 24, 1987; amended in R86-28 at 11 Ill.
Reg. 8684, effective April 21, 1987; amended in R86-46 at 11 Ill.
Reg. 13577, effective August 4, 1987; amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill.
Reg. 19397, effective November 12, 1987; amended in R87-39 at 12
Ill. Reg. 13135, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R88-16 at 13
Ill. Reg. 458, effective December 28, 1988; amended in R89-1 at
13 Ill. Reg. 18527, effective November 13, 1989; amended in R90-2
at 14 Ill. Reg. 14511, effective August 22, 1990; amended in R90-
10 at 14 Ill. Reg. 16658, effective September 25, 1990; amended
in R90-11 at 15 Ill. Reg. 9654, effective June 17, 1991; amended
in R91-1 at 15 Ill. Reg. 14572, effective October 1, 1991;
amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9833, effective June 9, 1992;
amended in R92-1 at 16 Ill. Reg. 17702, effective November 6,
1992; amended in R92-10 at 17 Ill. Reg. 5806, effective March 26,
1993; amended in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20830, effective November
22, 1993; amended in R93-16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6973, effective April
26, 1994; amended in R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12487, effective July
29, 1994; amended in R94-17 at 18 Ill. Reg. 17601, effective
November 23, 1994; amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9951,
effective June 27, 1995; amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 11244,
August 1, 1996; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg.
???
636, effective December 16, 1997; amended in R98-12 at 22 Ill.
Reg. 7638, effective April 15, 1998; amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-
5 at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective ______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section 724.101 Purpose, Scope and Applicability
a) The purpose of this Part is to establish minimum
standards that define the acceptable management of
hazardous waste.
b) The standards in this Part apply to owners and
operators of all facilities that treat, store, or
dispose of hazardous waste, except as specifically
provided otherwise in this Part or 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.
c) The requirements of this Part apply to a person
disposing of hazardous waste by means of ocean disposal
subject to a permit issued under the Marine Protection,
Research and Sanctuaries Act (16 U.S.C. 1431-1434, 33
U.S.C. 1401) only to the extent they are included in a
RCRA permit by rule granted to such a person under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 703.141. A “RCRA permit” is a permit
required by Section 21(f) of the Environmental
Protection Act and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.121.
BOARD NOTE: This Part does apply to the treatment or
storage of hazardous waste before it is loaded onto an
ocean vessel for incineration or disposal at sea.
d) The requirements of this Part apply to a person
disposing of hazardous waste by means of underground
injection subject to a permit issued by the Agency
pursuant to Section 12(g) of the Environmental
Protection Act only to the extent they are required by
35 Ill. Adm. Code 704.Subpart F.
BOARD NOTE: This Part does apply to the above-ground
treatment or storage of hazardous waste before it is
injected underground.
e) The requirements of this Part apply to the owner or
operator of a POTW (publicly owned treatment works)
that treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous waste
only to the extent included in a RCRA permit by rule
granted to such a person under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
703.141.
???
f) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 264.1(f), which
provides that the federal regulations do not apply to
T/S/D activities in authorized states, except under
limited, enumerated circumstances. This statement
maintains structural consistency with USEPA rules.
g) The requirements of this Part do not apply to:
1) The owner or operator of a facility permitted by
the Agency under Section 21 of the Environmental
Protection Act to manage municipal or industrial
solid waste, if the only hazardous waste the
facility treats, stores, or disposes of is
excluded from regulation under this Part by 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.105.
BOARD NOTE: The owner or operator may be subject
to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 807 and may have to have a
supplemental permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
807.210.
2) The owner or operator of a facility managing
recyclable materials described in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.106(a)(2) through (a)(4) (except to the
extent that requirements of this Part are referred
to in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.Subparts C, F, G, or
H or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739).
3) A generator accumulating waste on-site in
compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134.
4) A farmer disposing of waste pesticides from the
farmer’s own use in compliance with 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.170.
5) The owner or operator of a totally enclosed
treatment facility, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.110.
6) The owner or operator of an elementary
neutralization unit or a wastewater treatment
unit, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110,
provided that if the owner or operator is diluting
hazardous ignitable (D001) wastes (other than the
D001 High TOC Subcategory defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.Table T) or reactive (D003) waste to
remove the characteristic before land disposal,
the owner or operator must comply with the
requirements set out in Section 724.117(b).
???
7) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 264.1(g)-
(7), reserved by USEPA. This statement maintains
structural consistency with USEPA rules.
8) Immediate response:
A) Except as provided in subsection (g)(8)(B)
below, a person engaged in treatment or
containment activities during immediate
response to any of the following situations:
i) A discharge of a hazardous waste;
ii) An imminent and substantial threat of a
discharge of hazardous waste;
iii) A discharge of a material that becomes a
hazardous waste when discharged.; or
iv) An immediate threat to human health,
public safety, property, or the
environment from the known or suspected
presence of military munitions, other
explosive material, or an explosive
device, as determined by an explosive or
munitions emergency response specialist
as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110.
B) An owner or operator of a facility otherwise
regulated by this Part must comply with all
applicable requirements of 724.Subparts C and
D.
C) Any person that is covered by subsection (g)-
(8)(A) above and that continues or initiates
hazardous waste treatment or containment
activities after the immediate response is
over is subject to all applicable
requirements of this Part and 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, and 705 for those activities.
D) In the case of an explosives or munitions
emergency response, if a federal, state, or
local official acting within the scope of his
or her official responsibilities or an
explosives or munitions emergency response
specialist determines that immediate removal
of the material or waste is necessary to
protect human health or the environment, that
official or specialist may authorize the
removal of the material or waste by
transporters who do not have USEPA
???
identification numbers and without the
preparation of a manifest. In the case of
emergencies involving military munitions, the
responding military emergency response
specialist's organizational unit shall retain
records for three years identifying the dates
of the response, the responsible persons
responding, the type and description of
material addressed, and its disposition.
9) A transporter storing manifested shipments of
hazardous waste in containers meeting the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.130 at a
transfer facility for a period of ten days or
less.
10) The addition of absorbent materials to waste in a
container (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720) or
the addition of waste to absorbent material in a
container, provided these actions occur at the
time waste is first placed in the container, and
Sections 724.117(b), 724.271, and 724.272 are
complied with.
11) A universal waste handler or universal waste
transporter (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.110) that handles any of the wastes listed
below is subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 733 when handling the following universal
wastes:
A) Batteries, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.102;
B) Pesticides, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.103;
C) Thermostats, as described in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 733.104; and
D) Mercury-containing lamps, as described in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 733.107.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (g)(11)(D) of this
Section was added pursuant to Section 22.23a
of the Act [415 ILCS 5/22.23a] (see P.A. 90-
502, effective August 19, 1997).
h) This Part applies to owners and operators of facilities
that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous wastes
referred to in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.
???
i) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.505 identifies when the
requirements of this Part apply to the storage of
military munitions classified as solid waste under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.302. The treatment and disposal of
hazardous waste military munitions are subject to the
applicable permitting, procedural, and technical
standards in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 705, 720
through 726, and 728.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART E: MANIFEST SYSTEM, RECORDKEEPING AND
REPORTING
Section 724.170 Applicability
The regulations in this Subpart apply to owners and operators of
both on-site and off-site facilities, except as Section 724.101
provides otherwise. Sections 724.171, 724.172 and 724.176 do not
apply to owners and operators of on-site facilities that do not
receive any hazardous waste from off-site sources, nor do they
apply to owners and operators of off-site facilities with respect
to waste military munitions exempted from manifest requirements
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.303(a). Section 724.173(b) only
applies to permittees which treat, store or dispose of hazardous
wastes on-site where such wastes were generated.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART J: TANK SYSTEMS
Section 724.298 Special Requirements for Ignitable or
Reactive Waste
a) Ignitable or reactive waste must not be placed in tank
systems unless:
1) The waste is treated, rendered or mixed before or
immediately after placement in the tank system so
that:
A) The resulting waste, mixture or dissolved
material no longer meets the definition of
ignitable or reactive waste under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.121 or 721.123, and
B) Section 724.117(b) is complied with; or
???
2) The waste is stored or treated in such a way that
it is protected from any material or conditions
which may cause the waste to ignite or react; or
3) The tank is used solely for emergencies.
b) The owner or operator of a facility where ignitable or
reactive waste is stored or treated in a tank must
comply with the requirements for the maintenance of
protective distances between the waste management area
and any public ways, streets, alleys or an adjoining
property line that can be built upon as required.in
tables 2-1 through 2-6 of the National Fire Protection
Association’s “Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code,”
NFPA 30, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART AA: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR PROCESS VENTS
Section 724.933 Standards: Closed-ventVent Systems and
Control Devices
a) Compliance Required.
1) Owners or operators of closed-vent systems and
control devices used to comply with provisions of
this Part shall comply with the provisions of this
Section.
2) The owner or operator of an existing facility that
cannot install a closed-vent system and control
device to comply with the provisions of this
Subpart on the effective date that the facility
becomes subject to the provisions of this Subpart
shall prepare an implementation schedule that
includes dates by which the closed-vent system and
control device will be installed and in
operation. The controls must be installed as soon
as possible, but the implementation schedule may
allow up to 30 months after the effective date
that the facility becomes subject to this Subpart
for installation and startup. All units that
begin operation after December 21, 1990, must
comply with the rules immediately (i.e., must have
control devices installed and operating on startup
of the affected unit); the 2-year implementation
schedule does not apply to these units.
???
b) A control device involving vapor recovery (e.g., a
condenser or adsorber) must be designed and operated to
recover the organic vapors vented to it with an
efficiency of 95 weight percent or greater unless the
total organic emission limits of Section 724.932(a)(1)
for all affected process vents is attained at an
efficiency less than 95 weight percent.
c) An enclosed combustion device (e.g., a vapor
incinerator, boiler, or process heater) must be
designed and operated to reduce the organic emissions
vented to it by 95 weight percent or greater; to
achieve a total organic compound concentration of 20
ppmv, expressed as the sum of the actual compounds and
not in carbon equivalents, on a dry basis, corrected to
three percent oxygen; or to provide a minimum residence
time of 0.50 seconds at a minimum temperature of 760°
C. If a boiler or process heater is used as the
control device, then the vent stream must be introduced
into the flame zone of the boiler or process heater.
d) Flares:
1) A flare must be designed for and operated with no
visible emissions, as determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(1), except for periods
not to exceed a total of 5 minutes during any 2
consecutive hours.
2) A flare must be operated with a flame present at
all times, as determined by the methods specified
in subsection (f)(2)(C) of this Section.
3) A flare must be used only if the net heating value
of the gas being combusted is 11.2 MJ/scm (300
Btu/scf) or greater and the flare is steam-
assisted or air-assisted or if the net heating
value of the gas being combusted is 7.45 MJ/scm
(200 Btu/scf) or greater and the flare is
nonassisted. The net heating value of the gas
being combusted must be determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(2) of this Section.
4) Exit Velocity.
A) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare must be
designed for and operated with an exit
velocity, as determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(3) of this
Section, less than 18.3 m/s (60 ft/s), except
as provided in subsections (d)(4)(B) and (d)-
(4)(C) of this Section.
???
B) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare
designed for and operated with an exit
velocity, as determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(3) of this
Section, equal to or greater than 18.3 m/s
(60 ft/s) but less than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is
allowed if the net heating value of the gas
being combusted is greater than 37.3 MJ/scm
(1000 Btu/scf).
C) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare
designed for and operated with an exit
velocity, as determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(3) of this
Section, less than the velocity, V, as
determined by the method specified in
subsection (e)(4) of this Section and less
than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is allowed.
5) An air-assisted flare must be designed and
operated with an exit velocity less than the
velocity, V, as determined by the method specified
in subsection (e)(5) of this Section.
6) A flare used to comply with this Section must be
steam-assisted, air-assisted, or nonassisted.
e) Compliance determination and equations.
1) Reference Method 22 in 40 CFR 60, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, must be
used to determine the compliance of a flare with
the visible emission provisions of this Subpart.
The observation period is 2 hours and must be used
according to Method 22.
2) The net heating value of the gas being combusted
in a flare must be calculated using the following
equation:
Where:
T
i i
H
=K
i
n
C
H
×
=
∑
×
1
???
H
T is the net heating value of the sample in
MJ/scm; where the net enthalpy per mole of
offgas is based on combustion at 25° C and
760 mm Hg, but the standard temperature for
determining the volume corrersponding
corresponding to 1 mole is 20° C.
K = 1.74
×
10
7
(1/ppm)(g mol/scm)(MJ/kcal)
where standard temperature for (g mol/scm)
20° C.
S
Σ
(Xi) means the sum of the values of X for
each component i, from i=1 to n.
C
i is the concentration of sample component i
in ppm on a wet basis, as measured for
organics by Reference Method 18 in 40 CFR 60,
and for carbon monoxide, by ASTM D 1946-90,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111.
H
i is the net heat of combustion of sample
component i, kcal/gmol at 25° C and 760 mm
Hg. The heats of combustion must be
determined using ASTM D 2382, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, if
published values are not available or cannot
be calculated.
3) The actual exit velocity of a flare must be
determined by dividing the volumetric flow rate
(in units of standard temperature and pressure),
as determined by Reference Methods 2, 2A, 2C, or
2D in 40 CFR 60, incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, as appropriate, by the
unobstructed (free) cross-sectional area of the
flare tip.
4) The maximum allowed velocity in m/s, V
max, for a
flare complying with subsection (d)(4)(C) must be
determined by the following equation:
(
)
(
)
log
.
.
max
10
28 8
31 7
V
H
T
=
+
(
)
log
.
.
max
10
28 8
317
V
H
T
=
+
Where:
???
log
10 means logarithm to the base 10
H
T is the net heating value as determined in
subsection (e)(2).
5) The maximum allowed velocity in m/s, V
max, for an
air-assisted flare must be determined by the
following equation:
max
.
.
V
H
T
=
+
8 706 0 7084
Where:
H
T is the net heating value as determined in
subsection (e)(2) of this Section.
f) The owner or operator shall monitor and inspect each
control device required to comply with this Section to
ensure proper operation and maintenance of the control
device by implementing the following requirements:
1) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate
according to the manufacturer’s specifications a
flow indicator that provides a record of stream
flow from each affected process vent to the
control device at least once every hour. The flow
indicator sensor must be installed in the vent
stream at the nearest feasible point to the
control device inlet but before the point at which
the vent streams are combined.
2) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate
according to the manufacturer’s specifications a
device to continuously monitor control device
operation as specified below:
A) For a thermal vapor incinerator, a
temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must have
accuracy of ±1% of the temperature being
monitored in ° C or ±0.5° C, whichever is
greater. The temperature sensor must be
installed at a location in the combustion
chamber downstream of the combustion zone.
B) For a catalytic vapor incinerator, a
temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must be
capable of monitoring temperature at two
???
locations and have an accuracy of ±1% of the
temperature being monitored in ° C or ±0.5°
C, whichever is greater. One temperature
sensor must be installed in the vent stream
at the nearest feasible point to the catalyst
bed inlet and a second temperature sensor
must be installed in the vent stream at the
nearest feasible point to the catalyst bed
outlet.
C) For a flare, a heat sensing monitoring device
equipped with a continuous recorder that
indicates the continuous ignition of the
pilot flame.
D) For a boiler or process heater having a
design heat input capacity less than 44 MW, a
temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must have an
accuracy of ±1% of the temperature being
monitored in ° C or ±0.5° C, whichever is
greater. The temperature sensor must be
installed at a location in the furnace
downstream of the combustion zone.
E) For a boiler or process heater having a
design heat input capacity greater than or
equal to 44 MW, a monitoring device equipped
with a continuous recorder to measure
parameters that indicate good combustion
operating practices are being used.
F) For a condenser, either:
i) A monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder to measure the
concentration level of the organic
compounds in the exhaust vent stream
from the condenser; or
ii) A temperature monitoring device equipped
with a continuous recorder. The device
must be capable of monitoring
temperature with an accuracy of ±1% of
the temperature being monitored in ° C
or ±0.5° C, whichever is greater. The
temperature sensor must be installed at
a location in the exhaust vent stream
from the condenser exit (i.e., product
side).
???
G) For a carbon adsorption system that
regenerates the carbon bed directly in the
control device such as a fixed-bed carbon
adsorber, either:
i) A monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder to measure the
concentration level of the organic
compounds in the exhaust vent stream
from the carbon bed, or
ii) A monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder to measure a
parameter that indicates the carbon bed
is regenerated on a regular,
predetermined time cycle.
3) Inspect the readings from each monitoring device
required by subsections (f)(1) and (f)(2) at least
once each operating day to check control device
operation and, if necessary, immediately implement
the corrective measures necessary to ensure the
control device operates in compliance with the
requirements of this Section.
g) An owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system
such as a fixed-bed carbon adsorber that regenerates
the carbon bed directly onsite in the control device
shall replace the existing carbon in the control device
with fresh carbon at a regular, predetermined time
interval that is no longer than the carbon service life
established as a requirement of Section 724.935(b)(4)-
(C)(vi).
h) An owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system
such as a carbon canister that does not regenerate the
carbon bed directly onsite in the control device shall
replace the existing carbon in the control device with
fresh carbon on a regular basis by using one of the
following procedures:
1) Monitor the concentration level of the organic
compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the
carbon adsorption system on a regular schedule,
and replace the existing carbon with fresh carbon
immediately when carbon breakthrough is
indicated. The monitoring frequency must be daily
or at an interval no greater than 20% of the time
required to consume the total carbon working
capacity established as a requirement of Section
724.935(b)(4)(C)(vii), whichever is longer.
???
2) Replace the existing carbon with fresh carbon at a
regular, predetermined time interval that is less
than the design carbon replacement interval
established as a requirement of Section
724.935(b)(4)(C)(vii).
i) An alternative operational or process parameter may be
monitored if the operator demonstrates that the
parameter will ensure that the control device is
operated in conformance with these standards and the
control device’s design specifications.
j) An owner or operator of an affected facility seeking to
comply with the provisions of this Part by using a
control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator,
catalytic vapor incinerator, flare, boiler, process
heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption system is
required to develop documentation including sufficient
information to describe the control device operation
and identify the process parameter or parameters that
indicate proper operation and maintenance of the
control device.
k) A closed-vent system must meet either of the following
design requirements:
1) A closed-vent system must be designed to operate
with no detectable emissions, as indicated by an
instrument reading of less than 500 ppmv above
background, as determined by the methods specified
at Section 724.934(b), and by visual inspections;
or
2) A closed-vent system must be designed to operate
at a pressure below atmospheric pressure. The
system must be equipped with at least one pressure
gauge or other pressure measurement device that
can be read from a readily accessible location to
verify that negative pressure is being maintained
in the closed-vent system when the control device
is operating.
l) The owner or operator shall monitor and inspect each
closed-vent system required to comply with this Section
to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the
closed-vent system by implementing the following
requirements:
1) Each closed-vent system that is used to comply
with subsection (k)(1) of this Section shall be
inspected and monitored in accordance with the
following requirements:
???
A) An initial leak detection monitoring of the
closed-vent system shall be conducted by the
owner or operator on or before the date that
the system becomes subject to this Section.
The owner or operator shall monitor the
closed-vent system components and connections
using the procedures specified in Section
724.934(b) to demonstrate that the closed-
vent system operates with no detectable
emissions, as indicated by an instrument
reading of less than 500 ppmv of this Section
above background.
B) After initial leak detection monitoring
required in subsection (l)(1)(A) of this
Section, the owner or operator shall inspect
and monitor the closed-vent system as
follows:
i) Closed-vent system joints, seams, or
other connections that are permanently
or semi-permanently sealed (e.g., a
welded joint between two sections of
hard piping or a bolted and gasketed
ducting flange) must be visually
inspected at least once per year to
check for defects that could result in
air pollutant emissions. The owner or
operator shall monitor a component or
connection using the procedures
specified in Section 724.934(b) to
demonstrate that it operates with no
detectable emissions following any time
the component is repaired or replaced
(e.g., a section of damaged hard piping
is replaced with new hard piping) or the
connection is unsealed (e.g., a flange
is unbolted).
ii) Closed-vent system components or
connections other than those specified
in subsection (l)(1)(B)(i) of this
Section must be monitored annually and
at other times as requested by the
Regional Administrator, except as
provided for in subsection (o) of this
Section, using the procedures specified
in Section 724.934(b) to demonstrate
that the components or connections
operate with no detectable emissions.
???
C) In the event that a defect or leak is
detected, the owner or operator shall repair
the defect or leak in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (l)(3) of this
Section.
D) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection and monitoring in
accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 724.935.
2) Each closed-vent system that is used to comply
with subsection (k)(2) of this Section must be
inspected and monitored in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) The closed-vent system must be visually
inspected by the owner or operator to check
for defects that could result in air
pollutant emissions. Defects include, but
are not limited to, visible cracks, holes, or
gaps in ductwork or piping or loose
connections.
B) The owner or operator shall perform an
initial inspection of the closed-vent system
on or before the date that the system becomes
subject to this Section. Thereafter, the
owner or operator shall perform the
inspections at least once every year.
C) In the event that a defect or leak is
detected, the owner or operator shall repair
the defect in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (l)(3) of this
Section.
D) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection and monitoring in
accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 724.935.
3) The owner or operator shall repair all detected
defects as follows:
A) Detectable emissions, as indicated by visual
inspection or by an instrument reading
greater than 500 ppmv above background, must
be controlled as soon as practicable, but not
later than 15 calendar days after the
emission is detected, except as provided for
in subsection (l)(3)(C) of this Section.
???
B) A first attempt at repair must be made no
later than five calendar days after the
emission is detected.
C) Delay of repair of a closed-vent system for
which leaks have been detected is allowed if
the repair is technically infeasible without
a process unit shutdown, or if the owner or
operator determines that emissions resulting
from immediate repair would be greater than
the fugitive emissions likely to result from
delay of repair. Repair of such equipment
must be completed by the end of the next
process unit shutdown.
D) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the defect repair in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 724.935.
m) A closed-vent system or control device used to comply
with provisions of this Subpart must be operated at all
times when emissions may be vented to it.
n) The owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system
to control air pollutant emissions shall document that
all carbon removed that is a hazardous waste and that
is removed from the control device is managed in one of
the following manners, regardless of the volatile
organic concentration of the carbon:
1) It is regenerated or reactivated in a thermal
treatment unit that meets one of the following:
A) The owner or operator of the unit has been
issued a final permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
702, 703, and 705 that implements the
requirements of 724.Subpart X; or
B) The unit is equipped with and operating air
emission controls in accordance with the
applicable requirements of 724.Subparts AA
and CC or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.Subparts AA
and CC; or
C) The unit is equipped with and operating air
emission controls in accordance with a
national emission standard for hazardous air
pollutants under 40 CFR 61 or 40 CFR 63.
???
2) It is incinerated in a hazardous waste incinerator
for which the owner or operator has done either of
the following:
A) The owner or operator has been issued a final
permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and
705 that implements the requirements of
724.Subpart O, or
B) The owner or operator has certified
compliance in accordance with the interim
status requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.Subpart O.
3) It is burned in a boiler or industrial furnace for
which the owner or operator has done either of the
following:
A) The owner or operator has been issued a final
permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and
705 that implements the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.Subpart H, or
B) The owner or operator has designed and
operates the boiler or industrial furnace in
accordance with the interim status
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.Subpart
H.
o) Any components of a closed-vent system that are
designated, as described in Section 724.935(c)(9), as
unsafe to monitor are exempt from the requirements of
subsection (l)(1)(B)(ii) of this Section if both of the
following conditions are fulfilled:
1) The owner or operator of the closed-vent system
has determined that the components of the closed-
vent system are unsafe to monitor because
monitoring personnel would be exposed to an
immediate danger as a consequence of complying
with subsection (l)(1)(B)(ii) of this Section; and
2) The owner or operator of the closed-vent system
adheres to a written plan that requires monitoring
the closed-vent system components using the
procedure specified in subsection (l)(1)(B)(ii) as
frequently as practicable during safe-to-monitor
times.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
???
Section 724.934 Test methods Methods and procedures
Procedures
a) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of
this Subpart shall comply with the test methods and
procedures requirements provided in this Section
b) When a closed-vent system is tested for compliance with
no detectable emissions, as required in Section
724.933(l), the test must comply with the following
requirements:
1) Monitoring must comply with Reference Method 21 in
40 CFR 60, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111.
2) The detection instrument must meet the performance
criteria of Reference Method 21.
3) The instrument must be calibrated before use on
each day of its use by the procedures specified in
Reference Method 21.
4) Calibration gases must be:
A) Zero air (less than 10 ppm of hydrocarbon in
air).
B) A mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a
concentration of approximately, but less
than, 10,000 ppm methane or n-hexane.
5) The background level must be determined as set
forth in Reference Method 21.
6) The instrument probe must be traversed around all
potential leak interfaces as close to the
interface as possible as described in Reference
Method 21.
7) The arithmetic difference between the maximum
concentration indicated by the instrument and the
background level is compared with 500 ppm for
determining compliance.
c) Performance tests to determine compliance with Section
724.932(a) and with the total organic compound
concentration limit of Section 724.933(c) must comply
with the following:
1) Performance tests to determine total organic
compound concentrations and mass flow rates
???
entering and exiting control devices must be
conducted and data reduced in accordance with the
following reference methods and calculation
procedures:
A) Method 2 in 40 CFR 60 for velocity and
volumetric flow rate.
B) Method 18 in 40 CFR 60 for organic content.
C) Each performance test must consist of three
separate runs, each run conducted for at
least 1 hour under the conditions that exist
when the hazardous waste management unit is
operating at the highest load or capacity
level reasonably expected to occur. For the
purpose of determining total organic compound
concentrations and mass flow rates, the
average of results of all runs applies. The
average must be computed on a time-weighed
basis.
D) Total organic mass flow rates must be
determined by the following equation:
Where:
E
h = The total organic mass flow rate,
kg/h.
Q
2sd = The volumetric flow rate of gases
entering or exiting control device,
dscm/h, as determined by Method 2
in 40 CFR 60, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111.
n = The number of organic compounds in
the vent gas.
C
i = The organic concentration in ppm,
dry basis, of compound i in the
vent gas, as determined by Method
18 in 40 CFR 60.
h
2sd
i
i
-6
E
= Q
x(
n
i = 1
C
x MW
)x0.0416x10
∑
???
MW
i = The molecular weight of organic
compound i in the vent gas, kg/kg-
mol.
0.0416 = The conversion factor for molar
volume, kg-mol/m
3
, at 293 K and 760
mm Hg.
10
-6
= The conversion factor from
ppm.
E) The annual total organic emission rate must
be determined by the following equation:
A = F
×
H
Where:
A is total organic emission rate, kg/y.
F is the total organic mass flow rate,
kg/h, as calculated in subsection (c)-
(1)(D) of this Section.
H is the total annual hours of operation
for the affected unit.
F) Total organic emissions from all affected
process vents at the facility must be
determined by summing the hourly total
organic mass emissions rates (F as determined
in subsection (c)(1)(D) of this Section) and
by summing the annual total organic mass
emission rates (A as determined in subsection
(c)(1)(E) of this Section) for all affected
process vents at the facility.
2) The owner or operator shall record such process
information as is necessary to determine the
conditions of the performance tests. Operations
during periods of startup, shutdown and
malfunction do not constitute representative
conditions for the purpose of a performance test.
3) The owner or operator of an affected facility
shall provide, or cause to be provided,
performance testing facilities as follows:
A) Sampling ports adequate for the test methods
specified in subsection (c)(1) of this
Section.
???
B) Safe sampling platform(s).
C) Safe access to sampling platform(s).
D) Utilities for sampling and testing equipment.
4) For the purpose of making compliance
determinations, the time-weighted average of the
results of the three runs must apply. In the
event that a sample is accidentally lost or
conditions occur in which one of the three runs
must be discontinued because of forced shutdown,
failure of an irreplaceable portion of the sample
train, extreme meteorological conditions or other
circumstances beyond the owner or operator’s
control, compliance may, upon the Agency’s
approval, be determined using the average of the
results of the two other runs.
d) To show that a process vent associated with a hazardous
waste distillation, fractionation, thin-film
evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam
stripping operation is not subject to the requirements
of this Subpart, the owner or operator shall make an
initial determination that the time-weighted, annual
average total organic concentration of the waste
managed by the waste management unit is less than 10
ppmw using one of the following two methods:
1) Direct measurement of the organic concentration of
the waste using the following procedures:
A) The owner or operator shall take a minimum of
four grab samples of waste for each
wastestream managed in the affected unit
under process conditions expected to cause
the maximum waste organic concentration.
B) For waste generated onsite, the grab samples
must be collected at a point before the waste
is exposed to the atmosphere such as in an
enclosed pipe or other closed system that is
used to transfer the waste after generation
to the first affected distillation,
fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent
extraction, or air or steam stripping
operation. For waste generated offsite, the
grab samples must be collected at the inlet
to the first waste management unit that
receives the waste provided the waste has
been transferred to the facility in a closed
???
system such as a tank truck and the waste is
not diluted or mixed with other waste.
C) Each sample must be analyzed and the total
organic concentration of the sample must be
computed using Method 9060 or 8240 8260 of
SW-846, incorporated by reference under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
D) The arithmetic mean of the results of the
analyses of the four samples apply for each
wastestream managed in the unit in
determining the time-weighted, annual average
total organic concentration of the waste.
The time-weighted average is to be calculated
using the annual quantity of each waste
stream processed and the mean organic
concentration of each wastestream managed in
the unit.
2) Using knowledge of the waste to determine that its
total organic concentration is less than 10 ppmw.
Documentation of the waste determination is
required. Examples of documentation that must be
used to support a determination under this
subsection (d)(2) include:
A) Production process information documenting
that no organic compounds are used;
B) Information that the waste is generated by a
process that is identical to a process at the
same or another facility that has previously
been demonstrated by direct measurement to
generate a wastestream having a total organic
content less than 10 ppmw; or
C) Prior speciation analysis results on the same
wastestream where it is also documented that
no process changes have occurred since that
analysis that could affect the waste total
organic concentration.
e) The determination that a distillation, fractionation,
thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or
steam stripping operation that manages hazardous wastes
that have time-weighted, annual average total organic
concentrations less than 10 ppmw must be made as
follows:
1) By the effective date that the facility becomes
subject to the provisions of this Subpart or by
???
the date when the waste is first managed in a
waste management unit, whichever is later; and
2) For continuously generated waste, annually; or
3) Whenever there is a change in the waste being
managed or a change in the process that generates
or treats the waste.
f) When an owner or operator and the Agency do not agree
on whether a distillation, fractionation, thin-film
evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam
stripping operation manages a hazardous waste with
organic concentrations of at least 10 ppmw based on
knowledge of the waste, the procedures in Method 8240
8260 in SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111, must may be used to resolve the
dispute.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART BB: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR EQUIPMENT LEAKS
Section 724.950 Applicability
a) The regulations in this Subpart apply to owners and
operators of facilities that treat, store, or dispose
of hazardous wastes (except as provided in Section
724.101).
b) Except as provided in Section 724.964(k), this Subpart
applies to equipment that contains or contacts
hazardous wastes with organic concentrations of at
least 10% by weight that are managed in one of the
following:
1) A unit that is subject to the RCRA permitting
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and
705,
2) A unit (including a hazardous waste recycling
unit) that is not exempt from permitting under the
provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134(a) (i.e.,
a hazardous waste recycling unit that is not a
“90-day” tank or container) and that is located at
a hazardous waste management facility otherwise
subject to the permitting requirements of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702, 703, and 705, or
???
3) A unit that is exempt from permitting under the
provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134(a) (i.e.,
a “90-day” tank or container).
c) If the owner or operator of equipment subject to the
requirements of Sections 724.952 through 724.965 has
received a RCRA permit prior to December 21, 1990, the
requirements of Sections 724.952 through 724.965 must
be incorporated when the permit is reissued under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 705.201 or reviewed under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702.161.
d) Each piece of equipment to which this Subpart applies
must be marked in such a manner that it can be
distinguished readily from other pieces of equipment.
e) Equipment that is in vacuum service is excluded from
the requirements of Sections 724.952 to 724.960, if it
is identified as required in Section 724.964(g)(5).
f) Equipment that contains or contacts hazardous waste
with an organic concentration of at least 10% by weight
for a period of less than 300 hours per calendar year
is excluded from the requirements of Sections 264.952
724.952 through 264.960 724.960 if it is identified as
required in Section 724.964(g)(6).
BOARD NOTE: The requirements of Sections 724.952
through 724.965 apply to equipment associated with
hazardous waste recycling units previously exempt under
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.106(c)(1). Other exemptions
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.104 and 724.101(g) are not
affected by these requirements.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 724.963 Test Methods and Procedures
a) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of
this Subpart shall comply with the test methods and
procedures requirements provided in this Section.
b) Leak detection monitoring, as required in Sections
724.952 through 724.962, must comply with the following
requirements:
1) Monitoring must comply with Reference Method 21 in
40 CFR 60, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111.
???
2) The detection instrument must meet the performance
criteria of Reference Method 21.
3) The instrument must be calibrated before use on
each day of its use by the procedures specified in
Reference Method 21.
4) Calibration gases must be:
A) Zero air (less than 10 ppm of hydrocarbon in
air).
B) A mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a
concentration of approximately, but less than
10,000 ppm methane or n-hexane.
5) The instrument probe must be traversed around all
potential leak interfaces as close to the
interface as possible as described in Reference
Method 21.
c) When equipment is tested for compliance with no
detectable emissions, as required in Sections
724.952(e), 724.953(i), 724.954, and 724.957(f), the
test must comply with the following requirements:
1) The requirements of subsections (b)(1) through
(b)(4) above apply.
2) The background level must be determined as set
forth in Reference Method 21.
3) The instrument probe must be traversed around all
potential leak interfaces as close to the
interface as possible as described in Reference
Method 21.
4) This arithmetic difference between the maximum
concentration indicated by the instrument and the
background level is compared with 500 ppm for
determining compliance.
d) In accordance with the waste analysis plan required by
Section 724.113(b), an owner or operator of a facility
shall determine, for each piece of equipment, whether
the equipment contains or contacts a hazardous waste
with organic concentration that equals or exceeds 10
percent by weight using the following:
1) Methods described in ASTM Methods D 2267-88, E
168-88, E 169-87, and E 260-85, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111;
???
2) Method 9060 or 8240 8260 of SW-846, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111; or
3) Application of the knowledge of the nature of the
hazardous wastestream or the process by which it
was produced. Documentation of a waste
determination by knowledge is required. Examples
of documentation that must be used to support a
determination under this provision include
production process information documenting that no
organic compounds are used, information that the
waste is generated by a process that is identical
to a process at the same or another facility that
has previously been demonstrated by direct
measurement to have a total organic content less
than 10 percent, or prior speciation analysis
results on the same wastestream where it is also
documented that no process changes have occurred
since that analysis that could affect the waste
total organic concentration.
e) If an owner or operator determines that a piece of
equipment contains or contacts a hazardous waste with
organic concentrations at least 10 percent by weight,
the determination can be revised only after following
the procedures in subsection (d)(1) or (d)(2) above.
f) When an owner or operator and the Agency do not agree
on whether a piece of equipment contains or contacts a
hazardous waste with organic concentrations at least 10
percent by weight, the procedures in subsection (d)(1)
or (d)(2) above must be used to resolve the dispute.
g) Samples used in determining the percent organic content
must be representative of the highest total organic
content hazardous waste that is expected to be
contained in or contact the equipment.
h) To determine if pumps or valves are in light liquid
service, the vapor pressures of constituents must
either be obtained from standard reference texts or be
determined by ASTM D 2879-8692, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
i) Performance tests to determine if a control device
achieves 95 weight percent organic emission reduction
must comply with the procedures of Section 724.934(c)-
(1) through (c)(4).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
???
Section 724.964 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Lumping Units
1) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions
of this Subpart shall comply with the
recordkeeping requirements of this Section.
2) An owner or operator of more than one hazardous
waste management unit subject to the provisions of
this Subpart may comply with the recordkeeping
requirements for these hazardous waste management
units in one recordkeeping system if the system
identifies each record by each hazardous waste
management unit.
b) Owners and operators shall record the following
information in the facility operating record:
1) For each piece of equipment to which this Subpart
applies:
A) Equipment identification number and hazardous
waste management unit identification.
B) Approximate locations within the facility
(e.g., identify the hazardous waste
management unit on a facility plot plan).
C) Type of equipment (e.g., a pump or pipeline
valve).
D) Percent-by-weight total organics in the
hazardous wastestream at the equipment.
E) Hazardous waste state at the equipment (e.g.,
gas-vapor or liquid).
F) Method of compliance with the standard (e.g.,
“monthly leak detection and repair” or
“equipped with dual mechanical seals”).
2) For facilities than that comply with the
provisions of Section 724.933(a)(2), an
implementation schedule as specified in that
Section.
3) Where an owner or operator chooses to use test
data to demonstrate the organic removal efficiency
or total organic compound concentration achieved
???
by the control device, a performance test plan as
specified in Section 724.935(b)(3).
4) Documentation of compliance with Section 724.960,
including the detailed design documentation or
performance test results specified in Section
724.935(b)(4).
c) When each leak is detected as specified in Sections
724.952, 724.953, 724.957 or 724.958, the following
requirements apply:
1) A weatherproof and readily visible identification,
marked with the equipment identification number,
the date evidence of a potential leak was found in
accordance with Section 724.958(a), and the date
the leak was detected, must be attached to the
leaking equipment.
2) The identification on equipment except on a valve,
may be removed after it has been repaired.
3) The identification on a valve may be removed after
it has been monitored for 2 successive months as
specified in Section 724.957(c) and no leak has
been detected during those 2 months.
d) When each leak is detected as specified in Sections
724.952, 724.953, 724.957 or 724.958, the following
information must be recorded in an inspection log and
must be kept in the facility operating record:
1) The instrument and operator identification numbers
and the equipment identification number.
2) The date evidence of a potential leak was found in
accordance with Section 724.958(a).
3) The date the leak was detected and the dates of
each attempt to repair the leak.
4) Repair methods applied in each attempt to repair
the leak.
5) “Above 10,000”, if the maximum instrument reading
measured by the methods specified in Section
724.963(b) after each repair attempt is equal to
or greater than 10,000 ppm.
6) “Repair delayed” and the reason for the delay if a
leak is not repaired within 15 calendar days after
discovery of the leak.
???
7) Documentation supporting the delay of repair of a
valve in compliance with Section 724.959(c).
8) The signature of the owner or operator (or
designate) whose decision it was that repair could
not be effected without a hazardous waste
management unit shutdown.
9) The expected date of successful repair of the leak
if a leak is not repaired within 15 calendar days.
10) The date of successful repair of the leak.
e) Design documentation and monitoring, operating and
inspection information for each closed-vent system and
control device required to comply with the provisions
of Section 724.960 must be recorded and kept up-to-date
in the facility operating record as specified in
Section 724.935(c)(1) and (c)(2), and monitoring,
operating and inspection information in Section
724.935(c)(3) through (c)(8).
f) For a control device other than a thermal vapor
incinerator, catalytic vapor incinerator, flare,
boiler, process heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption
system, the Agency shall specify the appropriate
recordkeeping requirements, indicating proper operation
and maintenance of the control device, in the RCRA
permit.
g) The following information pertaining to all equipment
subject to the requirements in Sections 724.952 through
724.960 must be recorded in a log that is kept in the
facility operating record:
1) A list of identification numbers for equipment
(except welded fittings) subject to the
requirements of this Subpart.
2) List of Equipment
A) A list of identification numbers for
equipment that the owner or operator elects
to designate for no detectable emissions, as
indicated by an instrument reading of less
than 500 ppm above background, under the
provisions of Sections 724.952(e), 724.953(i)
and 724.957(f).
B) The designation of this equipment as subject
to the requirements of Section 724.952(e),
???
724.953(i) or 724.957(f) must be signed by
the owner or operator.
3) A list of equipment identification numbers for
pressure relief devices required to comply with
Section 724.954(a).
4) Compliance tests.
A) The dates of each compliance test required in
Sections 724.952(e), 724.953(i), 724.954 and
724.957(f).
B) The background level measured during each
compliance test.
C) The maximum instrument reading measured at
the equipment during each compliance test.
5) A list of identification numbers for equipment in
vacuum service.
6) Identification, either by list or location (area
or group), of equipment that contains or contacts
hazardous waste with an organic concentration of
at least 10% by weight for a period of less than
300 hours per year.
h) The following information pertaining to all valves
subject to the requirements of Section 724.957(g) and
(h) must be recorded in a log that is kept in the
facility operating record:
1) A list of identification numbers for valves that
are designated as unsafe to monitor, an
explanation for each valve stating why the valve
is unsafe to monitor, and the plan for monitoring
each valve.
2) A list of identification numbers for valves that
are designated as difficult to monitor, an
explanation for each valve stating why the valve
is difficult to monitor, and the planned schedule
for monitoring each valve.
i) The following information must be recorded in the
facility operating record for valves complying with
Section 724.962:
1) A schedule of monitoring.
???
2) The percent of valves found leaking during each
monitoring period.
j) The following information must be recorded in a log
that is kept in the facility operating record:
1) Criteria required in Sections 724.952(d)(5)(B) and
724.953(e)(2) and an explanation of the design
criteria.
2) Any changes to these criteria and the reasons for
the changes.
k) The following information must be recorded in a log
that is kept in the facility operating record for use
in determining exemptions as provided in Section
724.950 and other specific Subparts:
1) An analysis determining the design capacity of the
hazardous waste management unit.
2) A statement listing the hazardous waste influent
to and effluent from each hazardous waste
management unit subject to the requirements in
Section 724.960 and an analysis determining
whether these hazardous wastes are heavy liquids.
3) An up-to-date analysis and the supporting
information and data used to determine whether or
not equipment is subject to the requirements in
Sections 724.952 through 724.960. The record must
include supporting documentation as required by
Section 724.963(d)(3) when application of the
knowledge of the nature of the hazardous
wastestream or the process by which it was
produced is used. If the owner or operator takes
any action (e.g., changing the process that
produced the waste) that could result in an
increase in the total organic content of the waste
contained in or contacted by equipment determined
not to be subject to the requirements in Sections
724.952 through 724.960, then a new determination
is required.
l) Records of the equipment leak information required by
subsection (d) of this Section and the operating
information required by subsection (e) of this Section
need be kept only 3 years.
m) The owner or operator of any facility that is subject
to this Subpart and to regulations at 40 CFR 60,
Subpart VV, or 40 CFR 61, Subpart V, incorporated by
???
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, may elect to
determine compliance with this Subpart by documentation
either pursuant to Section 724.964, or pursuant to
those provisions of 40 CFR 60 or 61, to the extent that
the documentation under the regulation at 40 CFR 60 or
61 duplicates the documentation required under this
Subpart. The documentation under the regulation at 40
CFR 60 or 61 must be kept with or made readily
available with the facility operating record.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART CC: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR TANKS, SURFACE
IMPOUNDMENTS, AND CONTAINERS
Section 724.980 Applicability
a) The requirements of this Subpart apply, effective
October 6, 1996, to owners and operators of all
facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous
waste in tanks, surface impoundments, or containers
subject to 724.Subparts I, J, or K, except as Section
724.101 and subsection (b) of this Section provide
otherwise.
BOARD NOTE: USEPA adopted these regulations at 59 Fed.
Reg. 62896 (Dec. 6, 1994), effective June 6, 1995. At
60 Fed. Reg. 26828 (May 19, 1995), 60 Fed. Reg. 56952
(Nov. 13, 1995), and 61 Fed. Reg. 28508 (June 5, 1996),
USEPA delayed the effective date until October 6,
1996. If action by USEPA or a decision of a federal
court changes the effectiveness of these regulations,
the Board does not intend that the 724.Subpart CC rules
be enforceable to the extent that they become more
stringent that than the federal regulations upon which
they are based.
b) The requirements of this Subpart do not apply to the
following waste management units at the facility:
1) A waste management unit that holds hazardous waste
placed in the unit before October 6, 1996, and in
which no hazardous waste is added to the unit on
or after this date.
2) A container that has a design capacity less than
or equal to 0.1 m
3
(3.5 ft
3
or 26.4 gal).
3) A tank in which an owner or operator has stopped
adding hazardous waste and the owner or operator
???
has begun implementing or completed closure
pursuant to an approved closure plan.
4) A surface impoundment in which an owner or
operator has stopped adding hazardous waste
(except to implement an approved closure plan) and
the owner or operator has begun implementing or
completed closure pursuant to an approved closure
plan.
5) A waste management unit that is used solely for
on-site treatment or storage of hazardous waste
that is generated as the result of implementing
remedial activities required pursuant to the Act
or Board regulations or under the corrective
action authorities of RCRA section 3004(u),
3004(v) or 3008(h); CERCLA authorities; or similar
federal or state authorities.
6) A waste management unit that is used solely for
the management of radioactive mixed waste in
accordance with all applicable regulations under
the authority of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C.
2011 et seq.) and the Nuclear Waste Policy Act.
7) A hazardous waste management unit that the owner
or operator certifies is equipped with and
operating air emission controls in accordance with
the requirements of an applicable federal Clean
Air Act regulation codified under 40 CFR 60, 61,
or 63. For the purpose of complying with this
subsection (b)(7), a tank for which the air
emission control includes an enclosure, as opposed
to a cover, must be in compliance with the
enclosure and control device requirements of
Section 724.984(i), except as provided in Section
724.982(c)(5).
8) A tank that has a process vent, as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.931.
c) For the owner and operator of a facility subject to
this Subpart and that received a final RCRA permit
prior to October 6, 1996, the requirements of this
Subpart shall be incorporated into the permit when the
permit is reissued, renewed, or modified in accordance
with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703 and
705. Until such date when the owner and operator
receives a final permit incorporating the requirements
of this Subpart, the owner and operator is subject to
the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.Subpart CC.
???
d) The requirements of this Subpart, except for the
recordkeeping requirements specified in Section
724.989(i), are stayed for a tank or container used for
the management of hazardous waste generated by organic
peroxide manufacturing and its associated laboratory
operations, when the owner or operator of the unit
meets all of the following conditions:
1) The owner or operator identifies that the tank or
container receives hazardous waste generated by an
organic peroxide manufacturing process producing
more than one functional family of organic
peroxides or multiple organic peroxides within one
functional family, that one or more of these
organic peroxides could potentially undergo self-
accelerating thermal decomposition at or below
ambient temperatures, and that organic peroxides
are the predominant products manufactured by the
process. For the purposes of this subsection,
“organic peroxide” means an organic compound that
contains the bivalent -O-O- structure and which
may be considered to be a structural derivative of
hydrogen peroxide where one or both of the
hydrogen atoms has been replaced by an organic
radical.
2) The owner or operator prepares documentation, in
accordance with Section 724.989(i), explaining why
an undue safety hazard would be created if air
emission controls specified in Sections 724.984
through 724.987 are installed and operated on the
tanks and containers used at the facility to
manage the hazardous waste generated by the
organic peroxide manufacturing process or
processes meeting the conditions of subsection
(d)(1) of this Section.
3) The owner or operator notifies the Agency in
writing that hazardous waste generated by an
organic peroxide manufacturing process or
processes meeting the conditions of subsection
(d)(1) of this Section are managed at the facility
in tanks or containers meeting the conditions of
subsection (d)(2) of this Section. The
notification must state the name and address of
the facility and be signed and dated by an
authorized representative of the facility owner or
operator.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
???
Section 724.984 Standards: Tanks
a) The provisions of this Section apply to the control of
air pollutant emissions from tanks for which Section
724.982(b) references the use of this Section for such
air emission control.
b) The owner or operator shall control air pollutant
emissions from each tank subject to this Section in
accordance with the following requirements, as
applicable:
1) For a tank that manages hazardous waste that meets
all of the conditions specified in subsections
(b)(1)(A) through (b)(1)(C) of this Section, the
owner or operator shall control air pollutant
emissions from the tank in accordance with the
Tank Level 1 controls specified in subsection (c)
of this Section or the Tank Level 2 controls
specified in subsection (d) of this Section.
A) The hazardous waste in the tank has a maximum
organic vapor pressure that is less than the
maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the
tank’s design capacity category as follows:
i) For a tank design capacity equal to or
greater than 151 m
3
(39,900 gal), the
maximum organic vapor pressure limit for
the tank is 5.2 kPa (0.75 psig).
ii) For a tank design capacity equal to or
greater than 75 m
3
(19,800 gal) but less
than 151 m
3
(39,900 gal), the maximum
organic vapor pressure limit for the
tank is 27.6 kPa (4.00 psig).
iii) For a tank design capacity less than 75
m
3
(19,800 gal), the maximum organic
vapor pressure limit for the tank is
76.6 kPa (11.1 psig).
B) The hazardous waste in the tank is not heated
by the owner or operator to a temperature
that is greater than the temperature at which
the maximum organic vapor pressure of the
hazardous waste is determined for the purpose
of complying with subsection (b)(1)(A) of
this Section.
C) The hazardous waste in the tank is not
treated by the owner or operator using a
???
waste stabilization process, as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.981.
2) For a tank that manages hazardous waste that does
not meet all of the conditions specified in
subsections (b)(1)(A) through (b)(1)(C) of this
Section, the owner or operator shall control air
pollutant emissions from the tank by using Tank
Level 2 controls in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (d) of this Section.
Examples of tanks required to use Tank Level 2
controls include a tank used for a waste
stabilization process and a tank for which the
hazardous waste in the tank has a maximum organic
vapor pressure that is equal to or greater than
the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the
tank’s design capacity category as specified in
subsection (b)(1)(A) of this Section.
c) Owners and operators controlling air pollutant
emissions from a tank using Tank Level 1 controls must
meet the requirements specified in subsections (c)(1)
through (c)(4) of this Section:
1) The owner or operator shall determine the maximum
organic vapor pressure for a hazardous waste to be
managed in the tank using Tank Level 1 controls
before the first time the hazardous waste is
placed in the tank. The maximum organic vapor
pressure must be determined using the procedures
specified in Section 724.983(c). Thereafter, the
owner or operator shall perform a new
determination whenever changes to the hazardous
waste managed in the tank could potentially cause
the maximum organic vapor pressure to increase to
a level that is equal to or greater than the
maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank
design capacity category specified in subsection
(b)(1)(A) of this Section, as applicable to the
tank.
2) The tank must be equipped with a fixed roof
designed to meet the following specifications:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be designed to form a continuous barrier over
the entire surface area of the hazardous
waste in the tank. The fixed roof may be a
separate cover installed on the tank (e.g., a
removable cover mounted on an open-top tank)
or may be an integral part of the tank
???
structural design (e.g., a horizontal
cylindrical tank equipped with a hatch).
B) The fixed roof must be installed in a manner
such that there are no visible cracks, holes,
gaps, or other open spaces between roof
Section section joints or between the
interface of the roof edge and the tank wall.
C) Each opening in the fixed roof must be
either:
i) Equipped with a closure device designed
to operate such that when the closure
device is secured in the closed position
there are no visible cracks, holes,
gaps, or other open spaces in the
closure device or between the perimeter
of the opening and the closure device;
or
ii) Connected by a closed-vent system that
is vented to a control device. The
control device must remove or destroy
organics in the vent stream, and it must
be operating whenever hazardous waste is
managed in the tank.
D) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be made of suitable materials that will
minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to
the atmosphere, to the extent practical, and
will maintain the integrity of the fixed roof
and closure devices throughout their intended
service life. Factors to be considered when
selecting the materials for and designing the
fixed roof and closure devices must include
the following: the organic vapor
permeability; the effects of any contact with
the hazardous waste or its vapors managed in
the tank; the effects of outdoor exposure to
wind, moisture, and sunlight; and the
operating practices used for the tank on
which the fixed roof is installed.
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the
fixed roof must be installed with each closure
device secured in the closed position, except as
follows:
A) Opening of closure devices or removal of the
fixed roof is allowed at the following times:
???
i) To provide access to the tank for
performing routine inspection,
maintenance, or other activities needed
for normal operations. Examples of such
activities include those times when a
worker needs to open a port to sample
the liquid in the tank, or when a worker
needs to open a hatch to maintain or
repair equipment. Following completion
of the activity, the owner or operator
shall promptly secure the closure device
in the closed position or reinstall the
cover, as applicable, to the tank.
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other
residues from the bottom of the tank.
B) Opening of a spring-loaded pressure-vacuum
relief valve, conservation vent, or similar
type of pressure relief device which vents to
the atmosphere is allowed during normal
operations for the purpose of maintaining the
tank internal pressure in accordance with the
tank design specifications. The device must
be designed to operate with no detectable
organic emissions when the device is secured
in the closed position. The settings at
which the device opens must be established
such that the device remains in the closed
position whenever the tank internal pressure
is within the internal pressure operating
range determined by the owner or operator
based on the tank manufacturer
recommendations, applicable regulations, fire
protection and prevention codes, standard
engineering codes and practices, or other
requirements for the safe handling of
flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or
hazardous materials. Examples of normal
operating conditions that may require these
devices to open are during those times when
the tank internal pressure exceeds the
internal pressure operating range for the
tank as a result of loading operations or
diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations.
C) Opening of a safety device, as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.981, is allowed at any
time conditions require doing so to avoid an
unsafe condition.
???
4) The owner or operator shall inspect the air
emission control equipment in accordance with the
following requirements.
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be visually inspected by the owner or
operator to check for defects that could
result in air pollutant emissions. Defects
include, but are not limited to, visible
cracks, holes, or gaps in the roof sections
or between the roof and the tank wall;
broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged seals
or gaskets on closure devices; and broken or
missing hatches, access covers, caps, or
other closure devices.
B) The owner or operator shall perform an
initial inspection of the fixed roof and its
closure devices on or before the date that
the tank becomes subject to this Section.
Thereafter, the owner or operator shall
perform the inspections at least once every
year except under the special conditions
provided for in subsection (l) of this
Section.
C) In the event that a defect is detected, the
owner or operator shall repair the defect in
accordance with the requirements of
subsection (k) of this Section.
D) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 724.989(b).
d) Owners and operators controlling air pollutant
emissions from a tank using Tank Level 2 controls must
use one of the following tanks:
1) A fixed-roof tank equipped with an internal
floating roof in accordance with the requirements
specified in subsection (e) of this Section;
2) A tank equipped with an external floating roof in
accordance with the requirements specified in
subsection (f) of this Section;
3) A tank vented through a closed-vent system to a
control device in accordance with the requirements
specified in subsection (g) of this Section;
???
4) A pressure tank designed and operated in
accordance with the requirements specified in
subsection (h) of this Section; or
5) A tank located inside an enclosure that is vented
through a closed-vent system to an enclosed
combustion control device in accordance with the
requirements specified in subsection (i) of this
Section.
e) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions from a tank using a fixed roof with an
internal floating roof shall meet the requirements
specified in subsections (e)(1) through (e)(3) of this
Section.
1) The tank must be equipped with a fixed roof and an
internal floating roof in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) The internal floating roof must be designed
to float on the liquid surface except when
the floating roof must be supported by the
leg supports.
B) The internal floating roof must be equipped
with a continuous seal between the wall of
the tank and the floating roof edge that
meets either of the following requirements:
i) A single continuous seal that is either
a liquid-mounted seal or a metallic shoe
seal, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.981; or
ii) Two continuous seals mounted one of this
Section above the other. The lower seal
may be a vapor-mounted seal.
C) The internal floating roof must meet the
following specifications:
i) Each opening in a noncontact internal
floating roof except for automatic
bleeder vents (vacuum breaker vents) and
the rim space vents is to provide a
projection below the liquid surface.
ii) Each opening in the internal floating
roof must be equipped with a gasketed
cover or a gasketed lid except for leg
sleeves, automatic bleeder vents, rim
???
space vents, column wells, ladder wells,
sample wells, and stub drains.
iii) Each penetration of the internal
floating roof for the purpose of
sampling must have a slit fabric cover
that covers at least 90% of the opening.
iv) Each automatic bleeder vent and rim
space vent must be gasketed.
v) Each penetration of the internal
floating roof that allows for passage of
a ladder must have a gasketed sliding
cover.
vi) Each penetration of the internal
floating roof that allows for passage of
a column supporting the fixed roof must
have a flexible fabric sleeve seal or a
gasketed sliding cover.
2) The owner or operator shall operate the tank in
accordance with the following requirements:
A) When the floating roof is resting on the leg
supports, the process of filling, emptying,
or refilling must be continuous and must be
completed as soon as practical.
B) Automatic bleeder vents are to be set closed
at all times when the roof is floating,
except when the roof is being floated off or
is being landed on the leg supports.
C) Prior to filling the tank, each cover, access
hatch, gauge float well or lid on any opening
in the internal floating roof must be bolted
or fastened closed (i.e., no visible gaps).
Rim space vents must be set to open only when
the internal floating roof is not floating or
when the pressure beneath the rim exceeds the
manufacturer’s recommended setting.
3) The owner or operator shall inspect the internal
floating roof in accordance with the procedures
specified as follows:
A) The floating roof and its closure devices
must be visually inspected by the owner or
operator to check for defects that could
result in air pollutant emissions. Defects
???
include, but are not limited to, any of the
following: when the internal floating roof
is not floating on the surface of the liquid
inside the tank; when liquid has accumulated
on top of the internal floating roof; when
any portion of the roof seals have detached
from the roof rim; when holes, tears, or
other openings are visible in the seal
fabric; when the gaskets no longer close off
the hazardous waste surface from the
atmosphere; or when the slotted membrane has
more than 10% open area.
B) The owner or operator shall inspect the
internal floating roof components as follows,
except as provided in subsection (e)(3)(C) of
this Section:
i) Visually inspect the internal floating
roof components through openings on the
fixed-roof (e.g., manholes and roof
hatches) at least once every 12 months
after initial fill, and
ii) Visually inspect the internal floating
roof, primary seal, secondary seal (if
one is in service), gaskets, slotted
membranes, and sleeve seals (if any)
each time the tank is emptied and
degassed and at least once every 10
years.
C) As an alternative to performing the
inspections specified in subsection (e)(3)(B)
of this Section for an internal floating roof
equipped with two continuous seals mounted
one above the other, the owner or operator
may visually inspect the internal floating
roof, primary and secondary seals, gaskets,
slotted membranes, and sleeve seals (if any)
each time the tank is emptied and degassed
and at least every five years.
D) Prior to each inspection required by
subsection (e)(3)(B) or (e)(3)(C) of this
Section, the owner or operator shall notify
the Agency in advance of each inspection to
provide the Agency with the opportunity to
have an observer present during the
inspection. The owner or operator shall
notify the Agency of the date and location of
the inspection as follows:
???
i) Prior to each visual inspection of an
internal floating roof in a tank that
has been emptied and degassed, written
notification must be prepared and sent
by the owner or operator so that it is
received by the Agency at least 30
calendar days before refilling the tank,
except when an inspection is not
planned, as provided for in subsection
(e)(3)(D)(ii) of this Section.
ii) When a visual inspection is not planned
and the owner or operator could not have
known about the inspection 30 calendar
days before refilling the tank, the
owner or operator shall notify the
Agency as soon as possible, but no later
than seven calendar days before
refilling of the tank. This
notification may be made by telephone
and immediately followed by a written
explanation for why the inspection is
unplanned. Alternatively, written
notification, including the explanation
for the unplanned inspection, may be
sent so that it is received by the
Agency at least seven calendar days
before refilling the tank.
E) In the event that a defect is detected, the
owner or operator shall repair the defect in
accordance with the requirements of
subsection (k) of this Section.
F) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 724.989(b).
f) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions from a tank using an external floating roof
must meet the requirements specified in subsections
(f)(1) through (f)(3) of this Section.
1) The owner or operator shall design the external
floating roof in accordance with the following
requirements:
A) The external floating roof must be designed
to float on the liquid surface except when
the floating roof must be supported by the
leg supports.
???
B) The floating roof must be equipped with two
continuous seals, one above the other,
between the wall of the tank and the roof
edge. The lower seal is referred to as the
primary seal, and the upper seal is referred
to as the secondary seal.
i) The primary seal must be a liquid-
mounted seal or a metallic shoe seal, as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.981.
The total area of the gaps between the
tank wall and the primary seal must not
exceed 212 square centimeters (cm
2
) per
meter (10.0 square inches (in
2
) per
foot) of tank diameter, and the width of
any portion of these gaps must not
exceed 3.8 centimeters (cm) (1.5 in).
If a metallic shoe seal is used for the
primary seal, the metallic shoe seal
must be designed so that one end extends
into the liquid in the tank and the
other end extends a vertical distance of
at least 61 cm (24 in) above the liquid
surface.
ii) The secondary seal must be mounted above
the primary seal and cover the annular
space between the floating roof and the
wall of the tank. The total area of the
gaps between the tank wall and the
secondary seal must not exceed 21.2 cm
2
per meter (1.00 in
2
per foot) of tank
diameter, and the width of any portion
of these gaps must not exceed 1.3 cm
(0.51 in).
C) The external floating roof must meet the
following specifications:
i) Except for automatic bleeder vents
(vacuum breaker vents) and rim space
vents, each opening in a noncontact
external floating roof must provide a
projection below the liquid surface.
ii) Except for automatic bleeder vents, rim
space vents, roof drains, and leg
sleeves, each opening in the roof must
be equipped with a gasketed cover, seal,
or lid.
???
iii) Each access hatch and each gauge float
well must be equipped with a cover
designed to be bolted or fastened when
the cover is secured in the closed
position.
iv) Each automatic bleeder vent and each rim
space vent must be equipped with a
gasket.
v) Each roof drain that empties into the
liquid managed in the tank must be
equipped with a slotted membrane fabric
cover that covers at least 90% of the
area of the opening.
vi) Each unslotted and slotted guide pole
well must be equipped with a gasketed
sliding cover or a flexible fabric
sleeve seal.
vii) Each unslotted guide pole must be
equipped with a gasketed cap on the end
of the pole.
viii) Each slotted guide pole must be
equipped with a gasketed float or other
device which closes off the liquid
surface from the atmosphere.
ix) Each gauge hatch and each sample well
must be equipped with a gasketed cover.
2) The owner or operator shall operate the tank in
accordance with the following requirements:
A) When the floating roof is resting on the leg
supports, the process of filling, emptying,
or refilling must be continuous and must be
completed as soon as practical.
B) Except for automatic bleeder vents, rim space
vents, roof drains, and leg sleeves, each
opening in the roof must be secured and
maintained in a closed position at all times
except when the closure device must be open
for access.
C) Covers on each access hatch and each gauge
float well must be bolted or fastened when
secured in the closed position.
???
D) Automatic bleeder vents must be set closed at
all times when the roof is floating, except
when the roof is being floated off or is
being landed on the leg supports.
E) Rim space vents must be set to open only at
those times that the roof is being floated
off the roof leg supports or when the
pressure beneath the rim seal exceeds the
manufacturer’s recommended setting.
F) The cap on the end of each unslotted guide
pole must be secured in the closed position
at all times except when measuring the level
or collecting samples of the liquid in the
tank.
G) The cover on each gauge hatch or sample well
must be secured in the closed position at all
times except when the hatch or well must be
opened for access.
H) Both the primary seal and the secondary seal
must completely cover the annular space
between the external floating roof and the
wall of the tank in a continuous fashion
except during inspections.
3) The owner or operator shall inspect the external
floating roof in accordance with the procedures
specified as follows:
A) The owner or operator shall measure the
external floating roof seal gaps in
accordance with the following requirements:
i) The owner or operator shall perform
measurements of gaps between the tank
wall and the primary seal within 60
calendar days after initial operation of
the tank following installation of the
floating roof and, thereafter, at least
once every five years.
ii) The owner or operator shall perform
measurements of gaps between the tank
wall and the secondary seal within 60
calendar days after initial operation of
the tank following installation of the
floating roof and, thereafter, at least
once every year.
???
iii) If a tank ceases to hold hazardous waste
for a period of one year or more,
subsequent introduction of hazardous
waste into the tank must be considered
an initial operation for the purposes of
subsections (f)(3)(A)(i) and (f)(3)(A)-
(ii) of this Section.
iv) The owner or operator shall determine
the total surface area of gaps in the
primary seal and in the secondary seal
individually using the procedure of
subsection (f)(3)(D) of this Section.
v) In the event that the seal gap
measurements do not conform to the
specifications in subsection (f)(1)(B)
of this Section, the owner or operator
shall repair the defect in accordance
with the requirements of subsection (k)
of this Section.
vi) The owner or operator shall maintain a
record of the inspection in accordance
with the requirements specified in
Section 724.989(b).
B) The owner or operator shall visually inspect
the external floating roof in accordance with
the following requirements:
i) The floating roof and its closure
devices must be visually inspected by
the owner or operator to check for
defects that could result in air
pollutant emissions. Defects include,
but are not limited to, any of the
following conditions: holes, tears, or
other openings in the rim seal or seal
fabric of the floating roof; a rim seal
detached from the floating roof; all or
a portion of the floating roof deck
being submerged below the surface of the
liquid in the tank; broken, cracked, or
otherwise damaged seals or gaskets on
closure devices; and broken or missing
hatches, access covers, caps, or other
closure devices.
ii) The owner or operator shall perform an
initial inspection of the external
floating roof and its closure devices on
???
or before the date that the tank becomes
subject to this Section. Thereafter,
the owner or operator shall perform the
inspections at least once every year
except for the special conditions
provided for in subsection (l) of this
Section.
iii) In the event that a defect is detected,
the owner or operator shall repair the
defect in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (k) of this
Section.
iv) The owner or operator shall maintain a
record of the inspection in accordance
with the requirements specified in
Section 724.989(b).
C) Prior to each inspection required by
subsection (f)(3)(A) or (f)(3)(B), the owner
or operator shall notify the Agency in
advance of each inspection to provide the
Agency with the opportunity to have an
observer present during the inspection. The
owner or operator shall notify the Agency of
the date and location of the inspection as
follows:
i) Prior to each inspection to measure
external floating roof seal gaps as
required under subsection (f)(3)(A) of
this Section, written notification must
be prepared and sent by the owner or
operator so that it is received by the
Agency at least 30 calendar days before
the date the measurements are scheduled
to be performed.
ii) Prior to each visual inspection of an
external floating roof in a tank that
has been emptied and degassed, written
notification must be prepared and sent
by the owner or operator so that it is
received by the Agency at least 30
calendar days before refilling the tank,
except when an inspection is not planned
as provided for in subsection (f)(3)(C)-
(iii) of this Section.
iii) When a visual inspection is not planned
and the owner or operator could not have
???
known about the inspection 30 calendar
days before refilling the tank, the
owner or operator shall notify the
Agency as soon as possible, but no later
than seven calendar days before
refilling of the tank. This
notification may be made by telephone
and immediately followed by a written
explanation for why the inspection is
unplanned. Alternatively, written
notification, including the explanation
for the unplanned inspection, may be
sent so that it is received by the
Agency at least seven calendar days
before refilling the tank.
D) Procedure for determining the total surface
area of gaps in the primary seal and the
secondary seal:
i) The seal gap measurements must be
performed at one or more floating roof
levels when the roof is floating off the
roof supports.
ii) Seal gaps, if any, must be measured
around the entire perimeter of the
floating roof in each place where a 0.32
cm (0.125 in) diameter uniform probe
passes freely (without forcing or
binding against the seal) between the
seal and the wall of the tank and
measure the circumferential distance of
each such location.
iii) For a seal gap measured under subsection
(f)(3) of this Section, the gap surface
area must be determined by using probes
of various widths to measure accurately
the actual distance from the tank wall
to the seal and multiplying each such
width by its respective circumferential
distance.
iv) The total gap area must be calculated by
adding the gap surface areas determined
for each identified gap location for the
primary seal and the secondary seal
individually, and then dividing the sum
for each seal type by the nominal
perimeter of the tank. These total gap
areas for the primary seal and secondary
???
seal are then compared to the respective
standards for the seal type, as
specified in subsection (f)(1)(B) of
this Section.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (f)(3)(D)(i)
through (f)(3)(D)(iv) correspond with 40
CFR 264.1084(f)(3)(i)(D)(1) through (f)-
(3)(i)(D)(4), which the Board has
codified here to comport with Illinois
Administrative Code format requirements.
g) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions from a tank by venting the tank to a control
device shall meet the requirements specified in
subsections (g)(1) through (g)(3) of this Section.
1) The tank must be covered by a fixed roof and
vented directly through a closed-vent system to a
control device in accordance with the following
requirements:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be designed to form a continuous barrier over
the entire surface area of the liquid in the
tank.
B) Each opening in the fixed roof not vented to
the control device must be equipped with a
closure device. If the pressure in the vapor
headspace underneath the fixed roof is less
than atmospheric pressure when the control
device is operating, the closure devices must
be designed to operate such that when the
closure device is secured in the closed
position there are no visible cracks, holes,
gaps, or other open spaces in the closure
device or between the perimeter of the cover
opening and the closure device. If the
pressure in the vapor headspace underneath
the fixed roof is equal to or greater than
atmospheric pressure when the control device
is operating, the closure device must be
designed to operate with no detectable
organic emissions.
C) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be made of suitable materials that will
minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to
the atmosphere, to the extent practical, and
will maintain the integrity of the fixed roof
and closure devices throughout their intended
???
service life. Factors to be considered when
selecting the materials for and designing the
fixed roof and closure devices must include
the following: organic vapor permeability;
the effects of any contact with the liquid
and its vapor managed in the tank; the
effects of outdoor exposure to wind,
moisture, and sunlight; and the operating
practices used for the tank on which the
fixed roof is installed.
D) The closed-vent system and control device
must be designed and operated in accordance
with the requirements of Section 724.987.
2) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the
fixed roof must be installed with each closure
device secured in the closed position and the
vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof vented
to the control device except as follows:
A) Venting to the control device is not
required, and opening of closure devices or
removal of the fixed roof is allowed at the
following times:
i) To provide access to the tank for
performing routine inspection,
maintenance, or other activities needed
for normal operations. Examples of such
activities include those times when a
worker needs to open a port to sample
liquid in the tank, or when a worker
needs to open a hatch to maintain or
repair equipment. Following completion
of the activity, the owner or operator
shall promptly secure the closure device
in the closed position or reinstall the
cover, as applicable, to the tank.
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other
residues from the bottom of a tank.
B) Opening of a safety device, as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.981, is allowed at any
time conditions require doing so to avoid an
unsafe condition.
3) The owner or operator shall inspect and monitor
the air emission control equipment in accordance
with the following procedures:
???
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be visually inspected by the owner or
operator to check for defects that could
result in air pollutant emissions. Defects
include, but are not limited to, any of the
following: visible cracks, holes, or gaps in
the roof sections or between the roof and the
tank wall; broken, cracked, or otherwise
damaged seals or gaskets on closure devices;
and broken or missing hatches, access covers,
caps, or other closure devices.
B) The closed-vent system and control device
must be inspected and monitored by the owner
or operator in accordance with the procedures
specified in Section 724.987.
C) The owner or operator shall perform an
initial inspection of the air emission
control equipment on or before the date that
the tank becomes subject to this Section.
Thereafter, the owner or operator shall
perform the inspections at least once every
year except for the special conditions
provided for in subsection (l) of this
Section.
D) In the event that a defect is detected, the
owner or operator shall repair the defect in
accordance with the requirements of
subsection (k) of this Section.
E) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 724.989(b).
h) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions by using a pressure tank must meet the
following requirements:
1) The tank must be designed not to vent to the
atmosphere as a result of compression of the vapor
headspace in the tank during filling of the tank
to its design capacity.
2) All tank openings must be equipped with closure
devices designed to operate with no detectable
organic emissions as determined using the
procedure specified in Section 724.983(d).
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the
tank must be operated as a closed system that does
???
not vent to the atmosphere except in the event
that a safety device, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 725.981, is required to open to avoid an
unsafe condition.
i) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions by using an enclosure vented through a
closed-vent system to an enclosed combustion control
device must meet the requirements specified in
subsections (i)(1) through (i)(4) of this Section.
1) The tank must be located inside an enclosure. The
enclosure must be designed and operated in
accordance with the criteria for a permanent total
enclosure, as specified in “Procedure T--Criteria
for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary
Total Enclosure” under 40 CFR 52.741, appendix B,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111. The enclosure may have permanent or
temporary openings to allow worker access; passage
of material into or out of the enclosure by
conveyor, vehicles, or other mechanical means;
entry of permanent mechanical or electrical
equipment; or direct airflow into the enclosure.
The owner or operator shall perform the
verification procedure for the enclosure, as
specified in Section 5.0 to “Procedure T--Criteria
for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary
Total Enclosure”, initially when the enclosure is
first installed and, thereafter, annually.
2) The enclosure must be vented through a closed-vent
system to an enclosed combustion control device
that is designed and operated in accordance with
the standards for either a vapor incinerator,
boiler, or process heater specified in Section
724.987.
3) Safety devices, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.981, may be installed and operated as
necessary on any enclosure, closed-vent system, or
control device used to comply with the
requirements of subsections (i)(1) and (i)(2) of
this Section.
4) The owner or operator shall inspect and monitor
the closed-vent system and control device as
specified in Section 724.987.
j) The owner or operator shall transfer hazardous waste to
a tank subject to this Section in accordance with the
following requirements:
???
1) Transfer of hazardous waste, except as provided in
subsection (j)(2) of this Section, to the tank
from another tank subject to this Section or from
a surface impoundment subject to Section 724.985
must be conducted using continuous hard-piping or
another closed system that does not allow exposure
of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere. For the
purpose of complying with this provision, an
individual drain system is considered to be a
closed system when it meets the requirements of 40
CFR 63, subpart RR, “National Emission Standards
for Individual Drain Systems”, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
2) The requirements of subsection (j)(1) of this
Section do not apply when transferring a hazardous
waste to the tank under any of the following
conditions:
A) The hazardous waste meets the average VO
concentration conditions specified in Section
724.982(c)(1) at the point of waste
origination.
B) The hazardous waste has been treated by an
organic destruction or removal process to
meet the requirements in Section 724.982(c)-
(2).
k) The owner or operator shall repair each defect detected
during an inspection performed in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (c)(4), (e)(3), (f)(3), or
(g)(3) of this Section, as follows:
1) The owner or operator shall make first efforts at
repair of the defect no later than five calendar
days after detection, and repair must be completed
as soon as possible but no later than 45 calendar
days after detection except as provided in
subsection (k)(2) of this Section.
2) Repair of a defect may be delayed beyond 45
calendar days if the owner or operator determines
that repair of the defect requires emptying or
temporary removal from service of the tank and no
alternative tank capacity is available at the site
to accept the hazardous waste normally managed in
the tank. In this case, the owner or operator
shall repair the defect the next time the process
or unit that is generating the hazardous waste
managed in the tank stops operation. Repair of
???
the defect must be completed before the process or
unit resumes operation.
l) Following the initial inspection and monitoring of the
cover, as required by the applicable provisions of this
Subpart, subsequent inspection and monitoring may be
performed at intervals longer than one year under the
following special conditions:
1) In the case when inspecting or monitoring the
cover would expose a worker to dangerous,
hazardous, or other unsafe conditions, then the
owner or operator may designate a cover as an
“unsafe to inspect and monitor cover” and comply
with all of the following requirements:
A) Prepare a written explanation for the cover
stating the reasons why the cover is unsafe
to visually inspect or to monitor, if
required.
B) Develop and implement a written plan and
schedule to inspect and monitor the cover,
using the procedures specified in the
applicable Section of this Subpart, as
frequently as practicable during those times
when a worker can safely access the cover.
2) In the case when a tank is buried partially or
entirely underground, an owner or operator is
required to inspect and monitor, as required by
the applicable provisions of this Section, only
those portions of the tank cover and those
connections to the tank (e.g., fill ports, access
hatches, gauge wells, etc.) that are located on or
above the ground surface.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 724.990 Reporting Requirements
a) Each owner or operator managing hazardous waste in a
tank, surface impoundment, or container exempted from
using air emission controls under the provisions of
Section 724.982(c) shall report to the Agency each
occurrence when hazardous waste is placed in the waste
management unit in noncompliance with the conditions
specified in Section 724.982(c)(1) or (c)(2), as
applicable. Examples of such occurrences include
placing in the waste management unit a hazardous waste
having an average VO concentration equal to or greater
???
than 500 ppmw at the point of waste origination or
placing in the waste management unit a treated
hazardous waste that fails to meet the applicable
conditions specified in Section 724.982(c)(2)(A)
through (c)(2)(F). The owner or operator shall submit
a written report within 15 calendar days of the time
that the owner or operator becomes aware of the
occurrence. The written report shall contain the USEPA
identification number, the facility name and address, a
description of the noncompliance event and the cause,
the dates of the noncompliance, and the actions taken
to correct the noncompliance and prevent recurrence of
the noncompliance. The report shall be signed and
dated by an authorized representative of the owner or
operator.
b) Each owner or operator using air emission controls on a
tank in accordance with the requirements of Section
724.984(c) shall report to the Agency each occurrence
when hazardous waste is managed in the tank in
noncompliance with the conditions specified in Section
724.984(b). The owner or operator shall submit a
written report within 15 calendar days of the time that
the owner or operator becomes aware of the occurrence.
The written report shall contain the USEPA
identification number, the facility name and address, a
description of the noncompliance event and the cause,
the dates of the noncompliance, and the actions taken
to correct the noncompliance and prevent recurrence of
the noncompliance. The report shall be signed and
dated by an authorized representative of the owner or
operator.
c) Each owner or operator using a control device in
accordance with the requirements of Section 724.987
shall submit a semiannual written report to the Agency,
excepted except as provided for in subsection (d) of
this Section. The report shall describe each
occurrence during the previous 6-month period when
either of the two following events occurs: a control
device is operated continuously for 24 hours or longer
in noncompliance with the applicable operating values
defined in Section 724.935(c)(4) or a flare is operated
with visible emissions for five minutes or longer in a
two-hour period, as defined in Section 724.933(d). The
written report shall include the USEPA identification
number, the facility name and address, and an
explanation why the control device could not be
returned to compliance within 24 hours, and actions
taken to correct the noncompliance. The report shall
be signed and dated by an authorized representative of
the owner or operator.
???
d) A report to the Agency in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (c) of this Section is not
required for a 6-month period during which all control
devices subject to this Subpart are operated by the
owner or operator so that both of the following
conditions result: during no period of 24 hours or
longer did a control device operate continuously in
noncompliance with the applicable operating values
defined in Section 724.935(c)(4) and no flare was
operated with visible emissions for five minutes or
longer in a two-hour period, as defined in Section
724.933(d).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART EE: HAZARDOUS WASTE MUNITIONS AND EXPLOSIVES
STORAGE
Section 724.1200 Applicability
The requirements of this Subpart EE apply to owners or operators
who store munitions and explosive hazardous wastes, except as
Section 724.101 provides otherwise.
BOARD NOTE: Depending on explosive hazards, hazardous waste
munitions and explosives may also be managed in other types of
storage units, including containment buildings (724.Subpart DD of
this Part), tanks (724.Subpart J of this Part), or containers
(724.Subpart I of this Part); see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.305 for
storage of waste military munitions.
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 724.1201 Design and Operating Standards
a) An owner or operator of a hazardous waste munitions and
explosives storage unit shall design and operate the
unit with containment systems, controls, and
monitoring, that fulfill each of the following
requirements:
1) The owner or operator minimizes the potential for
detonation or other means of release of hazardous
waste, hazardous constituents, hazardous
decomposition products, or contaminated run-off to
the soil, ground water, surface water, and
atmosphere;
???
2) The owner or operator provides a primary barrier,
which may be a container (including a shell) or
tank, designed to contain the hazardous waste;
3) For wastes stored outdoors, the owner or operator
provides that the waste and containers will not be
in standing precipitation;
4) For liquid wastes, the owner or operator provides
a secondary containment system that assures that
any released liquids are contained and promptly
detected and removed from the waste area or a
vapor detection system that assures that any
released liquids or vapors are promptly detected
and an appropriate response taken (e.g.,
additional containment, such as overpacking or
removal from the waste area); and
5) The owner or operator provides monitoring and
inspection procedures that assure the controls and
containment systems are working as designed and
that releases that may adversely impact human
health or the environment are not escaping from
the unit.
b) Hazardous waste munitions and explosives stored under
this Subpart EE may be stored in one of the following:
1) Earth-covered magazines. The owner or operator of
an earth-covered magazine shall fulfill each of
the following requirements:
A) The magazine is constructed of waterproofed,
reinforced concrete or structural steel
arches, with steel doors that are kept closed
when not being accessed;
B) The magazine is so designed and constructed
that it fulfills each of the following
requirements:
i) The magazine is of sufficient strength
and thickness to support the weight of
any explosives or munitions stored and
any equipment used in the unit;
ii) The magazine provides working space for
personnel and equipment in the unit; and
iii) The magazine can withstand movement
activities that occur in the unit; and
???
C) The magazine is located and designed, with
walls and earthen covers that direct an
explosion in the unit in a safe direction, so
as to minimize the propagation of an
explosion to adjacent units and to minimize
other effects of any explosion.
2) Above-ground magazines. Above-ground magazines
must be located and designed so as to minimize the
propagation of an explosion to adjacent units and
to minimize other effects of any explosion.
3) Outdoor or open storage areas. Outdoor or open
storage areas must be located and designed so as
to minimize the propagation of an explosion to
adjacent units and to minimize other effects of
any explosion.
c) An owner or operator shall store hazardous waste
munitions and explosives in accordance with a standard
operating procedure that specifies procedures which
ensure safety, security, and environmental protection.
If these procedures serve the same purpose as the
security and inspection requirements of Section
724.114, the preparedness and prevention procedures of
724.Subpart C of this Part, and the contingency plan
and emergency procedures requirements of 724.Subpart D
of this Part, then the standard operating procedure may
be used to fulfill those requirements.
d) An owner or operator shall package hazardous waste
munitions and explosives to ensure safety in handling
and storage.
e) An owner or operator shall inventory hazardous waste
munitions and explosives inventoried at least annually.
f) An owner or operator shall inspect and monitor
hazardous waste munitions and explosives and their
storage units as necessary to ensure explosives safety
and to ensure that there is no migration of
contaminants out of the unit.
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 724.1202 Closure and Post-Closure Care
a) At closure of a magazine or unit which stored hazardous
waste under this subpart, the owner or operator shall
remove or decontaminate all waste residues,
contaminated containment system components,
???
contaminated subsoils, and structures and equipment
contaminated with waste and manage them as hazardous
waste unless 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(d) applies. The
closure plan, closure activities, cost estimates for
closure, and financial responsibility for magazines or
units must meet all of the requirements specified in
Subparts G and H of this Part, except that the owner or
operator may defer closure of the unit as long as it
remains in service as a munitions or explosives
magazine or storage unit.
b) If, after removing or decontaminating all residues and
making all reasonable efforts to effect removal or
decontamination of contaminated components, subsoils,
structures, and equipment as required in subsection (a)
of this Section, the owner or operator finds that not
all contaminated subsoils can be practicably removed or
decontaminated, the owner or operator shall close the
facility and perform post-closure care in accordance
with the closure and post-closure requirements that
apply to landfills (see Section 724.410).
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 724.Appendix I Groundwater Monitoring List
a) The regulatory requirements pertain only to the list of
substances; the right hand columns (Methods and PQL)
are given for informational purposes only. See also
subsections (e) and (f) of this Section.
b) Common names are those widely used in government
regulations, scientific publications and commerce;
synonyms exist for many chemicals.
c) “CAS RN” means “Chemical Abstracts Service Registry
Number”. Where “total” is entered, all species in the
groundwater that contain this element are included.
d) CAS index names are those used in the 9th Cumulative
index.
e) “Suggested Methods” refer to analytical procedure
numbers used in “Test Methods for Solid Waste,” SW-846,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111. Analytical details can be found in “Test
Methods”, and in documentation on file with USEPA.
Caution: The methods listed are representative
procedures and may not always be the most suitable
methods for monitoring an analyte under the
???
regulations. The packed column gas chromatography
methods 8010, 8020, 8030, 8040, 8060, 8080, 8090, 8110,
8120, 8140, 8150, 8240, and 8250 were in Update IIB of
SW-846. However, in Update III, USEPA replaced these
methods with “capillary column gas chromatography (GC)
methods”, as the suggested methods.
f) Practical Quantitation Limits (“PQLs”) are the lowest
concentrations of analytes in groundwater that can be
reliably determined within specified limits of
precision and accuracy by the indicated methods under
routine laboratory operating conditions. The POLs
listed are generally stated to one significant figure.
Caution: The PQL values in many cases are based only
on a general estimate for the method and not on a
determination for individual compounds; PQLs are not a
part of the regulation.
g) PCBs (CAS RN 1336-36-3). This category contains
congener chemicals, including constituents Aroclor-1016
(CAS RN 12674-11-2), Aroclor-1221 (CAS RN 11104-28-2),
Aroclor-1232 (CAS RN 11141-16-5), Aroclor-1242 (CAS RN
53469-21-9), Aroclor-1248 (CAS RN 12672-29-6), Aroclor-
1254 (CAS RN 11097-69-1) and Aroclor-1260 (CAS RN
11096-82-5). The PQL shown is an average value for PCB
congeners.
h) PCDDs. This category includes congener chemicals,
including tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins (see also
2,3,7,8-TCDD), pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins and hexa-
chlorodibenzo-p-dioxins. The PQL shown is an average
value for PCDD congeners.
i) PCDFs. This category contains congener chemicals,
including tetrachlorodibenzofurans, pentachlorodibenzo-
furans and hexachlorodibenzofurans. The PQL shown is
an average for all PCDF congeners.
Common Name
CAS RN
Chemical Abstracts
Service Index Name
Suggeste
d
methods
PQL
(ug/L)
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 Acenaphthylene,
1,2-dihydro-
8100
8270
200.
10.
Acenaphthylene 208-96-8 Acenaphthylene 8100
8270
200.
10.
Acetone 67-64-1 2-Propanone 8240 100.
???
Acetophenone 98-86-2 Ethanone, 1-phenyl- 8270 10.
Acetonitrile;
Methyl cyanide
75-05-8 Acetonitrile 8015 100.
2-
Acetylaminofluorene
; 2-AAF
53-96-3 Acetamide, N-9H-
fluoren-2-yl-
8270 10.
Acrolein 107-02-8 2-Propenal 8030
8240
5.
5.
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 2-Propenenitrile 8030
8240
5.
5.
Aldrin 309-00-2 1,4:5,8-Dimethano-
naphthalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa-
chloro-
1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexa-
hydro-
(1alpha
α
,4alpha
α
,4
abeta
β
,5alpha
α
,8alp
ha
α
,8abeta
β
)-
8080
8270
0.05
10.
Allyl chloride 107-05-1 1-Propene, 3-
chloro-
8010
8240
5.
100.
4-Aminobiphenyl 92-67-1 [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4-
amine
8270 10.
Aniline 62-53-3 Benzenamine 8270 10.
Anthracene 120-12-7 Anthracene 8100
8270
200.
10.
Antimony (Total) Antimony 6010
7040
7041
300.
2000.
30.
Aramite 140-57-8 Sulfurous acid, 2-
chloroethyl 2-[4-
(1,1-dimethyl-
ethyl)phenoxy]-1-
methylethyl ester
8270 10.
Arsenic (Total) Arsenic 6010
7060
7061
500.
10.
20.
???
Barium (Total) Barium 6010
7080
20.
1000.
Benzene 71-43-2 Benzene 8020
8240
2.
5.
Benzo[a]anthracene;
Benzanthracene
56-55-3 Benz[a]anthracene 8100
8270
200.
10.
Benzo[b]fluor-
anthene
205-99-2 Benz[e]acephen-
anthrylene
8100
8270
200.
10.
Benzo[k]fluor-
anthene
207-08-9 Benzo[k]fluoran-
thene
8100
8270
200.
10.
Benzo[ghi]perylene 191-24-2 Benzo[ghi]perylene 8100
8270
200.
10.
Benzo[a]pyrene 50-32-8 Benzo[a]pyrene 8100
8270
200.
10.
Benzyl alcohol 100-51-6 Benzenemethanol 8270 20.
Beryllium (Total) Beryllium 6010
7090
7091
3.
50.
2.
alpha
α
-BHC
319-84-6 Cyclohexane,
1,2,3,4,5,6-hexa-
chloro-,
(1alpha
α
,2alpha
α
,3
beta
β
,4alpha
α
,5beta
β
,6beta
β
)-
8080
8250
0.05
10.
beta
β
-BHC
319-85-7 Cyclohexane,
1,2,3,4,5,6-hexa-
chloro-,
(1alpha
α
,2beta
β
,3al
pha
α
,4beta
β
,5alpha
α
,6beta
β
)-
8080
8250
0.05
40.
delta
δ
-BHC
319-86-8 Cyclohexane,
1,2,3,4,5,6-hexa-
chloro-,
(1alpha
α
,2alpha
α
,3
alpha
α
,4beta
β
,5alph
a
α
,6beta
β
)-
8080
8250
0.1
30.
???
gamma
χ
-BHC; Lindane 58-89-9 Cyclohexane,
1,2,3,4,5,6-hexa-
chloro-,
(1alpha
α
,2alpha
α
,3
beta
β
,4alpha
α
,5alph
a
α
,6beta
β
)-
8080
8250
0.05
10.
Bis(2-chloroeth-
oxy)methane
111-91-1 Ethane, 1,1'-
[methylenebis-
(oxy)]bis[2-chloro-
8270 10.
Bis(2-chloroethyl)-
ether
111-44-4 Ethane, 1,1'-oxy-
bis[2-chloro-
8270 10.
Bis(2-chloro-1-
methylethyl) ether;
2,2'-Dichlorodiiso-
propyl ether
108-60-1 Propane, 2,2'-
oxybis[1-chloro-
8010
8270
100.
10.
Bis(2-ethylhexyl)
phthalate
117-81-7 1,2-Benzenedi-
carboxylic acid,
bis(2-ethylhexyl)
ester
8060
8270
20.
10.
Bromodichloro-
methane
75-27-4 Methane, bromodi-
chloro-
8010
8240
1.
5.
Bromoform; Tri-
bromomethane
75-25-2 Methane, tribromo- 8010
8240
2.
5.
4-Bromophenyl
phenyl ether
101-55-3 Benzene, 1-bromo-4-
phenoxy-
8270 10.
Butyl benzyl
phthalate; Benzyl
butyl phthalate
85-68-7 1,2-Benzenedi-
carboxylic acid,
butyl phenylmethyl
ester
8060
8270
5.
10.
Cadmium Total Cadmium 6010
7130
7131
40.
50.
1.
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 Carbon disulfide 8240 5.
Carbon tetra-
chloride
56-23-5 Methane, tetra-
chloro-
8010
8240
1.
5.
???
Chlordane 57-74-9 4,7-Methano-1H-
indene,1,2,4,5,6,7,
8,8-octachloro-
2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexa-
hydro-
8080
8250
0.1
10.
p-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 Benzeneamine, 4-
chloro-
8270 20.
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 Benzene, chloro- 8010
8020
8240
2.
2.
5.
Chlorobenzilate 510-15-6 Benzeneacetic acid,
4-chloro-alpha
α
-
(4-chlorophenyl)-
alpha
α
-hydroxy-,
ethylf ester
8270 10.
p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 Phenol, 4-chloro-3-
methyl-
8040
8270
5.
20.
Chloroethane; Ethyl
chloride
75-00-3 Ethane, chloro- 8010
8240
5.
10.
Chloroform 67-66-3 Methane, trichloro- 8010
8240
0.5
5.
2-Chloronapthalene 91-58-7 Naphthalene, 2-
chloro-
8120
8270
10.
10.
2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 Phenol, 2-chloro- 8040
8270
5.
10.
4-Chlorophenyl
phenyl ether
7005-72-
3
Benzene, 1-chloro-
4-phenoxy-
8270 10.
Chloroprene 126-99-8 1,3-Butadiene, 2-
chloro-
8010
8240
50.
5.
Chromium (Total) Chromium 6010
7190
7191
70.
500.
10.
Chrysene 218-01-9 Chrysene 8100
8270
200.
10.
Cobalt (Total) Cobalt 6010
7200
7201
70.
500.
10.
???
Copper (Total) Copper 6010
7210
60.
200.
m-Cresol 108-39-4 Phenol, 3-methyl- 8270 10.
o-Cresol 95-48-7 Phenol, 2-methyl- 8270 10.
p-Cresol 106-44-5 Phenol, 4-methyl- 8270 10.
Cyanide 57-12-5 Cyanide 9010 40.
2,4-D; 2,4-Di-
chlorophenoxyacetic
acid
94-75-7 Acetic acid, (2,4-
dichlorophenoxy)-
8150 10.
4,4'-DDD 72-54-8 Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2-
dichloroethyl-
idene)bis[4-chloro-
8080
8270
0.1
10.
4,4'-DDE 72-55-9 Benzene, 1,1'-(di-
chloroethylidene)-
bis[4-chloro-
8080
8270
0.05
10.
4,4'-DDT 50-29-3 Benzene, 1,1'-
(2,2,2-trichloro-
ethylidene)bis[4-
chloro-
8080
8270
0.1
10.
Diallate 2303-16-
4
Carbamothioic acid,
bis(1-methylethyl)-
, S-(2,3-dichloro--
2-propenyl) ester
8270 10.
Dibenz[a,h]-
anthracene
53-70-3 Dibenz[a,h]-
anthracene
8100
8270
200.
10.
Dibenzofuran 132-64-9 Dibenzofuran 8270 10.
Dibromochloro-
methane; Chlorodi-
bromomethane
124-48-1 Methane, dibromo-
chloro-
8010
8240
1.
5.
1,2-Dibromo-3-
chloropropane; DBCP
96-12-8 Propane, 1,2-di-
bromo-3-chloro-
8010
8240
8270
100.
5.
10.
1,2-Dibromoethane;
Ethylene dibromide
106-93-4 Ethane, 1,2-di-
bromo-
8010
8240
10.
5.
???
Di-n-butyl
phthalate
84-74-2 1,2-Benzenedi-
carboxylic acid,
dibutyl ester
8060
8270
5.
10.
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 Benzene, 1,2-di-
chloro-
8010
8020
8120
8270
2.
5.
10.
10.
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 Benzene, 1,3-di-
chloro-
8010
8020
8120
8270
5.
5.
10.
10.
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 Benzene, 1,4-di-
chloro-
8010
8020
8120
8270
2.
5.
15.
10.
3,3'-Dichloro-
benzidine
91-94-1 [1,1'-Biphenyl]-
4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-
dichloro-
8270 20.
trans-1,4-Dichloro-
2-butene
110-57-6 2-Butene, 1,4-di-
chloro-, (E)-
8240 5.
Dichlorodifluoro-
methane
75-71-8 Methane, dichloro-
difluoro-
8010
8240
10.
5.
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 Ethane, 1,1-di-
chloro-
8010
8240
1.
5.
1,2-Dichloroethane;
Ethylene dichloride
107-06-2 Ethane, 1,2-di-
chloro-
8010
8240
0.5
5.
1,1-Dichloro-
ethylene;
Vinylidene chloride
75-35-4 Ethene, 1,1-di-
chloro-
8010
8240
1.
5.
trans-1,2-Dichloro-
ethylene
156-60-5 Ethene, 1,2-di-
chloro-, (E)-
8010
8240
1.
5.
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 Phenol, 2,4-di-
chloro-
8040
8270
5.
10.
2,6-Dichlorophenol 87-65-0 Phenol, 2,6-di-
chloro-
8270 10.
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 Propane, 1,2-di-
chloro-
8010
8240
0.5
5.
???
cis-1,3-Dichloro-
propene
10061-
01-5
1-Propene, 1,3-di-
chloro-, (Z)-
8010
8240
20.
5.
trans-1,3-Dichloro-
propene
10061-
02-6
1-Propene, 1,3-di-
chloro-, (E)-
8010
8240
5.
5.
Dieldrin 60-57-1 2,7:3,6-Dimethan-
onaphth[2,3-b]-
oxirene,
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexa-
chloro-
1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a
-octahydro-
,(1aalpha
α
,2beta
β
,2
aalpha
α
,3beta
β
,6bet
a
β
,6aalpha
α
,7beta
β
,
7aalpha
α
)-
8080
8270
0.05
10.
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 1,2-Benzenedi-
carboxylic acid,
diethyl ester
8060
8270
5.
10.
O,O-Diethyl O-2-
pyrazinyl
phosphorothioate;
Thionazin
297-97-2 Phosphorothioic
acid, O,O-diethyl
O-pyrazinyl ester
8270 10.
Dimethoate 60-51-5 Phosphorodithioic
acid, O,O-dimethyl
S-[2-(methylamino)-
2-oxoethyl] ester
8270 10.
p-(Dimethylamino)-
azobenzene
60-11-7 Benzenamine, N,N-
dimethyl-4-(phenyl-
azo)-
8270 10.
7,12-Dimethylbenz-
[a]anthracene
57-97-6 Benz[a]-
anthracene,7,12-di-
methyl-
8270 10.
3,3'-Dimethyl-
benzidine
119-93-7 [1,1'-Biphenyl]-
4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-
dimethyl-
8270 10.
alpha
α
,alpha
α
-Di-
methylphenethyl-
amine
122-09-8 Benzeneethanamine,
alpha
α
,alpha
α
-di-
methyl-
8270 10.
2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 Phenol, 2,4-di-
methyl-
8040
8270
5.
10.
???
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 1,2-Benzenedi-
carboxylic acid,
dimethyl ester
8060
8270
5.
10.
m-Dinitrobenzene 99-65-0 Benzene, 1,3-di-
nitro-
8270 10.
4,6-Dinitro-o-
cresol
534-52-1 Phenol, 2-methyl-
4,6-dinitro-
8040
8270
150.
50.
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 Phenol, 2,4-di-
nitro-
8040
8270
150.
50.
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 Benzene, 1-methyl-
2,4-dinitro-
8090
8270
0.2
10.
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 Benzene, 2-methyl-
1,3-dinitro-
8090
8270
0.1
10.
Dinoseb; DNBP; 2-
sec-Butyl-4,6-di-
nitrophenol
88-85-7 Phenol, 2-(1-
methylpropyl)-4,6-
dinitro-
8150
8270
1.
10.
Di-n-octyl
phthalate
117-84-0 1,2-Benzenedi-
carboxylic acid,
dioctyl ester
8060
8270
30.
10.
1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 1,4-Dioxane 8015 150.
Diphenylamine 122-39-4 Benzeneamine, N-
phenyl-
8270 10.
Disulfoton 298-04-4 Phosphorodithioic
acid, O,O-diethyl
S-[2-(ethylthio)-
ethyl] ester
8140
8270
2.
10.
Endosulfan I 959-98-8 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-
benzodi-
oxathiepin,6,7,8,9,
10,10-hexachloro-
1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexa-
hydro-, 3-oxide,
(3alpha
α
,5abeta
β
,6a
lpha
α
,9alpha
α
,9abe
ta
β
)-
8080
8250
0.1
10.
???
Endosulfan II 33213-
65-9
6,9-Methano-2,4,3-
benzodi-
oxathiepin,6,7,8,9,
10,10-hexachloro-
1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexa-
hydro-, 3-oxide,
(3alpha
α
,5aalpha
α
,
6beta
β
,9beta
β
,9aalp
ha
α
)-
8080 0.05
Endosulfan sulfate 1031-07-
8
6,9-Methano-2,4,3-
benzodi-
oxathiepin,6,7,8,9,
10,10-hexachloro-
1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexa-
hydro-,3,3-dioxide
8080
8270
0.5
10.
Endrin 72-20-8 2,7:3,6-Dimethano-
naphth[2,3-b]-
oxirene,
3,4,5,6,9,9-hexa-
chloro-
1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a
-octahydro-,
(1aalpha
α
,2beta
β
,2a
beta
β
,3alpha
α
,6alph
a
α
,6abeta
β
,7beta
β
,7
aalpha
α
)-
8080
8250
0.1
10.
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-
4
1,2,4-Methanocyclo-
penta[cd]pentalene-
5-carboxaldehyde,
2,2a,3,3,4,7-hexa-
chlorodecahydro-,
(1alpha
α
,2beta
β
,2ab
eta
β
,4beta
β
,4abeta
β
,5beta
β
,6abeta
β
,6bb
eta
β
,7R)-
8080
8270
0.2
10.
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 Benzene, ethyl- 8020
8240
2.
5.
Ethyl methacrylate 97-63-2 2-Propenoic acid,
2-methyl-, ethyl
ester
8015
8240
8270
10.
5.
10.
Ethyl
methanesulfonate
62-50-0 Methanesulfonic
acid, ethyl ester
8270 10.
???
Famphur 52-85-7 Phosphorothioic
acid, O-[4-[(di-
methylamino)-
sulfonyl]phenyl]-
O,O-dimethyl ester
8270 10.
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 Fluoranthene 8100
8270
200.
10.
Fluorene 86-73-7 9H-Fluorene 8100
8270
200.
10.
Heptachlor 76-44-8 4,7-Methano-1H-
indene,
1,4,5,6,7,8,8-
heptachloro-
3a,4,7,7a-tetra-
hydro-
8080
8270
0.05
10.
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-
3
2,5-Methano-2H-
indeno[1,2-b]-
oxirene,
2,3,4,5,6,7,7-
heptachloro-
1a,1b,5,5a,6,6a-
hexahydro-,
(1aalpha
α
,1bbeta
β
,2
alpha
α
,5alpha
α
,5ab
eta
β
,6beta
β
,6aalpha
α
)-
8080
8270
1.
10.
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 Benzene, hexa-
chloro-
8120
8270
0.5
10.
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 1,3-Butadiene,
1,1,2,3,4,4-hexa-
chloro-
8120
8270
5.
10.
Hexachlorocyclo-
pentadiene
77-47-4 1,3-Cyclopentadi-
ene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-
hexachloro-
8120
8270
5.
10.
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 Ethane, hexachloro- 8120
8270
0.5
10.
Hexachlorophene 70-30-4 Phenol, 2,2'-
methylenebis[3,4,6-
trichloro-
8270 10.
???
Hexachloropropene 1888-71-
7
1-Propene,
1,1,2,3,3,3-hexa-
chloro-
8270 10.
2-Hexanone 591-78-6 2-Hexanone 8240 50.
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)-
pyrene
193-39-5 Indeno[1,2,3-cd]-
pyrene
8100
8270
200.
10.
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 1-Propanol, 2-
methyl-
8015 50.
Isodrin 465-73-6 1,4,5,8-Dimethano-
naphthalene,
1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa-
chloro-
1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexa-
hydro-
(1alpha
α
,4alpha
α
,4
abeta
β
,5beta
β
,8beta
β
,8abeta
β
)-
8270 10.
Isophorone 78-59-1 2-Cyclohexen-1-one,
3,5,5-trimethyl-
8090
8270
60.
10.
Isosafrole 120-58-1 1,3-Benzodioxole,
5-(1-propenyl)-
8270 10.
Kepone 143-50-0 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-
cyclobuta-[c,d]-
pentalen-2-one,
1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,
5b,6-decachloro-
octahydro-
8270 10.
Lead (Total) Lead 6010
7420
7421
40.
1000.
10.
Mercury (Total) Mercury 7470 2.
Methacrylonitrile 126-96-7 2-Propenenitrile,
2-methyl-
8015
8240
5.
5.
Methapyrilene 91-80-5 1,2-Ethanediamine,
N,N-dimethyl-N’-2-
pyridinyl-N’-(2-
thienylmethyl)-
8270 10.
???
Methoxychlor 72-43-5 Benzene, 1,1'-
(2,2,2-trichloro-
ethylidene)bis[4-
methoxy-
8080
8270
2.
10.
Methyl bromide;
Bromomethane
74-83-9 Methane, bromo- 8010
8240
20.
10.
Methyl chloride;
Chloromethane
74-87-3 Methane, chloro- 8010
8240
1.
10.
3-Methyl-
cholanthrene
56-49-5 Benz[j]-
aceanthrylene, 1,2-
dihydro-3-methyl-
8270 10.
Methylene bromide;
Dibromomethane
74-95-3 Methane, dibromo- 8010
8240
15.
5.
Methylene chloride;
Dichloromethane
75-09-2 Methane, dichloro- 8010
8240
5.
5.
Methyl ethyl
ketone; MEK
78-93-3 2-Butanone 8015
8240
10.
100.
Methyl iodide;
Iodomethane
74-88-4 Methane, iodo- 8010
8240
40.
5.
Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 2-Propenoic acid,
2-methyl-, methyl
ester
8015
8240
2.
5.
Methyl
methanesulfonate
66-27-3 Methanesulfonic
acid, methyl ester
8270 10.
2-Methylnaphthalene 91-57-6 Naphthylene, 2-
methyl-
8270 10.
Methyl parathion;
Parathion methyl
298-00-0 Phosphorothioic
acid, O,O-dimethyl
O-(4-nitrophenyl)
ester
8140
8270
0.5
10.
4-Methyl-2-pentan-
one; Methyl
isobutyl ketone
108-10-1 2-Pentanone, 4-
methyl-
8015
8240
5.
50.
Naphthalene 91-20-3 Naphthalene 8100
8270
200.
10.
1,4-Naphthoquinone 130-15-4 1,4-
Naphthalenedione
8270 10.
???
1-Naphthylamine 134-32-7 1-Naphthalenamine 8270 10.
2-Naphthylamine 91-59-8 2-Naphthalenamine 8270 10.
Nickel (Total) Nickel 6010
7520
50.
400.
o-Nitroaniline 88-74-4 Benzenamine, 2-
nitro-
8270 50.
m-Nitroaniline 99-09-2 Benzenamine, 3-
nitro-
8270 50.
p-Nitroaniline 100-01-6 Benzenamine, 4-
nitro-
8270 50.
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 Benzene, nitro- 8090
8270
40.
10.
o-Nitrophenol 88-75-5 Phenol, 2-nitro- 8040
8270
5.
10.
p-Nitrophenol 100-02-7 Phenol, 4-nitro- 8040
8270
10.
50.
4-Nitroquinoline 1-
oxide
56-57-5 Quinoline, 4-nitro-
, 1-oxide
8270 10.
N-Nitrosodi-n-
butylamine
924-16-3 1-Butanamine, N-
butyl-N-nitroso-
8270 10.
N-Nitrosodiethyl-
amine
55-18-5 Ethanamine, N-
ethyl-N-nitroso-
8270 10.
N-Nitrosodimethyl-
amine
62-75-9 Methanamine, N-
methyl-N-nitroso-
8270 10.
N-Nitrosodiphenyl-
amine
86-30-6 Benzenamine, N-
nitroso-N-phenyl-
8270 10.
N-Nitrosodipropyl-
amine; Di-n-propyl-
nitrosamine
621-64-7 1-Propanamine, N-
nitroso-N-propyl-
8270 10.
N-Nitrosomethyl-
ethylamine
10595-
95-6
Ethanamine, N-
methyl-N-nitroso-
8270 10.
N-Nitrosomorpholine 59-89-2 Morpholine, 4-
nitroso-
8270 10.
???
N-Nitrosopiperidene 100-75-4 Piperidene, 1-
nitroso-
8270 10.
N-Nitroso-
pyrrolidine
930-55-2 Pyrrolidine, 1-
nitroso-
8270 10.
5-Nitro-o-toluidine 99-55-8 Benzenamine, 2-
methyl-5-nitro-
8270 10.
Parathion 56-38-2 Phosphorothioic
acid, O,O-diethyl-
O-(4-nitrophenyl)
ester
8270 10.
Polychlorinated
biphenyls; PCBs
See (g) 1,1'-Biphenyl,
chloro derivatives
8080
8250
50.
100.
Polychlorinated di-
benzo-p-dioxins;
PCDDs
See (h) Dibenzo[b,e][1,4]-
dioxin, chloro
derivatives
8280 0.01
Polychlorinated di-
benzofurans; PCDFs
See (i) Bibenzofuran,
chloro derivatives
8280 0.01
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 Benzene, penta-
chloro-
8270 10.
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 Ethane, penta-
chloro-
8240
8270
5.
10.
Pentachloronitro-
benzene
82-68-8 Benzene, penta-
chloronitro-
8270 10.
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 Phenol, penta-
chloro-
8040
8270
5.
50.
Phenacetin 62-44-2 Acetamide, N-(4-
ethoxyphenyl)
8270 10.
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 Phenanthrene 8100
8270
200.
10.
Phenol 108-95-2 Phenol 8040
8270
1.
10.
p-Phenylenediamine 106-50-3 1,4-Benzenediamine 8270 10.
Phorate 298-02-2 Phosphorodithioic
acid, O,O-diethyl
S-[(ethylthio)-
methyl] ester
8140
8270
2.
10.
???
2-Picoline 109-06-8 Pyridine, 2-methyl- 8240
8270
5.
10.
Pronamide 23950-
58-5
Benzamide, 3,5-di-
chloro-N-(1,1-di-
methyl-2-propenyl)-
8270 10.
Propionitrile;
Ethyl cyanide
107-12-0 Propanenitrile 8015
8240
60.
5.
Pyrene 129-00-0 Pyrene 8100
8270
200.
10.
Pyridine 110-86-1 Pyridine 8240
8270
5.
10.
Safrole 94-59-7 1,3-Benzodioxole,
5-(2-propenyl)-
8270 10.
Selenium (Total) Selenium 6010
7740
7741
750.
20.
20.
Silver (Total) Silver 6010
7760
70.
100.
Silvex; 2,4,5-TP 93-72-1 Propanoic acid, 2-
(2,4,5-trichloro-
phenoxy)-
8150 2.
Styrene 100-42-5 Benzene, ethenyl- 8020
8240
1.
5.
Sulfide 18496-
25-8
Sulfide 9030 10000.
2,4,5-T; 2,4,5-Tri-
chlorophenoxyacetic
acid
93-76-5 Acetic acid,
(2,4,5-trichloro-
phenoxy)-
8150 2.
2,3,7,8-TCDD;
2,3,7,8-Tetra-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxin
1746-01-
8
Dibenzo[b,e][1,4]-
dioxin, 2,3,7,8-
tetrachloro-
8280 0.005
1,2,4,5-Tetra-
chlorobenzene
95-94-3 Benzene, 1,2,4,5-
tetrachloro-
8270 10.
1,1,1,2-Tetra-
chloroethane
630-20-6 Ethane, 1,1,1,2-
tetrachloro-
8010
8240
5.
5.
???
1,1,2,2,-Tetra-
chloroethane
79-34-5 Ethane, 1,1,2,2-
tetrachloro-
8010
8240
0.5
5.
Tetrachloro-
ethylene;
Perchloroethylene;
Tetrachloroethene
127-18-4 Ethene, tetra-
chloro-
8010
8240
0.5
5.
2,3,4,6-Tetra-
chlorophenol
58-90-2 Phenol, 2,3,4,6-
tetrachloro-
8270 10.
Tetraethyl dithio-
pyrophosphate;
Sulfotepp
3689-24-
5
Thiodiphosphoric
acid
([(HO)2P(S)]2O),
tetraethyl ester
8270 10.
Thallium (Total) Thallium 6010
7840
7841
400.
1000.
10.
Tin (Total) Tin 7870 8000.
Toluene 108-88-3 Benzene, methyl- 8020
8240
2.
5.
o-Toluidine 95-53-4 Benzenamine, 2-
methyl-
8270 10.
Toxaphene 8001-35-
2
Toxaphene 8080
8250
2.
10.
1,2,4-Trichloro-
benzene
120-82-1 Benzene, 1,2,4-tri-
chloro-
8270 10.
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane; Methyl
chloroform
71-55-6 Ethane, 1,1,1-tri-
chloro-
8240 5.
1,1,2-Trichloro-
ethane
79-00-5 Ethane, 1,1,2-tri-
chloro-
8010
8240
0.2
5.
Trichloroethylene;
Trichloroethene
79-01-6 Ethene, trichloro- 8010
8240
1.
5.
Trichlorofluoro-
methane
75-69-4 Methane, trichloro-
fluoro-
8010
8240
10.
5.
2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenol
95-96-4 Phenol, 2,4,5-tri-
chloro-
8270 10.
???
2,4,6-Trichloro-
phenol
88-06-2 Phenol, 2,4,6-tri-
chloro-
8040
8270
5.
10.
1,2,3-Trichloro-
propane
96-18-4 Propane, 1,2,3-tri-
chloro-
8010
8240
10.
5.
O,O,O-Triethyl
phosphorothioate
126-68-1 Phosphorothioic
acid, O,O,O-tri-
ethyl ester
8270 10.
sym-Trinitrobenzene 99-35-4 Benzene, 1,3,5-tri-
nitro-
8270 10.
Vanadium (Total) Vanadium 6010
7910
7911
80.
2000.
40.
Vinyl acetate 108-05-4 Acetic acid,
ethenyl ester
8240 5.
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 Ethene, chloro- 8010
8240
2.
10.
Xylene (total) 1330-20-
7
Benzene, dimethyl- 8020
8240
5.
5.
Zinc (Total) Zinc 6010
7950
20.
50.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 725
INTERIM STATUS STANDARDS FOR OWNERS AND OPERATORS OF
HAZARDOUS WASTE TREATMENT, STORAGE, AND DISPOSAL
FACILITIES
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section
725.101 Purpose, Scope and Applicability
725.104 Imminent Hazard Action
SUBPART B: GENERAL FACILITY STANDARDS
Section
725.110 Applicability
725.111 USEPA Identification Number
???
725.112 Required Notices
725.113 General Waste Analysis
725.114 Security
725.115 General Inspection Requirements
725.116 Personnel Training
725.117 General Requirements for Ignitable, Reactive, or
Incompatible Wastes
725.118 Location Standards
725.119 Construction Quality Assurance Program
SUBPART C: PREPAREDNESS AND PREVENTION
Section
725.130 Applicability
725.131 Maintenance and Operation of Facility
725.132 Required Equipment
725.133 Testing and Maintenance of Equipment
725.134 Access to Communications or Alarm System
725.135 Required Aisle Space
725.137 Arrangements with Local Authorities
SUBPART D: CONTINGENCY PLAN AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Section
725.150 Applicability
725.151 Purpose and Implementation of Contingency Plan
725.152 Content of Contingency Plan
725.153 Copies of Contingency Plan
725.154 Amendment of Contingency Plan
725.155 Emergency Coordinator
725.156 Emergency Procedures
SUBPART E: MANIFEST SYSTEM, RECORDKEEPING AND
REPORTING
Section
725.170 Applicability
725.171 Use of Manifest System
725.172 Manifest Discrepancies
725.173 Operating Record
725.174 Availability, Retention and Disposition of Records
725.175 Annual Report
725.176 Unmanifested Waste Report
725.177 Additional Reports
SUBPART F: GROUNDWATER MONITORING
Section
725.190 Applicability
725.191 Groundwater Monitoring System
725.192 Sampling and Analysis
725.193 Preparation, Evaluation and Response
725.194 Recordkeeping and Reporting
???
SUBPART G: CLOSURE AND POST-CLOSURE
Section
725.210 Applicability
725.211 Closure Performance Standard
725.212 Closure Plan; Amendment of Plan
725.213 Closure; Time Allowed for Closure
725.214 Disposal or Decontamination of Equipment, Structures
and Soils
725.215 Certification of Closure
725.216 Survey Plat
725.217 Post-closure Care and Use of Property
725.218 Post-closure Plan; Amendment of Plan
725.219 Post-Closure Notices
725.220 Certification of Completion of Post-Closure Care
SUBPART H: FINANCIAL REQUIREMENTS
Section
725.240 Applicability
725.241 Definitions of Terms as Used in this Subpart
725.242 Cost Estimate for Closure
725.243 Financial Assurance for Closure
725.244 Cost Estimate for Post-closure Care
725.245 Financial Assurance for Post-closure Monitoring and
Maintenance
725.246 Use of a Mechanism for Financial Assurance of Both
Closure and Post-closure Care
725.247 Liability Requirements
725.248 Incapacity of Owners or Operators, Guarantors or
Financial Institutions
725.251 Promulgation of Forms (Repealed)
SUBPART I: USE AND MANAGEMENT OF CONTAINERS
Section
725.270 Applicability
725.271 Condition of Containers
725.272 Compatibility of Waste with Container
725.273 Management of Containers
725.274 Inspections
725.276 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
725.277 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
725.278 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART J: TANK SYSTEMS
Section
725.290 Applicability
725.291 Assessment of Existing Tank System’s Integrity
725.292 Design and Installation of New Tank Systems or
Components
725.293 Containment and Detection of Releases
725.294 General Operating Requirements
725.295 Inspections
???
725.296 Response to leaks or spills and disposition of Tank
Systems
725.297 Closure and Post-Closure Care
725.298 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
725.299 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
725.300 Waste Analysis and Trial Tests
725.301 Generators of 100 to 1000 kg/mo Kilograms of Hazardous
Waste Per Month
725.302 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART K: SURFACE IMPOUNDMENTS
Section
725.320 Applicability
725.321 Design and Operating Requirements
725.322 Action Leakage Rate
725.323 Response Actions
725.324 Containment System
725.325 Waste Analysis and Trial Tests
725.326 Monitoring and Inspections
725.328 Closure and Post-closure Care
725.329 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
725.330 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
725.331 Air Emission Standards
SUBPART L: WASTE PILES
Section
725.350 Applicability
725.351 Protection from Wind
725.352 Waste Analysis
725.353 Containment
725.354 Design and Operating Requirements
725.355 Action Leakage Rates
725.356 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
725.357 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
725.358 Closure and Post-closure Care
725.359 Response Actions
725.360 Monitoring and Inspection
SUBPART M: LAND TREATMENT
Section
725.370 Applicability
725.372 General Operating Requirements
725.373 Waste Analysis
725.376 Food Chain Crops
725.378 Unsaturated Zone (Zone of Aeration) Monitoring
725.379 Recordkeeping
725.380 Closure and Post-closure
725.381 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
725.382 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
???
SUBPART N: LANDFILLS
Section
725.400 Applicability
725.401 Design Requirements
725.402 Action Leakage Rate
725.403 Response Actions
725.404 Monitoring and Inspection
725.409 Surveying and Recordkeeping
725.410 Closure and Post-closure
725.412 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
725.413 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
725.414 Special Requirements for Liquid Wastes
725.415 Special Requirements for Containers
725.416 Disposal of Small Containers of Hazardous Waste in
Overpacked Drums (Lab Packs)
SUBPART O: INCINERATORS
Section
725.440 Applicability
725.441 Waste Analysis
725.445 General Operating Requirements
725.447 Monitoring and Inspection
725.451 Closure
725.452 Interim Status Incinerators Burning Particular
Hazardous Wastes
SUBPART P: THERMAL TREATMENT
Section
725.470 Other Thermal Treatment
725.473 General Operating Requirements
725.475 Waste Analysis
725.477 Monitoring and Inspections
725.481 Closure
725.482 Open Burning; Waste Explosives
725.483 Interim Status Thermal Treatment Devices Burning
Particular Hazardous Waste
SUBPART Q: CHEMICAL, PHYSICAL AND BIOLOGICAL TREATMENT
Section
725.500 Applicability
725.501 General Operating Requirements
725.502 Waste Analysis and Trial Tests
725.503 Inspections
725.504 Closure
725.505 Special Requirements for Ignitable or Reactive Waste
725.506 Special Requirements for Incompatible Wastes
SUBPART R: UNDERGROUND INJECTION
Section
725.530 Applicability
???
SUBPART W: DRIP PADS
Section
725.540 Applicability
725.541 Assessment of existing drip pad integrity
725.542 Design and installation of new drip pads
725.543 Design and operating requirements
725.544 Inspections
725.545 Closure
SUBPART AA: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR PROCESS VENTS
Section
725.930 Applicability
725.931 Definitions
725.932 Standards: Process Vents
725.933 Standards: Closed-ventVent Systems and Control Devices
725.934 Test methods and procedures
725.935 Recordkeeping Requirements
SUBPART BB: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR EQUIPMENT LEAKS
Section
725.950 Applicability
725.951 Definitions
725.952 Standards: Pumps in Light Liquid Service
725.953 Standards: Compressors
725.954 Standards: Pressure Relief Devices in Gas/Vapor
Service
725.955 Standards: Sampling Connecting Systems
725.956 Standards: Open-ended Valves or Lines
725.957 Standards: Valves in Gas/Vapor or Light Liquid Service
725.958 Standards: Pumps, Valves, Pressure Relief Devices,
Flanges and other Connectors
725.959 Standards: Delay of Repair
725.960 Standards: Closed-vent Systems and Control Devices
725.961 Percent Leakage Alternative for Valves
725.962 Skip Period Alternative for Valves
725.963 Test Methods and Procedures
725.964 Recordkeeping Requirements
SUBPART CC: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR TANKS, SURFACE
IMPOUNDMENTS, AND CONTAINERS
Section
725.980 Applicability
725.981 Definitions
725.982 Schedule for Implementation of Air Emission Standards
725.983 Standards: General
725.984 Waste Determination Procedures
725.985 Standards: Tanks
725.986 Standards: Surface Impoundments
725.987 Standards: Containers
725.988 Standards: Closed-ventVent Systems and Control Devices
725.989 Inspection and Monitoring Requirements
725.990 Recordkeeping Requirements
???
725.991 Alternative Tank Emission Control Requirements
(Repealed)
SUBPART DD: CONTAINMENT BUILDINGS
Section
725.1100 Applicability
725.1101 Design and operating standards
725.1102 Closure and Post Closure-Care
SUBPART EE: HAZARDOUS WASTE MUNITIONS AND EXPLOSIVES
STORAGE
Section
725.1200 Applicability
725.1201 Design and Operating Standards
725.1202 Closure and Post-Closure Care
725.Appendix A Recordkeeping Instructions
725.Appendix B EPA Report Form and Instructions (Repealed)
725.Appendix C EPA Interim Primary Drinking Water Standards
725.Appendix D Tests for Significance
725.Appendix E Examples of Potentially Incompatible Waste
725.Appendix F Compounds With Henry’s Law Constant Less Than 0.1
Y/X (at 25°C)
AUTHORITY: Implementing Section 22.4 and authorized by Section
27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R81-22, 43 PCB 427, at 5 Ill. Reg. 9781,
effective May 17, 1982; amended and codified in R81-22, 45 PCB
317, at 6 Ill. Reg. 4828, effective May 17, 1982; amended in R82-
18, 51 PCB 831, at 7 Ill. Reg. 2518, effective February 22, 1983;
amended in R82-19, 53 PCB 131, at 7 Ill. Reg. 14034, effective
October 12, 1983; amended in R84-9, at 9 Ill. Reg. 11869,
effective July 24, 1985; amended in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg. 1085,
effective January 2, 1986; amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill. Reg.
14069, effective August 12, 1986; amended in R86-28 at 11 Ill.
Reg. 6044, effective March 24, 1987; amended in R86-46 at 11 Ill.
Reg. 13489, effective August 4, 1987; amended in R87-5 at 11 Ill.
Reg. 19338, effective November 10, 1987; amended in R87-26 at 12
Ill. Reg. 2485, effective January 15, 1988; amended in R87-39 at
12 Ill. Reg. 13027, effective July 29, 1988; amended in R88-16 at
13 Ill. Reg. 437, effective December 28, 1988; amended in R89-1
at 13 Ill. Reg. 18354, effective November 13, 1989; amended in
R90-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 14447, effective August 22, 1990; amended
in R90-10 at 14 Ill. Reg. 16498, effective September 25, 1990;
amended in R90-11 at 15 Ill. Reg. 9398, effective June 17, 1991;
amended in R91-1 at 15 Ill. Reg. 14534, effective October 1,
1991; amended in R91-13 at 16 Ill. Reg. 9578, effective June 9,
1992; amended in R92-1 at 16 Ill. Reg. 17672, effective November
6, 1992; amended in R92-10 at 17 Ill. Reg. 5681, effective March
26, 1993; amended in R93-4 at 17 Ill. Reg. 20620, effective
November 22, 1993; amended in R93-16 at 18 Ill. Reg. 6771,
???
effective April 26, 1994; amended in R94-7 at 18 Ill. Reg. 12190,
effective July 29, 1994; amended in R94-17 at 18 Ill. Reg. 17548,
effective November 23, 1994; amended in R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg.
9566, effective June 27, 1995; amended in R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg.
11078, effective August 1, 1996; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at
22 Ill. Reg. 369, effective December 16, 1997; amended in R98-12
at 22 Ill. Reg. 7620, effective April 15, 1998; amended in R97-
21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Section 725.101 Purpose, Scope and Applicability
a) The purpose of this Part is to establish minimum
standards that define the acceptable management of
hazardous waste during the period of interim status and
until certification of final closure or, if the
facility is subject to post-closure requirements, until
post-closure responsibilities are fulfilled.
b) Except as provided in Section 725.980(b), the standards
in this Part and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.652 and 724.653
apply to owners and operators of facilities that treat,
store, or dispose of hazardous waste that have fully
complied with the requirements for interim status under
Section 3005(e) of the Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act (RCRA) (42 U.S.C. 6901 et seq.) and 35
Ill. Adm. Code 703, until either a permit is issued
under Section 3005 of the Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act or Section 21(f) of the Environmental
Protection Act, or until applicable closure and post-
closure responsibilities under this Part are fulfilled,
and to those owners and operators of facilities in
existence on November 19, 1980, that have failed to
provide timely notification as required by Section
3010(a) of RCRA or that have failed to file Part A of
the Permit Application, as required by 40 CFR 270.10(e)
and (g) or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.150 and 703.152.
These standards apply to all treatment, storage, or
disposal of hazardous waste at these facilities after
November 19, 1980, except as specifically provided
otherwise in this Part or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
BOARD NOTE: As stated in Section 3005(a) of RCRA,
after the effective date of regulations under that
Section (i.e., 40 CFR 270 and 124) the treatment,
storage, or disposal of hazardous waste is prohibited
except in accordance with a permit. Section 3005(e) of
RCRA provides for the continued operation of an
existing facility that meets certain conditions until
???
final administrative disposition of the owner’s and
operator’s permit application is made. 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 703.140 et seq. provide that a permit is deemed
issued under Section 21(f)(1) of the Environmental
Protection Act under conditions similar to federal
interim status.
c) The requirements of this Part do not apply to:
1) A person disposing of hazardous waste by means of
ocean disposal subject to a permit issued under
the Marine Protection, Research and Sanctuaries
Act (16 U.S.C. 1431-1434; 33 U.S.C. 1401);
BOARD NOTE: This Part applies to the treatment or
storage of hazardous waste before it is loaded
into an ocean vessel for incineration or disposal
at sea, as provided in subsection (b) above.
2) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 265.1(c)-
(2), marked “reserved” by USEPA. This statement
maintains structural consistency with USEPA rules.
3) The owner or operator of a POTW (publicly owned
treatment works) that treats, stores or disposes
of hazardous waste;
BOARD NOTE: The owner or operator of a facility
under subsections (c)(1) throughand (c)(3) is
subject to the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724 to the extent they are included in a permit by
rule granted to such a person under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702 and 703 or are required by 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 704.Subpart F.
4) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 265.1(c)-
(4), which pertains exclusively to the
applicability of the federal regulations in
authorized states. There is no need for a
parallel provision in the Illinois regulations.
This statement maintains structural consistency
with USEPA rules
5) The owner or operator of a facility permitted,
licensed, or registered by Illinois to manage
municipal or industrial solid waste, if the only
hazardous waste the facility treats, stores, or
disposes of is excluded from regulation under this
Part by 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.105;
6) The owner or operator of a facility managing
recyclable materials described in 35 Ill. Adm.
???
Code 721.106(a)(2) through (a)(4), except to the
extent that requirements of this Part are referred
to in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.Subparts C, F, G, or H
or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 739;
7) A generator accumulating waste on-site in
compliance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134, except
to the extent the requirements are included in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 722.134;
8) A farmer disposing of waste pesticides from the
farmer’s own use in compliance with 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.170;
9) The owner or operator of a totally enclosed
treatment facility, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.110;
10) The owner or operator of an elementary
neutralization unit or a wastewater treatment unit
as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, provided
that if the owner or operator is diluting
hazardous ignitable (D001) wastes (other than the
D001 High TOC Subcategory defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.Table T) or reactive (D003) waste in
order to remove the characteristic before land
disposal, the owner or operator must comply with
the requirements set out in Section 725.117(b);
11) Immediate response:
A) Except as provided in subsection (c)(11)(B)
below, a person engaged in treatment or
containment activities during immediate
response to any of the following situations:
i) A discharge of a hazardous waste;
ii) An imminent and substantial threat of a
discharge of a hazardous waste;
iii) A discharge of a material that becomes a
hazardous waste when discharged.; or
iv) An immediate threat to human health,
public safety, property, or the
environment from the known or suspected
presence of military munitions, other
explosive material, or an explosive
device, as determined by an explosive or
munitions emergency response specialist
as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110.
???
B) An owner or operator of a facility otherwise
regulated by this Part must comply with all
applicable requirements of 725.Subparts C and
D.
C) Any person that is covered by subsection (c)-
(11)(A) above that continues or initiates
hazardous waste treatment or containment
activities after the immediate response is
over is subject to all applicable
requirements of this Part and 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, and 705 for those activities;
D) In the case of an explosives or munitions
emergency response, if a federal, state, or
local official acting within the scope of his
or her official responsibilities or an
explosives or munitions emergency response
specialist determines that immediate removal
of the material or waste is necessary to
protect human health or the environment, that
official or specialist may authorize the
removal of the material or waste by
transporters who do not have USEPA
identification numbers and without the
preparation of a manifest. In the case of
emergencies involving military munitions, the
responding military emergency response
specialist's organizational unit shall retain
records for three years identifying the dates
of the response, the responsible persons
responding, the type and description of
material addressed, and its disposition.
12) A transporter storing manifested shipments of
hazardous waste in containers meeting the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.130 at a
transfer facility for a period of ten days or
less;
13) The addition of absorbent material to waste in a
container (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.110) or the addition of waste to the absorbent
material in a container, provided that these
actions occur at the time that the waste is first
placed in the containers and Sections 725.117(b),
725.271, and 725.272 are complied with;
14) A universal waste handler or universal waste
transporter (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.110) that handles any of the wastes listed
???
below is subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 733 when handling the following universal
wastes:
A) Batteries, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.102;
B) Pesticides, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.103;
C) Thermostats, as described in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 733.104 and; and
D) Mercury-containing lamps, as described in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 733.107.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (c)(14)(D) of this
Section was added pursuant to Section 22.23a
of the Act [415 ILCS 5/22.23a] (see P.A. 90-
502, effective August 19, 1997).
d) The following hazardous wastes must not be managed at
facilities subject to regulation under this Part:
hazardous waste numbers F020, F021, F022, F023, F026,
or F027 unless:
1) The wastewater treatment sludge is generated in a
surface impoundment as part of the plant’s
wastewater treatment system;
2) The waste is stored in tanks or containers;
3) The waste is stored or treated in waste piles that
meet the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.350(c) and all other applicable requirements
of 725.Subpart L;
4) The waste is burned in incinerators that are
certified pursuant to the standards and procedures
in Section 725.452; or
5) The waste is burned in facilities that thermally
treat the waste in a device other than an
incinerator and that are certified pursuant to the
standards and procedures in Section 725.483.
e) This Part applies to owners and operators of facilities
that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous wastes
referred to in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728, and the 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728 standards are considered material
conditions or requirements of the interim status
standards of this Part.
???
f) 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.505 identifies when the
requirements of this Part apply to the storage of
military munitions classified as solid waste under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.302. The treatment and disposal of
hazardous waste military munitions are subject to the
applicable permitting, procedural, and technical
standards in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 705, 720
through 726, and 728.
fg) Other bodies of regulations may apply a person,
facility, or activity, such as 35 Ill. Adm. Code 809
(special waste hauling), 35 Ill. Adm. Code 807 or 810
through 817 (solid waste landfills), 35 Ill. Adm. Code
848 or 849 (used and scrap tires), or 35 Ill. Adm. Code
1420 through 1422 (potentially infectious medical
waste), depending on the provisions of those other
regulations.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART B: GENERAL FACILITY STANDARDS
Section 725.112 Required Notices
a) Receipt from a foreign source.
1) The owner or operator of a facility that has
arranged to receive hazardous waste from a foreign
source must notify the Regional Administrator in
writing at least four weeks in advance of the date
the waste is expected to arrive at the facility.
Notice of subsequent shipments of the same waste
from the same foreign source is not required.
2) The owner or operator of a recovery facility that
has arranged to receive hazardous waste subject to
35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.Subpart H must provide a
copy of the tracking document bearing all required
signatures to the notifier, to the Office of
Enforcement and Compliance Assurance, Office of
Compliance, Enforcement Planning, Targeting and
Data Division (2222A), Environmental Protection
Agency, 401 M St., SW, Washington, DC 20460; to
the Bureau of Land, Division of Land Pollution
Control, Illinois Environmental Protection Agency,
P.O. Box 19276, Springfield, IL 62794-9276; and to
the competent authorities of all other concerned
countries within three working days of receipt of
the shipment. The original of the signed tracking
???
document must be maintained at the facility for at
least three years.
b) Before transferring ownership or operation of a
facility during its operating life, or of a disposal
facility during the post-closure care period, the owner
or operator must notify the new owner or operator in
writing of the requirements of this Part and 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 702 and 703 (Aalso see 40 35 Ill. Adm. Code
703.155.)
BOARD NOTE: An owner’s or operator’s failure to notify
the new owner or operator of the requirements of this
Part in no way relieves the new owner or operator of
his obligation to comply with all applicable
requirements.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.113 General Waste Analysis
a) Waste analysis:
1) Before an owner or operator treats, stores, or
disposes of any hazardous wastes, or non-hazardous
wastes if applicable under Section 725.213(d), the
owner or operator shall obtain a detailed chemical
and physical analysis of a representative sample
of the wastes. At a minimum, the analysis must
contain all the information that must be known to
treat, store, or dispose of the waste in
accordance with this Part and 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.
2) The analysis may include data developed under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721 and existing published or
documented data on the hazardous waste or on waste
generated from similar processes.
BOARD NOTE: For example, the facility’s record of
analyses performed on the waste before the
effective date of these regulations or studies
conducted on hazardous waste generated from
processes similar to that which generated the
waste to be managed at the facility may be
included in the data base required to comply with
subsection (a)(1) of this Section, except as
otherwise specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.107(b) and (c). The owner or operator of an
off-site facility may arrange for the generator of
the hazardous waste to supply part or all of the
???
information required by subsection (a)(1) of this
Section. If the generator does not supply the
information and the owner or operator chooses to
accept a hazardous waste, the owner or operator is
responsible for obtaining the information required
to comply with this Section.
3) The analysis must be repeated as necessary to
ensure that it is accurate and up to date. At a
minimum, the analysis must be repeated:
A) When the owner or operator is notified or has
reason to believe that the process or
operation generating the hazardous waste, or
non-hazardous waste if applicable under
Section 725.213(d), has changed; and
B) For off-site facilities, when the results of
the inspection required in subsection (a)(4)
of this Section indicate that the hazardous
waste received at the facility does not match
the waste designated on the accompanying
manifest or shipping paper.
4) The owner or operator of an off-site facility
shall inspect and, if necessary, analyze each
hazardous waste movement received at the facility
to determine whether it matches the identity of
the waste specified on the accompanying manifest
or shipping paper.
b) The owner or operator shall develop and follow a
written waste analysis plan that describes the
procedures that the owner or operator will carry out to
comply with subsection (a) of this Section. The owner
or operator shall keep this plan at the facility. At a
minimum, the plan must specify:
1) The parameters for which each hazardous waste, or
non-hazardous waste if applicable under Section
725.213(d), will be analyzed and the rationale for
the selection of these parameters (i.e., how
analysis for these parameters will provide
sufficient information on the waste’s properties
to comply with subsection (a) of this Section.
2) The test methods that will be used to test for
these parameters.
3) The sampling method that will be used to obtain a
representative sample of the waste to be
???
analyzed. A representative sample may be obtained
using either:
A) One of the sampling methods described in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.Appendix A, or
B) An equivalent sampling method.
BOARD NOTE: See 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.120(c)
for related discussion.
4) The frequency with which the initial analysis of
the waste will be reviewed or repeated to ensure
that the analysis is accurate and up-to-date.
5) For off-site facilities, the waste analyses that
hazardous waste generators have agreed to supply.
6) Where applicable, the methods that will be used to
meet the additional waste analysis requirements
for specific waste management methods, as
specified in Sections 725.300, 725.325, 725.352,
725.373, 725.414, 725.441, 725.475, 725.502,
725.934(d), 725.963(d), and 725.984, and 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728.107.
7) For surface impoundments exempted from land
disposal restrictions under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.104(a), the procedures and schedules for:
A) The sampling of impoundment contents;
B) The analysis of test data; and
C) The annual removal of residues that are not
delisted under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.122 or
that exhibit a characteristic of hazardous
waste and either:
i) Do not meet the applicable treatment
standards of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.Subpart D, or
ii) Where no treatment standards have been
established: Such residues are
prohibited from land disposal under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 728.132 or 728.139.
8) For owners and operators seeking an exemption to
the air emission standards of 724.Subpart CC in
accordance with Section 725.983:
???
A) If direct measurement is used for the waste
determination, the procedures and schedules
for waste sampling and analysis, and the
analysis of test data to verify the
exemption.
B) If knowledge of the waste is used for the
waste determination, any information prepared
by the facility owner or operator, or by the
generator of the waste if the waste is
received form from off-site, that is used as
the basis for knowledge of the waste.
c) For off-site facilities, the waste analysis plan
required in subsection (b) of this Section must also
specify the procedures that will be used to inspect
and, if necessary, analyze each movement of hazardous
waste received at the facility to ensure that it
matches the identity of the waste designated on the
accompanying manifest or shipping paper. At a minimum,
the plan must describe:
1) The procedures that will be used to determine the
identity of each movement of waste managed at the
facility; and
2) The sampling method that will be used to obtain a
representative sample of the waste to be
identified if the identification method includes
sampling.
3) The procedures that the owner or operator of an
off-site landfill receiving containerized
hazardous waste will use to determine whether a
hazardous waste generator or treater has added a
biodegradable sorbent to the waste in the
container.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART E: MANIFEST SYSTEM, RECORDKEEPING AND
REPORTING
Section 725.170 Applicability
The regulations in this subpart apply to owners and operators of
both on-site and off-site facilities, except as Section 725.101
provides otherwise. Sections 725.171, 725.172 and 725.176 do not
apply to owners and operators of on-site facilities that do not
receive any hazardous waste from off-site sources, nor do they
???
apply to owners and operators of off-site facilities with respect
to waste military munitions exempted from manifest requirements
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.303(a).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.171 Use of Manifest System
a) If a facility receives hazardous waste accompanied by a
manifest, the owner or operator or his agent must:
1) Sign and date each copy of the manifest to certify
that the hazardous waste covered by the manifest
was received;
2) Note any significant discrepancies in the
manifest, as defined in Section 725.172(a), on
each copy of the manifest;
BOARD NOTE: An owner or operator of a facility
whose procedures under Section 725.113(c) include
waste analysis need not perform that analysis
before signing the manifest and giving it to the
transporter. Section 725.172(b), however,
requires the owner or operator to report any
unreconciled discrepancy discovered during later
analysis.
3) Immediately give the transporter at least one copy
of the signed manifest;
4) Send a copy of the manifest to each of the
generator and the Agency within 30 days of the
date of delivery; and
5) Retain at the facility a copy of each manifest for
at least three years from the date of delivery.
b) If a facility receives from a rail or water (bulk
shipment) transporter hazardous waste that is
accompanied by a shipping paper containing all the
information required on the manifest (excluding the
USEPA identification numbers, generator’s certification
and signatures), the owner or operator or its agent
must:
1) Sign and date each copy of the manifest or
shipping paper (if the manifest has not been
received) to certify that the hazardous waste
covered by the manifest or shipping paper was
received;
???
2) Note any significant discrepancies, as defined in
Section 725.172(a), in the manifest or shipping
paper (if the manifest has not been received) on
each copy of the manifest or shipping paper;
BOARD NOTE: The owner or operator of a facility
whose procedures under Section 725.113(c) include
waste analysis need not perform that analysis
before signing the shipping paper and giving it to
the transporter. Section 725.172(b), however,
requires reporting an unreconciled discrepancy
discovered during later analysis.
3) Immediately give the rail or water (bulk shipment)
transporter at least one copy of the manifest or
shipping paper (if the manifest has not been
received);
4) Send a copy of the signed and dated manifest to
the generator and to the Agency within 30 days
after the delivery; however, if the manifest has
not been received within 30 days after delivery,
the owner or operator, or his agent, must send a
copy of the shipping paper signed and dated to the
generator; and
BOARD NOTE: 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.123(c) requires
the generator to send three copies of the manifest
to the facility when hazardous waste is sent by
rail or water (bulk shipment).
5) Retain at the facility a copy of the manifest and
shipping paper (if signed in lieu of the manifest
at the time of delivery) for at least three years
from the date of delivery.
c) Whenever a shipment of hazardous waste is initiated
from a facility, the owner or operator of that facility
must comply with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.
BOARD NOTE: The provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.134 are applicable to the on-site accumulation of
hazardous wastes by generators. Therefore, the
provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134 apply only to
owners or operators that are shipping hazardous waste
that they generated at that facility.
d) Within three working days of the receipt of a shipment
subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.Subpart H, the owner
or operator of the facility must provide a copy of the
???
tracking document bearing all required signatures to
the notifier; to the Office of Enforcement and
Compliance Assurance, Office of Compliance, Enforcement
Planning, Targeting and Data Division (2222A),
Environmental Protection Agency, 401 M St., SW,
Washington, DC 20460; to the Bureau of Land, Division
of Land Pollution Control, Illinois Environmental
Protection Agency, P.O. Box 19276, Springfield, IL
62794-9276; and to competent authorities of all other
concerned countries. The original copy of the tracking
document must be maintained at the facility for at
least three years from the date of signature.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART J: TANK SYSTEMS
Section 725.298 Special Requirements for Ignitable or
Reactive Waste
a) Ignitable or reactive waste must not be placed in a
tank system, unless:
1) The waste is treated, rendered or mixed before or
immediately after placement in the tank system so
that
A) The resulting waste, mixture or dissolved
material no longer meets the definition of
ignitable or reactive waste under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.121 or 721.123 and
B) Section 725.117(b) is complied with; or
2) The waste is stored or treated in such a way that
it is protected from any material or conditions
which may cause the waste to ignite or react; or
3) The tank system is used solely for emergencies.
b) The owner or operator of a facility where ignitable or
reactive waste is stored or tested in tanks shall
comply with the requirements for the maintenance of
protective distances between the waste management area
and any public ways, streets, alleys or an adjoining
property line that can be built upon as required in
Tables 2-1 through 2-6 of the National Fire Protection
Association’s “Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code,”
NFPA 30, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111.
???
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.301 Generators of 100 to 1000 kg/mo Kilograms of
Hazardous Waste Per Month
a) The requirements of this Section apply to small
quantity generators that generate more than 100 kg but
less than 1000 kg of hazardous waste in a calendar
month, that accumulate hazardous waste in tanks for
less than 180 days (or 270 days if the generator must
ship the waste greater than 200 miles), and that do not
accumulate over 6,000 kg on-site at any time.
b) A generator of between 100 and 1000 kg/mo hazardous
waste shall comply with the following general operating
requirements:
1) Treatment or storage of hazardous waste in tanks
must comply with Section 725.117(b);
2) Hazardous wastes or treatment reagents must not be
placed in a tank if they could cause the tank or
its inner liner to rupture, leak, corrode, or
otherwise fail before the end of its intended
life;
3) Uncovered tanks must be operated to ensure at
least 60 centimeters (2 feet) of freeboard unless
the tank is equipped with a containment structure
(e.g., dike or trench), a drainage control system,
or a diversion structure (e.g., standby tank) with
a capacity that equals or exceeds the volume of
the top 60 centimeters (2 feet) of the tank; and
4) Where hazardous waste is continuously fed into a
tank, the tank must be equipped with a means to
stop this inflow (e.g., waste feed cutoff system
or by-pass system to a stand-by tank).
BOARD NOTE: These systems are intended to be used
in the event of a leak or overflow from the tank
due to a system failure (e.g., a malfunction in
the treatment process, a crack in the tank, etc.).
c) A generator of between 100 and 1000 kg/mo accumulating
hazardous waste in tanks shall inspect, where present:
1) Discharge control equipment (e.g., waste feed
cutoff systems, by-pass systems, and drainage
???
systems) at least once each operating day, to
ensure that it is in good working order;
2) Data gathered from monitoring equipment (e.g.,
pressure and temperature gauges) at least once
each operating day to ensure that the tank is
being operated according to its design;
3) The level of waste in the tank at least once each
operating day to ensure compliance with subsection
(b)(3) above;
4) The construction materials of the tank at least
weekly to detect corrosion or leaking of fixtures
or seams; and
5) The construction materials of and the area
immediately surrounding discharge confinement
structures (e.g., dikes) at least weekly to detect
erosion or obvious signs of leakage (e.g., wet
spots or dead vegetation).
BOARD NOTE: As required by Section 725.115(c),
the owner or operator must remedy any
deterioration or malfunction the owner or operator
finds.
d) A generator of between 100 and 1000 kg/mo accumulating
hazardous waste in tanks shall, upon closure of the
facility, remove all hazardous waste from tanks,
discharge control equipment and discharge confinement
structures.
BOARD NOTE: At closure, as throughout the operating
period, unless the owner or operator demonstrates, in
accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(d) or (e),
that any solid waste removed from the tank is not a
hazardous waste, the owner or operator becomes a
generator of hazardous waste and must manage it in
accordance with all applicable requirements of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 722, 723, and 725.
e) A generator of between 100 and 1000 kg/mo shall comply
with the following special requirements for ignitable
or reactive waste:
1) Ignitable or reactive waste must not be placed in
a tank unless:
A) The waste is treated, rendered, or mixed
before or immediately after placement in a
tank so that;
???
i) The resulting waste, mixture, or
dissolution of material no longer meets
the definition of ignitable or reactive
waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121 or
721.123, and
ii) Section 725.117(b) is complied with;
B) The waste is stored or treated in such a way
that it is protected from any material or
conditions that may cause the waste to ignite
or react; or
C) The tank is used solely for emergencies.
2) The owner or operator of a facility that treats or
stores ignitable or reactive waste in covered
tanks shall comply with the buffer zone
requirements for tanks contained in Tables 2-1
through 2-6 of the National Fire Protection
Association’s “Flammable and Combustible Liquids
Code,” NFPA 30, incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
f) A generator of between 100 and 1000 kg/mo shall comply
with the following special requirements for
incompatible wastes:
1) Incompatible wastes or incompatible wastes and
materials (see Appendix E for examples) must not
be placed in the same tank unless Section
725.117(b) is complied with.
2) Hazardous waste must not be placed in an unwashed
tank that previously held an incompatible waste or
material unless Section 725.117(b) is complied
with.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART N: LANDFILLS
Section 725.414 Special Requirements for Liquid Wastes
a) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 265.314(a),
which pertains to the placement of bulk or non-
containerized liquid waste or waste containing free
liquids in a landfill prior to May 8, 1985. This
???
statement maintains structural consistency with USEPA
rules.
b) The placement of bulk or non-containerized liquid
hazardous waste or hazardous waste containing free
liquids (whether or not sorbents have been added) in
any landfill is prohibited.
c) Containers holding free liquids must not be placed in a
landfill unless:
1) All free-standing liquid:
A) has been removed by decanting or other
methods;
B) has been mixed with sorbent or solidified so
that free-standing liquid is no longer
observed; or
C) has been otherwise eliminated; or
2) The container is very small, such as an ampule; or
3) The container is designed to hold free liquids for
use other than storage, such as a battery or
capacitor; or
4) The container is a lab pack as defined in Section
724.416 and is disposed of in accordance with
Section 724.416.
d) To demonstrate the absence or presence of free liquids
in either a containerized or a bulk waste, the
following test must be used: Method 9095 (Paint Filter
Liquids Test), as described in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Wastes, Physical/Chemical Methods”,
USEPA Publication No. SW-846, incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
e) The placement of any liquids that is not a hazardous
waste in a landfill is prohibited (35 Ill. Adm. Code
729.311).
f) Sorbents used to treat free liquids to be disposed of
in landfills must be nonbiodegradable.
Nonbiodegradable sorbents are: materials listed or
described in subsection (f)(1) of this Section;
materials that pass one of the tests in subsection (f)-
(2) of this Section; or materials that are determined
by the Board to be nonbiodegradable through the 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 106 adjusted standard process.
???
1) Nonbiodegradable sorbents are:
A) Inorganic minerals, other inorganic
materials, and elemental carbon (e.g.,
aluminosilicates, clays, smectites, Fuller’s
earth, bentonite, calcium bentonite,
montmorillonite, calcined montmorillonite,
kaolinite, micas (illite), vermiculites,
zeolites; calcium carbonate (organic free
limestone); oxides/hydroxides, alumina, lime,
silica (sand), diatomaceous earth; perlite
(volcanic glass); expanded volcanic rock;
volcanic ash; cement kiln dust; fly ash; rice
hull ash; activated charcoal/activated
carbon); or
B) High molecular weight synthetic polymers
(e.g., polyethylene, high density
polyethylene (HDPE), polypropylene,
polystyrene, polyurethane, polyacrylate,
polynorborene, polyisobutylene, ground
synthetic rubber, cross-linked allylstyrene
and tertiary butyl copolymers). This does
not include polymers derived from biological
material or polymers specifically designed to
be degradable; or
C) Mixtures of these nonbiodegradable materials.
2) Tests for nonbiodegradable sorbents.
A) The sorbent material is determined to be
nonbiodegradable under ASTM Method G21-70
(1984a)--”Standard Practice for Determining
Resistance of Synthetic Polymer Materials to
Fungi”, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111;
B) The sorbent material is determined to be
nonbiodegradable under ASTM Method G22-76
(1984b)--”Standard Practice for Determining
Resistance of Plastics to Bacteria”,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111; or
C) The sorbent material is determined to be non-
biodegradable under OECD test 301B (CO
2
Evolution (Modified Sturm Test)),
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111.
???
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART AA: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR PROCESS VENTS
Section 725.933 Standards: Closed-ventVent Systems and
Control Devices
a) Compliance Required.
1) Owners or operators of closed-vent systems and
control devices used to comply with provisions of
this Part shall comply with the provisions of this
Section.
2) The owner or operator of an existing facility that
cannot install a closed-vent system and control
device to comply with the provisions of this
Subpart on the effective date that the facility
becomes subject to the provisions of this Subpart
shall prepare an implementation schedule that
includes dates by which the closed-vent system and
control device will be installed and in
operation. The controls must be installed as soon
as possible, but the implementation schedule may
allow up to 30 months after the effective date
that the facility becomes subject to this Subpart
for installation and startup. All units that
begin operation after December 21, 1990, must
comply with the rules immediately (i.e., must have
control devices installed and operating on startup
of the affected unit); the 2-year implementation
schedule does not apply to these units.
b) A control device involving vapor recovery (e.g., a
condenser or adsorber) must be designed and operated to
recover the organic vapors vented to it with an
efficiency of 95 weight percent or greater unless the
total organic emission limits of Section 725.932(a)(1)
for all affected process vents is attained at an
efficiency less than 95 weight percent.
c) An enclosed combustion device (e.g., a vapor
incinerator, boiler, or process heater) must be
designed and operated to reduce the organic emissions
vented to it by 95 weight percent or greater; to
achieve a total organic compound concentration of 20
ppmv, expressed as the sum of the actual compounds, not
carbon equivalents, on a dry basis corrected to three
percent oxygen; or to provide a minimum residence time
of 0.50 seconds at a minimum temperature of 760° C. If
???
a boiler or process heater is used as the control
device, then the vent stream must be introduced into
the flame combustion zone of the boiler or process
heater.
d) Flares.
1) A flare must be designed for and operated with no
visible emissions as determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(1) of this Section
except for periods not to exceed a total of 5
minutes during any 2 consecutive hours.
2) A flare must be operated with a flame present at
all times, as determined by the methods specified
in subsection (f)(2)(c) of this Section.
3) A flare must be used only if the net heating value
of the gas being combusted is 11.2 MJ/scm (300
Btu/scf) or greater if the flare is steam-assisted
or air-assisted, or if the net heating value of
the gas being combusted is 7.45 MJ/scm (200
Btu/scf) or greater if the flare is nonassisted.
The net heating value of the gas being combusted
must be determined by the methods specified in
subsection (e)(2) of this Section.
4) Exit Velocity.
A) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare must be
designed for and operated with an exit
velocity, as determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(3) of this
Section, less than 18.3 m/s (60 ft/s), except
as provided in subsections (d)(4)(B) and (d)-
(4)(C) of this Section.
B) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare
designed for and operated with an exit
velocity, as determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(3) of this
Section, equal to or greater than 18.3 m/s
(60 ft/s) but less than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is
allowed if the net heating value of the gas
being combusted is greater than 37.3 MJ/scm
(1000 Btu/scf).
C) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare
designed for and operated with an exit
velocity, as determined by the methods
specified in subsection (e)(3) of this
Section, less than the velocity, V as
???
determined by the method specified in
subsection (e)(4) and less than 122 m/s (400
ft/s) is allowed.
5) An air-assisted flare must be designed and
operated with an exit velocity less than the
velocity, V as determined by the method specified
in subsection (e)(5) of this Section.
6) A flare used to comply with this Section must be
steam-assisted, air-assisted, or nonassisted.
e) Compliance determination and equations.
1) Reference Method 22 in 40 CFR 60, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, must be
used to determine the compliance of a flare with
the visible emission provisions of this Subpart.
The observation period is 2 hours and must be used
according to Method 22.
2) The net heating value of the gas being combusted
in a flare must be calculated using the following
equation:
Where:
H
T is the net heating value of the sample in
MJ/scm; where the net enthalpy per mole of
offgas is based on combustion at 25° C and
760 mm Hg, but the standard temperature for
determining the volume corrersponding to 1
mole is 20° C.
K = 1.74
×
10
-7
(1/ppm)(g mol/scm)(MJ/kcal)
where the standard temperature for (g
mol/scm) is 20° C.
S
Σ
X
i means the sum of the values of X for
each component i, from i=1 to n.
C
i is the concentration of sample component i
in ppm on a wet basis, as measured for
organics by Reference Method 18 in 40 CFR 60,
T
i i
H
=K
i
n
C
H
×
=
∑
×
1
???
and for carbon monoxide, by ASTM D 1946-90,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111.
H
i is the net heat of combustion of sample
component i, kcal/gmol at 25° C and 760 mm
Hg. The heats of combustion must be
determined using ASTM D 2382-88, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, if
published values are not available or cannot
be calculated.
3) The actual exit velocity of a flare must be
determined by dividing the volumetric flow rate
(in units of standard temperature and pressure),
as determined by Reference Methods 2, 2A, 2C, or
2D in 40 CFR 60, incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, as appropriate, by the
unobstructed (free) cross-sectional area of the
flare tip.
4) The maximum allowed velocity in m/s, V for a flare
complying with subsection (d)(4)(C) of this
Section must be determined by the following
equation:
Where:
Log
10 log
10 means logarithm to the base 10
H
T is the net heating value as determined in
subsection (e)(2) of this Section.
5) The maximum allowed velocity in m/s, V for an air-
assisted flare must be determined by the following
equation:
Where:
H
T is the net heating value as determined in
subsection (e)(2) of this Section.
(
)
log
.
.
max
10
28 8
317
V
HT
=
+
V = 8.706 +0.7084 HT
???
f) The owner or operator shall monitor and inspect each
control device required to comply with this Section to
ensure proper operation and maintenance of the control
device by implementing the following requirements:
1) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate
according to the manufacturer’s specifications a
flow indicator that provides a record of vent
stream flow from each affected process vent to the
control device at least once every hour. The flow
indicator sensor must be installed in the vent
stream at the nearest feasible point to the
control device inlet but before being combined
with other vent streams.
2) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate
according to the manufacturer’s specifications a
device to continuously monitor control device
operation as specified below:
A) For a thermal vapor incinerator, a
temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must have
accuracy of ±1% of the temperature being
monitored in ° C or ± 0.5° C, whichever is
greater. The temperature sensor must be
installed at a location in the combustion
chamber downstream of the combustion zone.
B) For a catalytic vapor incinerator, a
temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must be
capable of monitoring temperature at two
locations and have an accuracy of ±1% of the
temperature being monitored in ° C or ± 0.5°
C, whichever is greater. One temperature
sensor must be installed in the vent stream
at the nearest feasible point to the catalyst
bed inlet and a second temperature sensor
must be installed in the vent stream at the
nearest feasible point to the catalyst bed
outlet.
C) For a flare, a heat sensing monitoring device
equipped with a continuous recorder that
indicates the continuous ignition of the
pilot flame.
D) For a boiler or process heater having a
design heat input capacity less than 44 MW, a
temperature monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder. The device must have an
???
accuracy of ±1% of the temperature being
monitored in ° C or ± 0.5° C, whichever is
greater. The temperature sensor must be
installed at a location in the furnace
downstream of the combustion zone.
E) For a boiler or process heater having a
design heat input capacity greater than or
equal to 44 MW, a monitoring device equipped
with a continuous recorder to measure
parameters that indicate good combustion
operating practices are being used.
F) For a condenser, either:
i) A monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder to measure the
concentration level of the organic
compounds in the exhaust vent stream
from the condenser; or
ii) A temperature monitoring device equipped
with a continuous recorder. The device
must be capable of monitoring
temperature with an accuracy of ±1% of
the temperature being monitored in
degrees Celsius (° C) or ±0.5° C,
whichever is greater. The temperature
sensor must be installed at a location
in the exhaust vent stream from the
condenser exit (i.e., product side).
G) For a carbon adsorption system such as a
fixed-bed carbon adsorber that regenerates
the carbon bed directly in the control
device, either:
i) A monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder to measure the
concentration level of the organic
compounds in the exhaust vent stream
from the carbon bed; or
ii) A monitoring device equipped with a
continuous recorder to measure a
parameter that indicates the carbon bed
is regenerated on a regular,
predetermined time cycle.
3) Inspect the readings from each monitoring device
required by subsections (f)(1) and (f)(2) of this
Section at least once each operating day to check
???
control device operation and, if necessary,
immediately implement the corrective measures
necessary to ensure the control device operates in
compliance with the requirements of this Section.
g) An owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system
such as a fixed-bed carbon adsorber that regenerates
the carbon bed directly onsite in the control device
shall replace the existing carbon in the control device
with fresh carbon at a regular, predetermined time
interval that is no longer than the carbon service life
established as a requirement of Section 725.935(b)(4)-
(C)(vi).
h) An owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system,
such as a carbon canister, that does not regenerate the
carbon bed directly onsite in the control device shall
replace the existing carbon in the control device with
fresh carbon on a regular basis by using one of the
following procedures:
1) Monitor the concentration level of the organic
compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the
carbon adsorption system on a regular schedule,
and replace the existing carbon with fresh carbon
immediately when carbon breakthrough is
indicated. The monitoring frequency must be daily
or at an interval no greater than 20% of the time
required to consume the total carbon working
capacity established as a requirement of Section
725.935(b)(4)(C)(vii), whichever is longer.
2) Replace the existing carbon with fresh carbon at a
regular, predetermined time interval that is less
than the design carbon replacement interval
established as a requirement of Section
725.935(b)(4)(C)(vii).
i) An owner or operator of an affected facility seeking to
comply with the provisions of this Part by using a
control device other than a thermal vapor incinerator,
catalytic vapor incinerator, flare, boiler, process
heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption system is
required to develop documentation including sufficient
information to describe the control device operation
and identify the process parameter or parameters that
indicate proper operation and maintenance of the
control device.
j) A closed vent closed-vent system must meet either of
the following design requirements:
???
1) A closed-vent system must be designed to operate
with no detectable emissions, as indicated by an
instrument reading of less than 500 ppmv above
background, as determined by the methods specified
at Section 725.934(b), and by visual inspections;
or
2) A closed-vent system must be designed to operate
at a pressure below atmospheric pressure. The
system must be equipped with at least one pressure
gauge or other pressure measurement device that
can be read from a readily accessible location to
verify that negative pressure is being maintained
in the closed-vent system when the control device
is operating.
k) The owner or operator shall monitor and inspect each
closed-vent system required to comply with this Section
to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the
closed-vent system by implementing the following
requirements:
1) Each closed-vent system that is used to comply
with subsection (j)(1) of this Section shall be
inspected and monitored in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) An initial leak detection monitoring of the
closed-vent system shall be conducted by the
owner or operator on or before the date that
the system becomes subject to this Section.
The owner or operator shall monitor the
closed-vent system components and connections
using the procedures specified in Section
725.934(b) to demonstrate that the closed-
vent system operates with no detectable
emissions, as indicated by an instrument
reading of less than 500 ppmv above
background.
B) After initial leak detection monitoring
required in subsection (k)(1)(A) of this
Section, the owner or operator shall inspect
and monitor the closed-vent system as
follows:
i) Closed-vent system joints, seams, or
other connections that are permanently
or semi-permanently sealed (e.g., a
welded joint between two sections of
hard piping or a bolted and gasketed
ducting flange) must be visually
???
inspected at least once per year to
check for defects that could result in
air pollutant emissions. The owner or
operator shall monitor a component or
connection using the procedures
specified in Section 725.934(b) to
demonstrate that it operates with no
detectable emissions following any time
the component is repaired or replaced
(e.g., a section of damaged hard piping
is replaced with new hard piping) or the
connection is unsealed (e.g., a flange
is unbolted).
ii) Closed-vent system components or
connections other than those specified
in subsection (k)(1)(B)(i) of this
Section must be monitored annually and
at other times as requested by the
Regional Administrator, except as
provided for in subsection (n) of this
Section, using the procedures specified
in Section 725.934(b) to demonstrate
that the components or connections
operate with no detectable emissions.
C) In the event that a defect or leak is
detected, the owner or operator shall repair
the defect or leak in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (k)(3) of this
Section.
D) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection and monitoring in
accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 725.935.
2) Each closed-vent system that is used to comply
with subsection (j)(2) of this Section must be
inspected and monitored in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) The closed-vent system must be visually
inspected by the owner or operator to check
for defects that could result in air
pollutant emissions. Defects include, but
are not limited to, visible cracks, holes, or
gaps in ductwork or piping or loose
connections.
B) The owner or operator shall perform an
initial inspection of the closed-vent system
???
on or before the date that the system becomes
subject to this Section. Thereafter, the
owner or operator shall perform the
inspections at least once every year.
C) In the event that a defect or leak is
detected, the owner or operator shall repair
the defect in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (k)(3) of this
Section.
D) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection and monitoring in
accordance with the requirements specified in
Section 725.935.
3) The owner or operator shall repair all detected
defects as follows:
A) Detectable emissions, as indicated by visual
inspection or by an instrument reading
greater than 500 ppmv above background, must
be controlled as soon as practicable, but not
later than 15 calendar days after the
emission is detected, except as provided for
in subsection (k)(3)(C) of this Section.
B) A first attempt at repair must be made no
later than five calendar days after the
emission is detected.
C) Delay of repair of a closed-vent system for
which leaks have been detected is allowed if
the repair is technically infeasible without
a process unit shutdown, or if the owner or
operator determines that emissions resulting
from immediate repair would be greater than
the fugitive emissions likely to result from
delay of repair. Repair of such equipment
must be completed by the end of the next
process unit shutdown.
D) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the defect repair in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 725.935.
l) A closed-vent system or control device used to comply
with provisions of this Subpart must be operated at all
times when emissions may be vented to it.
m) The owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system
to control air pollutant emissions shall document that
???
all carbon removed that is a hazardous waste and that
is removed from the control device is managed in one of
the following manners, regardless of the volatile
organic concentration of the carbon:
1) It is regenerated or reactivated in a thermal
treatment unit that meets one of the following:
A) The owner or operator of the unit has been
issued a final permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
702, 703, and 705 that implements the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart
X; or
B) The unit is equipped with and operating air
emission controls in accordance with the
applicable requirements of 725.Subparts AA
and CC or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724; or
C) The unit is equipped with and operating air
emission controls in accordance with a
national emission standard for hazardous air
pollutants under 40 CFR 61 or 40 CFR 63.
2) It is incinerated in a hazardous waste incinerator
for which the owner or operator has done either of
the following:
A) The owner or operator has been issued a final
permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and
705 that implements the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart O, or
B) The owner or operator has designed and
operates the incinerator in accordance with
the interim status requirements of
725.Subpart O.
3) It is burned in a boiler or industrial furnace for
which the owner or operator has done either of the
following:
A) The owner or operator has been issued a final
permit under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and
705 that implements the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.Subpart H, or
B) The owner or operator has designed and
operates the boiler or industrial furnace in
accordance with the interim status
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.Subpart
H.
???
n) Any components of a closed-vent system that are
designated, as described in Section 725.935(c)(9), as
unsafe to monitor are exempt from the requirements of
subsection (k)(1)(B)(ii) of this Section if both of the
following conditions are fulfilled:
1) The owner or operator of the closed-vent system
has determined that the components of the closed-
vent system are unsafe to monitor because
monitoring personnel would be exposed to an
immediate danger as a consequence of complying
with subsection (k)(1)(B)(ii) of this Section; and
2) The owner or operator of the closed-vent system
adheres to a written plan that requires monitoring
the closed-vent system components using the
procedure specified in subsection (k)(1)(B)(ii) of
this Section as frequently as practicable during
safe-to-monitor times.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.934 Test Methods and Procedures
a) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of
this Subpart shall comply with the test methods and
procedures requirements provided in this Section.
b) When a closed-vent system is tested for compliance with
no detectable emissions, as required in Section
725.933(k), the test must comply with the following
requirements:
1) Monitoring must comply with Reference Method 21 in
40 CFR 60, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111.
2) The detection instrument must meet the performance
criteria of Reference Method 21.
3) The instrument must be calibrated before use on
each day of its use by the procedures specified in
Reference Method 21.
4) Calibration gases must be:
A) Zero air (less than 10 ppm of hydrocarbon in
air).
???
B) A mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a
concentration of approximately, but less
than, 10,000 ppm methane or n-hexane.
5) The background level must be determined as set
forth in Reference Method 21.
6) The instrument probe must be traversed around all
potential leak interfaces as close to the
interface as possible, as described in Reference
Method 21.
7) The arithmetic difference between the maximum
concentration indicated by the instrument and the
background level is compared with 500 ppm for
determining compliance.
c) Performance tests to determine compliance with Section
725.932(a) and with the total organic compound
concentration limit of Section 725.933(c) must comply
with the following:
1) Performance tests to determine total organic
compound concentrations and mass flow rates
entering and exiting control devices must be
conducted and data reduced in accordance with the
following reference methods and calculation
procedures:
A) Method 2 in 40 CFR 60 for velocity and
volumetric flow rate.
B) Method 18 in 40 CFR 60 for organic content.
C) Each performance test must consist of three
separate runs, each run conducted for at
least 1 hour under the conditions that exist
when the hazardous waste management unit is
operating at the highest load or capacity
level reasonably expected to occur. For the
purpose of determining total organic compound
concentrations and mass flow rates, the
average of results of all runs applies. The
average must be computed on a time-weighed
basis.
D) Total organic mass flow rates must be
determined by the following equation:
???
h
2sd
i
i
-6
E
= Q
x(
n
i = 1
C
x MW
)x0.0416x10
∑
Where:
E
h = The total organic mass flow rate,
kg/h.
Q
2sd = The volumetric flow rate of gases
entering or exiting control device,
dscm/h, as determined by Method 2 in 40
CFR 60, incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
n = The number of organic compounds in
the vent gas.
C
i = The organic concentration in ppm,
dry basis, of compound i in the vent
gas, as determined by Method 18 in 40
CFR 60.
MW
i = The molecular weight of organic
compound i in the vent gas, kg/kg-mol.
0.0416 = The conversion factor for molar
volume, kg-mol/m
3
, at 293 K and 760 mm
Hg.
10
6
10
-6
= The conversion factor from
ppm.
E) The annual total organic emission rate must
be determined by the following equation:
A = F
×
H
Where:
A is total organic emission rate, kg/y.
F is the total organic mass flow rate,
kg/h, as calculated in subsection (c)-
(1)(D) of this Section.
H is the total annual hours of operation
for the affected unit.
???
F) Total organic emissions from all affected
process vents at the facility must be
determined by summing the hourly total
organic mass emissions rates (F as determined
in subsection (c)(1)(D) of this Section) and
by summing the annual total organic mass
emission rates (A as determined in subsection
(c)(1)(E) of this Section) for all affected
process vents at the facility.
2) The owner or operator shall record such process
information as is necessary to determine the
conditions of the performance tests. Operations
during periods of startup, shutdown and
malfunction do not constitute representative
conditions for the purpose of a performance test.
3) The owner or operator of an affected facility
shall provide, or cause to be provided,
performance testing facilities as follows:
A) Sampling ports adequate for the test methods
specified in subsection (c)(1) of this
Section.
B) Safe sampling platform(s).
C) Safe access to sampling platform(s).
D) Utilities for sampling and testing equipment.
4) For the purpose of making compliance
determinations, the time-weighted average of the
results of the three runs must apply. In the
event that a sample is accidentally lost or
conditions occur in which one of the three runs
must be discontinued because of forced shutdown,
failure of an irreplaceable portion of the sample
train, extreme meteorological conditions or other
circumstances beyond the owner or operator’s
control, compliance may, upon the Agency’s
approval, be determined using the average of the
results of the two other runs.
d) To show that a process vent associated with a hazardous
waste distillation, fractionation, thin-film
evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam
stripping operation is not subject to the requirements
of this Subpart, the owner or operator shall make an
initial determination that the time-weighted, annual
average total organic concentration of the waste
???
managed by the waste management unit is less than 10
ppmw using one of the following two methods:
1) Direct measurement of the organic concentration of
the waste using the following procedures:
A) The owner or operator shall take a minimum of
four grab samples of waste for each
wastestream managed in the affected unit
under process conditions expected to cause
the maximum waste organic concentration.
B) For waste generated onsite, the grab samples
must be collected at a point before the waste
is exposed to the atmosphere such as in an
enclosed pipe or other closed system that is
used to transfer the waste after generation
to the first affected distillation,
fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent
extraction, or air or steam stripping
operation. For waste generated offsite, the
grab samples must be collected at the inlet
to the first waste management unit that
receives the waste provided the waste has
been transferred to the facility in a closed
system such as a tank truck and the waste is
not diluted or mixed with other waste.
C) Each sample must be analyzed and the total
organic concentration of the sample must be
computed using Method 9060 or 8240 8260 of
SW-846, incorporated by reference under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
D) The arithmetic mean of the results of the
analyses of the four samples apply for each
wastestream managed in the unit in
determining the time-weighted, annual average
total organic concentration of the waste.
The time-weighted average is to be calculated
using the annual quantity of each waste
stream processed and the mean organic
concentration of each wastestream managed in
the unit.
2) Using knowledge of the waste to determine that its
total organic concentration is less than 10 ppmw.
Documentation of the waste determination is
required. Examples of documentation that must be
used to support a determination under this
subsection (d)(2) include:
???
A) Production process information documenting
that no organic compounds are used;
B) Information that the waste is generated by a
process that is identical to a process at the
same or another facility that has previously
been demonstrated by direct measurement to
generate a wastestream having a total organic
content less than 10 ppmw; or
C) Prior speciation analysis results on the same
wastestream where it is documented that no
process changes have occurred since that
analysis that could affect the waste total
organic concentration.
e) The determination that distillation, fractionation,
thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or
steam stripping operations which manage hazardous
wastes with time-weighted, annual average total organic
concentrations less than 10 ppmw must be made as
follows:
1) By the effective date that the facility becomes
subject to the provisions of this Subpart or by
the date when the waste is first managed in a
waste management unit, whichever is later; and
2) For continuously generated waste, annually; or
3) Whenever there is a change in the waste being
managed or a change in the process that generates
or treats the waste.
f) When an owner or operator and the Agency do not agree
on whether a distillation, fractionation, thin-film
evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam
stripping operation manages a hazardous waste with
organic concentrations of at least 10 ppmw based on
knowledge of the waste, the procedures in Method 8240
8260 in SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111, must be used to resolve the dispute.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
???
SUBPART BB: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR EQUIPMENT LEAKS
Section 725.963 Test Methods and Procedures
a) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions of
this Subpart shall comply with the test methods and
procedures requirements provided in this Section.
b) Leak detection monitoring, as required in Sections
725.952 through 725.962, must comply with the following
requirements:
1) Monitoring must comply with Reference Method 21 in
40 CFR 60, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111.
2) The detection instrument must meet the performance
criteria of Reference Method 21.
3) The instrument must be calibrated before use on
each day of its use by the procedures specified in
Reference Method 21.
4) Calibration gases must be:
A) Zero air (less than 10 ppm of hydrocarbon in
air).
B) A mixture of methane or n-hexane and air at a
concentration of approximately, but less
than, 10,000 ppm methane or n-hexane.
5) The instrument probe must be traversed around all
potential leak interfaces as close to the
interface as possible as described in Reference
Method 21.
c) When equipment is tested for compliance with no
detectable emissions, as required in Sections
725.952(e), 725.953(i), 725.954, and 725.957(f), the
test must comply with the following requirements:
1) The requirements of subsections (b)(1) through
(b)(4) above apply.
2) The background level must be determined as set
forth in Reference Method 21.
3) The instrument probe must be traversed around all
potential leak interfaces as close to the
interface as possible as described in Reference
Method 21.
???
4) This arithmetic difference between the maximum
concentration indicated by the instrument and the
background level is compared with 500 ppm for
determining compliance.
d) In accordance with the waste analysis plan required by
Section 725.113(b), an owner or operator of a facility
shall determine, for each piece of equipment, whether
the equipment contains or contacts a hazardous waste
with organic concentration that equals or exceeds 10
percent by weight using the following:
1) Methods described in ASTM Methods D 2267-88, E
168-88, E 169-87, or E 260-85, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111;
2) Method 9060 or 8240 8260 of SW-846, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111; or
3) Application of the knowledge of the nature of the
hazardous wastestream or the process by which it
was produced. Documentation of a waste
determination by knowledge is required. Examples
of documentation that must be used to support a
determination under this provision include
production process information documenting that no
organic compounds are used, information that the
waste is generated by a process that is identical
to a process at the same or another facility that
has previously been demonstrated by direct
measurement to have a total organic content less
than 10 percent, or prior speciation analysis
results on the same wastestream where it is also
documented that no process changes have occurred
since that analysis that could affect the waste
total organic concentration.
e) If an owner or operator determines that a piece of
equipment contains or contacts a hazardous waste with
organic concentrations at least 10 percent by weight,
the determination can be revised only after following
the procedures in subsection (d)(1) or (d)(2) above.
f) When an owner or operator and the Agency do not agree
on whether a piece of equipment contains or contacts a
hazardous waste with organic concentrations at least 10
percent by weight, the procedures in subsection (d)(1)
or (d)(2) above must be used to resolve the dispute.
g) Samples used in determining the percent organic content
must be representative of the highest total organic
???
content hazardous waste that is expected to be
contained in or contact the equipment.
h) To determine if pumps or valves are in light liquid
service, the vapor pressures of constituents must
either be obtained from standard reference texts or be
determined by ASTM D 2879-8692, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
i) Performance tests to determine if a control device
achieves 95 weight percent organic emission reduction
must comply with the procedures of Section 725.934(c)-
(1) through (c)(4).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.964 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Lumping Units
1) Each owner or operator subject to the provisions
of this Subpart shall comply with the
recordkeeping requirements of this Section.
2) An owner or operator of more than one hazardous
waste management unit subject to the provisions of
this Subpart may comply with the recordkeeping
requirements for these hazardous waste management
units in one recordkeeping system if the system
identifies each record by each hazardous waste
management unit.
b) Owners and operators shall record the following
information in the facility operating record:
1) For each piece of equipment to which this Subpart
applies:
A) Equipment identification number and hazardous
waste management unit identification.
B) Approximate locations within the facility
(e.g., identify the hazardous waste
management unit on a facility plot plan).
C) Type of equipment (e.g., a pump or pipeline
valve).
D) Percent-by-weight total organics in the
hazardous wastestream at the equipment.
???
E) Hazardous waste state at the equipment (e.g.,
gas/vapor or liquid).
F) Method of compliance with the standard (e.g.,
“monthly leak detection and repair” or
“equipped with dual mechanical seals”).
2) For facilities than that comply with the
provisions of Section 725.933(a)(2), an
implementation schedule as specified in that
Section.
3) Where an owner or operator chooses to use test
data to demonstrate the organic removal efficiency
or total organic compound concentration achieved
by the control device, a performance test plan as
specified in Section 725.935(b)(3).
4) Documentation of compliance with Section 725.960,
including the detailed design documentation or
performance test results specified in Section
725.935(b)(4).
c) When each leak is detected as specified in Sections
725.952, 725.953, 725.957 or 725.958, the following
requirements apply:
1) A weatherproof and readily visible identification,
marked with the equipment identification number,
the date evidence of a potential leak was found in
accordance with Section 725.958(a), and the date
the leak was detected, must be attached to the
leaking equipment.
2) The identification on equipment except on a valve,
may be removed after it has been repaired.
3) The identification on a valve may be removed after
it has been monitored for 2 successive months as
specified in Section 725.957(c) and no leak has
been detected during those 2 months.
d) When each leak is detected as specified in Sections
725.952, 725.953, 725.957 or 725.958, the following
information must be recorded in an inspection log and
must be kept in the facility operating record:
1) The instrument and operator identification numbers
and the equipment identification number.
2) The date evidence of a potential leak was found in
accordance with Section 725.958(a).
???
3) The date the leak was detected and the dates of
each attempt to repair the leak.
4) Repair methods applied in each attempt to repair
the leak.
5) “Above 10,000”, if the maximum instrument reading
measured by the methods specified in Section
725.963(b) after each repair attempt is equal to
or greater than 10,000 ppm.
6) “Repair delayed” and the reason for the delay if a
leak is not repaired within 15 calendar days after
discovery of the leak.
7) Documentation supporting the delay of repair of a
valve in compliance with Section 725.959(c).
8) The signature of the owner or operator (or
designate) whose decision it was that repair could
not be effected without a hazardous waste
management unit shutdown.
9) The expected date of successful repair of the leak
if a leak is not repaired within 15 calendar days.
10) The date of successful repair of the leak.
e) Design documentation and monitoring, operating and
inspection information for each closed-vent system and
control device required to comply with the provisions
of Section 725.960 must be recorded and kept up-to-date
in the facility operating record as specified in
Section 725.935(c)(1) and (c)(2), and monitoring,
operating and inspection information in Section
725.935(c)(3) through (c)(8).
f) For a control device other than a thermal vapor
incinerator, catalytic vapor incinerator, flare,
boiler, process heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption
system, monitoring and inspection information
indicating proper operation and maintenance of the
control device must be recorded in the facility
operating record.
g) The following information pertaining to all equipment
subject to the requirements in Sections 725.952 through
725.960 must be recorded in a log that is kept in the
facility operating record:
???
1) A list of identification numbers for equipment
(except welded fittings) subject to the
requirements of this Subpart.
2) List of Equipment
A) A list of identification numbers for
equipment that the owner or operator elects
to designate for no detectable emissions, as
indicated by an instrument reading of less
than 500 ppm above background, under the
provisions of Sections 725.952(e), 725.953(i)
and 725.957(f).
B) The designation of this equipment as subject
to the requirements of Section 725.952(e),
725.953(i) or 725.957(f) must be signed by
the owner or operator.
3) A list of equipment identification numbers for
pressure relief devices required to comply with
Section 725.954(a).
4) Compliance tests.
A) The dates of each compliance test required in
Sections 725.952(e), 725.953(i), 725.954, and
725.957(f).
B) The background level measured during each
compliance test.
C) The maximum instrument reading measured at
the equipment during each compliance test.
5) A list of identification numbers for equipment in
vacuum service.
6) Identification, either by list or location (area
or group) of equipment that contains or contacts
hazardous waste with an organic concentration of
at least 10% by weight for a period of less than
300 hours per year.
h) The following information pertaining to all valves
subject to the requirements of Section 725.957(g) and
(h) must be recorded in a log that is kept in the
facility operating record:
1) A list of identification numbers for valves that
are designated as unsafe to monitor, an
explanation for each valve stating why the valve
???
is unsafe to monitor, and the plan for monitoring
each valve.
2) A list of identification numbers for valves that
are designated as difficult to monitor, an
explanation for each valve stating why the valve
is difficult to monitor, and the planned schedule
for monitoring each valve.
i) The following information must be recorded in the
facility operating record for valves complying with
Section 725.962:
1) A schedule of monitoring.
2) The percent of valves found leaking during each
monitoring period.
j) The following information must be recorded in a log
that is kept in the facility operating record:
1) Criteria required in Section Sections 725.952(d)-
(5)(B) and 725.953(e)(2) and an explanation of the
criteria.
2) Any changes to these criteria and the reasons for
the changes.
k) The following information must be recorded in a log
that is kept in the facility operating record for use
in determining exemptions as provided in Section
725.950 and other specific Subparts:
1) An analysis determining the design capacity of the
hazardous waste management unit.
2) A statement listing the hazardous waste influent
to and effluent from each hazardous waste
management unit subject to the requirements in
Sections Section 725.960 and an analysis
determining whether these hazardous wastes are
heavy liquids.
3) An up-to-date analysis and the supporting
information and data used to determine whether or
not equipment is subject to the requirements in
Sections 725.952 through 725.960. The record must
include supporting documentation as required by
Section 725.963(d)(3) when application of the
knowledge of the nature of the hazardous
wastestream or the process by which it was
produced is used. If the owner or operator takes
???
any action (e.g., changing the process that
produced the waste) that could result in an
increase in the total organic content of the waste
contained in or contacted by equipment determined
not to be subject to the requirements in Sections
725.952 through 725.960, then a new determination
is required.
l) Records of the equipment leak information required by
subsection (d) of this Section and the operating
information required by subsection (e) of this Section
need be kept only three years.
m) The owner or operator of any facility that is subject
to this Subpart and to regulations at 40 CFR 60,
Subpart VV, or 40 CFR 61, Subpart V, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, may elect to
determine compliance with this Subpart by documentation
either pursuant to Section 725.964, or pursuant to
those provisions of 40 CFR 60 or 61, to the extent that
the documentation under the regulation at 40 CFR 60 or
61 duplicates the documentation required under this
Subpart. The documentation under the regulation at 40
CFR 60 or 61 must be kept with or made readily
available with the facility operating record.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART CC: AIR EMISSION STANDARDS FOR TANKS, SURFACE
IMPOUNDMENTS, AND CONTAINERS
Section 725.981 Definitions
As used in this Subpart and in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724, all terms
not defined herein shall have the meanings given to them in the
Act and 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 726.
“Average volatile organic concentration” or “average VO
concentration” means the mass-weighted average volatile
organic concentration of a hazardous waste, as
determined in accordance with the requirements of
Section 725.984.
“Closure device” means a cap, hatch, lid, plug, seal,
valve, or other type of fitting that blocks an opening
in a cover so that when the device is secured in the
closed position it prevents or reduces air pollutant
emissions to the atmosphere. Closure devices include
devices that are detachable from the cover (e.g., a
sampling port cap), manually operated (e.g., a hinged
???
access lid or hatch), or automatically operated (e.g.,
a spring-loaded pressure relief valve).
“Continuous seal” means a seal that forms a continuous
closure that completely covers the space between the
edge of the floating roof and the wall of a tank. A
continuous seal may be a vapor-mounted seal, liquid-
mounted seal, or metallic shoe seal. A continuous seal
may be constructed of fastened segments so as to form a
continuous seal.
“Cover” means a device that provides a continuous
barrier over the hazardous waste managed in a unit to
prevent or reduce air emissions to the atmosphere. A
cover may have openings (such as access hatches,
sampling ports, and gauge wells) that are necessary for
operation, inspection, maintenance, or repair of the
unit on which the cover is used. A cover may be a
separate piece of equipment which can be detached and
removed from the unit or a cover may be formed by
structural features permanently integrated into the
design of the unit.
“Enclosure” means a structure that surrounds a tank or
container, captures organic vapors emitted from the
tank or container, and vents the captured vapors
through a closed-vent system to a control device.
“External floating roof” means a pontoon-type or
double-deck type cover that rests on the surface of a
hazardous waste being managed in a tank with no fixed
roof.
“Fixed roof” means a cover that is mounted on a unit in
a stationary position and does not move with
fluctuations in the level of the material managed in
the unit.
“Floating membrane cover” means a cover consisting of a
synthetic flexible membrane material that rests upon
and is supported by the hazardous waste being managed
in a surface impoundment.
“Floating roof” means a cover consisting of a double-
deck, pontoon single-deck, or internal floating cover
that rests upon and is supported by the material being
contained, and is equipped with a continuous seal.
“Hard-piping” means pipe or tubing that is manufactured
and properly installed in accordance with relevant
standards and good engineering practices.
???
“In light material service” means the container is used
to manage a material for which both of the following
conditions apply: the vapor pressure of one or more of
the organic constituents in the material is greater
than 0.3 kilopascals (kPa) at 20°C (1.2 inches H
2O at
68°F); and the total concentration of the pure organic
constituents having a vapor pressure greater than 0.3
kPa at 20°C (1.2 inches H
2O at 68°F) is equal to or
greater than 20% by weight.
“Internal floating roof” means a cover that rests or
floats on the material surface (but not necessarily in
complete contact with it) inside a tank that has a
fixed roof.
“Liquid-mounted seal” means a foam or liquid-filled
primary seal mounted in contact with the hazardous
waste between the tank wall and the floating roof,
continuously around the circumference of the tank.
“Malfunction” means any sudden, infrequent, and not
reasonably preventable failure of air pollution control
equipment, process equipment, or a process to operate
in a normal or usual manner. A failure that is caused
in part by poor maintenance or careless operation is
not a malfunction.
“Maximum organic vapor pressure” means the sum of the
individual organic constituent partial pressures
exerted by the material contained in a tank at the
maximum vapor pressure-causing conditions (i.e.,
temperature, agitation, pH effects of combining wastes,
etc.) reasonably expected to occur in the tank. For
the purpose of this Subpart, maximum organic vapor
pressure is determined using the procedures specified
in Section 725.984(c).
“Metallic shoe seal” means a continuous seal that is
constructed of metal sheets that are held vertically
against the wall of the tank by springs, weighted
levers, or other mechanisms and which is connected to
the floating roof by braces or other means. A flexible
coated fabric (envelope) spans the annular space
between the metal sheet and the floating roof.
“No detectable organic emissions” means no escape of
organics to the atmosphere, as determined using the
procedure specified in Section 725.984(d).
“Point of waste origination” means as follows:
???
When the facility owner or operator is the
generator of the hazardous waste, the “point of
waste origination” means the point where a solid
waste produced by a system, process, or waste
management unit is determined to be a hazardous
waste, as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.
BOARD NOTE: In this case, this term is being used
in a manner similar to the use of the term “point
of generation” in air standards established for
waste management operations under authority of the
federal Clean Air Act in 40 CFR 60, 61, and 63.
When the facility owner and operator are not the
generator of the hazardous waste, “point of waste
origination” means the point where the owner or
operator accepts delivery or takes possession of
the hazardous waste.
“Point of waste treatment” means the point where a
hazardous waste to be treated in accordance with
Section 725.983(c)(2) exits the treatment process.
Any waste determination must be made before the waste
is conveyed, handled, or otherwise managed in a manner
that allows the waste to volatilize to the atmosphere.
“Safety device” means a closure device, such as a
pressure relief valve, frangible disc, fusible plug, or
any other type of device, which functions exclusively
to prevent physical damage or permanent deformation to
a unit or its air emission control equipment by venting
gases or vapors directly to the atmosphere during
unsafe conditions resulting from an unplanned,
accidental, or emergency event. For the purpose of
this Subpart, a safety device is not used for routine
venting of gases or vapors from the vapor headspace
underneath a cover such as during filling of the unit
or to adjust the pressure in this vapor headspace in
response to normal daily diurnal ambient temperature
fluctuations. A safety device is designed to remain in
a closed position during normal operations and open
only when the internal pressure, or another relevant
parameter, exceeds the device threshold setting
applicable to the air emission control equipment as
determined by the owner or operator based on
manufacturer recommendations, applicable regulations,
fire protection and prevention codes, standard
engineering codes and practices, or other requirements
for the safe handling of flammable, ignitable,
explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
???
“Single-seal system” means a floating roof having one
continuous seal. This seal may be vapor-mounted,
liquid-mounted, or a metallic shoe seal.
“Vapor-mounted seal” means a continuous seal that is
mounted so that there is a vapor space between the
hazardous waste in the unit and the bottom of the seal.
“Volatile organic concentration” or “VO concentration”
means the fraction by weight of organic compounds
contained in a hazardous waste expressed in terms of
parts per million (ppmw), as determined by direct
measurement or by knowledge of the waste, in accordance
with the requirements of Section 725.984. For the
purpose of determining the VO concentration of a
hazardous waste, organic compounds with a Henry’s law
constant value of at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-
gas-phase/mole-fraction-in the liquid-phase mole-
fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in-the-liquid-
phase (0.1 Y/X) (which can also be expressed as 1.8
×
10
-6
atmospheres/gram-mole/m
3
) at 25° C (77° F) must be
included. Section 725.Appendix F presents a list of
compounds known to have a Henry’s law constant value
less than the cutoff level.
“Waste determination” means performing all applicable
procedures in accordance with the requirements of
Section 725.984 to determine whether a hazardous waste
meets standards specified in this Subpart. Examples of
a waste determination include performing the procedures
in accordance with the requirements of Section 725.984
to determine the average VO concentration of a
hazardous waste at the point of waste origination,
determining the average VO concentration of a hazardous
waste at the point of waste treatment and comparing the
results to the exit concentration limit specified for
the process used to treat the hazardous waste, the
organic reduction efficiency and the organic
biodegradation efficiency for a biological process used
to treat a hazardous waste and comparing the results to
the applicable standards, or determining the maximum
volatile organic vapor pressure for a hazardous waste
in a tank and comparing the results to the applicable
standards.
“Waste stabilization process” means any physical or
chemical process used to either reduce the mobility of
hazardous constituents in a hazardous waste or
eliminate free liquids as determined by Test Method
9095 (Paint Filter Liquids Test) in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods”,
???
incorporated by reference in Section 720.111. A waste
stabilization process includes mixing the hazardous
waste with binders or other materials and curing the
resulting hazardous waste and binder mixture. Other
synonymous terms used to refer to this process are
“waste fixation” or “waste solidification”. This does
not include the addition of absorbent materials to the
surface of a waste to absorb free liquid without
mixing, agitation, or subsequent curing.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.985 Standards: Tanks
a) The provisions of this Section apply to the control of
air pollutant emissions from tanks for which Section
725.983(b) references the use of this Section for such
air emission control.
b) The owner or operator shall control air pollutant
emissions from each tank subject to this Section in
accordance with the following requirements, as
applicable:
1) For a tank that manages hazardous waste which
meets all of the conditions specified in
subsections (b)(1)(A) through (b)(1)(C) of this
Section, the owner or operator shall control air
pollutant emissions from the tank in accordance
with the Tank Level 1 controls specified in
subsection (c) of this Section or the Tank Level 2
controls specified in subsection (d) of this
Section.
A) The hazardous waste in the tank has a maximum
organic vapor pressure that is less than the
maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the
tank’s design capacity category, as follows:
i) For a tank design capacity equal to or
greater than 151 m
3
(5333 ft
3
or 39,887
gal), the maximum organic vapor pressure
limit for the tank is 5.2 kPa (0.75 psia
or 39 mm Hg);
ii) For a tank design capacity equal to or
greater than 75 m
3
(2649 ft
3
or 19,810
gal) but less than 151 m
3
(5333 ft
3
or
39,887 gal), the maximum organic vapor
pressure limit for the tank is 27.6 kPa
(4.0 psia or 207 mm Hg); or
???
iii) For a tank design capacity is less than
75 m
3
(2649 ft
3
or 19,810 gal), the
maximum organic vapor pressure limit for
the tank is 76.6 kPa (11.1 psia or 574
mm Hg).
B) The hazardous waste in the tank is not heated
by the owner or operator to a temperature
that is greater than the temperature at which
the maximum organic vapor pressure of the
hazardous waste is determined for the purpose
of complying with subsection (b)(1)(A) of
this Section.
C) The hazardous waste in the tank is not
treated by the owner or operator using a
waste stabilization process, as defined in
Section 725.981.
2) For a tank that manages hazardous waste that does
not meet all of the conditions specified in
subsections (b)(1)(A) through (b)(1)(C) of this
Section, the owner or operator shall control air
pollutant emissions from the tank by using Tank
Level 2 controls in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (d) of this Section.
Examples of tanks required to use Tank Level 2
controls include the following: a tank used for a
waste stabilization process and a tank for which
the hazardous waste in the tank has a maximum
organic vapor pressure that is equal to or greater
than the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for
the tank’s design capacity category, as specified
in subsection (b)(1)(A) of this Section.
c) Owners and operators controlling air pollutant
emissions from a tank using Tank Level 1 controls shall
meet the requirements specified in subsections (c)(1)
through (c)(4) of this Section:
1) The owner or operator shall determine the maximum
organic vapor pressure for a hazardous waste to be
managed in the tank using Tank Level 1 controls
before the first time the hazardous waste is
placed in the tank. The maximum organic vapor
pressure must be determined using the procedures
specified in Section 725.984(c). Thereafter, the
owner or operator shall perform a new
determination whenever changes to the hazardous
waste managed in the tank could potentially cause
the maximum organic vapor pressure to increase to
???
a level that is equal to or greater than the
maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank
design capacity category specified in subsection
(b)(1)(A) of this Section, as applicable to the
tank.
2) The tank must be equipped with a fixed roof
designed to meet the following specifications:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be designed to form a continuous barrier over
the entire surface area of the hazardous
waste in the tank. The fixed roof may be a
separate cover installed on the tank (e.g., a
removable cover mounted on an open-top tank)
or may be an integral part of the tank
structural design (e.g., a horizontal
cylindrical tank equipped with a hatch).
B) The fixed roof must be installed in a manner
such that there are no visible cracks, holes,
gaps, or other open spaces between roof
Section section joints or between the
interface of the roof edge and the tank wall.
C) Each opening in the fixed roof must be
either:
i) Equipped with a closure device designed
to operate such that when the closure
device is secured in the closed position
there are no visible cracks, holes,
gaps, or other open spaces in the
closure device or between the perimeter
of the opening and the closure device;
or
ii) Connected by a closed-vent system that
is vented to a control device. The
control device must remove or destroy
organics in the vent stream, and it must
be operating whenever hazardous waste is
managed in the tank.
D) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be made of suitable materials that will
minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to
the atmosphere, to the extent practical, and
which will maintain the integrity of the
fixed roof and closure devices throughout
their intended service life. Factors to be
considered when selecting the materials for
???
and designing the fixed roof and closure
devices must include the following: organic
vapor permeability; the effects of any
contact with the hazardous waste or its
vapors managed in the tank; the effects of
outdoor exposure to wind, moisture, and
sunlight; and the operating practices used
for the tank on which the fixed roof is
installed.
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the
fixed roof must be installed with each closure
device secured in the closed position, except as
follows:
A) Opening of closure devices or removal of the
fixed roof is allowed at the following times:
i) To provide access to the tank for
performing routine inspection,
maintenance, or other activities needed
for normal operations. Examples of such
activities include those times when a
worker needs to open a port to sample
the liquid in the tank, or when a worker
needs to open a hatch to maintain or
repair equipment. Following completion
of the activity, the owner or operator
shall promptly secure the closure device
in the closed position or reinstall the
cover, as applicable, to the tank.
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other
residues from the bottom of tank.
B) Opening of a spring-loaded pressure-vacuum
relief valve, conservation vent, or similar
type of pressure relief device which vents to
the atmosphere is allowed during normal
operations for the purpose of maintaining the
tank internal pressure in accordance with the
tank design specifications. The device must
be designed to operate with no detectable
organic emissions when the device is secured
in the closed position. The settings at
which the device opens must be established
such that the device remains in the closed
position whenever the tank internal pressure
is within the internal pressure operating
range determined by the owner or operator
based on the tank manufacturer
recommendations; applicable regulations; fire
???
protection and prevention codes; standard
engineering codes and practices; or other
requirements for the safe handling of
flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or
hazardous materials. Examples of normal
operating conditions that may require these
devices to open are during those times when
the tank internal pressure exceeds the
internal pressure operating range for the
tank as a result of loading operations or
diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations.
C) Opening of a safety device, as defined in
Section 725.981, is allowed at any time
conditions require doing so to avoid an
unsafe condition.
4) The owner or operator shall inspect the air
emission control equipment in accordance with the
following requirements.
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be visually inspected by the owner or
operator to check for defects that could
result in air pollutant emissions. Defects
include, but are not limited to, visible
cracks, holes, or gaps in the roof Sections
sections or between the roof and the tank
wall; broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged
seals or gaskets on closure devices; and
broken or missing hatches, access covers,
caps, or other closure devices.
B) The owner or operator shall perform an
initial inspection of the fixed roof and its
closure devices on or before the date that
the tank becomes subject to this Section.
Thereafter, the owner or operator shall
perform the inspections at least once every
year, except under the special conditions
provided for in subsection (l) of this
Section.
C) In the event that a defect is detected, the
owner or operator shall repair the defect in
accordance with the requirements of
subsection (k) of this Section.
D) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 725.990(b).
???
d) Owners and operators controlling air pollutant
emissions from a tank using Tank Level 2 controls shall
use one of the following tanks:
1) A fixed-roof tank equipped with an internal
floating roof in accordance with the requirements
specified in subsection (e) of this Section;
2) A tank equipped with an external floating roof in
accordance with the requirements specified in
subsection (f) of this Section;
3) A tank vented through a closed-vent system to a
control device in accordance with the requirements
specified in subsection (g) of this Section;
4) A pressure tank designed and operated in
accordance with the requirements specified in
subsection (h) of this Section; or
5) A tank located inside an enclosure that is vented
through a closed-vent system to an enclosed
combustion control device in accordance with the
requirements specified in subsection (i) of this
Section.
e) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions from a tank using a fixed-roof fixed roof
with an internal floating roof shall meet the
requirements specified in subsections (e)(1) through
(e)(3) of this Section.
1) The tank must be equipped with a fixed roof and an
internal floating roof in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) The internal floating roof must be designed
to float on the liquid surface except when
the floating roof must be supported by the
leg supports.
B) The internal floating roof must be equipped
with a continuous seal between the wall of
the tank and the floating roof edge that
meets either of the following requirements:
i) A single continuous seal that is either
a liquid-mounted seal or a metallic shoe
seal, as defined in Section 725.981; or
???
ii) Two continuous seals mounted one of this
Section above the other. The lower seal
may be a vapor-mounted seal.
C) The internal floating roof must meet the
following specifications:
i) Each opening in a noncontact internal
floating roof except for automatic
bleeder vents (vacuum breaker vents) and
the rim space vents is to provide a
projection below the liquid surface.
ii) Each opening in the internal floating
roof must be equipped with a gasketed
cover or a gasketed lid except for leg
sleeves, automatic bleeder vents, rim
space vents, column wells, ladder wells,
sample wells, and stub drains.
iii) Each penetration of the internal
floating roof for the purpose of
sampling must have a slit fabric cover
that covers at least 90% of the opening.
iv) Each automatic bleeder vent and rim
space vent must be gasketed.
v) Each penetration of the internal
floating roof that allows for passage of
a ladder must have a gasketed sliding
cover.
vi) Each penetration of the internal
floating roof that allows for passage of
a column supporting the fixed roof must
have a flexible fabric sleeve seal or a
gasketed sliding cover.
2) The owner or operator shall operate the tank in
accordance with the following requirements:
A) When the floating roof is resting on the leg
supports, the process of filling, emptying,
or refilling must be continuous and must be
completed as soon as practical.
B) Automatic bleeder vents are to be set closed
at all times when the roof is floating,
except when the roof is being floated off or
is being landed on the leg supports.
???
C) Prior to filling the tank, each cover, access
hatch, gauge float well or lid on any opening
in the internal floating roof must be bolted
or fastened closed (i.e., no visible gaps).
Rim space vents are to be set to open only
when the internal floating roof is not
floating or when the pressure beneath the rim
exceeds the manufacturer’s recommended
setting.
3) The owner or operator shall inspect the internal
floating roof in accordance with the procedures
specified as follows:
A) The floating roof and its closure devices
must be visually inspected by the owner or
operator to check for defects that could
result in air pollutant emissions. Defects
include, but are not limited to, the
following: when the internal floating roof
is not floating on the surface of the liquid
inside the tank; when liquid has accumulated
on top of the internal floating roof; when
any portion of the roof seals have detached
from the roof rim; when holes, tears, or
other openings are visible in the seal
fabric; when the gaskets no longer close off
the hazardous waste surface from the
atmosphere; or when the slotted membrane has
more than 10% open area.
B) The owner or operator shall inspect the
internal floating roof components as follows,
except as provided in subsection (e)(3)(C) of
this Section:
i) Visually inspect the internal floating
roof components through openings on the
fixed-roof (e.g., manholes and roof
hatches) at least once every 12 months
after initial fill, and
ii) Visually inspect the internal floating
roof, primary seal, secondary seal (if
one is in service), gaskets, slotted
membranes, and sleeve seals (if any)
each time the tank is emptied and
degassed and at least once every 10
years.
C) As an alternative to performing the
inspections specified in subsection (e)(3)(B)
???
of this Section for an internal floating roof
equipped with two continuous seals mounted
one above the other, the owner or operator
may visually inspect the internal floating
roof, primary and secondary seals, gaskets,
slotted membranes, and sleeve seals (if any)
each time the tank is emptied and degassed
and at least every five years.
D) Prior to each inspection required by
subsection (e)(3)(B) or (e)(3)(C) of this
Section, the owner or operator shall notify
the Agency in advance of each inspection to
provide the Agency with the opportunity to
have an observer present during the
inspection. The owner or operator shall
notify the Agency of the date and location of
the inspection as follows:
i) Prior to each visual inspection of an
internal floating roof in a tank that
has been emptied and degassed, written
notification must be prepared and sent
by the owner or operator so that it is
received by the Agency at least 30
calendar days before refilling the tank,
except when an inspection is not
planned, as provided for in subsection
(e)(3)(D)(ii) of this Section.
ii) When a visual inspection is not planned
and the owner or operator could not have
known about the inspection 30 calendar
days before refilling the tank, the
owner or operator shall notify the
Agency as soon as possible, but no later
than seven calendar days before
refilling of the tank. This
notification may be made by telephone
and immediately followed by a written
explanation for why the inspection is
unplanned. Alternatively, written
notification, including the explanation
for the unplanned inspection, may be
sent so that it is received by the
Regional Administrator at least seven
calendar days before refilling the tank.
E) In the event that a defect is detected, the
owner or operator shall repair the defect in
accordance with the requirements of
subsection (k) of this Section.
???
F) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 725.990(b).
f) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions from a tank using an external floating roof
shall meet the requirements specified in subsections
(f)(1) through (f)(3) of this Section.
1) The owner or operator shall design the external
floating roof in accordance with the following
requirements:
A) The external floating roof must be designed
to float on the liquid surface except when
the floating roof must be supported by the
leg supports.
B) The floating roof must be equipped with two
continuous seals, one above the other,
between the wall of the tank and the roof
edge. The lower seal is referred to as the
primary seal, and the upper seal is referred
to as the secondary seal.
i) The primary seal must be a liquid-
mounted seal or a metallic shoe seal, as
defined in Section 725.981. The total
area of the gaps between the tank wall
and the primary seal must not exceed 212
square centimeters (cm
2
) per meter (10.0
in
2
per foot) of tank diameter, and the
width of any portion of these gaps must
not exceed 3.8 centimeters (cm) (1.5
inches). If a metallic shoe seal is
used for the primary seal, the metallic
shoe seal must be designed so that one
end extends into the liquid in the tank
and the other end extends a vertical
distance of at least 61 centimeters
above the liquid surface.
ii) The secondary seal must be mounted above
the primary seal and cover the annular
space between the floating roof and the
wall of the tank. The total area of the
gaps between the tank wall and the
secondary seal must not exceed 21.2 cm
2
per meter (1.0 in
2
per foot) of tank
diameter, and the width of any portion
???
of these gaps must not exceed 1.3 cm
(0.5 inch).
C) The external floating roof must meet the
following specifications:
i) Except for automatic bleeder vents
(vacuum breaker vents) and rim space
vents, each opening in a noncontact
external floating roof must provide a
projection below the liquid surface.
ii) Except for automatic bleeder vents, rim
space vents, roof drains, and leg
sleeves, each opening in the roof must
be equipped with a gasketed cover, seal,
or lid.
iii) Each access hatch and each gauge float
well must be equipped with a cover
designed to be bolted or fastened when
the cover is secured in the closed
position.
iv) Each automatic bleeder vent and each rim
space vent must be equipped with a
gasket.
v) Each roof drain that empties into the
liquid managed in the tank must be
equipped with a slotted membrane fabric
cover that covers at least 90% of the
area of the opening.
vi) Each unslotted and slotted guide pole
well must be equipped with a gasketed
sliding cover or a flexible fabric
sleeve seal.
vii) Each unslotted guide pole must be
equipped with a gasketed cap on the end
of the pole.
viii) Each slotted guide pole must be
equipped with a gasketed float or other
device which closes off the liquid
surface from the atmosphere.
ix) Each gauge hatch and each sample well
must be equipped with a gasketed cover.
???
2) The owner or operator shall operate the tank in
accordance with the following requirements:
A) When the floating roof is resting on the leg
supports, the process of filling, emptying,
or refilling must be continuous and must be
completed as soon as practical.
B) Except for automatic bleeder vents, rim space
vents, roof drains, and leg sleeves, each
opening in the roof must be secured and
maintained in a closed position at all times
except when the closure device must be open
for access.
C) Covers on each access hatch and each gauge
float well must be bolted or fastened when
secured in the closed position.
D) Automatic bleeder vents must be set closed at
all times when the roof is floating, except
when the roof is being floated off or is
being landed on the leg supports.
E) Rim space vents must be set to open only at
those times that the roof is being floated
off the roof leg supports or when the
pressure beneath the rim seal exceeds the
manufacturer’s recommended setting.
F) The cap on the end of each unslotted guide
pole must be secured in the closed position
at all times except when measuring the level
or collecting samples of the liquid in the
tank.
G) The cover on each gauge hatch or sample well
must be secured in the closed position at all
times except when the hatch or well must be
opened for access.
H) Both the primary seal and the secondary seal
must completely cover the annular space
between the external floating roof and the
wall of the tank in a continuous fashion
except during inspections.
3) The owner or operator shall inspect the external
floating roof in accordance with the procedures
specified as follows:
???
A) The owner or operator shall measure the
external floating roof seal gaps in
accordance with the following requirements:
i) The owner or operator shall perform
measurements of gaps between the tank
wall and the primary seal within 60
calendar days after initial operation of
the tank following installation of the
floating roof and, thereafter, at least
once every five years.
ii) The owner or operator shall perform
measurements of gaps between the tank
wall and the secondary seal within 60
calendar days after initial operation of
the tank following installation of the
floating roof and, thereafter, at least
once every year.
iii) If a tank ceases to hold hazardous waste
for a period of one year or more,
subsequent introduction of hazardous
waste into the tank must be considered
an initial operation for the purposes of
subsections (f)(3)(A)(i) and (f)(3)(A)-
(ii) of this Section.
iv) The owner or operator shall determine
the total surface area of gaps in the
primary seal and in the secondary seal
individually using the procedure set
forth in subsection (f)(4)(D) of this
Section.
v) In the event that the seal gap
measurements do not conform to the
specifications in subsection (f)(1)(B)
of this Section, the owner or operator
must repair the defect in accordance
with the requirements of subsection (k)
of this Section.
vi) The owner or operator shall maintain a
record of the inspection in accordance
with the requirements specified in
Section 725.990(b).
B) The owner or operator shall visually inspect
the external floating roof in accordance with
the following requirements:
???
i) The floating roof and its closure
devices must be visually inspected by
the owner or operator to check for
defects that could result in air
pollutant emissions. Defects include,
but are not limited to any of the
following: holes, tears, or other
openings in the rim seal or seal fabric
of the floating roof; a rim seal
detached from the floating roof; all or
a portion of the floating roof deck
being submerged of this Section below
the surface of the liquid in the tank;
broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged
seals or gaskets on closure devices; and
broken or missing hatches, access
covers, caps, or other closure devices.
ii) The owner or operator shall perform an
initial inspection of the external
floating roof and its closure devices on
or before the date that the tank becomes
subject to this Section. Thereafter,
the owner or operator shall perform the
inspections at least once every year
except for the special conditions
provided for in subsection (l) of this
Section.
iii) In the event that a defect is detected,
the owner or operator shall repair the
defect in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (k) of this
Section.
iv) The owner or operator shall maintain a
record of the inspection in accordance
with the requirements specified in
Section 725.990(b).
C) Prior to each inspection required by
subsection (f)(3)(A) or (f)(3)(B) of this
Section, the owner or operator shall notify
the Agency in advance of each inspection to
provide the Agency with the opportunity to
have an observer present during the
inspection. The owner or operator shall
notify the Agency of the date and location of
the inspection as follows:
i) Prior to each inspection to measure
external floating roof seal gaps as
???
required under subsection (f)(3)(A) of
this Section, written notification must
be prepared and sent by the owner or
operator so that it is received by the
Agency at least 30 calendar days before
the date the measurements are scheduled
to be performed.
ii) Prior to each visual inspection of an
external floating roof in a tank that
has been emptied and degassed, written
notification must be prepared and sent
by the owner or operator so that it is
received by the Agency at least 30
calendar days before refilling the tank
except when an inspection is not
planned, as provided for in subsection
(f)(3)(C)(iii) of this Section.
iii) When a visual inspection is not planned
and the owner or operator could not have
known about the inspection 30 calendar
days before refilling the tank, the
owner or operator shall notify the
Agency as soon as possible, but no later
than seven calendar days before
refilling of the tank. This
notification may be made by telephone
and immediately followed by a written
explanation for why the inspection is
unplanned. Alternatively, written
notification, including the explanation
for the unplanned inspection, may be
sent so that it is received by the
Regional Administrator at least seven
calendar days before refilling the tank.
D) Procedure for determining gaps in the primary
seal and in the secondary seal for the
purposes of subsection (f)(3)(A)(iv) of this
Section:
i) The seal gap measurements must be
performed at one or more floating roof
levels when the roof is floating off the
roof supports.
ii) Seal gaps, if any, must be measured
around the entire perimeter of the
floating roof in each place where a
0.32-cm (_-inch) diameter uniform probe
passes freely (without forcing or
???
binding against the seal) between the
seal and the wall of the tank and
measure the circumferential distance of
each such location.
iii) For a seal gap measured under this
subsection (f)(3), the gap surface area
must be determined by using probes of
various widths to measure accurately the
actual distance from the tank wall to
the seal and multiplying each such width
by its respective circumferential
distance.
iv) The total gap area must be calculated by
adding the gap surface areas determined
for each identified gap location for the
primary seal and the secondary seal
individually, and then dividing the sum
for each seal type by the nominal
perimeter of the tank. These total gap
areas for the primary seal and secondary
seal are then are compared to the
respective standards for the seal type,
as specified in subsection (f)(1)(B) of
this Section.
BOARD NOTE: Subsections (f)(3)(D)(i)
through (f)(3)(D)(iv) correspond with 40
CFR 265.1085(f)(3)(i)(D)(1) through (f)-
(3)(i)(D)(4), which the Board has
codified here to comport with Illinois
Administrative Code format requirements.
g) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions from a tank by venting the tank to a control
device shall meet the requirements specified in
subsections (g)(1) through (g)(3) of this Section.
1) The tank must be covered by a fixed roof and
vented directly through a closed-vent system to a
control device in accordance with the following
requirements:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be designed to form a continuous barrier over
the entire surface area of the liquid in the
tank.
B) Each opening in the fixed roof not vented to
the control device must be equipped with a
closure device. If the pressure in the vapor
???
headspace underneath the fixed roof is less
than atmospheric pressure when the control
device is operating, the closure devices must
be designed to operate such that when the
closure device is secured in the closed
position there are no visible cracks, holes,
gaps, or other open spaces in the closure
device or between the perimeter of the cover
opening and the closure device. If the
pressure in the vapor headspace underneath
the fixed roof is equal to or greater than
atmospheric pressure when the control device
is operating, the closure device must be
designed to operate with no detectable
organic emissions.
C) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be made of suitable materials that will
minimize exposure of the hazardous waste to
the atmosphere, to the extent practical, and
will maintain the integrity of the fixed roof
and closure devices throughout their intended
service life. Factors to be considered when
selecting the materials for and designing the
fixed roof and closure devices must include
the following: organic vapor permeability;
the effects of any contact with the liquid
and its vapor managed in the tank; the
effects of outdoor exposure to wind,
moisture, and sunlight; and the operating
practices used for the tank on which the
fixed roof is installed.
D) The closed-vent system and control device
must be designed and operated in accordance
with the requirements of Section 725.988.
2) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the
fixed roof must be installed with each closure
device secured in the closed position and the
vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof vented
to the control device except as follows:
A) Venting to the control device is not
required, and opening of closure devices or
removal of the fixed roof is allowed at the
following times:
i) To provide access to the tank for
performing routine inspection,
maintenance, or other activities needed
for normal operations. Examples of such
???
activities include those times when a
worker needs to open a port to sample
liquid in the tank, or when a worker
needs to open a hatch to maintain or
repair equipment. Following completion
of the activity, the owner or operator
shall promptly secure the closure device
in the closed position or reinstall the
cover, as applicable, to the tank.
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other
residues from the bottom of a tank.
B) Opening of a safety device, as defined in
Section 725.981, is allowed at any time
conditions require doing so to avoid an
unsafe condition.
3) The owner or operator shall inspect and monitor
the air emission control equipment in accordance
with the following procedures:
A) The fixed roof and its closure devices must
be visually inspected by the owner or
operator to check for defects that could
result in air pollutant emissions. Defects
include, but are not limited to any of the
following: visible cracks, holes, or gaps in
the roof sections or between the roof and the
tank wall; broken, cracked, or otherwise
damaged seals or gaskets on closure devices;
and broken or missing hatches, access covers,
caps, or other closure devices.
B) The closed-vent system and control device
must be inspected and monitored by the owner
or operator in accordance with the procedures
specified in Section 725.988.
C) The owner or operator shall perform an
initial inspection of the air emission
control equipment on or before the date that
the tank becomes subject to this Section.
Thereafter, the owner or operator shall
perform the inspections at least once every
year except for the special conditions
provided for in subsection (l) of this
Section.
D) In the event that a defect is detected, the
owner or operator shall repair the defect in
???
accordance with the requirements of
subsection (k) of this Section.
E) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 725.990(b).
h) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions by using a pressure tank must meet the
following requirements.
1) The tank shall be designed not to vent to the
atmosphere as a result of compression of the vapor
headspace in the tank during filling of the tank
to its design capacity.
2) All tank openings must be equipped with closure
devices designed to operate with no detectable
organic emissions as determined using the
procedure specified in Section 725.984(d).
3) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the tank, the
tank must be operated as a closed system that does
not vent to the atmosphere except in the event
that a safety device, as defined in Section
725.981, is required to open to avoid an unsafe
condition.
i) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions by using an enclosure vented through a
closed-vent system to an enclosed combustion control
device shall meet the requirements specified in
subsections (i)(1) through (i)(4) of this Section.
1) The tank must be located inside an enclosure. The
enclosure must be designed and operated in
accordance with the criteria for a permanent total
enclosure, as specified in “Procedure T--Criteria
for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary
Total Enclosure” under 40 CFR 52.741, appendix B,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111. The enclosure may have permanent or
temporary openings to allow worker access; passage
of material into or out of the enclosure by
conveyor, vehicles, or other mechanical means;
entry of permanent mechanical or electrical
equipment; or direct airflow into the enclosure.
The owner or operator shall perform the
verification procedure for the enclosure as
specified in Section 5.0 to “Procedure T--Criteria
for and Verification of a Permanent or Temporary
???
Total Enclosure” initially when the enclosure is
first installed and, thereafter, annually.
2) The enclosure must be vented through a closed-vent
system to an enclosed combustion control device
that is designed and operated in accordance with
the standards for either a vapor incinerator,
boiler, or process heater specified in Section
725.988.
3) Safety devices, as defined in Section 725.981, may
be installed and operated as necessary on any
enclosure, closed-vent system, or control device
used to comply with the requirements of
subsections (i)(1) and (i)(2) of this Section.
4) The owner or operator shall inspect and monitor
the closed-vent system and control device, as
specified in Section 725.988.
j) The owner or operator shall transfer hazardous waste to
a tank subject to this Section in accordance with the
following requirements:
1) Transfer of hazardous waste, except as provided in
subsection (j)(2) of this Section, to the tank
from another tank subject to this Section or from
a surface impoundment subject to Section 725.986
must be conducted using continuous hard-piping or
another closed system that does not allow exposure
of the hazardous waste to the atmosphere. For the
purpose of complying with this provision, an
individual drain system is considered to be a
closed system when it meets the requirements of 40
CFR 63, subpart RR, “National Emission Standards
for Individual Drain Systems”, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
2) The requirements of subsection (j)(1) of this
Section do not apply when transferring a hazardous
waste to the tank under any of the following
conditions:
A) The hazardous waste meets the average VO
concentration conditions specified in Section
725.983(c)(1) at the point of waste
origination.
B) The hazardous waste has been treated by an
organic destruction or removal process to
meet the requirements in Section 725.983(c)-
(2).
???
k) The owner or operator shall repair each defect detected
during an inspection performed in accordance with the
requirements of subsections (c)(4), (e)(3), (f)(3), or
(g)(3) of this Section as follows:
1) The owner or operator shall make first efforts at
repair of the defect no later than five calendar
days after detection, and repair shall be
completed as soon as possible but no later than 45
calendar days after detection except as provided
in subsection (k)(2) of this Section.
2) Repair of a defect may be delayed beyond 45
calendar days if the owner or operator determines
that repair of the defect requires emptying or
temporary removal from service of the tank and no
alternative tank capacity is available at the site
to accept the hazardous waste normally managed in
the tank. In this case, the owner or operator
shall repair the defect the next time the process
or unit that is generating the hazardous waste
managed in the tank stops operation. Repair of
the defect must be completed before the process or
unit resumes operation.
l) Following the initial inspection and monitoring of the
cover as required by the applicable provisions of this
Subpart, subsequent inspection and monitoring may be
performed at intervals longer than one year under the
following special conditions:
1) Where inspecting or monitoring the cover would
expose a worker to dangerous, hazardous, or other
unsafe conditions, then the owner or operator may
designate a cover as an “unsafe to inspect and
monitor cover” and comply with all of the
following requirements:
A) Prepare a written explanation for the cover
stating the reasons why the cover is unsafe
to visually inspect or to monitor, if
required.
B) Develop and implement a written plan and
schedule to inspect and monitor the cover,
using the procedures specified in the
applicable Section of this Subpart, as
frequently as practicable during those times
when a worker can safely access the cover.
???
2) In the case when a tank is buried partially or
entirely underground, an owner or operator is
required to inspect and monitor, as required by
the applicable provisions of this Section, only
those portions of the tank cover and those
connections to the tank (e.g., fill ports, access
hatches, gauge wells, etc.) that are located on or
above the ground surface.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.986 Standards: Surface Impoundments
a) The provisions of this Section apply to the control of
air pollutant emissions from surface impoundments for
which Section 725.983(b) of this Subpart references the
use of this Section for such air emission control.
b) The owner or operator shall control air pollutant
emissions from the surface impoundment by installing
and operating either of the following:
1) A floating membrane cover in accordance with the
provisions specified in subsection (c) of this
Section; or
2) A cover that is vented through a closed-vent
system to a control device in accordance with the
provisions specified in subsection (d) of this
Section.
c) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions from a surface impoundment using a floating
membrane cover must meet the requirements specified in
subsections (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this Section.
1) The surface impoundment must be equipped with a
floating membrane cover designed to meet the
following specifications:
A) The floating membrane cover must be designed
to float on the liquid surface during normal
operations and form a continuous barrier over
the entire surface area of the liquid.
B) The cover must be fabricated from a synthetic
membrane material that is either:
i) High density polyethylene (HDPE) with a
thickness no less than 2.5 millimeters
(mm) (0.10 inch); or
???
ii) A material or a composite of different
materials determined to have both
organic permeability properties that are
equivalent to those of the material
listed in subsection (c)(1)(B)(i) of
this Section and chemical and physical
properties that maintain the material
integrity for the intended service life
of the material.
C) The cover must be installed in a manner such
that there are no visible cracks, holes,
gaps, or other open spaces between cover
section seams or between the interface of the
cover edge and its foundation mountings.
D) Except as provided for in subsection (c)(1)-
(E) of this Section, each opening in the
floating membrane cover must be equipped with
a closure device so designed as to operate
that when that the closure device is secured
in the closed position there are no visible
cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces in
the closure device or between the perimeter
of the cover opening and the closure device.
E) The floating membrane cover may be equipped
with one or more emergency cover drains for
removal of stormwater. Each emergency cover
drain must be equipped with a slotted
membrane fabric cover that covers at least
90% of the area of the opening or a flexible
fabric sleeve seal.
F) The closure devices must be made of suitable
materials that will minimize exposure of the
hazardous waste to the atmosphere, to the
extent practical, and will maintain the
integrity of the closure devices throughout
their intended service life. Factors to be
considered when selecting the materials of
construction and designing the cover and
closure devices must include the following:
the organic vapor permeability; the effects
of any contact with the liquid and its vapor
managed in the surface impoundment; the
effects of outdoor exposure to wind,
moisture, and sunlight; and the operating
practices used for the surface impoundment on
which the floating membrane cover is
installed.
???
2) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the surface
impoundment, the floating membrane cover must
float on the liquid and each closure device must
be secured in the closed position except as
follows:
A) Opening of closure devices or removal of the
cover is allowed at the following times:
i) To provide access to the surface
impoundment for performing routine
inspection, maintenance, or other
activities needed for normal
operations. Examples of such activities
include those times when a worker needs
to open a port to sample the liquid in
the surface impoundment, or when a
worker needs to open a hatch to maintain
or repair equipment. Following
completion of the activity, the owner or
operator shall promptly replace the
cover and secure the closure device in
the closed position, as applicable.
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other
residues from the bottom of surface
impoundment.
B) Opening of a safety device, as defined in
Section 725.981, is allowed at any time
conditions require doing so to avoid an
unsafe condition.
3) The owner or operator shall inspect the floating
membrane cover in accordance with the following
procedures:
A) The floating membrane cover and its closure
devices must be visually inspected by the
owner or operator to check for defects that
could result in air pollutant emissions.
Defects include, but are not limited to,
visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the cover
section seams or between the interface of the
cover edge and its foundation mountings;
broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged seals
or gaskets on closure devices; and broken or
missing hatches, access covers, caps, or
other closure devices.
???
B) The owner or operator shall perform an
initial inspection of the floating membrane
cover and its closure devices on or before
the date that the surface impoundment becomes
subject to this Section. Thereafter, the
owner or operator shall perform the
inspections at least once every year except
for the special conditions provided for in
subsection (g) of this Section.
C) In the event that a defect is detected, the
owner or operator shall repair the defect in
accordance with the requirements of
subsection (f) of this Section.
D) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 725.990(c).
d) The owner or operator that controls air pollutant
emissions from a surface impoundment using a cover
vented to a control device shall meet the requirements
specified in subsections (d)(1) through (d)(3) of this
Section.
1) The surface impoundment must be covered by a cover
and vented directly through a closed-vent system
to a control device in accordance with the
following requirements:
A) The cover and its closure devices must be
designed to form a continuous barrier over
the entire surface area of the liquid in the
surface impoundment.
B) Each opening in the cover not vented to the
control device must be equipped with a
closure device. If the pressure in the vapor
headspace underneath the cover is less than
atmospheric pressure when the control device
is operating, the closure devices must be
designed to operate such that when the
closure device is secured in the closed
position there are no visible cracks, holes,
gaps, or other open spaces in the closure
device or between the perimeter of the cover
opening and the closure device. If the
pressure in the vapor headspace underneath
the cover is equal to or greater than
atmospheric pressure when the control device
is operating, the closure device must be
designed to operate with no detectable
???
organic emissions using the procedure
specified in Section 725.984(d).
C) The cover and its closure devices must be
made of suitable materials that will minimize
exposure of the hazardous waste to the
atmosphere, to the extent practical, and will
maintain the integrity of the cover and
closure devices throughout their intended
service life. Factors to be considered when
selecting the materials for and designing the
cover and closure devices must include the
following: the organic vapor permeability;
the effects of any contact with the liquid or
its vapors managed in the surface
impoundment; the effects of outdoor exposure
to wind, moisture, and sunlight; and the
operating practices used for the surface
impoundment on which the cover is installed.
D) The closed-vent system and control device
must be designed and operated in accordance
with the requirements of Section 725.988.
2) Whenever a hazardous waste is in the surface
impoundment, the cover must be installed with each
closure device secured in the closed position and
the vapor headspace underneath the cover vented to
the control device except as follows:
A) Venting to the control device is not
required, and opening of closure devices or
removal of the cover is allowed at the
following times:
i) To provide access to the surface
impoundment for performing routine
inspection, maintenance, or other
activities needed for normal
operations. Examples of such activities
include those times when a worker needs
to open a port to sample liquid in the
surface impoundment, or when a worker
needs to open a hatch to maintain or
repair equipment. Following completion
of the activity, the owner or operator
shall promptly secure the closure device
in the closed position or reinstall the
cover, as applicable, to the surface
impoundment.
???
ii) To remove accumulated sludge or other
residues from the bottom of surface
impoundment.
B) Opening of a safety device, as defined in
Section 725.981, is allowed at any time
conditions require doing so to avoid an
unsafe condition.
3) The owner or operator shall inspect and monitor
the air emission control equipment in accordance
with the following procedures:
A) The surface impoundment cover and its closure
devices must be visually inspected by the
owner or operator to check for defects that
could result in air pollutant emissions.
Defects include, but are not limited to,
visible cracks, holes, or gaps in the cover
section seams or between the interface of the
cover edge and its foundation mountings;
broken, cracked, or otherwise damaged seals
or gaskets on closure devices; and broken or
missing hatches, access covers, caps, or
other closure devices.
B) The closed-vent system and control device
must be inspected and monitored by the owner
or operator in accordance with the procedures
specified in Section 725.988.
C) The owner or operator shall perform an
initial inspection of the air emission
control equipment on or before the date that
the surface impoundment becomes subject to
this Section. Thereafter, the owner or
operator shall perform the inspections at
least once every year except for the special
conditions provided for in subsection (g) of
this Section.
D) In the event that a defect is detected, the
owner or operator shall repair the defect in
accordance with the requirements of
subsection (f) of this Section.
E) The owner or operator shall maintain a record
of the inspection in accordance with the
requirements specified in Section 725.990(c).
???
e) The owner or operator shall transfer hazardous waste to
a surface impoundment subject to this Section in
accordance with the following requirements:
1) Transfer of hazardous waste, except as provided in
subsection (e)(2) of this Section, to the surface
impoundment from another surface impoundment
subject to this Section or from a tank subject to
Section 725.985 must be conducted using continuous
hard-piping or another closed system that does not
allow exposure of the waste to the atmosphere.
For the purpose of complying with this provision,
an individual drain system is considered to be a
closed system when it meets the requirements of 40
CFR 63, Subpart RR, “National Emission Standards
for Individual Drain Systems”, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
2) The requirements of subsection (e)(1) of this
Section do not apply when transferring a hazardous
waste to the surface impoundment under either of
the following conditions:
A) The hazardous waste meets the average VO
concentration conditions specified in Section
725.983(c)(1) at the point of waste
origination.
B) The hazardous waste has been treated by an
organic destruction or removal process to
meet the requirements in Section 725.983(c)-
(2).
f) The owner or operator shall repair each defect detected
during an inspection performed in accordance with the
requirements of subsection (c)(3) or (d)(3) of this
Section as follows:
1) The owner or operator shall make first efforts at
repair of the defect no later than five calendar
days after detection, and repair must be completed
as soon as possible but no later than 45 calendar
days after detection except as provided in
subsection (f)(2) of this Section.
2) Repair of a defect may be delayed beyond 45
calendar days if the owner or operator determines
that repair of the defect requires emptying or
temporary removal from service of the surface
impoundment and no alternative capacity is
available at the site to accept the hazardous
waste normally managed in the surface
???
impoundment. In this case, the owner or operator
shall repair the defect the next time the process
or unit that is generating the hazardous waste
managed in the tank stops operation. Repair of
the defect must be completed before the process or
unit resumes operation.
g) Following the initial inspection and monitoring of the
cover as required by the applicable provisions of this
Subpart, subsequent inspection and monitoring may be
performed at intervals longer than one year in the case
when inspecting or monitoring the cover would expose a
worker to dangerous, hazardous, or other unsafe
conditions. In this case, the owner or operator may
designate the cover as an “unsafe to inspect and
monitor cover” and comply with all of the following
requirements:
1) Prepare a written explanation for the cover
stating the reasons why the cover is unsafe to
visually inspect or to monitor, if required.
2) Develop and implement a written plan and schedule
to inspect and monitor the cover using the
procedures specified in the applicable Section of
this Subpart as frequently as practicable during
those times when a worker can safely access the
cover.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.988 Standards: Closed-ventVent Systems and
Control Devices
a) This Section applies to each closed-vent system and
control device installed and operated by the owner or
operator to control air emissions in accordance with
standards of this Subpart.
b) The closed-vent system must meet the following
requirements:
1) The closed-vent system must route the gases,
vapors, and fumes emitted from the hazardous waste
in the waste management unit to a control device
that meets the requirements specified in
subsection (c) of this Section.
2) The closed-vent system must be designed and
operated in accordance with the requirements
specified in Section 725.933(j).
???
3) When the closed-vent system includes bypass
devices that could be used to divert the gas or
vapor stream to the atmosphere before entering the
control device, each bypass device must be
equipped with either a flow indicator as specified
in subsection (b)(3)(A) of this Section or a seal
or locking device as specified in subsection (b)-
(3)(B) of this Section. For the purpose of
complying with this subsection, low leg drains,
high point bleeds, analyzer vents, open-ended
valves or lines, spring-loaded pressure relief
valves, and other fittings used for safety
purposes are not considered to be bypass devices.
A) If a flow indicator is used to comply with
this subsection (b)(3), the indicator must be
installed at the inlet to the bypass line
used to divert gases and vapors from the
closed-vent system to the atmosphere at a
point upstream of the control device inlet.
For the purposes of this subsection, a flow
indicator means a device which indicates the
presence of either gas or vapor flow in the
bypass line.
B) If a seal or locking device is used to comply
with this subsection (b)(3), the device must
be placed on the mechanism by which the
bypass device position is controlled (e.g.,
valve handle or damper lever) when the bypass
device is in the closed position such that
the bypass device cannot be opened without
breaking the seal or removing the lock.
Examples of such devices include, but are not
limited to, a car-seal or a lock-and-key
configuration valve. The owner or operator
shall visually inspect the seal or closure
mechanism at least once every month to verify
that the bypass mechanism is maintained in
the closed position.
4) The closed-vent system must be inspected and
monitored by the owner or operator in accordance
with the procedure specified in Section
725.933(k).
c) The control device must meet the following
requirements:
1) The control device must be one of the following
devices:
???
A) A control device designed and operated to
reduce the total organic content of the inlet
vapor stream vented to the control device by
at least 95% by weight;
B) An enclosed combustion device designed and
operated in accordance with the requirements
of Section 725.933(c); or
C) A flare designed and operated in accordance
with the requirements of Section 725.933(d).
2) The owner or operator that elects to use a closed-
vent system and control device to comply with the
requirements of this Section shall comply with the
requirements specified in subsections (c)(2)(A)
through (c)(2)(G) of this Section.
A) Periods of planned routine maintenance of the
control device, during which the control
device does not meet the specifications of
subsections (c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), or (c)(1)-
(C) of this Section, as applicable, must not
exceed 240 hours per year.
B) The specifications and requirements in
subsections (c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), and (c)(1)-
(C) of this Section for control devices do
not apply during periods of planned routine
maintenance.
C) The specifications and requirements in
subsections (c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), and (c)(1)-
(C) of this Section for control devices do
not apply during a control device system
malfunction.
D) The owner or operator shall demonstrate
compliance with the requirements of
subsection (c)(2)(A) of this Section (i.e.,
planned routine maintenance of a control
device, during which the control device does
not meet the specifications of subsections
(c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), or (c)(1)(C) of this
Section, as applicable, must not exceed 240
hours per year) by recording the information
specified in Section 725.990(e)(1)(E).
E) The owner or operator shall correct control
device system malfunctions as soon as
practicable after their occurrence in order
???
to minimize excess emissions of air
pollutants.
F) The owner or operator shall operate the
closed-vent system so that gases, vapors, or
fumes are not actively vented to the control
device during periods of planned maintenance
or control device system malfunction (i.e.,
periods when the control device is not
operating or not operating normally), except
in cases when it is necessary to vent the
gases, vapors, or fumes to avoid an unsafe
condition or to implement malfunction
corrective actions or planned maintenance
actions.
3) The owner or operator using a carbon adsorption
system to comply with subsection (c)(1) of this
Section shall operate and maintain the control
device in accordance with the following
requirements:
A) Following the initial startup of the control
device, all activated carbon in the control
device must be replaced with fresh carbon on
a regular basis in accordance with the
requirements of Section 725.933(g) or
725.933(h).
B) All carbon removed from the control device
must be managed in accordance with the
requirements of Section 725.933(m).
4) An owner or operator using a control device other
than a thermal vapor incinerator, flare, boiler,
process heater, condenser, or carbon adsorption
system to comply with subsection (c)(1) of this
Section shall operate and maintain the control
device in accordance with the requirements of
Section 725.933(i).
5) The owner or operator shall demonstrate that a
control device achieves the performance
requirements of subsection (c)(1) of this Section
as follows:
A) An owner or operator shall demonstrate using
either a performance test, as specified in
subsection (c)(5)(C) of this Section, or a
design analysis, as specified in subsection
(c)(5)(D) of this Section, the performance of
each control device except for the following:
???
i) A flare;
ii) A boiler or process heater with a design
heat input capacity of 44 megawatts or
greater;
iii) A boiler or process heater into which
the vent stream is introduced with the
primary fuel;
iv) A boiler or industrial furnace burning
hazardous waste for which the owner or
operator has been issued a final permit
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, and
705 and has designed and operates in
accordance with the requirements of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 726.Subpart H; or
v) A boiler or industrial furnace burning
hazardous waste for which the owner or
operator has designed and operates in
accordance with the interim status
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.Subpart H.
B) An owner or operator shall demonstrate the
performance of each flare in accordance with
the requirements specified in Section
725.933(e).
C) For a performance test conducted to meet the
requirements of subsection (c)(5)(A) of this
Section, the owner or operator shall use the
test methods and procedures specified in
Section 725.934(c)(1) through (c)(4).
D) For a design analysis conducted to meet the
requirements of subsection (c)(5)(A) of this
Section, the design analysis must meet the
requirements specified in Section 725.935(b)-
(4)(C).
E) The owner or operator shall demonstrate that
a carbon adsorption system achieves the
performance requirements of subsection (c)(1)
of this Section based on the total quantity
of organics vented to the atmosphere from all
carbon adsorption system equipment that is
used for organic adsorption, organic
desorption or carbon regeneration, organic
recovery, and carbon disposal.
???
6) If the owner or operator and the Agency do not
agree on a demonstration of control device
performance using a design analysis, then the
disagreement must be resolved using the results of
a performance test performed by the owner or
operator in accordance with the requirements of
subsection (c)(5)(C) of this Section. The Agency
may choose to have an authorized representative
observe the performance test.
7) The control device must be inspected and monitored
by the owner or operator in accordance with the
procedures specified in Section
725.1033725.933(f)(2) and (k). The readings from
each monitoring device required by Section
725.1033725.933(f)(2) must be inspected at least
once each operating day to check control device
operation. Any necessary corrective measures must
be immediately implemented to ensure the control
device is operated in compliance with the
requirements of this Section.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.989 Inspection and Monitoring Requirements
a) The owner or operator shall inspect and monitor air
emission control equipment used to comply with this
Subpart in accordance with the requirements specified
in Sections 725.985 through 725.988.
b) The owner or operator shall develop and implement a
written plan and schedule to perform the inspections
and monitoring required by subsection (a) of this
Section. The owner or operator shall incorporate this
plan and schedule into the facility inspection plan
required under Section 265.115725.115.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.990 Recordkeeping Requirements
a) Each owner or operator of a facility subject to
requirements in this Subpart shall record and maintain
the information specified in subsections (b) through
(i) of this Section, as applicable to the facility.
Except for air emission control equipment design
documentation and information required by subsection
(i) of this Section, records required by this Section
???
must be maintained in the operating record for a
minimum of three years. Air emission control equipment
design documentation must be maintained in the
operating record until the air emission control
equipment is replaced or is otherwise no longer in
service. Information required by subsection (i) of
this Section must be maintained in the operating record
for as long as the tank or container is not using air
emission controls specified in Sections 264.984724.984
through 264.987724.987, in accordance with the
conditions specified in Section 724.984(d).
b) The owner or operator of a tank using air emission
controls in accordance with the requirements of Section
725.985 shall prepare and maintain records for the tank
that include the following information:
1) For each tank using air emission controls in
accordance with the requirements of Section
725.985 of this Subpart, the owner or operator
shall record:
A) A tank identification number (or other unique
identification description as selected by the
owner or operator).
B) A record for each inspection required by
Section 725.985 that includes the following
information:
i) Date inspection was conducted.
ii) For each defect detected during the
inspection, the following information:
the location of the defect, a
description of the defect, the date of
detection, and corrective action taken
to repair the defect. In the event that
repair of the defect is delayed in
accordance with the provisions of
Section 725.985, the owner or operator
shall also record the reason for the
delay and the date that completion of
repair of the defect is expected.
2) In addition to the information required by
subsection (b)(1) of this Section, the owner or
operator shall record the following information,
as applicable to the tank:
A) The owner or operator using a fixed roof to
comply with the Tank Level 1 control
???
requirements specified in Section 725.985(c)
shall prepare and maintain records for each
determination for the maximum organic vapor
pressure of the hazardous waste in the tank
performed in accordance with the requirements
of Section 725.985(c). The records must
include the date and time the samples were
collected, the analysis method used, and the
analysis results.
B) The owner or operator using an internal
floating roof to comply with the Tank Level 2
control requirements specified in Section
725.985(e) shall prepare and maintain
documentation describing the floating roof
design.
C) Owners and operators using an external
floating roof to comply with the Tank Level 2
control requirements specified in Section
725.985(f) shall prepare and maintain the
following records:
i) Documentation describing the floating
roof design and the dimensions of the
tank.
ii) Records for each seal gap inspection
required by Section 725.985(f)(3)
describing the results of the seal gap
measurements. The records must include
the date that the measurements were
performed, the raw data obtained for the
measurements, and the calculations of
the total gap surface area. In the
event that the seal gap measurements do
not conform to the specifications in
Section 725.985(f)(1), the records must
include a description of the repairs
that were made, the date the repairs
were made, and the date the tank was
emptied, if necessary.
D) Each owner or operator using an enclosure to
comply with the Tank Level 2 control
requirements specified in Section 725.985(i)
shall prepare and maintain the following
records:
i) Records for the most recent set of
calculations and measurements performed
by the owner or operator to verify that
???
the enclosure meets the criteria of a
permanent total enclosure as specified
in “Procedure T--Criteria for and
Verification of a Permanent or Temporary
Total Enclosure” under 40 CFR 52.741,
appendix B, incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
ii) Records required for the closed-vent
system and control device in accordance
with the requirements of subsection (e)
of this Section.
c) The owner or operator of a surface impoundment using
air emission controls in accordance with the
requirements of Section 725.986 shall prepare and
maintain records for the surface impoundment that
include the following information:
1) A surface impoundment identification number (or
other unique identification description as
selected by the owner or operator).
2) Documentation describing the floating membrane
cover or cover design, as applicable to the
surface impoundment, that includes information
prepared by the owner or operator or provided by
the cover manufacturer or vendor describing the
cover design, and certification by the owner or
operator that the cover meets the specifications
listed in Section 725.986(c).
3) A record for each inspection required by Section
725.986 that includes the following information:
A) Date inspection was conducted.
B) For each defect detected during the
inspection the following information: the
location of the defect, a description of the
defect, the date of detection, and corrective
action taken to repair the defect. In the
event that repair of the defect is delayed in
accordance with the provisions of Section
725.986(f), the owner or operator shall also
record the reason for the delay and the date
that completion of repair of the defect is
expected.
4) For a surface impoundment equipped with a cover
and vented through a closed-vent system to a
control device, the owner or operator shall
???
prepare and maintain the records specified in
subsection (e) of this Section.
d) The owner or operator of containers using Container
Level 3 air emission controls in accordance with the
requirements of Section 725.987 shall prepare and
maintain records that include the following
information:
1) Records for the most recent set of calculations
and measurements performed by the owner or
operator to verify that the enclosure meets the
criteria of a permanent total enclosure as
specified in “Procedure T--Criteria for and
Verification of a Permanent or Temporary Total
Enclosure” under 40 CFR 52.741, appendix B,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111.
2) Records required for the closed-vent system and
control device in accordance with the requirements
of subsection (e) of this Section.
e) The owner or operator using a closed-vent system and
control device in accordance with the requirements of
Section 725.988 shall prepare and maintain records that
include the following information:
1) Documentation for the closed-vent system and
control device that includes:
A) Certification that is signed and dated by the
owner or operator stating that the control
device is designed to operate at the
performance level documented by a design
analysis as specified in subsection (e)(1)(B)
of this Section or by performance tests as
specified in subsection (e)(1)(C) of this
Section when the tank, surface impoundment,
or container is or would be operating at
capacity or the highest level reasonably
expected to occur.
B) If a design analysis is used, then design
documentation, as specified in Section
725.1035725.935(b)(4). The documentation
must include information prepared by the
owner or operator or provided by the control
device manufacturer or vendor that describes
the control device design in accordance with
Section 725.1035725.935(b)(4)(C) and
certification by the owner or operator that
???
the control equipment meets the applicable
specifications.
C) If performance tests are used, then a
performance test plan as specified in Section
265.935725.935(b)(3) and all test results.
D) Information as required by 40 CFR
265.1035(c)(1)Section 725.935(c)(1) and
Section 725.935(c)(2), as applicable.
E) An owner or operator shall record, on a
semiannual basis, the information specified
in subsections (e)(1)(E)(i) and (e)(1)(E)(ii)
of this Section for those planned routine
maintenance operations that would require the
control device not to meet the requirements
of Section 725.988(c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), or
(c)(1)(C), as applicable.
i) A description of the planned routine
maintenance that is anticipated to be
performed for the control device during
the next six-month period. This
description must include the type of
maintenance necessary, planned frequency
of maintenance, and lengths of
maintenance periods.
ii) A description of the planned routine
maintenance that was performed for the
control device during the previous six-
month period. This description must
include the type of maintenance
performed and the total number of hours
during those six months that the control
device did not meet the requirements of
Section 725.988(c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), or
(c)(1)(C), as applicable, due to planned
routine maintenance.
F) An owner or operator shall record the
information specified in subsections (e)(1)-
(F)(i) through (e)(1)(F)(iii) of this Section
for those unexpected control device system
malfunctions that would require the control
device not to meet the requirements of
Section 725.988(c)(1)(A), (c)(1)(B), or (c)-
(1)(C), as applicable.
???
i) The occurrence and duration of each
malfunction of the control device
system.
ii) The duration of each period during a
malfunction when gases, vapors, or fumes
are vented from the waste management
unit through the closed-vent system to
the control device while the control
device is not properly functioning.
iii) Actions taken during periods of
malfunction to restore a malfunctioning
control device to its normal or usual
manner of operation.
G) Records of the management of carbon removed
from a carbon adsorption system conducted in
accordance with Section 725.988(c)(3)(B).
f) The owner or operator of a tank, surface impoundment,
or container exempted from standards in accordance with
the provisions of Section 725.983(c) of this Subpart
shall prepare and maintain the following records, as
applicable:
1) For tanks, surface impoundments, or containers
exempted under the hazardous waste organic
concentration conditions specified in Section
725.983 (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this Subpart, the
owner or operator shall record the information
used for each waste determination (e.g., test
results, measurements, calculations, and other
documentation) in the facility operating log. If
analysis results for waste samples are used for
the waste determination, then the owner or
operator shall record the date, time, and location
that each waste sample is collected in accordance
with applicable requirements of Section 725.984 of
this Subpart.
2) For tanks, surface impoundments, or containers
exempted under the provisions of Section
725.983(c)(2)(vii) or Section 725.983(c)(2)(viii)
of this Subpart, the owner or operator shall
record the identification number for the
incinerator, boiler, or industrial furnace in
which the hazardous waste is treated.
g) An owner or operator designating a cover as “unsafe to
inspect and monitor” pursuant to Section 725.985(l)
shall record in a log that is kept in the facility
???
operating record the following information: the
identification numbers for waste management units with
covers that are designated as “unsafe to inspect and
monitor”, the explanation for each cover stating why
the cover is unsafe to inspect and monitor, and the
plan and schedule for inspecting and monitoring each
cover.
h) The owner or operator of a facility that is subject to
this Subpart and to the control device standards in 40
CFR 60, Subpart VV, or 40 CFR 61, Subpart V,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 270.111,
may elect to demonstrate compliance with the applicable
Sections of this Subpart by documentation either
pursuant to this Subpart, or pursuant to the provisions
of 40 CFR 60, Subpart VV or 40 CFR 61, Subpart V, to
the extent that the documentation required by 40 CFR 60
or 61 duplicates the documentation required by this
Section.
i) For each tank or container not using air emission
controls specified in Sections 725.985 through 725.988
in accordance with the conditions specified in Section
725.980(d), the owner or operator shall record and
maintain the following information:
1) A list of the individual organic peroxide
compounds manufactured at the facility that meet
the conditions specified in Section 725.980(d)(1).
2) A description of how the hazardous waste
containing the organic peroxide compounds
identified pursuant to subsection (i)(1) are
managed at the facility in tanks and containers.
This description must include the following
information:
A) For the tanks used at the facility to manage
this hazardous waste, sufficient information
must be provided to describe each tank: a
facility identification number for the tank,
the purpose and placement of this tank in the
management train of this hazardous waste, and
the procedures used to ultimately dispose of
the hazardous waste managed in the tanks.
B) For containers used at the facility to manage
this hazardous waste, sufficient information
must be provided to describe the following
for each container: a facility
identification number for the container or
group of containers; the purpose and
???
placement of this container or group of
containers in the management train of this
hazardous waste; and the procedures used to
ultimately dispose of the hazardous waste
handled in the containers.
3) An explanation of why managing the hazardous waste
containing the organic peroxide compounds
identified pursuant to subsection (i)(1) of this
Section in the tanks or containers identified
pursuant to subsection (i)(2) of this Section
would create an undue safety hazard if the air
emission controls specified in Sections 725.985
through 725.988 were installed and operated on
these waste management units. This explanation
must include the following information:
A) For tanks used at the facility to manage this
hazardous waste, sufficient information must
be provided to explain: how use of the
required air emission controls on the tanks
would affect the tank design features and
facility operating procedures currently used
to prevent an undue safety hazard during the
management of this hazardous waste in the
tanks; and why installation of safety devices
on the required air emission controls, as
allowed under this Subpart, would not address
those situations in which evacuation of tanks
equipped with these air emission controls is
necessary and consistent with good
engineering and safety practices for handling
organic peroxides.
B) For containers used at the facility to manage
this hazardous waste, sufficient information
must be provided to explain: how use of the
required air emission controls on the
containers would affect the container design
features and handling procedures currently
used to prevent an undue safety hazard during
management of this hazardous waste in the
containers; and why installation of safety
devices on the required air emission
controls, as allowed under this Subpart,
would not address those situations in which
evacuation of containers equipped with these
air emission controls is necessary and
consistent with good engineering and safety
practices for handling organic peroxides.
???
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART EE: HAZARDOUS WASTE MUNITIONS AND EXPLOSIVES
STORAGE
Section 725.1200 Applicability
The requirements of this Subpart EE apply to owners or operators
who store munitions and explosive hazardous wastes, except as
Section 725.101 provides otherwise.
BOARD NOTE: Depending on explosive hazards, hazardous waste
munitions and explosives may also be managed in other types of
storage units, including containment buildings (725.Subpart DD of
this Part), tanks (725.Subpart J of this Part), or containers
(725.Subpart I of this Part); see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.305 for
storage of waste military munitions.
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.1201 Design and Operating Standards
a) An owner or operator of a hazardous waste munitions and
explosives storage unit shall design and operate the
unit with containment systems, controls, and
monitoring, that fulfill each of the following
requirements:
1) The owner or operator minimizes the potential for
detonation or other means of release of hazardous
waste, hazardous constituents, hazardous
decomposition products, or contaminated run-off to
the soil, ground water, surface water, and
atmosphere;
2) The owner or operator provides a primary barrier,
which may be a container (including a shell) or
tank, designed to contain the hazardous waste;
3) For wastes stored outdoors, the owner or operator
provides that the waste and containers will not be
in standing precipitation;
4) For liquid wastes, the owner or operator provides
a secondary containment system that assures that
any released liquids are contained and promptly
detected and removed from the waste area or a
vapor detection system that assures that any
released liquids or vapors are promptly detected
???
and an appropriate response taken (e.g.,
additional containment, such as overpacking or
removal from the waste area); and
5) The owner or operator provides monitoring and
inspection procedures that assure the controls and
containment systems are working as designed and
that releases that may adversely impact human
health or the environment are not escaping from
the unit.
b) Hazardous waste munitions and explosives stored under
this Subpart EE may be stored in one of the following:
1) Earth-covered magazines. The owner or operator of
an earth-covered magazine shall fulfill each of
the following requirements:
A) The magazine is constructed of waterproofed,
reinforced concrete or structural steel
arches, with steel doors that are kept closed
when not being accessed;
B) The magazine is so designed and constructed
that it fulfills each of the following
requirements:
i) The magazine is of sufficient strength
and thickness to support the weight of
any explosives or munitions stored and
any equipment used in the unit;
ii) The magazine provides working space for
personnel and equipment in the unit; and
iii) The magazine can withstand movement
activities that occur in the unit; and
C) The magazine is located and designed, with
walls and earthen covers that direct an
explosion in the unit in a safe direction, so
as to minimize the propagation of an
explosion to adjacent units and to minimize
other effects of any explosion.
2) Above-ground magazines. Above-ground magazines
must be located and designed so as to minimize the
propagation of an explosion to adjacent units and
to minimize other effects of any explosion.
3) Outdoor or open storage areas. Outdoor or open
storage areas must be located and designed so as
???
to minimize the propagation of an explosion to
adjacent units and to minimize other effects of
any explosion.
c) An owner or operator shall store hazardous waste
munitions and explosives in accordance with a Standard
Operating Procedure that specifies procedures which
ensure safety, security, and environmental protection.
If these procedures serve the same purpose as the
security and inspection requirements of Section
725.114, the preparedness and prevention procedures of
725.Subpart C of this Part, and the contingency plan
and emergency procedures requirements of 725.Subpart D
of this Part, then the Standard Operating Procedure may
be used to fulfill those requirements.
d) An owner or operator shall package hazardous waste
munitions and explosives to ensure safety in handling
and storage.
e) An owner or operator shall inventory hazardous waste
munitions and explosives inventoried at least annually.
f) An owner or operator shall ininspect and monitor
hazardous waste munitions and explosives and their
storage units as necessary to ensure explosives safety
and to ensure that there is no migration of
contaminants out of the unit.
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.1202 Closure and Post-Closure Care
a) At closure of a magazine or unit which stored hazardous
waste under this subpart, the owner or operator shall
remove or decontaminate all waste residues,
contaminated containment system components,
contaminated subsoils, and structures and equipment
contaminated with waste and manage them as hazardous
waste unless 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(d) applies. The
closure plan, closure activities, cost estimates for
closure, and financial responsibility for magazines or
units must meet all of the requirements specified in
725.Subparts G and H of this Part, except that the
owner or operator may defer closure of the unit as long
as it remains in service as a munitions or explosives
magazine or storage unit.
b) If, after removing or decontaminating all residues and
making all reasonable efforts to effect removal or
decontamination of contaminated components, subsoils,
???
structures, and equipment as required in subsection (a)
of this Section, the owner or operator finds that not
all contaminated subsoils can be practicably removed or
decontaminated, the owner or operator shall close the
facility and perform post-closure care in accordance
with the closure and post-closure requirements that
apply to landfills (see 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.410).
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 725.Appendix F Compounds With Henry’s Law Constant Less
Than 0.1 Y/X (at 25
°
C)
Compound name CAS No.
Acetaldol 107-89-1
Acetamide 60-35-5
2-Acetylaminofluorene 53-96-3
3-Acetyl-5-hydroxypiperidine
3-Acetylpiperidine 618-42-8
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea 591-08-2
Acrylamide 79-06-1
Acrylic acid 79-10-7
Adenine 73-24-5
Adipic acid 124-04-9
Adiponitrile 111-69-3
Alachlor 15972-60-8
Aldicarb 116-06-3
Ametryn 834-12-8
4-Aminobiphenyl 92-67-1
4-Aminopyridine 504-24-5
Aniline 62-53-3
o-Anisidine 90-04-0
Anthraquinone 84-65-1
Atrazine 1912-24-9
Benzenearsonic acid 98-05-5
Benzenesulfonic acid 98-11-3
Benzidine 92-87-5
Benzo(a)anthracene 56-55-3
Benzo(k)fluoranthene 207-08-9
Benzoic acid 65-85-0
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene 191-24-2
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8
Benzyl alcohol 100-51-6
gamma
γ
-BHC
58-89-9
Bis(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate 117-81-7
Bromochloromethyl acetate
Bromoxynil 1689-84-5
Butyric acid 107-92-6
???
Caprolactam (hexahydro-2H-azepin-2-one) 105-60-2
Catechol (o-dihydroxybenzene) 120-80-9
Cellulose 9004-34-6
Cell wall
Chlorhydrin (3-Chloro-1,2-propanediol) 96-24-2
Chloroacetic acid 79-11-8
2-Chloroacetophenone 93-76-5
p-Chloroaniline 106-47-8
p-Chlorobenzophenone 134-85-0
Chlorobenzylate 510-15-6
p-Chloro-m-cresol (6-chloro-m-cresol) 59-50-7
3-Chloro-2,5-diketopyrrolidine
Chloro-1,2-ethane diol
4-Chlorophenol 106-48-9
Chlorophenol polymers (2-chlorophenol & 4-
chlorophenol)
95-57-8 &
106-48-9
1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea 5344-82-1
Chrysene 218-01-9
Citric acid 77-92-9
Creosote 8001-58-9
m-Cresol 108-39-4
o-Cresol 95-48-7
p-Cresol 106-44-5
Cresol (mixed isomers) 1319-77-3
4-Cumylphenol 27576-86
Cyanide 57-12-5
4-Cyanomethyl benzoate
Diazinon 333-41-5
Dibenzo(a,h)anthracene 53-70-3
3,5-Dibromo-4-hydroxybenzonitrile 1689-84-5
Dibutylphthalate 84-74-2
2,5-Dichloroaniline (N,N'-dichloroaniline) 95-82-9
2,6-Dichlorobenzonitrile 1194-65-6
2,6-Dichloro-4-nitroaniline 99-30-9
2,5-Dichlorophenol
3,4-Dichlorotetrahydrofuran 3511-19
Dichlorvos 106-47-8
Diethanolamine 111-42-2
N,N-Diethylaniline 91-66-7
Diethylene glycol 111-46-6
Diethylene glycol dimethyl ether (dimethyl
Carbitol)
111-96-6
Diethylene glycol monobutyl ether (butyl
Carbitol)
112-34-5
Diethylene glycol monoethyl ether acetate
(Carbitol acetate)
112-15-2
Diethylene glycol monoethyl ether (Carbitol
Cellosolve)
111-90-0
Diethylene glycol monomethyl ether (methyl
Carbitol)
111-77-3
N,N'-Diethylhydrazine 1615-80-1
Diethyl(4-methylumbelliferyl)thionophosphate 299-45-6
???
Diethylphosphorothioate 126-75-0
N,N'-Diethylpropionamide 15299-99-7
Dimethoate 60-51-5
4-Dimethylaminoazobenzene 60-11-7
7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)anthracene 57-97-6
3,3-Dimethylbenzidine 119-93-7
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride 79-44-7
Dimethyldisulfide 624-92-0
Dimethylformamide 68-12-2
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine 57-14-7
Dimethylphthalate 131-11-3
Dimethylsulfone 67-71-0
Dimethylsulfoxide 67-68-5
2,3-Dimethoxystrychnidin-10-one 357-57-3
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 534-52-1
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine 122-66-7
Dipropylene glycol (1,1'-oxydi-2-propanol) 110-98-5
Endrin 72-20-8
Epinephrine 51-43-4
Ethyl carbamate (urethane) 51-79-6
Ethylene glycol 107-21-1
Ethylene glycol monobutyl ether (butyl
Cellosolve)
111-76-2
Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether (Cellosolve) 110-80-5
Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether acetate
(Cellosolve acetate)
111-15-9
Ethylene glycol monomethyl ether (methyl
Cellosolve)
109-86-4
Ethylene glycol monophenyl ether (phenyl
Cellosolve)
122-99-6
Ethylene glycol monopropyl ether (propyl
Cellosolve)
2807-30-9
Ethylene thiourea (2-imidazolidinethione) 9-64-57
4-Ethylmorpholine 100-74-3
3-Ethylphenol 620-17-7
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt 62-74-8
Formaldehyde 50-00-0
Formamide 75-12-7
Formic acid 64-18-6
Fumaric acid 110-17-8
Glutaric acid 110-94-1
Glycerin (Glycerol) 56-81-5
Glycidol 556-52-5
Glycinamide 598-41-4
Glyphosate 1071-83-6
Guthion 86-50-0
Hexamethylene-1,6-diisocyanate (1,6-
diisocyanatohexane)
822-06-0
Hexamethyl phosphoramide 680-31-9
Hexanoic acid 142-62-1
Hydrazine 302-01-2
Hydrocyanic acid 74-90-8
???
Hydroquinone 123-31-9
Hydroxy-2-propionitrile (hydracrylonitrile) 109-78-4
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 193-39-5
Lead acetate 301-04-2
Lead subacetate (lead acetate, monobasic) 1335-32-6
Leucine 61-90-5
Malathion 121-75-5
Maleic acid 110-16-7
Maleic anhydride 108-31-6
Mesityl oxide 141-79-7
Methane sulfonic acid 75-75-2
Methomyl 16752-77-5
p-Methoxyphenol 150-76-5
Methylacrylate 96-33-3
4,4'-Methylene-bis-(2-chloroaniline) 101-14-4
4,4'-Methylenediphenyl diisocyanate (diphenyl
methane diisocyanate)
101-68-8
4,4'-Methylenedianiline 101-77-9
Methylene diphenylamine (MDA)
5-Methylfurfural 620-02-0
Methylhydrazine 60-34-4
Methyliminoacetic acid
Methyl methane sulfonate 66-27-3
1-Methyl-2-methoxyaziridine
Methylparathion 298-00-0
Methyl sulfuric acid (sulfuric acid, dimethyl
ester)
77-78-1
4-Methylthiophenol 106-45-6
Monoethanolamine 141-43-5
Monomethylformamide (N-methylformamide) 123-39-7
Nabam 142-59-6
alpha
α
-Naphthol
90-15-3
beta
β
-Naphthol
135-19-3
alpha
α
-Naphthylamine
134-32-7
beta
β
-Naphthylamine
91-59-8
Neopentyl glycol 126-30-7
Niacinamide 98-92-0
o-Nitroaniline 88-74-4
Nitroglycerin 55-63-0
2-Nitrophenol 88-75-5
4-Nitrophenol 100-02-7
N-Nitrosodimethylamine 62-75-9
Nitrosoguanidine 674-81-7
N-Nitroso-n-methylurea 684-93-5
N-Nitrosomorpholine (4-nitrosomorpholine) 59-89-2
Oxalic acid 144-62-7
Parathion 56-38-2
Pentaerythritol 115-77-5
Phenacetin 62-44-2
Phenol 108-95-2
Phenylacetic acid 103-82-2
???
m-Phenylene diamine 108-45-2
o-Phenylene diamine 95-54-5
p-Phenylene diamine 106-50-3
Phenyl mercuric acetate 62-38-4
Phorate 298-02-2
Phthalic anhydride 85-44-9
alpha
α
-Picoline (2-methyl pyridine)
109-06-8
1,3-Propane sulfone 1120-71-4
beta
β
-Propiolactone
57-57-8
Proporur (Baygon)
Propylene glycol 57-55-6
Pyrene 129-00-0
Pyridinium bromide 39416-48-3
Quinoline 91-22-5
Quinone (p-benzoquinone) 106-51-4
Resorcinol 108-46-3
Simazine 122-34-9
Sodium acetate 127-09-3
Sodium formate 141-53-7
Strychnine 57-24-9
Succinic acid 110-15-6
Succinimide 123-56-8
Sulfanilic acid 121-47-1
Terephthalic acid 100-21-0
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate 3689-24-5
Tetraethylenepentamine 112-57-2
Thiofanox 39196-18-4
Thiosemicarbazide 79-19-6
2,4-Toluenediamine 95-80-7
2,6-Toluenediamine 823-40-5
3,4-Toluenediamine 496-72-0
2,4-Toluene diisocyanate 584-84-9
p-Toluic acid 99-94-5
m-Toluidine 108-44-1
1,1,2-Trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane 76-13-1
Triethanolamine 102-71-6
Triethylene glycol dimethyl ether
Tripropylene glycol 24800-44-0
Warfarin 81-81-2
3,4-Xylenol (3,4-dimethylphenol) 95-65-8
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
???
PART 726
STANDARDS FOR THE MANAGEMENT OF SPECIFIC HAZARDOUS
WASTE AND SPECIFIC TYPES OF HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT
FACILITIES
SUBPART C: RECYCLABLE MATERIALS USED IN A MANNER
CONSTITUTING DISPOSAL
Section
726.120 Applicability
726.121 Standards applicable to generators and transporters of
materials used in a manner that constitutes disposal
726.122 Standards applicable to storers, who are not the
ultimate users, of materials that are to be used in a
manner that constitutes disposal
726.123 Standards Applicable to Users of Materials that are
Used in a Manner that Constitutes Disposal
SUBPART D: HAZARDOUS WASTE BURNED FOR ENERGY RECOVERY
Section
726.130 Applicability (Repealed)
726.131 Prohibitions (Repealed)
726.132 Standards applicable to generators of hazardous waste
fuel (Repealed)
726.133 Standards applicable to transporters of hazardous waste
fuel (Repealed)
726.134 Standards applicable to marketers of hazardous waste
fuel (Repealed)
726.135 Standards applicable to burners of hazardous waste fuel
(Repealed)
726.136 Conditional exemption for spent materials and by-
products exhibiting a characteristic of hazardous waste
(Repealed)
SUBPART E: USED OIL BURNED FOR ENERGY RECOVERY
(Repealed)
Section
726.140 Applicability (Repealed)
726.141 Prohibitions (Repealed)
726.142 Standards applicable to generators of used oil burned
for energy recovery (Repealed)
726.143 Standards applicable to marketers of used oil burned
for energy recovery (Repealed)
726.144 Standards applicable to burners of used oil burned for
energy recovery (Repealed)
SUBPART F: RECYCLABLE MATERIALS UTILIZED FOR PRECIOUS
METAL RECOVERY
Section
726.170 Applicability and requirements
???
SUBPART G: SPENT LEAD-ACID BATTERIES BEING RECLAIMED
Section
726.180 Applicability and requirements
SUBPART H: HAZARDOUS WASTE BURNED IN BOILERS AND
INDUSTRIAL FURNACES
Section
726.200 Applicability
726.201 Management prior to Burning
726.202 Permit standards for Burners
726.203 Interim Status Standards for Burners
726.204 Standards to Control Organic Emissions
726.205 Standards to control PM
726.206 Standards to Control Metals Emissions
726.207 Standards to control HCl and Chlorine Gas Emissions
726.208 Small quantity On-site Burner Exemption
726.209 Low risk waste Exemption
726.210 Waiver of DRE trial burn for Boilers
726.211 Standards for direct Transfer
726.212 Regulation of Residues
726.219 Extensions of Time
SUBPART M: MILITARY MUNITIONS
Section
726.300 Applicability
726.301 Definitions
726.302 Definition of Solid Waste
726.303 Standards Applicable to the Transportation of Solid
Waste Military Munitions
726.304 Standards Applicable to Emergency Responses
726.305 Standards Applicable to the Storage of Solid Waste
Military Munitions
726.306 Standards Applicable to the Treatment and Disposal of
Waste Military Munitions
726.Appendix A Tier I and Tier II Feed Rate and Emissions
Screening Limits for Metals
726.Appendix B Tier I Feed Rate Screening Limits for Total
Chlorine
726.Appendix C Tier II Emission Rate Screening Limits for Free
Chlorine and Hydrogen Chloride
726.Appendix D Reference Air Concentrations
726.Appendix E Risk Specific Doses
726.Appendix F Stack Plume Rise
726.Appendix G Health-Based Limits for Exclusion of Waste-Derived
Residues
726.Appendix H Potential PICs for Determination of Exclusion of
Waste-Derived Residues
726.Appendix I Methods Manual for Compliance with BIF Regulations
726.Appendix J Guideline on Air Quality Models
726.Appendix K Lead-Bearing Materials That May be Processed in
Exempt Lead Smelters
???
726.Appendix L Nickel or Chromium-Bearing Materials that may be
Processed in Exempt Nickel-Chromium Recovery
Furnaces
726.Appendix M Mercury-Bearing Wastes That May Be Processed in
Exempt Mercury Recovery Units
726.Table A Exempt Quantities for Small Quantity Burner
Exemption
AUTHORITY: Implementing Section 22.4 and authorized by Section
27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R85-22 at 10 Ill. Reg. 1162, effective
January 2, 1986; amended in R86-1 at 10 Ill. Reg. 14156,
effective August 12, 1986; amended in R87-26 at 12 Ill. Reg.
2900, effective January 15, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill.
Reg. 18606, effective November 13, 1989; amended in R90-2 at 14
Ill. Reg. 14533, effective August 22, 1990; amended in R90-11 at
15 Ill. Reg. 9727, effective June 17, 1991; amended in R91-13 at
16 Ill. Reg. 9858, effective June 9, 1992; amended in R92-10 at
17 Ill. Reg. 5865, effective March 26, 1993; amended in R93-4 at
17 Ill. Reg. 20904, effective November 22, 1993; amended in R94-7
at 18 Ill. Reg. 12500, effective July 29, 1994; amended in R95-6
at 19 Ill. Reg. 10006, effective June 27, 1995; amended in R95-20
at 20 Ill. Reg. 11263, effective August 1, 1996; amended in R96-
10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 754, effective December 16, 1997;
amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________.
SUBPART H: HAZARDOUS WASTE BURNED IN BOILERS AND
INDUSTRIAL FURNACES
Section 726.204 Standards to Control Organic Emissions
a) DRE standard.
1) General. Except as provided in subsection (a)(3)
below, a BIF burning hazardous waste must achieve
a DRE of 99.99% for all organic hazardous
constituents in the waste feed. To demonstrate
conformance with this requirement, 99.99% DRE must
be demonstrated during a trial burn for each
principal organic hazardous constituent (POHC)
designated (under subsection (a)(2) below) in its
permit for each waste feed. DRE is determined for
each POHC from the following equation:
DRE = 100(I - O)/I
where:
???
I = Mass feed rate of one POHC in the hazardous
waste fired to the BIF; and
O = Mass emission rate of the same POHC present
in stack gas prior to release to the
atmosphere.
2) Designation of POHCs. POHCs are those compounds
for which compliance with the DRE requirements of
this Section must be demonstrated in a trial burn
in conformance with procedures prescribed in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 703.232. One or more POHCs must be
designated by the Agency for each waste feed to be
burned. POHCs must be designated based on the
degree of difficulty of destruction of the organic
constituents in the waste and on their
concentrations or mass in the waste feed
considering the results of waste analyses
submitted with Part B of the permit application.
POHCs are most likely to be selected from among
those compounds listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Appendix H that are also present in the normal
waste feed. However, if the applicant
demonstrates to the Agency that a compound not
listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.Appendix H or not
present in the normal waste feed is a suitable
indicator of compliance with the DRE requirements
of this Section, that compound must be designated
as a POHC. Such POHCs need not be toxic or
organic compounds.
3) Dioxin-listed waste. A BIF burning hazardous
waste containing (or derived from) USEPA Hazardous
Wastes Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 or F027
must achieve a destruction and removal efficiency
(DRE) of 99.9999% for each POHC designated (under
subsection (a)(2) above) in its permit. This
performance must be demonstrated on POHCs that are
more difficult to burn than tetra-, penta- and
hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins and dibenzofurans.
DRE is determined for each POHC from the equation
in subsection (a)(1) above. In addition, the
owner or operator of the BIF shall notify the
Agency of intent to burn USEPA Hazardous Waste
Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 or F027.
4) Automatic waiver of DRE trial burn. Owners and
operators of boilers operated under the special
operating requirements provided by Section 726.210
are considered to be in compliance with the DRE
standard of subsection (a)(1) above and are exempt
from the DRE trial burn.
???
5) Low risk waste. Owners and operators of BIFs that
burn hazardous waste in compliance with the
requirements of Section 726.209(a) are considered
to be in compliance with the DRE standard of
subsection (a)(1) above and are exempt from the
DRE trial burn.
b) CO standard.
1) Except as provided in subsection (c) below, the
stack gas concentration of CO from a BIF burning
hazardous waste cannot exceed 100 ppmv on an
hourly rolling average basis (i.e., over any 60
minute period), continuously corrected to 7
percent oxygen, dry gas basis.
2) CO and oxygen must be continuously monitored in
conformance with “Performance Specifications for
Continuous Emission Monitoring of Carbon Monoxide
and Oxygen for Incinerators, Boilers, and
Industrial Furnaces Burning Hazardous Waste” in
Section 726.Appendix I.
3) Compliance with the 100 ppmv CO limit must be
demonstrated during the trial burn (for new
facilities or an interim status facility applying
for a permit) or the compliance test (for interim
status facilities). To demonstrate compliance,
the highest hourly rolling average CO level during
any valid run of the trial burn or compliance test
must not exceed 100 ppmv.
c) Alternative CO standard.
1) The stack gas concentration of CO from a BIF
burning hazardous waste may exceed the 100 ppmv
limit provided that stack gas concentrations of
HCs do not exceed 20 ppmv, except as provided by
subsection (f) below for certain industrial
furnaces.
2) HC limits must be established under this Section
on an hourly rolling average basis (i.e., over any
60 minute period), reported as propane, and
continuously corrected to 7 percent oxygen, dry
gas basis.
3) HC must be continuously monitored in conformance
with “Performance Specifications for Continuous
Emission Monitoring of Hydrocarbons for
Incinerators, Boilers, and Industrial Furnaces
???
Burning Hazardous Waste” in Section 726.Appendix
I. CO and oxygen must be continuously monitored
in conformance with subsection (b)(2) above.
4) The alternative CO standard is established based
on CO data during the trial burn (for a new
facility) and the compliance test (for an interim
status facility). The alternative CO standard is
the average over all valid runs of the highest
hourly average CO level for each run. The CO
limit is implemented on an hourly rolling average
basis, and continuously corrected to 7 percent
oxygen, dry gas basis.
d) Special requirements for furnaces. Owners and
operators of industrial furnaces (e.g., kilns, cupolas)
that feed hazardous waste for a purpose other than
solely as an ingredient (see Section 726.203(a)(5)(B))
at any location other than the end where products are
normally discharged and where fuels are normally fired
must comply with the HC limits provided by subsections
(c) above or (f) below irrespective of whether stack
gas CO concentrations meet the 100 ppmv limit of
subsection (b) above.
e) Controls for dioxins and furans. Owners and operators
of BIFs that are equipped with a dry PM control device
that operates within the temperature range of 450
through 750° F, and industrial furnaces operating under
an alternative HC limit established under subsection
(f) below shall conduct a site-specific risk assessment
as follows to demonstrate that emissions of chlorinated
dibenzo-p-dioxins and dibenzofurans do not result in an
increased lifetime cancer risk to the hypothetical
maximum exposed individual (MEI) exceeding 1´10
-5
(1 in
100,000):
1) During the trial burn (for new facilities or an
interim status facility applying for a permit) or
compliance test (for interim status facilities),
determine emission rates of the tetra-octa
congeners of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins (PCDDs)
and dibenzofurans (CDDs/CDFs) using Method 0023A,
“Determination of Polychlorinated Dibenzo-p-
Dioxins and Polychlorinated Dibenzofurans (PCDFs)
from Stationary Sources”, in Section 726.Appendix
I “Sampling Method for Polychlorinated Dibenzo-p-
Dioxins and Polychlorinated Dibenzofurans
Emissions from Stationary Sources,” USEPA
Publication SW-846, incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111;
???
2) Estimate the 2,3,7,8-TCDD toxicity equivalence of
the tetra-octa CDDs/CDFs congeners using
“Procedures for Estimating the Toxicity
Equivalence of Chlorinated Dibenzo-p-Dioxin and
Dibenzofuran Congeners” in Section 726.Appendix
I. Multiply the emission rates of CDD/CDF
congeners with a toxicity equivalence greater than
zero (see the procedure) by the calculated
toxicity equivalence factor to estimate the
equivalent emission rate of 2,3,7,8-TCDD;
3) Conduct dispersion modeling using methods
recommended in 40 CFR 51, Appendix W, as
incorporated by reference at 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111 (“Guideline on Air Quality Models
(Revised)” (1986) and its supplements), the
“Hazardous Waste Combustion Air Quality Screening
Procedure”, provided in Appendix I, or in
“Screening Procedures for Estimating Air Quality
Impact of Stationary Sources, Revised”
(incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111) to predict the maximum annual average
off-site ground level concentration of 2,3,7,8-
TCDD equivalents determined under subsection (e)-
(2) above. The maximum annual average on-site
concentration must be used when a person resides
on-site; and
4) The ratio of the predicted maximum annual average
ground level concentration of 2,3,7,8-TCDD
equivalents to the risk-specific dose (RSD) for
2,3,7,8-TCDD provided in Section 726.Appendix E
(2.2´10
-7
) must not exceed 1.0.
f) Monitoring CO and HC in the by-pass duct of a cement
kiln. Cement kilns may comply with the CO and HC
limits provided by subsections (b), (c) and (d) above
by monitoring in the by-pass duct provided that:
1) Hazardous waste is fired only into the kiln and
not at any location downstream from the kiln exit
relative to the direction of gas flow; and
2) The by-pass duct diverts a minimum of 10% of kiln
off-gas into the duct.
g) Use of emissions test data to demonstrate compliance
and establish operating limits. Compliance with the
requirements of this Section must be demonstrated
simultaneously by emissions testing or during separate
runs under identical operating conditions. Further,
data to demonstrate compliance with the CO and HC
???
limits of this Section or to establish alternative CO
or HC limits under this Section must be obtained during
the time that DRE testing, and where applicable,
CDD/CDF testing under subsection (e) above and
comprehensive organic emissions testing under
subsection (f) above is conducted.
h) Enforcement. For the purposes of permit enforcement,
compliance with the operating requirements specified in
the permit (under Section 726.202) will be regarded as
compliance with this Section. However, evidence that
compliance with those permit conditions is insufficient
to ensure compliance with the requirements of this
Section is “information” justifying modification or
revocation and re-issuance of a permit under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.270 et seq.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 726.206 Standards to Control Metals Emissions
a) General. The owner or operator shall comply with the
metals standards provided by subsections (b), (c), (d),
(e) or (f) below for each metal listed in subsection
(b) below that is present in the hazardous waste at
detectable levels using analytical procedures specified
in Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods, SW-846, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
b) Tier I feed rate screening limits. Feed rate screening
limits for metals are specified in Section 726.Appendix
A as a function of terrain-adjusted effective stack
height (TESH) and terrain and land use in the vicinity
of the facility. Criteria for facilities that are not
eligible to comply with the screening limits are
provided in subsection (b)(7) below.
1) Noncarcinogenic metals. The feed rates of the
noncarcinogenic metals in all feed streams,
including hazardous waste, fuels and industrial
furnace feed stocks must not exceed the screening
limits specified in Section 726.Appendix A.
A) The feed rate screening limits for antimony,
barium, mercury, thallium and silver are
based on either:
i) An hourly rolling average as defined in
Sections 726.200(g) and 726.202(e)(6)-
(A)(ii); or
???
ii) An instantaneous limit not to be
exceeded at any time.
B) The feed rate screening limit for lead is
based on one of the following:
i) An hourly rolling average as defined in
Sections 726.200(g) and 726.202(e)(6)-
(A)(ii);
ii) An averaging period of 2 to 24 hours as
defined in Section 726.202(e)(6)(B) with
an instantaneous feed rate limit not to
exceed 10 times the feed rate that would
be allowed on an hourly rolling average
basis; or
iii) An instantaneous limit not to be
exceeded at any time.
2) Carcinogenic metals.
A) The feed rates of carcinogenic metals in all
feed streams, including hazardous waste,
fuels and industrial furnace feed stocks must
not exceed values derived from the screening
limits specified in Section 726.Appendix A.
The feed rate of each of these metals is
limited to a level such that the sum of the
ratios of the actual feed rate to the feed
rate screening limit specified in Section
726.Appendix A must not exceed 1.0, as
provided by the following equation:
i=1
n
i
i
A
F
1.0
∑
≤
where:
Σ
A
i/F
i
means the sum of the values of
A/F for each metal “i”, from i = 1
to n.
n = number of carcinogenic metals
A
i = the actual feed rate to the device
for metal “i”
???
F
i = the feed rate screening limit
provided by Section 726.Appendix A
for metal “i”.
B) The feed rate screening limits for the
carcinogenic metals are based on either:
i) An hourly rolling average; or
ii) An averaging period of 2 to 24 hours, as
defined in Section 726.202(e)(6)(B),
with an instantaneous feed rate limit
not to exceed 10 times the feed rate
that would be allowed on an hourly
rolling average basis.
3) TESH (terrain adjusted effective stack height).
A) The TESH is determined according to the
following equation:
TESH = H + P - T
where:
H = Actual physical stack height (m)
P = Plume rise (in m) as determined
from Section 726.Appendix F as a
function of stack flow rate and
stack gas exhaust temperature.
T = Terrain rise (in m) within five
kilometers of the stack.
B) The stack height (H) must not exceed good
engineering practice stack height, as defined
in Section 726.200(g).
C) If the TESH calculated pursuant to subsection
(b)(3)(A) above is not listed in Sections
726.Appendix A through 726.Appendix C, the
values for the nearest lower TESH listed in
the table must be used. If the TESH is four
meters or less, a value based on four meters
must be used.
4) Terrain type. The screening limits are a function
of whether the facility is located in noncomplex
or complex terrain. A device located where any
part of the surrounding terrain within 5
kilometers of the stack equals or exceeds the
???
elevation of the physical stack height (H) is
considered to be in complex terrain and the
screening limits for complex terrain apply.
Terrain measurements are to be made from U.S.
Geological Survey 7.5-minute topographic maps of
the area surrounding the facility.
5) Land use. The screening limits are a function of
whether the facility is located in an area where
the land use is urban or rural. To determine
whether land use in the vicinity of the facility
is urban or rural, procedures provided in Section
726.Appendix I or Section 726.Appendix J shall be
used.
6) Multiple stacks. Owers and operators of
facilities with more than one on-site stack from a
BIF, incinerator or other thermal treatment unit
subject to controls of metals emissions under a
RCRA permit or interim status controls shall
comply with the screening limits for all such
units assuming all hazardous waste is fed into the
device with the worst-case stack based on
dispersion characteristics. The stack with the
lowest value of K is the worst-case stack. K is
determined from the following equation as applied
to each stack:
K = H
×
V
×
T
Where:
K = a parameter accounting for relative
influence of stack height and plume
rise;
H = physical stack height (meters);
V = stack gas flow rate (m3/sec (cubic
meters per second); and
T = exhaust temperature (degrees K).
7) Criteria for facilities not eligible for screening
limits. If any criteria below are met, the Tier I
(and Tier II) screening limits do not apply.
Owners and operators of such facilities shall
comply with either the Tier III standards provided
by subsection (d) below or with the adjusted Tier
I feed rate screening limits provided by
subsection (e) below.
???
A) The device is located in a narrow valley less
than one kilometer wide;
B) The device has a stack taller than 20 meters
and is located such that the terrain rises to
the physical height within one kilometer of
the facility;
C) The device has a stack taller than 20 meters
and is located within five kilometers of a
shoreline of a large body of water such as an
ocean or large lake;
D) The physical stack height of any stack is
less than 2.5 times the height of any
building within five building heights or five
projected building widths of the stack and
the distance from the stack to the closest
boundary is within five building heights or
five projected building widths of the
associated building; or
8) Implementation. The feed rate of metals in each
feedstream must be monitored to ensure that the
feed rate screening limits are not exceeded.
c) Tier II emission rate screening limits. Emission rate
screening limits are specified in Section 726.Appendix
A as a function of TESH and terrain and land use in the
vicinity of the facility. Criteria for facilities that
are not eligible to comply with the screening limits
are provided in subsection (b)(7) above.
1) Noncarcinogenic metals. The emission rates of
noncarcinogenic metals must not exceed the
screening limits specified in Section 726.Appendix
A.
2) Carcinogenic metals. The emission rates of
carcinogenic metals must not exceed values derived
from the screening limits specified in Section
726.Appendix A. The emission rate of each of
these metals is limited to a level such that the
sum of the ratios of the actual emission rate to
the emission rate screening limit specified in
Section 726.Appendix A must not exceed 1.0, as
provided by the following equation:
i=1
n
i
i
A
E
1.0
∑
≤
???
where:
Σ
A
i/E
i
means the sum of the values of A/E
for each metal “i”, from i = 1 to n.
n = number of carcinogenic metals
A
i = the actual emission rate to the device
for metal “i”
E
i = the emission rate screening limit
provided by Section 726.Appendix A for
metal “i”.
3) Implementation. The emission rate limits must be
implemented by limiting feed rates of the
individual metals to levels during the trial burn
(for new facilities or an interim status facility
applying for a permit) or the compliance test (for
interim status facilities). The feed rate
averaging periods are the same as provided by
subsections (b)(1)(A), (b)(1)(B), and (b)(2)(B)
above. The feed rate of metals in each feedstream
must be monitored to ensure that the feed rate
limits for the feedstreams specified under
Sections 726.202 or 726.203 are not exceeded.
4) Definitions and limitations. The definitions and
limitations provided by subsection (b) above and
726.200(g) for the following terms also apply to
the Tier II emission rate screening limits
provided by this subsection (c): TESH, good
engineering practice stack height, terrain type,
land use and criteria for facilities not eligible
to use the screening limits.
5) Multiple stacks.
A) Owners and operators of facilities with more
than one on-site stack from a BIF,
incinerator or other thermal treatment unit
subject to controls on metals emissions under
a RCRA permit or interim status controls
shall comply with the emissions screening
limits for any such stacks assuming all
hazardous waste is fed into the device with
the worst-case stack based on dispersion
characteristics.
???
B) The worst-case stack is determined by
procedures provided in subsection (b)(6)
above.
C) For each metal, the total emissions of the
metal from those stacks must not exceed the
screening limit for the worst-case stack.
d) Tier III site-specific risk assessment. The
requirements of this subsection apply to facilities
complying with either the Tier III or Adjusted Tier I
except where specified otherwise.
1) General. Conformance with the Tier III metals
controls must be demonstrated by emissions testing
to determine the emission rate for each metal. In
addition, conformance with either Tier III or
Adjusted Tier I metals controls must be
demonstrated by air dispersion modeling to predict
the maximum annual average off-site ground level
concentration for each metal and a demonstration
that acceptable ambient levels are not exceeded.
2) Acceptable ambient levels. Sections 726.Appendix
D and 726.Appendix E list the acceptable ambient
levels for purposes of this Subpart. Reference
air concentrations (RACs) are listed for the
noncarcinogenic metals and 1
×
10
-5
RSDs are listed
for the carcinogenic metals. The RSD for a metal
is the acceptable ambient level for that metal
provided that only one of the four carcinogenic
metals is emitted. If more than one carcinogenic
metal is emitted, the acceptable ambient level for
the carcinogenic metals is a fraction of the RSD
as described in subsection (d)(3) below.
3) Carcinogenic metals. For the carcinogenic metals
the sum of the ratios of the predicted maximum
annual average off-site ground level
concentrations (except that on-site concentrations
must be considered if a person resides on site) to
the RSD for all carcinogenic metals emitted must
not exceed 1.0 as determined by the following
equation:
i=1
n
i
i
P
R
1.0
∑
≤
SUM(Pi/Ri)
≤
1.0
???
where:
S
Σ
P
i/R
i
means the sum of the values of
P/R for each metal “i”, from i = 1
to n.
n = number of carcinogenic metals
P
i = the predicted ambient concentration
for metal i.
R
i = the RSD for metal i.
4) Noncarcinogenic metals. For the noncarcinogenic
metals, the predicted maximum annual average off-
site ground level concentration for each metal
must not exceed the RAC.
5) Multiple stacks. Owners and operators of
facilities with more than one on-site stack from a
BIF, incinerator or other thermal treatment unit
subject to controls on metals emissions under a
RCRA permit or interim status controls shall
conduct emissions testing (except that facilities
complying with Adjusted Tier I controls need not
conduct emissions testing) and dispersion modeling
to demonstrate that the aggregate emissions from
all such on-site stacks do not result in an
exceedance of the acceptable ambient levels.
6) Implementation. Under Tier III, the metals
controls must be implemented by limiting feed
rates of the individual metals to levels during
the trial burn (for new facilities or an interim
status facility applying for a permit) or the
compliance test (for interim status facilities).
The feed rate averaging periods are the same as
provided by subsections (b)(1)(A), (b)(1)(B), and
(b)(2)(B) above. The feed rate of metals in each
feedstream must be monitored to ensure that the
feed rate limits for the feedstreams specified
under Sections 726.202 or 726.203 are not
exceeded.
e) Adjusted Tier I feed rate screening limits. The owner
or operator may adjust the feed rate screening limits
provided by Section 726.Appendix A to account for site-
specific dispersion modeling. Under this approach, the
adjusted feed rate screening limit for a metal is
determined by back-calculating from the acceptable
ambient levels provided by Sections 726.Appendix D and
???
726.Appendix E using dispersion modeling to determine
the maximum allowable emission rate. This emission
rate becomes the adjusted Tier I feed rate screening
limit. The feed rate screening limits for carcinogenic
metals are implemented as prescribed in subsection (b)-
(2) above.
f) Alternative implementation approaches.
1) Pursuant to subsection (f)(2) below the Agency
shall approve on a case-by-case basis approaches
to implement the Tier II or Tier III metals
emission limits provided by subsection (c) or (d)
above alternative to monitoring the feed rate of
metals in each feedstream.
2) The emission limits provided by subsection (d)
above must be determined as follows:
A) For each noncarcinogenic metal, by back-
calculating from the RAC provided in Section
726.Appendix D to determine the allowable
emission rate for each metal using the
dilution factor for the maximum annual
average ground level concentration predicted
by dispersion modeling in conformance with
subsection (h) below; and
B) For each carcinogenic metal by:
i) Back-calculating from the RSD provided
in Section 726.Appendix E to determine
the allowable emission rate for each
metal if that metal were the only
carcinogenic metal emitted using the
dilution factor for the maximum annual
average ground level concentration
predicted by dispersion modeling in
conformance with subsection (h) below;
and
ii) If more than one carcinogenic metal is
emitted, selecting an emission limit for
each carcinogenic metal not to exceed
the emission rate determined by
subsection (f)(2)(B)(i) above, such that
the sum for all carcinogenic metals of
the ratios of the selected emission
limit to the emission rate determined by
that subsection does not exceed 1.0.
g) Emission testing.
???
1) General. Emission testing for metals must be
conducted using the Multiple Metals Train as
described in Section 726.Appendix I Method 0060,
“Determinations of Metals in Stack Emissions,”
USEPA Publication SW-846, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
2) Hexavalent chromium. Emissions of chromium are
assumed to be hexavalent chromium unless the owner
or operator conducts emissions testing to
determine hexavalent chromium emissions using
procedures prescribed in Section 726.Appendix I
Method 0061, “Determination of Hexavalent Chromium
Emissions from Stationary Sources,” USEPA
Publication SW-846, incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
h) Dispersion modeling. Dispersion modeling required
under this Section must be conducted according to
methods recommended in 40 CFR 51, appendix W
(“Guideline on Air Quality Models (Revised)” (1986) and
its supplements), the “Hazardous Waste Combustion Air
Quality Screening Procedure” described in Section
726.Appendix I, or in “Screening Procedures for
Estimating the Air Quality Impact of Stationary
Sources, Revised” (incorporated by reference in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.111) to predict the maximum annual
average off-site ground level concentration. However,
on-site concentrations must be considered when a person
resides on-site.
i) Enforcement. For the purposes of permit enforcement,
compliance with the operating requirements specified in
the permit (under Section 726.202) will be regarded as
compliance with this Section. However, evidence that
compliance with those permit conditions is insufficient
to ensure compliance with the requirements of this
Section is “information” justifying modification or
revocation and re-issuance of a permit under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.270 et seq.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 726.207Standards to Control HCl and Chlorine Gas
Emissions
a) General. The owner or operator shall comply with the
HCl and chlorine gas controls provided by subsections
(b), (c) or (e), below.
???
b) Screening limits.
1) Tier I feed rate screening limits. Feed rate
screening limits are specified for total chlorine
in Section 726.Appendix B as a function of TESH
and terrain and land use in the vicinity of the
facility. The feed rate of total chlorine and
chloride, both organic and inorganic, in all feed
streams, including hazardous waste, fuels and
industrial furnace feed stocks must not exceed the
levels specified.
2) Tier II emission rate screening limits. Emission
rate screening limits for HCl and chlorine gas are
specified in Section 726.Appendix C as a function
of TESH and terrain and land use in the vicinity
of the facility. The stack emission rates of HCl
and chlorine gas must not exceed the levels
specified.
3) Definitions and limitations. The definitions and
limitations provided by Section 726.200(g) and
726.206(b) for the following terms also apply to
the screening limits provided by this subsection:
TESH, good engineering practice stack height,
terrain type, land use and criteria for facilities
not eligible to use the screening limits.
4) Multiple stacks. Owners and operators of
facilities with more than one on-site stack from a
BIF, incinerator or other thermal treatment unit
subject to controls on HCl or chlorine gas
emissions under a RCRA permit or interim status
controls shall comply with the Tier I and Tier II
screening limits for those stacks assuming all
hazardous waste is fed into the device with the
worst-case stack based on dispersion
characteristics.
A) The worst-case stack is determined by
procedures provided in Section 726.206(b)(6).
B) Under Tier I, the total feed rate of chlorine
and chloride to all subject devices must not
exceed the screening limit for the worst-case
stack.
C) Under Tier II, the total emissions of HCl and
chlorine gas from all subject stacks must not
exceed the screening limit for the worst-case
stack.
???
c) Tier III site-specific risk assessments.
1) General. Conformance with the Tier III controls
must be demonstrated by emissions testing to
determine the emission rate for HCl and chlorine
gas, air dispersion modeling to predict the
maximum annual average off-site ground level
concentration for each compound, and a
demonstration that acceptable ambient levels are
not exceeded.
2) Acceptable ambient levels. Section 726.Appendix D
lists the RACs for HCl (7 ug/cu m) and chlorine
gas (0.4 ug/cu m).
3) Multiple stacks. Owners and operators of
facilities with more than one on-site stack from a
BIF, incinerator or other thermal treatment unit
subject to controls on HCl or chlorine gas
emissions under a RCRA permit or interim status
controls shall conduct emissions testing and
dispersion modeling to demonstrate that the
aggregate emissions from all such on-site stacks
do not result in an exceedance of the acceptable
ambient levels for HCl and chlorine gas.
d) Averaging periods. The HCl and chlorine gas controls
are implemented by limiting the feed rate of total
chlorine and chloride in all feedstreams, including
hazardous waste, fuels and industrial furnace feed
stocks. Under Tier I, the feed rate of total chlorine
and chloride is limited to the Tier I Screening
Limits. Under Tier II and Tier III, the feed rate of
total chlorine and chloride is limited to the feed
rates during the trial burn (for new facilities or an
interim status facility applying for a permit) or the
compliance test (for interim status facilities). The
feed rate limits are based on either:
1) An hourly rolling average as defined in Section
726.200(g) and 726.202(e)(6); or
2) An instantaneous basis not to be exceeded at any
time.
e) Adjusted Tier I feed rate screening limits. The owner
or operator may adjust the feed rate screening limit
provided by Section 726.Appendix B to account for site-
specific dispersion modeling. Under this approach, the
adjusted feed rate screening limit is determined by
back-calculating from the acceptable ambient level for
chlorine gas provided by Section 726.Appendix D using
???
dispersion modeling to determine the maximum allowable
emission rate. This emission rate becomes the adjusted
Tier I feed rate screening limit.
f) Emissions testing. Emissions testing for HCl and
chlorine gas (Cl
2) must be conducted using the
procedures described in Section 726.Appendix I (“eye”)
Methods 0050 or 0051, USEPA Publication SW-846,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
g) Dispersion modeling. Dispersion modeling must be
conducted according to the provisions of Section
726.206(h).
h) Enforcement. For the purposes of permit enforcement,
compliance with the operating requirements specified in
the permit (under Section 726.202) will be regarded as
compliance with this Section. However, evidence that
compliance with those permit conditions is insufficient
to ensure compliance with the requirements of this
Section is “information” justifying modification or
revocation and re-issuance of a permit under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 703.270 et seq.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART M: MILITARY MUNITIONS
Section 726.300 Applicability
a) The regulations in this Subpart identify when military
munitions become a solid waste, and, if these wastes
are also hazardous under this Subpart M or 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721, the management standards that apply to these
wastes.
b) Unless otherwise specified in this Subpart M, all
applicable requirements in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703,
705, 720 through 726, and 728 apply to waste military
munitions.
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 726.301 Definitions
In addition to the definitions in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, the
following definitions apply to this Subpart M:
???
“Active range” means a military range that is currently
in service and is being regularly used for range
activities.
“Chemical agents and munitions” are defined as in the
Department of Defense Authorization Act of 1986, 50
U.S.C. 1521(j)(1) (1997), incorporated by reference in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
“Director” is as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702.110.
“Explosives or munitions emergency response specialist”
is as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110.
“Explosives or munitions emergency” is as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.110.
“Explosives or munitions emergency response” is as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110.
“Inactive range” means a military range that is not
currently being used but which is still under military
control and considered by the military to be a
potential range area and which has not been put to a
new use that is incompatible with range activities.
“Military” means the United States (U.S.) Department of
Defense (DOD), the Armed Services, Coast Guard,
National Guard, Department of Energy (DOE) or other
parties under contract or acting as an agent for the
foregoing who handle military munitions.
“Military munitions” is as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.110.
“Military range” means designated land and water areas
that are set aside, managed, and used to conduct
research on, develop, test, and evaluate military
munitions and explosives, other ordnance, or weapon
systems or which are set aside, managed, and used to
train military personnel in their use and handling.
Ranges include firing lines and positions, maneuver
areas, firing lanes, test pads, detonation pads, impact
areas, and buffer zones with restricted access and
exclusionary areas.
“Unexploded ordnance” or “UXO” means military munitions
that have been primed, fused, armed, or otherwise
prepared for action and which have been fired, dropped,
launched, projected, or placed in such a manner as to
constitute a hazard to operations, installation,
???
personnel, or material and remain unexploded either by
malfunction, design, or any other cause.
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 726.302 Definition of Solid Waste
a) A military munition is not a solid waste when any of
the following situations describes the munition:
1) It is used for its intended purpose, including any
of the following uses:
A) Use in training military personnel or
explosives and munitions emergency response
specialists (including training in proper
destruction of unused propellant or other
munitions);
B) Use in research, development, testing, and
evaluation of military munitions, weapons, or
weapon systems; or
C) Recovery, collection, and on-range
destruction of unexploded ordnance and
munitions fragments during range clearance
activities at active or inactive ranges.
However, “use for intended purpose” does not
include the on-range disposal or burial of
unexploded ordnance and contaminants when the
burial is not a result of product use.
2) It is an unused munition, or component thereof, is
being repaired, reused, recycled, reclaimed,
disassembled, reconfigured, or otherwise subjected
to materials recovery activities, unless such
activities involve use constituting disposal, as
defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.102(c)(1), or it
is burned for energy recovery, as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.102(c)(2).
b) An unused military munition is a solid waste when any
of the following occurs:
1) The munition is abandoned by being disposed of,
burned, detonated (except during intended use as
specified in subsection (a) of this Section),
incinerated, or treated prior to disposal;
2) The munition is removed from storage in a military
magazine or other storage area for the purpose of
???
being disposed of, burned, or incinerated, or
treated prior to disposal;
3) The munition is deteriorated or damaged (e.g., the
integrity of the munition is compromised by
cracks, leaks, or other damage) to the point that
it cannot be put into serviceable condition, and
cannot reasonably be recycled or used for other
purposes; or
4) The munition has been declared a solid waste by an
authorized military official.
c) A used or fired military munition is a solid waste when
either of the following activites occurs with regard to
the munition:
1) The munition is transported off-range or from the
site of use (where the site of use is not a range)
for the purposes of storage, reclamation,
treatment, disposal, or treatment prior to
disposal; or
2) The munition is recovered, collected, and then
disposed of by burial or landfilling either on or
off a range.
d) For purposes of RCRA section 1004(27) (42 U.S.C.
§ 6903(27) (1996)), a used or fired military munition
is a solid waste, and, therefore, is potentially
subject to RCRA corrective action authorities under
sections 3004(u) and (v) (42 U.S.C. § 6924(u) & (v)
(1996)), and 3008(h) (42 U.S.C. § 6928(h) (1996)) or to
imminent and substantial endangerment authorities under
section 7003 if the munition lands off-range and is not
promptly rendered safe or retrieved. Any imminent and
substantial threats associated with any remaining
material must be addressed. If remedial action is
infeasible, the operator of the range shall maintain a
record of the event for as long as any threat remains.
The record shall include the type of munition and its
location (to the extent the location is known).
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 726.303 Standards Applicable to the Transportation of
Solid Waste Military Munitions
a) Criteria for hazardous waste regulation of waste non-
chemical military munitions in transportation.
???
1) Waste military munitions that are being
transported and which exhibit a hazardous waste
characteristic or which are listed as hazardous
waste under 40 CFR part 261 are subject to
regulation under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 705,
720 through 726, and 728, unless the munitions
meet all the following conditions:
A) The waste military munitions are not chemical
agents or chemical munitions;
B) The waste military munitions are transported
in accordance with the Department of Defense
shipping controls applicable to the transport
of military munitions;
C) The waste military munitions are transported
from a military-owned or operated
installation to a military-owned or operated
treatment, storage, or disposal facility; and
D) The transporter of the waste shall provide
oral notice to the Agency within 24 hours
from the time when either the transporter
becomes aware of any loss or theft of the
waste military munitions or when any failure
to meet a condition of subsection (a)(1) of
this Section occurs that may endanger human
health or the environment. In addition, a
written submission describing the
circumstances shall be provided within five
days from the time when the transporter
becomes aware of any loss or theft of the
waste military munitions or when any failure
to meet a condition of subsection (a)(1) of
this Section occurs.
2) If any waste military munitions shipped under
subsection (a)(1) of this Section are not received
by the receiving facility within 45 days of the
day the waste was shipped, the owner or operator
of the receiving facility shall report this non-
receipt to the Agency within five days.
3) The conditional exemption from regulation as
hazardous waste in subsection (a)(1) of this
Section shall apply only to the transportation of
non-chemical waste military munitions. It does
not affect the regulatory status of waste military
munitions as hazardous wastes with regard to
storage, treatment, or disposal.
???
4) The conditional exemption in subsection (a)(1) of
this Section applies only so long as all of the
conditions in subsection (a)(1) of this Section
are met.
b) Reinstatement of exemption. If any waste military
munition loses its exemption under subsection (a)(1) of
this Section, the transporter may file an application
for reinstatement of the exemption from hazardous waste
transportation regulation with respect to such munition
as soon as the munition is returned to compliance with
the conditions of subsection (a)(1) of this Section.
If the Agency finds that reinstatement of the exemption
is appropriate based on factors such as the
transporter’s provision of a satisfactory explanation
of the circumstances of the violation, or a
demonstration that the violations are not likely to
recur, the Agency may reinstate the exemption under
subsection (a)(1) of this Section. If the Agency does
not take action on the reinstatement application within
60 days after receipt of the application, then
reinstatement shall be deemed granted, retroactive to
the date of the application. However, the Agency may
terminate a conditional exemption reinstated by default
in the preceding sentence if the Agency finds that
reinstatement is inappropriate based on factors such as
the transporter’s failure to provide a satisfactory
explanation of the circumstances of the violation, or
failure to demonstrate that the violations are not
likely to recur. In reinstating the exemption under
subsection (a)(1) of this Section, the Agency may
specify additional conditions as are necessary to
ensure and document proper transportation to protect
human health and the environment.
c) Amendments to DOD shipping controls. The Department of
Defense shipping controls applicable to the transport
of military munitions referenced in subnsection (a)(1)-
(ii) of this Section are Government Bill of Lading
(GBL) (GSA Standard Form 1109), Requisition Tracking
Form (DD Form 1348), the Signature and Talley Record
(DD Form 1907), Special Instructions for Motor Vehicle
Drivers (DD Form 836), and the Motor Vehicle Inspection
Report (DD Form 626) in effect on November 8, 1995,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
BOARD NOTE: 40 CFR 266.203(c), as added at 62 Fed.
Reg. 6655 (Feb. 12, 1997), further provides as
follows: “Any amendments to the Department of Defense
shipping controls shall become effective for purposes
of paragraph (a)(1) of this section on the date the
Department of Defense publishes notice in the Federal
???
Register that the shipping controls referenced in
paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section have been
amended.” Section 5-75 of the Administrative Procedure
Act [5 ILCS 100/5-75] prohibits the incorporation of
later amendments and editions by reference. For this
reason, interested members of the regulated community
will need to notify the Board of any amendments of
these references before those amendments can become
effective under Illinois law.
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 726.304 Standards Applicable to Emergency Responses
Explosives and munitions emergencies involving military munitions
or explosives are subject to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.110(i),
723.110(e), 724.101(g)(8), 725.101(c)(11), and 703.121(c)(3), or
alternatively to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 703.221.
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 726.305 Standards Applicable to the Storage of Solid
Waste Military Munitions
a) Criteria for hazardous waste regulation of waste non-
chemical military munitions in storage.
1) Waste military munitions in storage that exhibit a
hazardous waste characteristic or are listed as
hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, are
listed or identified as a hazardous waste (and
thus are subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 702, 703, 705, 720 through 726, 728, 733, and
739), unless all the following conditions are met:
A) The waste military munitions are not chemical
agents or chemical munitions;
B) The waste military munitions must be subject
to the jurisdiction of the Department of
Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB);
C) The waste military munitions must be stored
in accordance with the DDESB storage
standards applicable to waste military
munitions;
D) Within within 90 days of when a storage unit
is first used to store waste military
munitions, the owner or operator shall notify
???
the Agency of the location of any waste
storage unit used to store waste military
munitions for which the conditional exemption
in subsection (a)(1) of this Section is
claimed;
E) The owner or operator shall provide oral
notice to the Agency within 24 hours from the
time the owner or operator becomes aware of
any loss or theft of the waste military
munitions, or any failure to meet a condition
of subsection (a)(1) of this Section that may
endanger health or the environment. In
addition, a written submission describing the
circumstances shall be provided within five
days from the time the owner or operator
becomes aware of any loss or theft of the
waste military munitions or any failure to
meet a condition of subsection (a)(1) of this
Section;
F) The owner or operator shall inventory the
waste military munitions at least annually,
shall inspect the waste military munitions at
least quarterly for compliance with the
conditions of subsection (a)(1) of this
Section, and shall maintain records of the
findings of these inventories and inspections
for at least three years; and
G) Access to the stored waste military munitions
must be limited to appropriately trained and
authorized personnel.
2) The conditional exemption in subsection (a)(1) of
this Section from regulation as hazardous waste
shall apply only to the storage of non-chemical
waste military munitions. It does not affect the
regulatory status of waste military munitions as
hazardous wastes with regard to transportation,
treatment or disposal.
3) The conditional exemption in subsection (a)(1) of
this Section applies only so long as all of the
conditions in subsection (a)(1) of this Section
are met.
b) Notice of termination of waste storage. The owner or
operator shall notify the Agency when a storage unit
identified in subsection (a)(1)(D) of this Section will
no longer be used to store waste military munitions.
???
c) Reinstatement of conditional exemption. If any waste
military munition loses its conditional exemption under
subsection (a)(1) of this Section, an application may
be filed with the Agency for reinstatement of the
conditional exemption from hazardous waste storage
regulation with respect to such munition as soon as the
munition is returned to compliance with the conditions
of subsection (a)(1) of this Section. If the Agency
finds that reinstatement of the conditional exemption
is appropriate based on factors such as the owner's or
operator's provision of a satisfactory explanation of
the circumstances of the violation, or a demonstration
that the violations are not likely to recur, the Agency
may reinstate the conditional exemption under
subsection (a)(1) of this Section. If the Agency does
not take action on the reinstatement application within
60 days after receipt of the application, then
reinstatement shall be deemed granted, retroactive to
the date of the application. However, the Agency may
terminate a conditional exemption reinstated by default
in the preceding sentence if he/she finds that
reinstatement is inappropriate based on factors such as
the owner's or operator's failure to provide a
satisfactory explanation of the circumstances of the
violation, or failure to demonstrate that the
violations are not likely to recur. In reinstating the
conditional exemption under subsection (a)(1) of this
Section, the Agency may specify additional conditions
as are necessary to ensure and document proper storage
to protect human health and the environment.
d) Waste chemical munitions.
1) Waste military munitions that are chemical agents
or chemical munitions and that exhibit a hazardous
waste characteristic or are listed as hazardous
waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, are listed or
identified as a hazardous waste and shall be
subject to the applicable regulatory requirements
of RCRA subtitle C.
2) Waste military munitions that are chemical agents
or chemical munitions and that exhibit a hazardous
waste characteristic or are listed as hazardous
waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, are not subject
to the storage prohibition in RCRA section
3004(j), codified at 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.150.
e) Amendments to DDESB storage standards. The DDESB
storage standards applicable to waste military
munitions, referenced in subsection (a)(1)(C) of this
Section, are DOD 6055.9-STD (“DOD Ammunition and
???
Explosive Safety Standards”), in effect on November 8,
1995, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.111.
BOARD NOTE: 40 CFR 266.205(e), as added at 62 Fed.
Reg. 6656 (Feb. 12, 1997), further provides as
follows: “Any amendments to the DDESB storage
standards shall become effective for purposes of
paragraph (a)(1) of this section on the date the
Department of Defense publishes notice in the Federal
Register that the DDESB standards referenced in
paragraph (a)(1) of this section have been amended.”
Section 5-75 of the Administrative Procedure Act [5
ILCS 100/5-75] prohibits the incorporation of later
amendments and editions by reference. For this reason,
interested members of the regulated community will need
to notify the Board of any amendments of these
references before those amendments can become effective
under Illinois law.
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 726.306 Standards Applicable to the Treatment and
Disposal of Waste Military
The treatment and disposal of hazardous waste military munitions
are subject to the applicable permitting, procedural, and
technical standards in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 702, 703, 705, 720
through 726, and 728.
(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 726.Appendix I Methods Manual for Compliance with BIF
Regulations
See “Methods Manual for Compliance with BIF Regulations”. This
document is available from two sources. It is available through
NTIS, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111. It
is also available as 40 CFR 266, Appendix IX (1997), adopted at
56 Fed. Reg. 32688, July 17, 1991 and amended at 56 Fed. Reg.
42511, August 27, 1991, 57 Fed. Reg. 38566, August 25, 1992, and
57 Fed. Reg. 45001, September 30, 1992, which is incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111. This incorporation
includes no future editions or amendments.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
???
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER c: HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATING REQUIREMENTS
PART 728
LAND DISPOSAL RESTRICTIONS
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section
728.101 Purpose, Scope and Applicability
728.102 Definitions
728.103 Dilution Prohibited as a Substitute for Treatment
728.104 Treatment Surface Impoundment Exemption
728.105 Procedures for case-by-case Extensions to an Effective
Date
728.106 Petitions to Allow Land Disposal of a Waste Prohibited
under Subpart C
728.107 Waste Analysis Testing, Tracking, and Recordkeeping
Requirements for Generators, Treaters, and Disposal
Facilities
728.108 Landfill and Surface Impoundment Disposal Restrictions
(Repealed)
728.109 Special Rules for Characteristic Wastes
SUBPART B: SCHEDULE FOR LAND DISPOSAL PROHIBITION AND
ESTABLISHMENT OF TREATMENT STANDARDS
Section
728.110 First Third (Repealed)
728.111 Second Third (Repealed)
728.112 Third Third (Repealed)
728.113 Newly Listed Wastes
728.114 Surface Impoundment exemptions
SUBPART C: PROHIBITION ON LAND DISPOSAL
Section
728.130 Waste Specific Prohibitions -- Solvent Wood Preserving
Wastes
728.131 Waste Specific Prohibitions -- Dioxin-Containing Wastes
728.132 Waste Specific Prohibitions -- California List Wastes
(Repealed)
728.133 Waste Specific Prohibitions: -- First Third Wastes
(Repealed)
728.134 Waste Specific Prohibitions -- Second Third Wastes
(Repealed)
728.135 Waste Specific Prohibitions -- Third Third Wastes
(Repealed)
728.136 Waste Specific Prohibitions -- Newly Listed Wastes
(Repealed)
728.137 Waste Specific Prohibitions -- Ignitable and Corrosive
Characteristic Wastes Whose Treatment Standards Were
Vacated
???
728.138 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: Newly-Identified Organic
Toxicity Characteristic Wastes and Newly-Listed Coke
By-Product and Chlorotoluene Production Wastes
728.139 Waste-Specific Prohibitions: End-of-pipe CWA, CWA-
Equivalent, and Class I Nonhazardous Waste Injection
Well Treatment Standards; Spent Aluminum Potliners; and
Carbamate Wastes
SUBPART D: TREATMENT STANDARDS
Section
728.140 Applicability of Treatment Standards
728.141 Treatment Standards Expressed as Concentrations in
Waste Extract
728.142 Treatment Standards Expressed as Specified Technologies
728.143 Treatment Standards Expressed as Waste Concentrations
728.144 Adjustment of Treatment Standard
728.145 Treatment Standards for Hazardous Debris
728.146 Alternative Treatment Standards Based on HTMR
728.148 Universal Treatment Standards
SUBPART E: PROHIBITIONS ON STORAGE
Section
728.150 Prohibitions on Storage of Restricted Wastes
728.Appendix A Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)
Repealed
728.Appendix B Treatment Standards (As concentrations in the
Treatment Residual Extract) Repealed
728.Appendix C List of Halogenated Organic Compounds Repealed
728.Appendix D Wastes Excluded from Lab Packs
728.Appendix E Organic Lab Packs (Repealed)
728.Appendix F Technologies to Achieve Deactivation of
Characteristics
728.Appendix G Federal Effective Dates
728.Appendix H National Capacity LDR Variances for UIC Wastes
728.Appendix I EP Toxicity Test Method and Structural Integrity
Test
728.Appendix J Recordkeeping, Notification, and Certification
Requirements Repealed
728.Appendix K Metal Bearing Wastes Prohibited From Dilution in a
Combustion Unit According to Section 728.103(c)
728.Table A Constituent Concentrations in Waste Extract (CCWE)
728.Table B Constituent Concentrations in Wastes (CCW)
728.Table C Technology Codes and Description of Technology-
Based Standards
728.Table D Technology-Based Standards by RCRA Waste Code
728.Table E Standards for Radioactive Mixed Waste
728.Table F Alternative Treatment Standards for Hazardous
Debris
728.Table G Alternative Treatment Standards Based on HMTR
728.Table H Wastes Excluded from CCW Treatment Standards
???
728.Table I Generator Paperwork Requirements
728.Table T Treatment Standards for Hazardous Wastes
728.Table U Universal Treatment Standards (UTS)
AUTHORITY: Implementing Section 22.4 and authorized by Section
27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R87-5 at 11 Ill. Reg. 19354, effective
November 12, 1987; amended in R87-39 at 12 Ill. Reg. 13046,
effective July 29, 1988; amended in R89-1 at 13 Ill. Reg. 18403,
effective November 13, 1989; amended in R89-9 at 14 Ill. Reg.
6232, effective April 16, 1990; amended in R90-2 at 14 Ill. Reg.
14470, effective August 22, 1990; amended in R90-10 at 14 Ill.
Reg. 16508, effective September 25, 1990; amended in R90-11 at 15
Ill. Reg. 9462, effective June 17, 1991; amendment withdrawn at
15 Ill. Reg. 14716, October 11, 1991; amended in R91-13 at 16
Ill. Reg. 9619, effective June 9, 1992; amended in R92-10 at 17
Ill. Reg. 5727, effective March 26, 1993; amended in R93-4 at 17
Ill. Reg. 20692, effective November 22, 1993; amended in R93-16
at 18 Ill. Reg. 6799, effective April 26, 1994; amended in R94-7
at 18 Ill. Reg. 12203, effective July 29, 1994; amended in R94-17
at 18 Ill. Reg. 17563, effective November 23, 1994; amended in
R95-6 at 19 Ill. Reg. 9660, effective June 27, 1995; amended in
R95-20 at 20 Ill. Reg. 11100, August 1, 1996; amended in R96-
10/R97-3/R97-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. 783, effective December 16, 1997;
amended in R98-12 at 22 Ill. Reg. 7685, effective April 15, 1998;
amended in R97-21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section 728.101 Purpose, Scope and Applicability
a) This Part identifies hazardous wastes that are
restricted from land disposal and defines those limited
circumstances under which an otherwise prohibited waste
may continue to be land disposed.
b) Except as specifically provided otherwise in this Part
or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721, the requirements of this Part
apply to persons that generate or transport hazardous
waste and to owners and operators of hazardous waste
treatment, storage, and disposal facilities.
c) Restricted wastes may continue to be land disposed as
follows:
1) Where persons have been granted an extension to
the effective date of a prohibition under Subpart
C or pursuant to Section 728.105, with respect to
those wastes covered by the extension;
???
2) Where persons have been granted an exemption from
a prohibition pursuant to a petition under Section
728.106, with respect to those wastes and units
covered by the petition;
3) A waste that is hazardous only because it exhibits
a characteristic of hazardous waste and that is
otherwise prohibited under this Part is not
prohibited if the waste:
A) Is disposed into a nonhazardous or hazardous
waste injection well, as defined in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 704.106(a); and
B) Does not exhibit any prohibited
characteristic of hazardous waste identified
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.Subpart C at the
point of injection.
4) A waste that is hazardous only because it exhibits
a characteristic of hazardous waste and which is
otherwise prohibited under this Part is not
prohibited if the waste meets any of the following
criteria, unless the waste is subject to a
specified method of treatment other than DEACT in
Section 728.140 or is D003 reactive cyanide:
A) The waste is managed in a treatment system
which subsequently discharges to waters of
the U.S. pursuant to a permit issued under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 309; or
B) The waste is treated for purposes of the
pretreatment requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 307 and 310; or
C) The waste is managed in a zero discharge
system engaged in Clean Water Act (CWA)-
equivalent treatment, as defined in Section
728.137(a); and
D) The waste no longer exhibits a prohibited
characteristic of hazardous waste at the
point of land disposal (i.e., placement in a
surface impoundment).
d) This Part does not affect the availability of a waiver
under Section 121(d)(4) of the Comprehensive
Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
of 1980 (CERCLA) (42 U.S.C. §§ 9601 et seq.).
???
e) The following hazardous wastes are not subject to any
provision of this Part:
1) Wastes generated by small quantity generators of
less than 100 kg of non-acute hazardous waste or
less than 1 kg of acute hazardous waste per month,
as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.105;
2) Waste pesticides that a farmer disposes of
pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.170;
3) Wastes identified or listed as hazardous after
November 8, 1984, for which USEPA has not
promulgated a land disposal prohibitions or
treatment standards; or
4) De minimis losses of waste that exhibits a
characteristic of hazardous waste to wastewaters
are not considered to be prohibited waste and are
defined as follows:losses from normal material
handling operations (e.g., spills from the
unloading or transfer of materials from bins or
other containers or leaks from pipes, valves, or
other devices used to transfer materials); minor
leaks of process equipment, storage tanks, or
containers; leaks from well-maintained pump
packings and seals; sample purgings; relief device
discharges; discharges from safety showers and
rinsing and cleaning of personal safety equipment;
rinsate from empty containers or from containers
that are rendered empty by that rinsing; and
laboratory waste that does not exceed one per cent
of the total flow of wastewater into the
facility’s headworks on an annual basis, or with a
combined annualized average concentration not
exceeding one part per million (ppm) in the
headworks of the facility’s wastewater treatment
or pretreatment facility.
A) Losses from normal material handling
operations (e.g., spills from the unloading
or transfer of materials from bins or other
containers or leaks from pipes, valves, or
other devices used to transfer materials);
minor leaks of process equipment, storage
tanks, or containers; leaks from well-
maintained pump packings and seals; sample
purgings; relief device discharges;
discharges from safety showers and rinsing
and cleaning of personal safety equipment;
rinsate from empty containers or from
containers that are rendered empty by that
???
rinsing; and laboratory waste that does not
exceed one per cent of the total flow of
wastewater into the facility’s headworks on
an annual basis, or with a combined
annualized average concentration not
exceeding one part per million (ppm) in the
headworks of the facility’s wastewater
treatment or pretreatment facility; or
B) Decharacterized waste that is injected into
Class I nonhazardous wells in which the
decharacterized waste’s combined volume is
less than one per cent of the total flow at
the wellhead on an annualized basis and no
greater than 10,000 gallons per day, and in
which any underlying hazardous constituents
in the characteristic waste are present at
the point of generation at levels less than
10 times the treatment standards found at
Section 728.148.
5) Land disposal prohibitions for hazardous
characteristic wastes do not apply to laboratory
wastes displaying the characteristic of
ignitability (D001), corrosivity (D002), or
organic toxicity (D012 through D043) that are
mixed with other plant wastewaters at facilities
whose ultimate discharge is subject to regulation
under the CWA (including wastewaters at facilities
that have eliminated the discharge of wastewater),
provided that the annualized flow of laboratory
wastewater into the facility’s headworks does not
exceed one percent or that the laboratory wastes’
combined annualized average concentration does not
exceed one part per million in the facility’s
headworks.
f) A universal waste handler or universal waste
transporter (as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110)
is exempt from Sections 728.107 and 268.150 728.150 for
the hazardous wastes listed below. Such a handler or
transporter is subject to regulation under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 733.
1) Batteries, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.102;
2) Pesticides, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.103;
???
3) Thermostats, as described in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
733.104 and
4) Mercury-containing lamps, as described in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 733.107.
BOARD NOTE: Subsection (f)(4) of this Section was
added pursuant to Section 22.23a of the Act [415
ILCS 5/22.23a] (see P.A. 90-502, effective August
19, 1997).
g) This Part is cumulative with the land disposal
restrictions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 729. The
Environmental Protection Agency (Agency) shall not
issue a wastestream authorization pursuant to 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 709 or Sections 22.6 or 39(h) of the
Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/22.6 or 39(h)]
unless the waste meets the requirements of this Part as
well as 35 Ill. Adm. Code 729.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.104 Treatment Surface Impoundment Exemption
a) Wastes which are otherwise prohibited from land
disposal under this Part may be treated in a surface
impoundment or series of impoundments provided that:
1) Treatment of such wastes occurs in the
impoundments;
2) The following conditions are met:
A) Sampling and testing. For wastes with
treatment standards in Subpart D or
prohibition levels in Subpart C, the residues
from treatment are analyzed, as specified in
Section 728.107 or 728.132, to determine if
they meet the applicable treatment standards
or, where no treatment standards have been
established for the waste, the applicable
prohibition levels. The sampling method,
specified in the waste analysis plan under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.113 or 725.113, must be
designed such that representative samples of
the sludge and the supernatant are tested
separately rather than mixed to form
homogeneous samples.
???
B) Removal. The following treatment residues
(including any liquid waste) must be removed
at least annually: residues which do not
meet the treatment standards promulgated
under Subpart D; residues which do not meet
the prohibition levels established under
Subpart C or Section 728.139 (where no
treatment standards have been established);
residues which are from the treatment of
wastes prohibited from land disposal under
Subpart C (where no treatment standards have
been established and no prohibition levels
apply); or residues from managing listed
wastes which are not delisted under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 720.122. However, residues which
are the subject of a valid certification
under Section 728.108 made no later than a
year after placement of the wastes in an
impoundment are not required to be removed
annually. If the volume of liquid flowing
through the impoundment or series of
impoundments annually is greater than the
volume of the impoundment or impoundments,
this flow-through constitutes removal of the
supernatant for the purpose of this
requirement.
C) Subsequent management. Treatment residues
must not be placed in any other surface
impoundment for subsequent management unless
the residues are the subject of a valid
certification under Section 728.108 which
allows disposal in surface impoundments
meeting the requirements of Section
728.108(a).
D) Recordkeeping. The procedures and schedule
for the sampling of impoundment contents, the
analysis of test data and the annual removal
of residues which do not meet the treatment
standards, or prohibition levels (where no
treatment standards have been established),
or which are from the treatment of wastes
prohibited from land disposal under Subpart C
(where no treatment standards have been
established and no prohibition levels apply),
must be specified in the facility’s waste
analysis plan as required under Sampling,
testing, and recordkeeping provisions of 35
Ill. Adm. Code 724.113 or 725.113 apply.
???
3) The impoundment meets the design requirements of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.321(c) or 725.321(a) even
though the unit may not be new, expanded or a
replacement, and must be in compliance with
applicable groundwater monitoring requirements of
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart F or 725.Subpart F,
unless:
A) It is exempted pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.321(d) or (e), or to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
725.321(c) or (d); or
B) Upon application by the owner or operator,
the Agency has by permit provided that the
requirements of this Part do not apply on the
basis that the surface impoundment:
i) Has at least one liner, for which there
is no evidence that such liner is
leaking;
ii) Is located more than one-quarter mile
from an underground source of drinking
water; and
iii) Is in compliance with generally
applicable groundwater monitoring
requirements for facilities with
permits; or,
C) Upon application by the owner or operator,
the Board has, pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
106, granted an adjusted standard from the
requirements of this Part. The justification
for such an adjusted standard shall be a
demonstration that the surface impoundment is
located, designed and operated so as to
assure that there will be no migration of any
hazardous constituent into groundwater or
surface water at any future time. And,
4) The owner or operator submits to the Agency a
written certification that the requirements of
Section 728.104subsection (a)(3)of this Section
have been met and submits a copy of the waste
analysis plan required under Section 728.104(a)-
(2). The following certification is required:
I certify under penalty of law that the
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.104(a)-
(3) have been met for all surface
impoundments being used to treat restricted
???
wastes. I believe that the submitted
information is true, accurate and complete.
I am aware that there are significant
penalties for submitting false information,
including the possibility of fine and
imprisonment.
b) Evaporation of hazardous constituents as the principal
means of treatment is not considered to be a treatment
for purposes of an exemption under this Section.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.107 Waste Analysis Testing, Tracking, and
Recordkeeping Requirements for Generators,
Treaters, and Disposal Facilities
a) Except as specified in Section 728.132, where a
generator’s waste is listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Subpart D or if the waste exhibits one or more of
the characteristics set out at 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Subpart C, the generator shall test its waste, or
test an extract using the Toxicity Characteristic
Leaching Procedure, Method 1311, in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods”,
USEPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference
in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, or use knowledge of the
waste to determine if the waste is restricted from land
disposal under this Part. If the generator determines
that its waste displays the characteristic of
ignitability (D001) (and is not in the High TOC
Ignitable Liquids Subcategory or is not treated by
CMBST or RORGS of Section 728.Table C), or the waste
displays the characteristic of corrosivity (D002),
reactivity (D003), or organic toxicity (D012 through
D043), and the waste is prohibited under Sections
728.137, Section 728.138, and 728.139, the generator
shall determine what underlying hazardous constituents
(as defined in Section 728.102), are reasonably
expected to be present in the D001, D002, D003, or D012
through D043 waste.
1) If a generator determines that it is managing a
restricted waste under this Part and the waste
does not meet the applicable treatment standards
set forth in Subpart D of this Part or exceeds the
applicable prohibition levels set forth in Section
728.132 or 728.139, the generator shall send a
one-time written notice to each treatment or
storage facility with the initial shipment of
waste. No further notification is necessary until
???
such time that the waste or facility change, in
which case a new notification must be sent and a
copy placed in the generator’s file. The notice
must include the following information:
A) USEPA hazardous waste number;
B) The waste constituents that the treater will
monitor, if monitoring will not include all
regulated constituents, for wastes F001
through F005, F039, D001, D002, D003, and
D012 through D043. The generator must also
include whether the waste is a nonwastewater
or wastewater (as defined in Section 728.102
(d) and (f)) and indicate the subcategory of
the waste (such as “D003 reactive cyanide”)
if applicable;
C) The manifest number associated with the
shipment of waste;
D) For hazardous debris, the contaminants
subject to treatment, as provided by Section
728.145(b), and the following statement:
“This hazardous debris is subject to the
alternative treatment standards of 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728.145”; and
E) Waste analysis data, where available.
2) If a generator determines that it is managing a
restricted waste under this Part and determines
that the waste can be land disposed without
further treatment, with the initial shipment of
waste the generator shall submit a one-time
written notice and a certification to each
treatment, storage, or land disposal facility
stating that the waste meets the applicable
treatment standards set forth in Subpart D of this
Part and setting forth the applicable prohibition
levels set forth in Section 728.132 or RCRA
Section 3004(d), referenced in Section 728.139. A
generator of hazardous debris that is excluded
from the definition of hazardous waste under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(e)(2), 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.103(f)(2), or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.122 (i.e.
debris that is delisted), however, is not subject
to these notification and certification
requirements. If the waste changes, the generator
shall send a new notice and certification to the
receiving facility, and place a copy in its files.
???
A) The notice must include the following
information:
i) USEPA hazardous waste number;
ii) The waste constituents that the treater
will monitor, if monitoring will not
include all regulated constituents, for
wastes F001 through F005, F039, D001,
D002, D003, and D012 through D043. The
generator must also include whether the
waste is a wastewater or nonwastewater
(as defined in Section 728.102 (d) and
(f)) and indicate the subcategory of the
waste (such as “D003 reactive cyanide”),
if applicable;
iii) The manifest number associated with the
shipment of waste; and
iv) Waste analysis data, where available.
B) The certification must be signed by an
authorized representative and must state the
following:
I certify under penalty of law that I
personally have examined and am familiar with
the waste through analysis and testing or
through knowledge of the waste to support
this certification that the waste complies
with the treatment standards specified in 35
Ill. Adm. Code Subpart D of this Part and all
applicable prohibitions set forth in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 728.132, 728.139, or Section
3004(d) of the Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act. I believe that the information
I submitted is true, accurate, and complete.
I am aware that there are significant
penalties for submitting a false
certification, including the possibility of a
fine and imprisonment.
3) If a generator’s waste is subject to an exemption
from a prohibition on the type of land disposal
method utilized for the waste (such as, but not
limited to, a case-by-case extension under Section
728.105, an exemption under Section 728.106, an
extension under Section 728.101(c)(3), or a
nationwide capacity variance under 40 CFR
268.Subpart C (1996)), the generator shall submit
a one-time written notice with the initial
???
shipment of the waste to each facility receiving
the generator’s waste stating that the waste is
not prohibited from land disposal. If the waste
changes, the generator shall send a new notice and
certification to the receiving facility, and place
a copy in its files. The notice must include the
following information:
A) USEPA hazardous waste number;
B) The waste constituents that the treater will
monitor, if monitoring will not include all
regulated constituents, for wastes F001
through F005, F039, D001, D002, D003, and
D012 through D043. The generator must also
include whether the waste is a nonwastewater
or wastewater (as defined in Section 728.102
(d) and (f)) and indicate the subcategory of
the waste (such as “D003 reactive cyanide”)
if applicable;
C) The manifest number associated with the
shipment of waste;
D) Waste analysis data, where available;
E) For hazardous debris, when using the
alternative treatment technologies provided
by Section 728.145:
i) The contaminants subject to treatment,
as provided by Section 728.145(b);
ii) An indication that these contaminants
are being treated to comply with Section
728.145;
F) For hazardous debris when using the treatment
standards for the contaminating waste(s) in
Section 728.140: the requirements described
in subsections (a)(3)(A) through (a)(3)(D)
and (a)(3)(G) of this Section; and,
G) The date on which the waste is subject to the
prohibitions.
4) If a generator is managing a prohibited waste in
tanks, containers, or containment buildings
regulated under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.134 and is
treating such waste in tanks, containers, or
containment buildings to meet applicable treatment
standards under Subpart D of this Part, the
???
generator shall develop and follow a written waste
analysis plan that describes the procedures the
generator will carry out to comply with the
treatment standards. (A generator treating
hazardous debris under the alternative treatment
standards of Section 728.Table F, however, is not
subject to these waste analysis requirements.)
The plan must be kept on-site in the generator’s
records, and the following requirements must be
met:
A) The waste analysis plan must be based on a
detailed chemical and physical analysis of a
representative sample of the prohibited
wastes being treated, and it must contain all
information necessary to treat the wastes in
accordance with the requirements of this
Part, including the selected testing
frequency.
B) Such plan must be filed with the Agency a
minimum of 30 days prior to the treatment
activity, with delivery verified.
C) Wastes shipped off-site pursuant to this
subsection must comply with the notification
requirements of Section 728.107(a)(2).
5) If a generator determines whether the waste is
restricted based solely on the generator’s
knowledge of the waste, the generator shall retain
all supporting data used to make this
determination on-site in the generator’s files.
If a generator determines whether the waste is
restricted based on testing the waste or an
extract developed using the test method described
in Section 728.Appendix A, the generator shall
retain all waste analysis data on site in its
files.
6) If a generator determines, subsequent to the time
of generation, that it is managing a restricted
waste that is excluded from the definition of
hazardous or solid waste or exempt from regulation
as a RCRA hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.102 through 721.106, the generator shall
place, in the facility’s file, a one-time notice
stating such generation, the subsequent exclusion
from the definition of hazardous or solid waste or
exemption from regulation as a RCRA hazardous
waste, and the disposition of the waste.
???
7) A generator shall retain on-site a copy of all
notices, certifications, demonstrations, waste
analysis data, and other documentation produced
pursuant to this Section for at least five years
from the date that the waste that is the subject
of such documentation was last sent to on-site or
off-site treatment, storage, or disposal. The
five year record retention period is automatically
extended during the course of any unresolved
enforcement action regarding the regulated
activity, or as requested by the Agency. The
requirements of this subsection apply to solid
wastes even when the hazardous characteristic is
removed prior to disposal, when the waste is
excluded from the definition of hazardous or solid
waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.102 through
721.106, or when the waste is exempted from
regulation as a RCRA hazardous waste subsequent to
the point of generation.
8) If a generator is managing a lab pack that
contains wastes identified in Section 728.Appendix
D and wishes to use the alternative treatment
standard under Section 728.142(c), with each
shipment of waste the generator shall submit a
notice to the treatment facility in accordance
with subsection (a)(1) of this Section, except
that underlying hazardous constituents need not be
determined. The generator shall also comply with
the requirements in subsections (a)(5) and (a)(6)
of this Section and shall submit the following
certification, which must be signed by an
authorized representative:
I certify under penalty of law that I
personally have examined and am familiar with
the waste and that the lab pack does not
contain any of the wastes identified in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 728.Appendix D. I am aware
that there are significant penalties for
submitting a false certification, including
the possibility of fine or imprisonment.
9) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 268.7(a)-
(9), marked “reserved” by USEPA at 59 Fed. Reg.
48045 (Sep. 19, 1994). This statement maintains
structural consistency with federal regulations.
10) Small quantity generators with tolling agreements
pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.120(e) shall
comply with the applicable notification and
certification requirements of subsection (a) of
???
this Section for the initial shipment of the waste
subject to the agreement. Such generators shall
retain on-site a copy of the notification and
certification, together with the tolling
agreement, for at least three years after
termination or expiration of the agreement. The
three-year record retention period is
automatically extended following notification
pursuant to Section 31(d) of the Environmental
Protection Act until either any subsequent
enforcement action is resolved or until the Agency
notifies the generator documents need not be
retained.
a) Requirements for generators:
1) A generator of a hazardous waste shall determine
if the waste has to be treated before it can be
land disposed. This is done by determining if the
hazardous waste meets the treatment standards in
Section 728.140 or Section 728.145. This
determination can be made in either of two ways:
testing the waste or using knowledge of the
waste. Testing determines the total concentration
of hazardous constituents, or the concentration of
hazardous constituents in an extract of the waste
obtained using test method 1311 in “Test Methods
for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” EPA Publication SW-846, incorporated by
reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, depending
on whether the treatment standard for the waste is
expressed as a total concentration or
concentration of hazardous constituent in the
waste’s extract. In addition, some hazardous
wastes must be treated by particular treatment
methods before they can be land disposed. These
treatment standards are also found in Sections
728.140 and 728.Table T, and are described in
detail in Section 728.Table C. These wastes do
not need to be tested (however, if they are in a
waste mixture, other wastes with concentration
level treatment standards shall be tested). If a
generator determines that it is managing a waste
that displays a hazardous characteristic of
ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity, or
toxicity, the generator shall comply with the
special requirements of Section 728.109 in
addition to any applicable requirements in this
Section.
2) If the waste does not meet the treatment
standard: With the initial shipment of waste to
???
each treatment or storage facility, the generator
shall send a one-time written notice to each
treatment or storage facility receiving the waste,
and place a copy in the file. The notice must
include the information in column “728.107(a)(2)”
of the Generator Paperwork Requirements Table in
Section 728.Table I. No further notification is
necessary until such time that the waste or
facility changes, in which case a new notification
must be sent and a copy placed in the generator’s
file.
3) If the waste meets the treatment standard at the
original point of generation:
A) With the initial shipment of waste to each
treatment, storage, or disposal facility, the
generator shall send a one-time written
notice to each treatment, storage, or
disposal facility receiving the waste, and
place a copy in its own file. The notice
must include the information indicated in
column “728.107(a)(3)” of the Generator
Paperwork Requirements Table in Section
728.Table I and the following certification
statement, signed by an authorized
representative:
I certify under penalty of law that I
personally have examined and am familiar
with the waste through analysis and
testing or through knowledge of the
waste to support this certification that
the waste complies with the treatment
standards specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.Subpart D. I believe that the
information I submitted is true,
accurate, and complete. I am aware that
there are significant penalties for
submitting a false certification,
including the possibility of a fine and
imprisonment.
B) If the waste changes, the generator shall
send a new notice and certification to the
receiving facility, and place a copy in its
file. Generators of hazardous debris
excluded from the definition of hazardous
waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(f) are
not subject to these requirements.
???
4) For reporting, tracking and recordkeeping when
exceptions allow certain wastes that do not meet
the treatment standards to be land disposed:
There are certain exemptions from the requirement
that hazardous wastes meet treatment standards
before they can be land disposed. These include,
but are not limited to, case-by-case extensions
under Section 728.105, disposal in a no-migration
unit under Section 728.106, or a national capacity
variance or case-by-case capacity variance under
728.Subpart C of this Part. If a generator’s
waste is so exempt, then with the initial shipment
of waste, the generator shall send a one-time
written notice to each land disposal facility
receiving the waste. The notice must include the
information indicated in column “728.107(a)(4)” of
the Generator Paperwork Requirements Table in
Section 728.Table I. If the waste changes, the
generator shall send a new notice to the receiving
facility, and place a copy in its file.
5) If a generator is managing and treating prohibited
waste in tanks, containers, or containment
buildings regulated under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
722.134 to meet applicable LDR treatment standards
found at Section 728.140, the generator shall
develop and follow a written waste analysis plan
which describes the procedures it will carry out
to comply with the treatment standards.
(Generators treating hazardous debris under the
alternative treatment standards of Section
728.Table F, however, are not subject to these
waste analysis requirements.) The plan must be
kept on site in the generator’s records, and the
following requirements must be met:
A) The waste analysis plan must be based on a
detailed chemical and physical analysis of a
representative sample of the prohibited
wastes being treated, and contain all
information necessary to treat the wastes in
accordance with the requirements of this
Part, including the selected testing
frequency;
B) Such plan must be kept in the facility’s on-
site files and made available to inspectors;
and
C) Wastes shipped off-site pursuant to this
subsection (a)(5) must comply with the
???
notification requirements of Section
728.107(a)(3).
6) If a generator determines that the waste is
restricted based solely on its knowledge of the
waste, all supporting data used to make this
determination must be retained on-site in the
generator’s files. If a generator determines that
the waste is restricted based on testing this
waste or an extract developed using the test
method 1311 in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication
SW-846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111, and all waste analysis data must be
retained on-site in the generator’s files.
7) If a generator determines that it is managing a
restricted waste that is excluded from the
definition of hazardous or solid waste or exempt
from Subtitle C regulation, under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.102 through 721.106 subsequent to the
point of generation (including deactivated
characteristic hazardous wastes that are managed
in wastewater treatment systems subject to the CWA
as specified at 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.104(a)(2),
or which are CWA-equivalent), the generator shall
place a one-time notice stating such generation,
subsequent exclusion from the definition of
hazardous or solid waste or exemption from RCRA
Subtitle C regulation, and the disposition of the
waste, in the generating facility’s file.
8) A generator shall retain a copy of all notices,
certifications, waste analysis data, and other
documentation produced pursuant to this Section
on-site for at least three years from the date
that the waste that is the subject of such
documentation was last sent to on-site or off-site
treatment, storage, or disposal. The three year
record retention period is automatically extended
during the course of any unresolved enforcement
action regarding the regulated activity or as
requested by the Agency. The requirements of this
paragraph apply to solid wastes even when the
hazardous characteristic is removed prior to
disposal, or when the waste is excluded from the
definition of hazardous or solid waste under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.102 through 721.106, or
exempted from RCRA Subtitle C regulation,
subsequent to the point of generation.
???
9) If a generator is managing a lab pack containing
hazardous wastes and wishes to use the alternative
treatment standard for lab packs found at Section
728.142(c), the generator shall fulfill the
following conditions:
A) With the initial shipment of waste to a
treatment facility, the generator shall
submit a notice that provides the information
in column “Section 728.107(a)(9)” in the
Generator Paperwork Requirements Table of
Section 728.Table I, and the following
certification. The certification, which must
be signed by an authorized representative and
must be placed in the generator’s files, must
say the following:
I certify under penalty of law that I
personally have examined and am familiar
with the waste and that the lab pack
contains only wastes that have not been
excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.Appendix D and that this lab pack
will be sent to a combustion facility in
compliance with the alternative
treatment standards for lab packs at 35
Ill. Adm. Code 728.142(c). I am aware
that there are significant penalties for
submitting a false certification,
including the possibility of fine or
imprisonment.
B) No further notification is necessary until
such time as the wastes in the lab pack
change, or the receiving facility changes, in
which case a new notice and certification
must be sent and a copy placed in the
generator’s file.
C) If the lab pack contains characteristic
hazardous wastes (D001-D043), underlying
hazardous constituents (as defined in Section
728.102(i)) need not be determined.
D) The generator shall also comply with the
requirements in subsections (a)(6) and (a)(7)
of this Section.
10) Small quantity generators with tolling agreements
pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 722.120(e) shall
comply with the applicable notification and
certification requirements of subsection (a) of
???
this Section for the initial shipment of the waste
subject to the agreement. Such generators shall
retain on-site a copy of the notification and
certification, together with the tolling
agreement, for at least three years after
termination or expiration of the agreement. The
three-year record retention period is
automatically extended during the course of any
unresolved enforcement action regarding the
regulated activity or as requested by the Agency.
b)
Treatment facilities The owner or operator of a
treatment facility shall test their its wastes
according to the frequency specified in their its waste
analysis plans, as required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.113 (for permitted TSDs) or 725.113 (for interim
status facilities). Such testing must be performed as
provided in subsections (b)(1), (b)(2), and (b)(3) of
this Section.
1) For wastes with treatment standards expressed as
concentrations in the waste extract (Section
728.141TCLP), the owner or operator of the
treatment facility shall test an extract of the
treatment residues or an extract of such residues
developed using the test method 1311 (the Toxicity
Characteristic Leaching Procedure, described in
Section 728.Appendix A “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical
Methods,” USEPA Publication SW-846, incorporated
by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111), to
assure that the treatment residues or extract meet
the applicable treatment standards.
2) For wastes prohibited under Section 728.132 or
728.139 that are not subject to any treatment
standards under Subpart D of this Part, the owner
or operator of the treatment facility shall test
the treatment residues according to the generator
testing requirements specified in Section 728.132
to assure that the treatment residues comply with
the applicable prohibitions.
32) For wastes with treatment standards expressed as
concentrations in the waste (Section 728.143), the
owner or operator of the treatment facility shall
test the treatment residues (not an extract of
such residues) to assure that the treatment
residues meet the applicable treatment standards.
43) A one-time notice must be sent with the initial
waste shipment of waste to each the land disposal
???
facility that includes the following information,
except that debris excluded from the definition of
the hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.103(e) (i.e., debris treated by an extraction
or destruction technology provided by Section
728.Table F, and debris that is delisted) is
subject to the notification and certification
requirements of subsection (d) of this Section
rather than these notification requirements. No
further notification is necessary until such time
that the waste or receiving facility change, in
which case a new notice must be sent and a A copy
of the notice must be placed in the treatment
facility’s file.
A) USEPA hazardous waste number;No further
notification is necessary until such time
that the waste or receiving facility changes,
in which case a new notice must be sent and a
copy placed in the treatment facility’s file.
B) The waste constituents that the treater will
monitor, if monitoring will not include all
regulated constituents, for wastes F001
through F005, F039, D001, D002, D003, and
D012 through D043. The generator must also
include whether the waste is a nonwastewater
or wastewater (as defined in Section 728.102
(d) and (f)) and indicate the subcategory of
the waste (such as “D003 reactive cyanide”)
if applicable;The one-time notice must
include the requirements indicated in the
following table:
C) The manifest number associated with the
shipment of waste; and
D) Waste analysis data, where available.
Treatment Facility Paperwork Requirements
Table
Required information
Section
728.107(
b)
1. USEPA Hazardous Waste and
Manifest numbers
9
2. The waste is subject to the
LDRs. The constituents of
concern for F001-F005, and
F039, and underlying hazardous
constituents (for wastes that
9
???
are not managed in a Clean
Water Act (CWA) or CWA-equiva-
lent facility), unless the
waste will be treated and
monitored for all
constituents. If all
constituents will be treated
and monitored, there is no
need to put them all on the
LDR notice
3. The notice must include the
applicable wastewater/
nonwastewater category (see
Section Section 728.102(d) and
(f)) and subdivisions made
within a waste code based on
waste-specific criteria (such
as D003 reactive cyanide)
9
4. Waste analysis data (when
available)
9
5. A certification statement
is needed (see applicable
section for exact wording)
9
54) The owner or operator of a treatment facility
shall submit a certification signed by an
authorized representative with each the initial
shipment of waste or treatment residue of a
restricted waste to the land disposal facility
stating that the waste or treatment residue has
been treated in compliance with the treatment
standards specified in Subpart D of this Part and
the applicable prohibitions set forth in Section
728.132 or 728.139. Debris excluded from the
definition of hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.103(e) (i.e., debris treated by an
extraction or destruction technology provided by
Section 728.Table F, and debris that is delisted),
however, is subject to the notification and
certification requirements of subsection (d) of
this Section rather than the certification
requirements of this subsection. The
certification must state as follows:
I certify under penalty of law that I have
personally examined and am familiar with the
treatment technology and operation of the
treatment process used to support this
certification. Based on my inquiry of those
individuals immediately responsible for
obtaining this information, I believe that
the treatment process has been operated and
???
maintained properly so as to comply with the
treatment standards specified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.140 without impermissible dilution
of the prohibited waste. I am aware there
are significant penalties for submitting a
false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.
A) For wastes with treatment standards expressed
as concentrations in the waste extract or in
the waste (Sections 728.141 or 728.143), or
for wastes prohibited under Section 728.132
or 728.139 that are not subject to any
treatment standards under Subpart D of this
Part, the certification must be signed by an
authorized representative and must state the
following:A copy of the certification must be
placed in the treatment facility’s on-site
files. If the waste or treatment residue
changes, or the receiving facility changes, a
new certification must be sent to the
receiving facility, and a copy placed in the
treatment facility’s file.
I certify under penalty of law that I
have personally examined and am familiar
with the treatment technology and
operation of the treatment process used
to support this certification and that,
based on my inquiry of those individuals
immediately responsible for obtaining
this information, I believe that the
treatment process has been operated and
maintained properly, so as to comply
with the performance levels specified in
35 Ill. Adm. Code Subpart D of this Part
and all applicable prohibitions set
forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.132 or
728.139 or Section 3004(d) of the
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
without impermissible dilution of the
prohibited waste. I am aware that there
are significant penalties for submitting
a false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.
B) For wastes with treatment standards expressed
as technologies (Section 728.142), the
certification must be signed by an authorized
representative and must state the
following:Debris excluded from the definition
of hazardous waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
???
721.103(e) (i.e., debris treated by an
extraction or destruction technology listed
in Section 728.Table F and debris that the
Agency has determined does not contain
hazardous waste), however, is subject to the
notification and certification requirements
of subsection (d) of this Section rather than
the certification requirements of this
paragraph.
I certify under penalty of law that the
waste has been treated in accordance
with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.142. I am aware that there are
significant penalties for submitting a
false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.
C) For wastes with organic constituents having
treatment standards expressed as
concentrations levelsin the waste pursuant to
Section 728.143, if compliance with the
treatment standards in Subpart D of this Part
is based in part or in whole on the
analytical detection limit alternative
specified in Section 728.143(c) 728.140(d),
the certification also must be signed by an
authorized representative and must state the
following:
I certify under penalty of law that I
have personally examined and am familiar
with the treatment technology and
operation of the treatment process used
to support this certification and that,.
bBased on my inquiry of those
individuals immediately responsible for
obtaining this information, I believe
that the nonwastewater organic
constituents have been treated by
incineration in combustion units
operated as specified in accordance with
35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart O or 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.Subpart O728.Table C,
or by combustion in fuel substitution
units operating in accordance with
applicable technical requirements, and.
I have been unable to detect the
nonwastewater organic constituents,
despite having used best good faith
efforts to analyze for such
constituents. I am aware that there are
???
significant penalties for submitting a
false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.
D) For characteristic wastes D001, D002, D003,
and D012 through D043 that are subject to the
treatment standards in Section 728.140 (other
than those expressed as a required method of
treatment), that are reasonably expected to
contain underlying hazardous constituents (as
defined in Section 728.102(i)), that are
treated on-site to remove the hazardous
characteristic, and that are then sent off-
site for treatment of underlying hazardous
constituents, the certification must state
the following:
I certify under penalty of law that the
waste has been treated in accordance
with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.140 to remove the hazardous
characteristic. This decharacterized
waste contains underlying hazardous
constituents that require further
treatment to meet universal treatment
standards. I am aware that there are
significant penalties for submitting a
false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.
E) For characteristic wastes D001, D002, D003,
and D012 through D043 that contain underlying
hazardous constituents, as defined in Section
728.102(i), and which are treated on-site to
remove the hazardous characteristic and to
treat underlying hazardous constituents to
levels set forth in the Sections 728.148 and
728.Table U Universal Treatment Standards,
the certification must state the following:
I certify under penalty of law that the
waste has been treated in accordance
with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.140 to remove the hazardous
characteristic, and that underlying
hazardous constituents, as defined in
Section 728.102, have been treated on-
site to meet the Sections 728.148 and
728.Table U Universal Treatment
Standards. I am aware that there are
significant penalties for submitting a
???
false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.
65) If the waste or treatment residue will be further
managed at a different treatment or storage
facility, the treatment, storage, or disposal
facility sending the waste or treatment residue
off-site must comply with the notice and
certification requirements applicable to
generators under this Section.
76) Where the wastes are recyclable materials used in
a manner constituting disposal subject to the
provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.120(b),
regarding treatment standards and prohibition
levels, the owner or operator of a treatment
facility (i.e., the recycler) is not required to
notify the receiving facility pursuant to
subsection (b)(4) of this Section. With each
shipment of such wastes the owner or operator of
the recycling facility shall submit a
certification described in subsection (b)(5) of
this Section and a notice that includes the
information listed in subsection (b)(4) of this
Section (except the manifest number) to the
Agency. The recycling facility also shall keep
records of the name and location of each entity
receiving the hazardous waste-derived product.
c) Except where the owner or operator is disposing of any
waste that is a recyclable material used in a manner
constituting disposal pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.120(b), the owner or operator of any land disposal
facility disposing any waste subject to restrictions
under this Part shall:
1)
Have Maintain in its files copies of the notice
and certifications specified in subsection (a) or
(b) of this Section and the certification
specified in Section 728.108, if applicable.
2) Test the waste, or an extract of the waste or
treatment residue developed using the test method
described in Section 728.Appendix A or using any
methods required by generators under Section
728.132 Test Method 1311 (the Toxicity
Characteristic Leaching Procedure), described in
“Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication SW-
846, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111), to assure that the waste or
treatment residue is in compliance with the
???
applicable treatment standards set forth in
Subpart D of this Part and all applicable
prohibitions set forth in Sections 728.132 or
728.139. Such testing must be performed according
to the frequency specified in the facility’s waste
analysis plan as required by 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.113 or 725.113.
3) Where the owner or operator is disposing of any
waste that is subject to the prohibitions under
Section 728.133(f) but not subject to the
prohibitions set forth in Section 728.132, the
owner or operator shall ensure that such waste is
the subject of a certification according to the
requirements of Section 728.108 prior to disposal
in a landfill or surface impoundment unit, and
that such disposal is in accordance with the
requirements of Section 728.105(h)(2). The same
requirement applies to any waste that is subject
to the prohibitions under Section 728.133(f) and
also is subject to the statutory prohibitions in
the codified prohibitions in Section 728.139 or
Section 728.132.
4) Where the owner or operator is disposing of any
waste that is a recyclable material used in a
manner constituting disposal subject to the
provisions of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726.120(b), the
owner or operator is not subject to subsections
(c)(1) through (c)(3) of this Section with respect
to such waste.
d) A generator or treater that first claims that hazardous
debris is excluded from the definition of hazardous
waste under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.103(e) (i.e., debris
treated by an extraction or destruction technology
provided by Section 728.Table F, and debris that has
been delisted) is subject to the following notification
and certification requirements:
1) A one-time notification must be submitted to the
Agency including the following information:
A) The name and address of the RCRA Subtitle D
(municipal solid waste landfill) facility
receiving the treated debris;
B) A description of the hazardous debris as
initially generated, including the applicable
USEPA hazardous waste numbers; and
???
C) For debris excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.103(e)(1), the technology from Section
728.Table F used to treat the debris.
2) The notification must be updated if the debris is
shipped to a different facility and, for debris
excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.2(d)(1)
721.102(e)(1), if a different type of debris is
treated or if a different technology is used to
treat the debris.
3) For debris excluded under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.103(e)(1), the owner or operator of the
treatment facility shall document and certify
compliance with the treatment standards of Section
728.Table F, as follows:
A) Records must be kept of all inspections,
evaluations, and analyses of treated debris
that are made to determine compliance with
the treatment standards;
B) Records must be kept of any data or
information the treater obtains during
treatment of the debris that identifies key
operating parameters of the treatment unit;
and
C) For each shipment of treated debris, a
certification of compliance with the
treatment standards must be signed by an
authorized representative and placed in the
facility’s files. The certification must
state the following: “I certify under
penalty of law that the debris has been
treated in accordance with the requirements
of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.145. I am aware
that there are significant penalties for
making a false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment.”
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.109 Special Rules for Characteristic Wastes
a) The initial generator of a solid waste shall determine
each USEPA hazardous waste number (waste code)
applicable to the waste in order to determine the
applicable treatment standards under Subpart D of this
Part. For purposes of this Part, the waste must carry
the waste code for any applicable listing under 35 Ill.
???
Adm. Code 721.Subpart D. In addition, the waste must
carry one or more of the waste codes under 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.Subpart C where the waste exhibits a
characteristic, except in the case when the treatment
standard for the waste code listed waste in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.Subpart D operates in lieu of the
treatment standard for the characteristic waste code
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.Subpart C, as specified in
subsection (b) of this Section. If the generator
determines that its waste displays a characteristic of
hazardous waste (and the waste is not a D004 through
D011 waste, a High TOC D001 waste nonwastewaters
treated by CMBST, RORGS, OR POLYM of Section 728.Table
C, and is not treated by CMBST or RORGS, as described
in Section 728.Table C), the generator shall determine
what underlying hazardous constituents (as defined in
Section 728.102) are reasonably expected to be present
above the universal treatment standards set forth in
Sections 728.148 and 728.Table U, the generator shall
determine the underlying hazardous constituents (as
defined at Section 728.102(i)) in the characteristic
waste.
b) Where a prohibited waste is both listed under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.Subpart D and exhibits a characteristic
under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.Subpart C, the treatment
standard for the waste code listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Subpart D will operate in lieu of the standard for
the waste code under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.Subpart C,
provided that the treatment standard for the listed
waste includes a treatment standard for the constituent
that causes the waste to exhibit the characteristic.
Otherwise, the waste must meet the treatment standards
for all applicable listed and characteristic waste
codes.
c) In addition to any applicable standards determined from
the initial point of generation, no prohibited waste
that exhibits a characteristic under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Subpart C shall be land disposed unless the waste
complies with the treatment standards under Subpart D
of this Part.
d) A waste that exhibits a characteristic is also subject
to Section 728.107 requirements, except that once the
waste is no longer hazardous, a one-time notification
and certification must be placed in the generator’s or
treater’s files and sent to the Agency, except for
those facilities described in subsection (f) below.
The notification and certification that is placed in
the generator’s or treater’s files must be updated if
the process or operation generating the waste changes
???
or if the subtitle D facility receiving the waste
changes. However, the generator or treater need only
notify the Agency on an annual basis if such changes
occur. Such notification and certification should be
sent to the Agency by the end of the year, but no later
than December 31.
1) The notification must include the following
information:
A)
For a characteristic waste other than one
managed on site in a wastewater treatment
system subject to the federal Clean Water Act
(CWA), a zero-discharger engaged in CWA-
equivalent treatment, or a Class I
nonhazardous waste injection well, tThe name
and address of the RCRA Subtitle D (municipal
solid waste landfill) facility receiving the
waste shipment; and
B) For a waste that exhibits a characteristic of
hazardous waste, a A description of the waste
as initially generated, including the
applicable USEPA hazardous waste numbers, the
treatability group(s), and the underlying
hazardous constituents (as defined in Section
728.102(i)), unless the waste will be treated
and monitored for all underlying hazardous
constituents. If all underlying hazardous
constituents will be treated and monitored,
there is no requirement to list any of the
underlying hazardous constituents on the
notice.
2) The certification must be signed by an authorized
representative and must state the language found
in Section 728.107(b)(5)(A). If treatment removes
the characteristic but does not treat underlying
hazardous constituents, then the certification
found in Section 728.107(b)(5)(D) applies.
3) For a characteristic waste whose ultimate disposal
will be into a Class I nonhazardous waste
injection well, and for which compliance with the
treatment standards set forth in Sections 728.148
and 728.Table U for underlying hazardous
constituents is achieved through pollution
prevention that meets the criteria set forth at 35
Ill. Adm. Code 738.101(d), the following
information must also be included:
???
A) A description of the pollution prevention
mechanism and when it was implemented if
already complete;
B) The mass of each underlying hazardous
constituent before pollution prevention;
C) The mass of each underlying hazardous
constituent that must be removed, adjusted to
reflect variations in mass due to normal
operating conditions; and
D) The mass reduction of each underlying
hazardous constituent that is achieved.
e) For a decharacterized waste managed on-site in a
wastewater treatment system subject to the federal
Clean Water Act (CWA) or zero-dischargers engaged in
CWA-equivalent treatment, compliance with the treatment
standards set forth in Sections 728.148 and 728.Table D
must be monitored quarterly, unless the treatment is
aggressive biological treatment, in which case
compliance must be monitored annually. Monitoring
results must be kept in on-site files for 5 years.
f) For a decharacterized waste managed on-site in a
wastewater treatment system subject to the federal
Clean Water Act (CWA) for which all underlying
hazardous constituents (as defined in Section 728.102)
are addressed by a CWA permit, this compliance must be
documented and this documentation must be kept in on-
site files.
g) For a characteristic waste whose ultimate disposal will
be into a Class I nonhazardous waste injection well
that qualifies for the de minimis exclusion described
in Section 728.101, information supporting that
qualification must be kept in on-site files.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART C: PROHIBITION ON LAND DISPOSAL
Section 728.130 Waste Specific Prohibitions -- Solvent Wood
Preserving Wastes
a) The spent solvent wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.131 as U.S. EPA Hazardous Waste Numbers F001, F002,
F003, F004, and F005 are prohibited under this Part
???
from land disposal (except in an injection well) unless
one or more of the following conditions apply:
1) The generator of the solvent waste is a small
quantity generator of 100 to 1000 kilograms of
hazardous waste per month;
2) The solvent waste is generated from any response
action taken under CERCLA or from RCRA corrective
action except where the waste is contaminated soil
or debris;
3) The initial generator’s solvent waste is a
solvent-water mixture, solvent-containing sludge
or solid, or solvent-contaminated soil (non-CERCLA
or non-RCRA corrective action) containing less
than 1 percent total F001 through F005 solvent
constituents listed in Table T; or
4) The solvent waste is a residue from treating a
waste described in subsection (a)(1), (a)(2), or
(a)(3) above, or the solvent waste is a residue
from treating a waste not described in subsection
(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3), provided such residue
belongs to a different treatability group than the
waste as initially generated and wastes belonging
to such treatability group are described in
subsection (a)(3).
b) The F001 through F005 solvent wastes listed in
subsections (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), or (a)(4) above are
prohibited from land disposal.
c) The F001 through F005 solvent wastes that are
contaminated soil and debris resulting from a CERCLA
response or RCRA corrective action or the residue from
treatment of these wastes are prohibited from land
disposal.
d) The requirements of subsections (a), (b), and (c) above
do not apply if:
1) The wastes meet the standards of 728.Subpart D; or
2) An exemption (adjusted standard) was granted from
a prohibition pursuant to a petition under Section
728.106 with respect to those wastes and units and
the activity is covered by the petition; or
3) Persons have been granted an extension to the
effective date of a prohibition by U.S. EPA
pursuant to Section 728.105 with respect to those
???
wastes and units and the activity is covered by
the extension.
a) The following wastes are prohibited from land
disposal: the wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721 as USEPA hazardous waste numbers F032, F034, and
F035.
b) Effective May 12, 1999, the following wastes are
prohibited from land disposal: soil and debris
contaminated with the wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721 as F032, F034, F035; and radioactive wastes
mixed with USEPA hazardous waste numbers F032, F034,
and F035.
c) Until May 12, 1999, soil and debris contaminated with
the wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721 as USEPA
hazardous waste numbers F032, F034, F035; and
radioactive waste mixed with USEPA hazardous waste
numbers F032, F034, and F035 may be disposed in a
landfill or surface impoundment only if such unit is in
compliance with the requirements specified in Section
728.105(h)(2).
d) The requirements of subsections (a) and (b) of this
Section do not apply if:
1) The wastes meet the applicable treatment standards
specified in 728.Subpart D of this Part;
2) Persons have been granted an exemption from a
prohibition pursuant to a petition under Section
728.106, with respect to those wastes and units
covered by the petition;
3) The wastes meet the applicable alternate treatment
standards established pursuant to a petition
granted under Section 728.144; or
4) Persons have been granted an extension to the
effective date of a prohibition pursuant to 40 CFR
268.5 (see Section 728.105), with respect to those
wastes covered by the extension.
e) To determine whether a hazardous waste identified in
this Section exceeds the applicable treatment standards
specified in Sections 728.140 and 728.Table T, the
initial generator shall test a sample of the waste
extract or the entire waste, depending on whether the
treatment standards are expressed as concentrations in
the waste extract or the waste, or the generator may
use knowledge of the waste. If the waste contains
???
constituents in excess of the applicable universal
treatment standard levels of Sections 728.148 and
728.Table U, the waste is prohibited from land
disposal, and all requirements of Part 728 are
applicable, except as otherwise specified.
(Source: Repealed and New Section Added at 22 Ill. Reg.
________, effective ______________________)
Section 728.132Waste Specific Prohibitions -- California List
Wastes (Repealed)
a) The following hazardous wastes are prohibited from land
disposal (except in injection wells):
1) Liquid hazardous wastes having a pH less than or
equal to two (2.0);
2) Liquid hazardous wastes containing PCBs at
concentrations greater than or equal to 50 ppm;
3) Liquid hazardous wastes that are primarily water
and contain halogenated organic compounds (HOCs)
in total concentration greater than or equal to
1000 mg/1 and less than 10,000 mg/1 HOCs.
d) The requirements of subsection (a) and (e) do not apply
until:
1) November 8, 1989 where the wastes are contaminated
soil or debris not resulting from a CERCLA
response action or from RCRA corrective action, as
defined in Section 728.102. Until July 8, 1989,
the wastes may be disposed of in a landfill or
surface impoundment only if such disposal is in
compliance with the requirements in 40 CFR
268.5(h)(2), incorporated by reference in Section
728.105.
2) November 8, 1990, where the wastes are
contaminated soil or debris resulting from a
CERCLA response action or RCRA corrective action.
Until November 8, 1990, the wastes may be
disposed in a landfill or surface impoundment only
if such unit is in compliance with the
requirements specified in 40 CFR 268.5(h)(2),
incorporated by reference in Section 728.105.
e) The following hazardous wastes are prohibited from land
disposal (subject to any regulation that may be
promulgated with respect to disposal in injection
wells):
???
1) Liquid hazardous wastes that contain HOCs in total
concentration greater than or equal to 1000 mg/1
and are not prohibited under subsection (a)(3);
and
2) Nonliquid hazardous wastes containing HOCs in
total concentration greater than or equal to 1000
mg/kg and which are not wastes described in
subsection (d).
f) The wastes described in subsections (e)(1) and (e)(2)
may be disposed of in a landfill or surface impoundment
only if such unit is in compliance with the
requirements specified in 40 CFR 268.5(h)(2),
incorporated by reference in Section 728.105.
g) The requirements of subsections (a) (d) and (e) do not
apply if:
1) Persons have been granted an adjusted standard
from a prohibition pursuant to a petition under
Section 728.106, with respect to those wastes and
units covered by the petition (except for liquid
hazardous wastes containing PCBs at concentrations
greater than or equal to 500 ppm which are not
eligible for exemptions); or,
2) Persons have been granted an extension to the
effective date of a prohibition pursuant to
Section 728.105, with respect to those wastes
covered by the extension; or
3) The wastes meet the applicable standards specified
in Subpart D or, where treatment standards are not
specified, the wastes are in compliance with the
applicable prohibitions set forth in this Section
or Section 728.139.
h) The prohibitions and effective dates specified in
subsections (a)(3), (d) and (e) do not apply where the
waste is subject to a Subpart C prohibition and
effective date for a specified HOC (such as a hazardous
waste chlorinated solvent, see e.g. Section
728.130(a)).
i) To determine whether or not a waste is a liquid under
subsections (a) or (e) or under Section 728.139, the
following test must be used:
Method 9095 (Paint Filter Liquids Test), as
described in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid
???
Wastes”, incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111.
j) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, the
waste analysis and recordkeeping requirements of
Section 728.107 are applicable to wastes prohibited
under this Part or Section 728.139:
1) The initial generator of a liquid hazardous waste
shall test the waste (not an extract or filtrate)
in accordance with the procedures specified in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.122(a)(1), or use knowledge of
the waste, to determine if the waste has a pH less
than or equal to two (2.0). If the liquid waste
has a pH less than or equal to two (2.0), it is
restricted from land disposal and all requirements
of this Part are applicable, except as otherwise
specified in this Section.
2) The intitial generator of either a liquid
hazardous waste containing PCBs or a liquid or
nonliquid hazardous waste containing HOCs shall
test the waste (not an extract or filtrate), or
use knowledge of the waste, to determine whether
the concentration levels in the waste equal or
exceed the prohibition levels specified in this
Section. If the concentration of PCBs or HOCs in
the waste is greater than or equal to the
prohibition levels specified in this Section, the
waste is restricted from land disposal and all
requirements of this Part are applicable, except
as otherwise specified in this Section.
(Source: Repealed at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.133Waste Specific Prohibitions: -- First Third Wastes
(Repealed)
a) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as
U.S. EPA hazardous wastes numbers listed below are
prohibited from land disposal (except in an injection
well).
F006 (nonwastewater)
K001
K004 wastes specified in Sections 728.140 and
728.Table T
K008 wastes specified in Sections 728.140 and
728.Table T
K015
K016
???
K018
K019
K020
K021 wastes specified in Section Sections 728.140
and 728.Table T
K022 (nonwastewater)
K024
K025 nonwastewaters specified in Sections 728.140
and 728.Table T
K030
K036 (nonwastewater)
K037
K044
K045 (nonexplosive)
K046 (nonwastewater)
K047
K060 (nonwastewater)
K06l (nonwastewaters containing less than 15%
zinc)
K062 (non CaSO
4)
K069 (nonwastewater)
K086 (solvent washes),
K087
K099
K100 nonwastewaters specified in Sections 728.140
and 728.Table T
K101 (wastewater)
K101 (nonwastewater, low arsenic subcategory--less
than 1% total arsenic)
K102 (wastewater)
K102 (nonwastewater, low arsenic subcategory--less
than 1% total arsenic)
K103
K104
b) The waste specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as
U.S. EPA Hazardous Waste No. K071 is prohibited from
land disposal.
c) The wastes specified in Section 728.110 having a
treatment standard in 728.Subpart D based on
incineration and which are contaminated soil and debris
are prohibited from land disposal.
e) The requirements of subsection (a), (b), and (c) above
do not apply if:
1) The waste meets the applicable standards specified
in 728.Subpart D;
2) An adjusted standard was granted pursuant to
Section 728.106 with respect to those wastes and
???
units, and the activity is covered by the adjusted
standard; or
3) Persons have been granted an extension to the
effective date of a prohibition by U.S. EPA
pursuant to Section 728.105 with respect to those
wastes and units and the activity is covered by
the extension.
f) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 268.33(f), a
provision whose effectiveness has expired. This
statement maintains structural consistency with U.S.
EPA regulations.
g) To determine whether a hazardous waste listed in
Section 728.110 exceeds the applicable treatment
standards specified in Sections 728.131, 728.140, and
728.Table T, the initial generator shall test a
representative sample of the waste extract or the
entire waste depending on whether the treatment
standards are expressed as concentrations in the waste
extract or the waste, or the generator may use
knowledge of the waste. If the waste contains
constituents in excess of the applicable 728.Subpart D
levels, the waste is prohibited from land disposal and
all requirements of this Part are applicable except as
otherwise specified.
(Source: Repealed at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.134Waste Specific Prohibitions -- Second Third Wastes
(Repealed)
a) The following wastes are prohibited from land disposal.
1) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131
as USEPA hazardous waste numbers:
F010
F024
2) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132
as USEPA hazardous waste numbers:
K005
K007
K009 (nonwastewaters)
K010
K023
K027
K028
???
K029 (nonwastewaters)
K036 (wastewaters)
K038
K039
K040
K043
K093
K094
K095 (nonwastewaters)
K096 (nonwastewaters)
K113
K114
K115
K116
3) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.133
as USEPA hazardous waste numbers:
P013
P021
P029
P030
P039
P040
P041
P043
P044
P062
P063
P071
P074
P085
P089
P094
P097
P098
P099
P104
P106
P109
P111
P121
U028
U058
U069
U087
U088
U102
U107
U221
U223
U235
???
b) The following wastes are prohibited from land disposal,
except when they are injected into a UIC well pursuant
to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 738.114(f) or 738.115(d) USEPA
hazardous waste numbers:
K009 (wastewaters)
K011 (nonwastewaters)
K013 (nonwastewaters)
K014 (nonwastewaters)
c) The following wastes are prohibited from land disposal:
The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 as
USEPA hazardous waste numbers:
F006--cyanide (nonwastewater)
F008
F009
F011 (wastewaters)
F012 (wastewaters)
1) The following waste is prohibited from land
disposal except when it is injected into a UIC
well pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 738.114(f):
The waste specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131
as USEPA hazardous waste number F007.
2) The following wastes are prohibited from land
disposal pursuant to the treatment standards
specified in Sections 728.141 or 728.143
applicable to those wastes:
F011 (nonwastewaters)
F012 (nonwastewaters)
d) Effective June 8, 1991, the following wastes are
prohibited from land disposal: The wastes specified in
this Section having a treatment standard in Subpart D
based on incineration, and which are contaminated
contaminated soil and debris.
e) Until June 8, 1991, wastes included in subsections (c)
and (d) may be disposed in a landfill or surface
impoundment, regardless whether such unit is a new,
replacement or lateral expansion unit, only if such
unit is in compliance with the technical requirements
specified in 40 CFR 268.5(h)(2), incorporated by
reference in Section 728.105.
f) The requirements of subsections (a), (b), (c) and (d)
do not apply if:
???
1) The wastes meet the applicable standards specified
in Subpart D; or
2) Persons have been granted an exemption from a
prohibition pursuant to a petition under Section
728.106, with respect to those wastes and units
covered by the petition.
g) The requirements of subsections (a), (b) and (c) do not
apply if persons have been granted an extension to the
effective date of a prohibition pursuant to Section
728.105, with respect to those wastes covered by the
extension.
h) Until May 8, 1990, the second third wastes specified in
40 CFR 268.11 (1989) for which treatment standards
under Subpart D are not applicable, including
California list wastes subject to the statutory
prohibitions of Section 728.139 or codified
prohibitions under Section 728.132, are prohibited from
disposal in a landfill or surface impoundment unless
the wastes are subject to a valid demonstration and
certification pursuant to Section 728.108.
i) To determine whether a hazardous wastes exceeds the
applicable treatment standards specified in Section
728.141 or 728.143, the initial generator shall test a
representative sample of the waste extract, or the
entire waste, depending on whether the treatment
standards are expressed as concentrations in the waste
extract or the waste, or the generator may use
knowledge of the waste. If the waste contain
constituents in excess of the applicable Subpart D
levels, the wastes is prohibited from land disposal and
all the requirements of this Part are applicable,
except as otherwise specified.
(Source: Repealed at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.135Waste Specific Prohibitions--Third Third Wastes
(Repealed)
a) The following wastes are prohibited from land disposal.
1) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131
as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers:
F002 (1,1,2-trichloroethane)
F005 (benzene)
F005 (2-ethoxyethanol)
F005 (2-nitropropane)
???
F006 (wastewaters),
F019
F025
F039 (wastewaters);
2) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132
as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers:
K002
K003
K004 (wastewaters)
K005 (wastewaters)
K006
K008 (wastewaters)
K011 (wastewaters)
K013 (wastewaters)
K014 (wastewaters)
K015 (nonwastewaters)
K017
K021 (wastewaters)
K022 (wastewaters)
K025 (wastewaters)
K026
K029 (wastewaters)
K031 (wastewaters)
K032
K033
K034
K035
K041
K042
K046 (wastewaters, reactive nonwastewaters)
K048 (wastewaters)
K049 (wastewaters)
K050 (wastewaters)
K051 (wastewaters)
K052 (wastewaters)
K060 (wastewaters)
K061 (wastewaters) and (high zinc subcategory
> 15% zinc)
K069 (wastewaters, calcium sulfate
nonwastewaters)
K073
K083
K084 (wastewaters)
K085
K095 (wastewaters)
K096 (wastewaters)
K097
K098
K100 (wastewaters)
K101 (wastewaters)
???
K102 (wastewaters)
K105
K106 (wastewaters)
3) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.133(e) as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers:
P001
P002
P003
P004
P005
P006
P007
P008
P009
P010 (wastewaters)
P011 (wastewaters)
P012 (wastewaters)
P014
P015
P016
P017
P018
P020
P022
P023
P024
P026
P027
P028
P031
P033
P034
P036 (wastewaters)
P037
P038 (wastewaters)
P042
P045
P046
P047
P048
P049
P050
P051
P054
P056
P057
P058
P059
P060
P064
???
P065 (wastewaters)
P066
P067
P068
P069
P070
P072
P073
P075
P076
P077
P078
P081
P082
P084
P088
P092 (wastewaters)
P093
P095
P096
P101
P102
P103
P105
P108
P110
P112
P113
P114
P115
P116
P118
P119
P120
P122
P123
4) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.133(f) as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers:
U001
U002
U003
U004
U005
U006
U007
U008
U009
U010
U011
U012
???
U014
U015
U016
U017
U018
U019
U020
U021
U022
U023
U024
U025
U026
U027
U029
U030
U031
U032
U033
U034
U035
U036
U037
U038
U039
U041
U042
U043
U044
U045
U046
U047
U048
U049
U050
U051
U052
U053
U055
U056
U057
U059
U060
U061
U062
U063
U064
U066
U067
U068
U070
U071
???
U072
U073
U074
U075
U076
U077
U078
U079
U080
U081
U082
U083
U084
U085
U086
U089
U090
U091
U092
U093
U094
U095
U096
U097
U098
U099
U101
U103
U105
U106
U108
U109
U110
U111
U112
U113
U114
U115
U116
U117
U118
U119
U120
U121
U122
U123
U124
U125
U126
U127
U128
U129
???
U130
U131
U132
U133
U134
U135
U136 (wastewaters)
U137
U138
U140
U141
U142
U143
U144
U145
U146
U147
U148
U149
U150
U151 (wastewaters)
U152
U153
U154
U155
U156
U157
U158
U159
U160
U161
U162
U163
U164
U165
U166
U167
U168
U169
U170
U171
U172
U173
U174
U176
U177
U178
U179
U180
U181
U182
U183
???
U184
U185
U186
U187
U188
U189
U191
U192
U193
U194
U196
U197
U200
U201
U202
U203
U204
U205
U206
U207
U208
U209
U210
U211
U213
U214
U215
U216
U217
U218
U219
U220
U222
U225
U226
U227
U228
U234
U236
U237
U238
U239
U240
U243
U244
U246
U247
U248
U249
5) The following wastes identified as hazardous based
on a characteristic alone:
???
D001
D002
D003
D004 (wastewaters)
D005
D006
D007
D008 (except for lead materials stored before
secondary smelting)
D009 (wastewaters)
D010
D011
D012
D013
D014
D015
D016
D017
b) The following wastes are prohibited from land disposal.
The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as
U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers:
K048 (nonwastewaters)
K049 (nonwastewaters)
K050 (nonwastewaters)
K051 (nonwastewaters)
K052 (nonwastewaters)
c) The following wastes are prohibited from land disposal:
1) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131
as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers:
F039 (nonwastewaters)
2) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132
as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers:
K031 (nonwastewaters)
K084 (nonwastewaters)
K101 (nonwastewaters)
K102 (nonwastewaters)
K106 (nonwastewaters)
3) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.133(e) as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers:
P010 (nonwastewaters)
P011 (nonwastewaters)
P012 (nonwastewaters)
???
P036 (nonwastewaters)
P038 (nonwastewaters)
P065 (nonwastewaters)
P087
P092 (nonwastewaters)
4) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.133(f) as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers:
U136 (nonwastewaters)
U151 (nonwastewaters)
5) The following wastes identified as hazardous based
on a characteristic alone:
D004 (nonwastewaters)
D009 (nonwastewaters);
6) RCRA hazardous wastes that contain naturally
occurring radioactive materials.
d) Hazardous wastes listed in Sections 728.110, 728.111 or
728.112 that are mixed radioactive/hazardous wastes,
and soil or debris contaminated with hazardous wastes
listed in Sections 728.110, 728.111 or 728.112 that are
mixed radioactive/hazardous wastes, are prohibited from
land disposal, except as provided in subsection (e)
below.
e) Subject to the applicable prohibitions of Sections
728.130, 728.131, and 728.132, contaminated soil and
debris are prohibited from land disposal as follows:
1) Effective May 8, 1994, debris that is contaminated
with wastes listed in Section 728.112 and debris
that is contaminated with any characteristic waste
for which treatment standards are established in
Subpart D of this Part are prohibited from land
disposal.
2) Effective May 8, 1994, mixed radioactive hazardous
debris that is contaminated with hazardous wastes
listed in Section 728.112 and mixed radioactive
hazardous debris that is contaminated with any
characteristic waste for which treatment standards
are established in Subpart D of this Part are
prohibited from land disposal.
3) Subsections (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this Section
shall not apply where the generator has failed to
???
make good-faith effort to locate treatment
capacity suitable for its waste, has not utilized
such capacity as it has found to be available, or
has failed to file a report as required by Section
728.105(g) by August 12, 1993 or within 90 days
after the waste is generated (whichever is later)
describing the generator’s efforts to locate
treatment capacity. Where subsections (e)(1) and
(e)(2) of this Section do not apply, all wastes
described in those two subsections are prohibited
from land disposal.
BOARD NOTE: This subsection is derived from 40
CFR 268.35(e)(3), as added at 58 Fed. Reg. 28510
(May 14, 1993). This was a HSWA-derived amendment
that went into effect as federal law in Illinois,
effective May 8, 1993. The August 12, 1993 report
was due on that date as a matter of federal law.
4) Hazardous soil having treatment standards in
728.Subpart D based on incineration, mercury
retorting or vitrification, and soils contaminated
with hazardous wastes listed in Sections 728.110,
728.111 and 728.112 that are mixed radioactive
hazardous wastes, are prohibited from land
disposal.
5) When used in subsections (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this
Section, debris is defined as follows:
A) Debris as defined in Section 728.102(g); or
B) Nonfriable inorganic solids that are
incapable of passing through a 9.5 mm
standard sieve that require cutting or
crushing and grinding in mechanical sizing
equipment prior to stabilization, limited to
the following inorganic or metal materials:
i) Metal slag (either dross or scoria);
ii) Glassified slag;
iii) Glass;
iv) Concrete (excluding cementitious or
pozzolanic stabilized hazardous wastes);
v) Masonry and refractory bricks;
vi) Metal cans, containers, drums, or tanks;
???
vii) Metal nuts, bolts, pipes, pumps, valves,
appliances, or industrial equipment; or
viii) Scrap metal as defined in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.101(c)(6).
f) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 268.35(f),
which pertains to an exemption from a land disposal
prohibition up until a date long since expired. This
statement maintains structural consistency with USEPA
rules.
g) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 268.35(g),
which pertains to an exemption from a land disposal
prohibition up until a date long since expired. This
statement maintains structural consistency with USEPA
rules.
h) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 268.35(h),
which pertains to landfill and surface impoundment
disposal of the wastes listed in subsections (c), (d)
and (e) above up until a date long since expired. This
statement maintains structural consistency with USEPA
rules.
i) The requirements of subsections (a) through (e), above,
do not apply if:
1) The wastes meet the applicable standards specified
in Subpart D of this Part;
2) Persons have been granted an exemption from a
prohibition pursuant to a petition under Section
728.106, with respect to those wastes and units
covered by the petition;
3) The wastes meet the applicable alternate standards
established pursuant to a petition granted under
Section 728.144;
4) Persons have been granted an extension to the
effective date of a prohibition pursuant to
Section 728.105, with respect to these wastes
covered by the extension.
j) To determine whether a hazardous waste listed in
Section 728.110, 728.111 or 728.112 exceeds the
applicable treatment standards specified in Sections
728.141 and 728.143, the initial generator shall either
test a representative sample of the waste extract or
the entire waste, depending on whether the treatment
standards are expressed as concentrations in the waste
???
extract or the waste, or use knowledge of the waste.
If the waste contains constituents in excess of the
applicable Subpart D of this Part levels, the waste is
prohibited from land disposal, and all requirements of
this Part are applicable, except as otherwise
specified.
k) D008 lead materials stored before secondary smelting
are prohibited from land disposal. On or before March
1, 1993, the owner or operator of each secondary lead
smelting facility shall have submitted the following to
the Agency: A binding contractual commitment to
construct or otherwise provide capacity for storing
such D008 wastes prior to smelting which complies with
all applicable storage standards; documentation that
the capacity to be provided will be sufficient to
manage the entire quantity of such D008 wastes; and, a
detailed schedule for providing such capacity. Failure
by a facility to have submitted such documentation will
render such D008 managed by that facility prohibited
from land disposal. In addition, the owner or operator
of each facility shall place in the facility record
documentation of the manner and location in which such
wastes will be managed pending completion of such
capacity, demonstrating that such management capacity
will be adequate and complies with all applicable
requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720 through 728.
(Source: Repealed at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.136Waste Specific Prohibitions -- Newly Listed Wastes
(Repealed)
a) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as
U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers K107, K108, K109,
K110, K111, K112, K117, K118, K123, K124, K125, K126,
K131, K132, and K136; and the wastes specified in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.133(f) as U.S. EPA hazardous waste
numbers U328, U353, and U359 are prohibited from land
disposal.
b) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 as
U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers F037 and F038 that are
not generated from surface impoundment cleanouts or
closures are prohibited from land disposal.
c) Effective June 30, 1994, the wastes specified in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 as U.S. EPA hazardous waste
numbers F037 and F038 that are generated from surface
impoundment cleanouts or closures are prohibited from
land disposal.
???
d) Effective June 30, 1994, radioactive wastes that are
mixed with hazardous wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.131 as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers F037
and F038; the wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.132 as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers K107, K108,
K109, K110, K111, K112, K117, K118, K123, K124, K125,
K126 K131, K132, and K136; or the wastes specified in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.133(f) as U.S. EPA hazardous
waste numbers U328, U353, and U359 are prohibited from
land disposal.
e) Effective June 30, 1994, debris contaminated with
hazardous wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131
as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers F037 and F038; the
wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as U.S.
EPA hazardous waste numbers K107, K108, K109, K110,
K111, K112, K117, K118, K123, K124, K125, K126 K131,
K132, and K136; or the wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721.133(f) as U.S. EPA hazardous waste numbers
U328, U353, and U359; and which is not contaminated
with any other waste already subject to a prohibition
are prohibited from land disposal.
f) This subsection corresponds with 40 CFR 268.36(f),
which pertains to landfill disposal of the wastes
listed in subsection (b) above up until a date long
since expired. This statement maintains structural
consistency with USEPA rules.
g) Between June 30, 1992 and June 30, 1994, the wastes
included in subsections (d) and (e) of this Section may
be disposed of in a landfill only if such unit is in
compliance with the requirements specified in
subsection 728.105(h)(2), and may be generated in and
disposed of in a surface impoundment only if such unit
is in compliance with either subsection 728.105(h)(2)
or Section 728.114.
h) The requirements of subsections (a) through (e) above
do not apply if:
1) The wastes meet the applicable standards specified
in 728.Subpart D;
2) Persons have been granted an exemption from a
prohibition pursuant to a petition under Section
728.106, with respect to those wastes and units
covered by the petition;
???
3) The wastes meet the applicable alternate standards
established pursuant to a petition granted under
Section 728.144;
4) Persons have been granted an extension to the
effective date of a prohibition pursuant to
Section 728.105, with respect to the wastes
covered by the extension.
i) To determine whether a hazardous waste identified in
this Section exceeds the applicable treatment standards
specified in Sections 728.141 and 728.143, the initial
generator shall test a representative sample of the
waste extract or the entire waste, depending on whether
the treatment standards are expressed as concentrations
in the waste extract or the waste, or the generator may
use knowledge of the waste. If the waste contains
constituents in excess of the applicable levels in
728.Subpart D, the waste is prohibited from land
disposal, and all requirements of Part 728 are
applicable, except as otherwise specified.
(Source: Repealed at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART D: TREATMENT STANDARDS
Section 728.144 Adjustment of Treatment Standard
a) Where the treatment standard is expressed as a
concentration in a waste or waste extract and a waste
cannot be treated to the specified level, or where the
treatment technology is not appropriate to the waste,
the generator or treatment facility may petition to the
Board for an adjusted treatment standard. As
justification, the petitioner shall demonstrate that,
because the physical or chemical properties of the
waste differ significantly from wastes analyzed in
developing the treatment standard, the waste cannot be
treated to specified levels or by the specified
methods.
BOARD NOTE: 40 CFR 268.44 refers to these as “treat-
ability variances”. The Board has not used this term
in its rules to avoid confusion with the Board
variances under Title IX of the Environmental
Protection Act. The equivalent Board procedures are an
“adjusted treatment standard” pursuant to subsections
(a) through (l) of this Section, or a “treatability
exception” adopted pursuant to subsections (m) et seq.
While the latter is adopted by “identical in substance”
???
rulemaking following a USEPA action, the former is an
original Board action which will be the only mechanism
following authorization to the State of this component
of the RCRA program.
b) Each petition must be submitted in accordance with the
procedures in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 106.Subpart G.
c) Each petition must include the following statement
signed by the petitioner or an authorized
representative:
I certify under penalty of law that I have
personally examined and am familiar with the
information submitted in this petition and all
attached documents, and that, based on my inquiry
of those individuals immediately responsible for
obtaining the information, I believe that the
submitted information is true, accurate and
complete. I am aware that there are significant
penalties for submitting false information,
including the possibility of fine and
imprisonment.
d) After receiving a petition for an adjusted treatment
standard, the Board may request any additional
information or samples which are necessary to evaluate
the petition.
e) The Board will give public notice and provide an
opportunity for public comment, as provided in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 106. In conjunction with any updating of the
RCRA regulations, the Board will maintain, in this
Part, a listing of all adjusted treatment standards
granted by the Board pursuant to this Section. A
LISTING OF ALL ADJUSTED STANDARDS GRANTED PURSUANT TO
THIS SECTION WILL BE PUBLISHED IN THE ILLINOIS REGISTER
AND ENVIRONMENTAL REGISTER AT THE END OF EACH FISCAL
YEAR. (Section 28.1(d)(3) of the Environmental
Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/1].)
f) A generator, treatment facility or disposal facility
that is managing a waste covered by an adjusted
treatment standard shall comply with the waste analysis
requirements for restricted wastes found under Section
728.107.
g) During the petition review process, the applicant is
required to comply with all restrictions on land
disposal under this Part once the effective date for
the waste has been reached.
???
h) Where the treatment standard is expressed as a
concentration in a waste or waste extract and a waste
generated under conditions specific to only one site
cannot be treated to the specified level, or where
treatment technology is not appropriate to the waste,
the generator or treatment facility may petition the
Board for a site-specific adjusted treatment standard.
The petitioner shall demonstrate that, because the
physical or chemical properties of the waste differs
significantly from the waste analyzed in developing the
treatment standard, the waste cannot be treated to
specified levels or by the specified methods.
i) Each petition for a site-specific adjusted treatment
standard must include the information in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.120(b)(1) through (b)(4).
j) After receiving a petition for a site-specific adjusted
treatment standard, the Board may request any
additional information or samples which the Board
determines are necessary to evaluate the petition.
k) A generator, treatment facility or disposal facility
which is managing a waste covered by a site-specific
adjusted treatment standard shall comply with the waste
analysis requirements for restricted wastes in Section
728.107.
l) During the petition review process, the petitioner for
a site-specific adjusted treatment standard shall
comply with all restrictions on land disposal under
this Part once the effective date for the waste has
been reached.
m) If USEPA grants a treatability exception by regulatory
action pursuant to 40 CFR 268.44 (1996) and a person
demonstrates that the treatability exception needs to
be adopted as part of the Illinois RCRA program because
the waste is generated or managed in Illinois, the
Board will adopt the treatability exception by
identical in substance rulemaking pursuant to Section
22.4(a) of the Environmental Protection Act.
BOARD NOTE: The Board will adopt the treatability
exception during a RCRA update Docket if a timely
demonstration is made. Otherwise, the Board will
assign the matter to a separate Docket.
o) The facilities listed in Section 728.Table H are
excluded from the treatment standard standards under
Sections 728.143(a) and 728.Table B, and are subject to
???
the constituent concentrations listed in Section
728.Table H.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.Appendix A Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure (TCLP) Repealed
Note: The TCLP (Method 1311) is published in “Test Methods for
Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods”, U.S. EPA
Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 720.111.
(Source: Repealed at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.Appendix B Treatment Standards (As concentrations
in the Treatment Residual Extract) Repealed
The Board incorporates by reference 40 CFR 268, Appendix II
(1992), as amended at 57 Fed. Reg. 37281 (Aug. 18, 1992). This
incorporation includes no future editions or amendments.
(Source: Repealed at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.Appendix C List of Halogenated Organic Compounds
Repealed
VOLATILES
Bromodichloromethane
Bromomethane
Carbon tetrachloride
Chlorobenzene
2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene
Chlorodibromomethane
Chloroethane
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether
Chloroform
Chloromethane
3-Chloropropene
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane
1,2-Dibromoethane
Dibromomethane
trans-1,4-Dichloro-2-butene
Dichlorodifluoromethane
1,1-Dichloroethane
1,2-Dichloroethane
1,1-Dichloroethylene
trans-1,2-Dichloroethene
???
1,2,-Dichloropropane
trans-1,3,-Dichloropropene
cis-1,3-Dichloropropene
Iodomethane
Methylene chloride
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane
Tetrachloroethene
Tribromomethane
1,1,1-Trichloroethane
1,1,2-Trichloroethane
Trichloroethene
Trichloromonofluoromethane
1,2,3-Trichloropropane
Vinyl chloride
SEMIVOLATILES
Bis(2-chloroethoxy)ethane
Bis(2-chloroethyl) ether
Bis(2-chloroisopropyl) ether
p-Chloroaniline
Chlorobenzilate
p-Chloro-m-cresol
2-Chloronaphthalene
2-Chlorophenol
3-Chloropropionitrile
m-Dichlorobenzene
o-Dichlorobenzene
p-Dichlorobenzene
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine
2,4-Dichlorophenol
2,6-Dichlorophenol
Hexachlorobenzene
Hexachlorobutadiene
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene
Hexachloroethane
Hexachlorophene
Hexachloropropene
4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline)
Pentachlorobenzene
Pentachloroethane
Pentachloronitrobenzene
Pentachlorophenol
Pronamide
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol
Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl)phosphate
???
ORGANOCHLORINE PESTICIDES
Aldrin
alpha-BHC
beta-BHC
delta-BHC
gamma-BHC
Chlordane
DDD
DDE
DDT
Dieldrin
Endosulfan I
Endosulfane II
Endrin
Endrin aldehyde
Heptachlor
Heptachlor epoxide
Isodrin
Kepone
Methoxychlor
Toxaphene
PHENOXYACETIC ACID HERBICIDES
2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
Silvex
2,4,5-T
PCBs
Aroclor 1016
Aroclor 1221
Aroclor 1232
Aroclor 1242
Aroclor 1248
Aroclor 1254
Aroclor 1260
PCBs not otherwise specified
DIOXINS AND FURANS
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
Hexachlorodibenzofuran
Pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
Pentachlorodibenzofuran
Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
Tetrachlorodibenzofuran
2,3,7,8,-Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin
(Source: Repealed at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
???
Section 728.Appendix F Technologies to Achieve Deactivation of
Characteristics
The treatment standard for many subcategories of D001, D002 and
D003 wastes as well as for K044, K045 and K047 wastes is listed
in Section 728.142 simply as “Deactivation to remove the
characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, and reactivity”.
characteristic wastes is stated in the Section 728.Table T,
entitled “Treatment Standards for Hazardous Wastes,” as “DEACT
and meet Section 728.148 standards.” USEPA has determined that
many technologies, when used alone or in combination, can achieve
this the deactivation portion of the treatment standard.
Characteristic wastes that are not managed in a facility
regulated by the CWA or in a CWA-equivalent facility, and that
also contain underlying hazardous constituents (see Section
268.2(i)) must be treated not only by a “deactivating” technology
to remove the characteristic, but also to achieve the universal
treatment standards (UTS) for underlying hazardous constituents.
The following appendix presents a partial list of these
technologies, utilizing the five letter technology codes
established in Table C, that may be useful in meeting the
treatment standard. Use of these specific technologies is not
mandatory and does not preclude direct reuse, recovery or the use
of other pretreatment technologies, provided deactivation is
achieved and these alternative methods are not performed in units
designated as land disposal underlying hazardous constituents are
treated to achieve the UTS.
Waste code/subcategory Nonwastewaters Wastewaters
D001 Ignitable Liquids based on 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.121(a)(1)—Low
TOC Nonwastewater Subcategory
(containing 1% to <10% TOC)
RORGS
WETOX
INCIN
CHOXD
BIODG
n.a.
D001 Ignitable Liquids based on 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.121(a)(1)—
Ignitable Wastewater Subcategory
(containing <1% TOC)
n.a. WETOX
RORGS
INCIN
CHOXD
BIODG
D001 Compressed Gases based on 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.121(a)(3)
RCGAS
FSUBS
INCIN
ADGAS fb.
INCIN
ADGAS fb.
(CHOXD; or
CHRED)
n.a.
???
D001 Ignitable Reactives based on
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121(a)(2)
WTRRX
CHOXD
CHRED
STABL
INCIN
n.a.
D001 Ignitable Oxidizers based on
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.121(a)(4)
CHRED
INCIN
CHRED
INCIN
D002 Acid Subcategory based on 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.122(a)(1) with
pH less than or equal to 2
RCORR
NEUTR
INCIN
NEUTR
INCIN
D002 Alkaline Subcategory based on
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.122(a)(1)
with pH greater than or equal to
12.5
NEUTR
INCIN
NEUTR
INCIN
D002 Other Corrosives based on 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.122(a)(2)
CHOXD
CHRED
INCIN
STABL
CHOXD
CHRED
INCIN
D003 Water Reactives based on 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(2), (3)
and (4)
INCIN
WTRRX
CHOXD
CHRED
n.a.
D003 Reactive Sulfides based on 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(5)
CHOXD
CHRED
INCIN
STABL
CHOXD
CHRED
BIODG
INCIN
D003 Explosives based on 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721.123(a) (6), (7) and
INCIN
CHOXD
CHRED
INCIN
CHOXD
CHRED
BIODG
CARBN
D003 Other Reactives based on 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(1)
INCIN
CHOXD
CHRED
INCIN
CHOXD
CHRED
BIODG
CARBN
K044 Wastewater treatment sludges
from the manufacturing and
processing of explosives
CHOXD
CHRED
INCIN
CHOXD
CHRED
BIODG
CARBN
INCIN
K045 Spent carbon from the CHOXD CHOXD
???
treatment of wastewaters containing
explosives
CHRED
INCIN
CHRED
BIODG
CARBN
INCIN
K047 Pink/red water from TNT
operations
CHOXD
CHRED
INCIN
CHOXD
CHRED
BIODG
CARBN
INCIN
Note: “n.a.” stands for “not applicable”.
“fb.” Stands for “followed by”.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.Appendix G Federal Effective Dates
The following are the effective dates for the USEPA rules in 40
CFR 268. These generally became effective as Illinois rules at a
later date.
TABLE 1
EFFECTIVE DATES OF SURFACE DISPOSED WASTES (NON-SOIL
AND DEBRIS) REGULATED IN THE LDRS (A)
a
—COMPREHENSIVE
LIST
Waste code Waste category Effective
date
California list
Liquid hazardous wastes,
including free liquids
associated with solid or sludge,
containing free cyanides at
concentrations greater than or
equal to 1,000 mg/l or certain
metals or compounds of these
metals greater than or equal to
the prohibition levels
July 8,
1987.
California list
Liquid (aqueous) hazardous
wastes having a pH less than or
equal to 2
July 8,
1987.
California list
Dilute HOC wastewaters, defined
as HOC-waste mixtures that are
primarily water and that contain
greater than or equal to 1,000
mg /l but less than 10,000 mg/l
July 8,
1987.
California list
Liquid hazardous waste
containing PCBs greater than or
equal to 50 ppm
July 8,
1987.
California list
Other liquid and nonliquid
Nov. 8,
???
hazardous wastes containing HOCs
in total concentration greater
than or equal to 1,000 mg
1988.
D001
c
All (except High TOC Ignitable
Liquids)
Aug. 8,
1990
Aug. 9,
1993.
D001
High TOC Ignitable Liquids
Aug. 8,
1990.
D002
c
All Aug. 8,
1990
Aug. 9,
1993.
D003
e
All Aug. 8,
1990
July 8,
1996.
D004
Wastewater
Aug. 8,
1990.
D004 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
D004
Wastewater
Aug. 8,
1992.
D005 All Aug. 8,
1990.
D006 All Aug. 8,
1990.
D007 All Aug. 8,
1990.
D008 Lead materials before secondary
smelting
May 8,
1992.
D008 All others Aug. 8,
1990.
D009 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
D009 All others Aug. 8,
1990.
D010 All Aug. 8,
1990.
D011 All Aug. 8,
1990.
D012 (that exhibit
the toxicity charac-
teristic based on
the TCLP)
d
All Aug. 8,
1990
Dec. 14,
1994.
D013 (that exhibit
the toxicity charac-
teristic based on
the TCLP)
d
All Aug. 8,
1990
Dec. 14,
1994.
D014 (that exhibit
the toxicity charac-
teristic based on
All Aug. 8,
1990
Dec. 14,
???
the TCLP)
d
1994.
D015 (that exhibit
the toxicity charac-
teristic based on
the TCLP)
d
All Aug. 8,
1990
Dec. 14,
1994.
D016 (that exhibit
the toxicity charac-
teristic based on
the TCLP)
d
All Aug. 8,
1990
Dec. 14,
1994.
D017 (that exhibit
the toxicity charac-
teristic based on
the TCLP)
d
All Aug. 8,
1990
Dec. 14,
1994.
D018
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D018
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D019
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D019
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D020
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D020
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D021
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D021
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D022
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D022
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D023
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D023
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D024
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D024
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D025
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D025
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D026
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D026
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D027
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D027
All others
Dec. 19,
???
1994.
D028
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D028
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D029
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D029
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D030
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D030
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D031
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D031
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D032
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D032
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D033
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D033
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D034
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D034
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D035
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D035
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D036
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D036
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D037
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D037
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D038
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D038
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D039
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D039
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D040
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D040
All others
Dec. 19,
???
1994.
D041
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D041
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D042
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D042
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
D043
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
D043
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
F001 Small quantity generators,
CERCLA response/RCRA corrective
action, initial generator’s
solvent-water mixtures, solvent-
containing sludges and solids
Nov. 8,
1988.
F001 All others Nov. 8,
1986.
F002 (1,1,2-
trichloroethane)
Wastewater and Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
F002 Small quantity generators,
CERCLA response/RCRA corrective
action, initial generator’s
solvent-water mixtures, solvent-
containing sludges and solids
Nov. 8,
1988.
F002 All others Nov. 8,
1986.
F003 Small quantity generators,
CERCLA response/RCRA corrective
action, initial generator’s
solvent-water mixtures, solvent-
containing sludges and solids
Nov. 8,
1988.
F003 All others Nov. 8,
1986.
F004 Small quantity generators,
CERCLA response/RCRA corrective
action, initial generator’s
solvent-water mixtures, solvent-
containing sludges and solids
Nov. 8,
1988.
F004 All others Nov. 8,
1986.
F005 (benzene, 2-
ethoxy ethanol, 2-
nitropropane)
Wastewater and Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
F005 Small quantity generators,
CERCLA response/RCRA corrective
action, initial generator’s
solvent-water mixtures, solvent-
containing sludges and solids
Nov. 8,
1988.
F005 All others Nov. 8,
???
1986.
F006 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
F006 Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
F006 (cyanides) Nonwastewater July 8,
1989.
F007 All July 8,
1989.
F008 All July 8,
1989.
F009 All July 8,
1989.
F010 All June 8,
1989.
F011 (cyanides) Nonwastewater Dec. 8,
1989.
F011 All others July 8,
1989.
F012 (cyanides) Nonwastewater Dec. 8,
1989.
F012 All others July 8,
1989.
F019 All Aug. 8,
1990.
F020 All Nov. 8,
1988.
F021 All Nov. 8,
1988.
F022
All
Nov. 8,
1988.
F023
All
Nov. 8,
1988.
F024 (metals)
Wastewater
June 8,
1989.
F024 (metals)
Nonwastewater
Aug. 8,
1990.
F024 B
All others
June 8,
1989.
F025 All Aug. 8,
1990.
F026 All Nov. 8,
1988.
F027 All Nov. 8,
1988.
F028 All Nov. 8,
1988.
F032
Mixed with radioactive wastes
May 12,
1999
F032
All others
May 12,
1997
F033
Mixed with radioactive wastes
May 12,
???
1999
F033
All others
May 12,
1997
F034
Mixed with radioactive wastes
May 12,
1999
F034
All others
May 12,
1997
F037
Not generated from surface
impoundment cleanouts or
closures.
June 30,
1993.
F037
Generated from surface
impoundment cleanouts or
closures.
June 30,
1994.
F037
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
F038
Not generated from surface
impoundment cleanouts or
closures.
June 30,
1993.
F038
Generated from surface
impoundment cleanouts or
closures.
June 30,
1994.
F038
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
F039 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
F039 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
K001 (organics)
b
B
All Aug. 8,
1988.
K001 All others Aug. 8,
1988.
K002 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K003 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K004 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K004 C
Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K005 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K005 C
Nonwastewater June 8,
1989.
K006 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K007 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K007 C
Nonwastewater June 8,
1989.
K008 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K008 C
Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
???
1988.
K009 All June 8,
1989.
K010 All June 8,
1989.
K011 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K011 Nonwastewater June 8,
1989.
K013 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K013 Nonwastewater June 8,
1989.
K014 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K014 Nonwastewater June 8,
1989.
K015 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K015 Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K016 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K017 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K018 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K019 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K020 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K021 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K021 C
Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K022 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K022 Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K023 All June 8,
1989.
K024 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K025 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K025 C
Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K026 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K027 All June 8,
1989.
K028 (metals) Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
???
1990.
K028 All others June 8,
1989.
K029 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K029 Nonwastewater June 8,
1989.
K030 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K031 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K031 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
K032 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K033 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K034 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K035 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K036 Wastewater June 8,
1989.
K036 C
Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K037
b
B
Wastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K037 Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K038 All June 8,
1989.
K039 All June 8,
1989.
K040 All June 8,
1989.
K041 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K042 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K043 All June 8,
1989.
K044 C
All Aug. 8,
1988.
K045 C
All Aug. 8,
1988.
K046 (Nonreactive) Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K046 All others Aug. 8,
1990.
K047 C
All Aug. 8,
1988.
K048 Wastewater Aug. 8,
???
1990.
K048 Nonwastewater Nov. 8,
1990.
K049 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K049 Nonwastewater Nov. 8,
1990.
K050 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K050 Nonwastewater Nov. 8,
1990.
K051 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K051 Nonwastewater Nov. 8,
1990.
K052 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K052 Nonwastewater Nov. 8,
1990.
K060 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K060 C
Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K061 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K061 (low zinc)
(interim standard
for high zinc
remains in effect
until August 7,
1991).
Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988
June 30,
1992.
K062 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K069 (Non-Calcium
Sulfate) C
Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K069 All others Aug. 8,
1990.
K071 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K073 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K083 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K084 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K084 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
K085 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K086 (organics)
b
B
All Aug. 8,
1988.
K086 All others Aug. 8,
???
1988.
K087 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K088
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
K088
All others
Jan. 8,
1997.
K093 All June 8,
1989.
K094 All June 8,
1989.
K095 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K095 Nonwastewater June 8,
1989.
K096 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K096 Nonwastewater June 8,
1989.
K097 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K098 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K099 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K100 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K100 C
Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K101 (organics) Wastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K101 (metals) Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K101 (organics) Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K101 (metals) Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
K102 (organics) Wastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K102 (metals) Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
K102 (organics) Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1988.
K102 (metals) Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
K103 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K104 All Aug. 8,
1988.
K105 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K106 Wastewater Aug. 8,
???
1990.
K106 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
K107
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K107
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K108
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K108
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K109
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K109
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K110
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K110
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K111
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K111
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K112
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K112
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K113 All June 8,
1989.
K114 All June 8,
1989.
K115 All June 8,
1989.
K116 All June 8,
1989.
K117
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K117
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K118
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K118
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K123
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K123
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K124
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K124
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K125
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
???
1994.
K125
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K126
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K126
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K131
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K131
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K132
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K132
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K136
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
K136
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
K141
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
K141
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
K142
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996
K142
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
K143
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
K143
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
K144
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
K144
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
K145
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
K145
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
K147
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
K147
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
K148
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
K148
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
K149
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
K149
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
K150
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
???
1996.
K150
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
K151
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Sep. 19,
1996.
K151
All others
Dec. 19,
1994.
K156
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
K156
All others
July 8,
1996.
K157
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
K157
All others
July 8,
1996.
K158
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
K158
All others
July 8,
1996.
K159
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
K159
All others
July 8,
1996.
K160
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
K160
All others
July 8,
1996.
K161
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
K161
All others
July 8,
1996.
P001 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P002 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P003 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P004 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P005 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P006 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P007 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P008 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P009 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P010 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
P010 Nonwastewater May 8,
???
1992.
P011 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
P011 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
P012 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
P012 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
P013 (barium) Nonwastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
P013 All others June 8,
1989.
P014 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P015 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P016 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P017 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P018 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P020 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P021 All June 8,
1989.
P022 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P023 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P024 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P026 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P027 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P028 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P029 All June 8,
1989.
P030 All June 8,
1989.
P031 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P033 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P034 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P036 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
P036 Nonwastewater May 8,
???
1992.
P037 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P038 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
P038 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
P039 All June 8,
1989.
P040 All June 8,
1989.
P041 All June 8,
1989.
P042 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P043 All June 8,
1989.
P044 All June 8,
1989.
P045 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P046 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P047 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P048 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P049 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P050 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P051 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P054 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P056 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P057 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P058 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P059 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P060 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P062 All June 8,
1989.
P063 All June 8,
1989.
P064 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P065 Wastewater Aug. 8,
???
1990.
P065 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
P066 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P067 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P068 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P069 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P070 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P071 All June 8,
1989.
P072 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P073 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P074 All June 8,
1989.
P075 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P076 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P077 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P078 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P081 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P082 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P084 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P085 All June 8,
1989.
P087 All May 8,
1992.
P088 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P089 All June 8,
1989.
P092 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
P092 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
P093 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P094 All June 8,
1989.
P095 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
P096 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P097 All June 8,
1989.
P098 All June 8,
1989.
P099 (silver) Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
P099 All others June 8,
1989.
P101 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P102 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P103 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P104 (silver) Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
P104 All others June 8,
1989.
P105 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P106 All June 8,
1989.
P108 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P109 All June 8,
1989.
P110 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P111 All June 8,
1989.
P112 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P113 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P114 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P115 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P116 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P118 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P119 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P120 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P121 All June 8,
1989.
P122 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
P123 All Aug. 8,
1990.
P127
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P127
All others
July 8,
1996.
P128
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P128
All others
July 8,
1996.
P185
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P185
All others
July 8,
1996.
P188
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P188
All others
July 8,
1996.
P189
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P189
All others
July 8,
1996.
P190
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P190
All others
July 8,
1996.
P191
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P191
All others
July 8,
1996.
P192
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P192
All others
July 8,
1996.
P194
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P194
All others
July 8,
1996.
P196
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P196
All others
July 8,
1996.
P197
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P197
All others
July 8,
1996.
P198
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P198
All others
July 8,
1996.
P199
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
???
1998.
P199
All others
July 8,
1996.
P201
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P201
All others
July 8,
1996.
P202
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P202
All others
July 8,
1996.
P203
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P203
All others
July 8,
1996.
P204
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P204
All others
July 8,
1996.
P205
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
P205
All others
July 8,
1996.
U001 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U002 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U003 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U004 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U005 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U006 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U007 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U008 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U009 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U010 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U011 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U012 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U014 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U015 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U016 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
U017 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U018 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U019 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U020 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U021 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U022 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U023 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U024 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U025 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U026 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U027 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U028 All June 8,
1989.
U029 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U030 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U031 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U032 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U033 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U034 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U035 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U036 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U037 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U038 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U039 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U041 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U042 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U043 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
U044 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U045 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U046 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U047 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U048 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U049 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U050 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U051 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U052 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U053 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U055 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U056 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U057 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U058 All June 8,
1989.
U059 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U060 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U061 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U062 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U063 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U064 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U066 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U067 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U068 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U069 All June 8,
1989
June 30,
1992.
U070 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
U071 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U072 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U073 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U074 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U075 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U076 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U077 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U078 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U079 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U080 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U081 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U082 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U083 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U084 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U085 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U086 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U087 All June 8,
1989.
U088 All June 8,
1989.
U089 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U090 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U091 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U092 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U093 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U094 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U095 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U096 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
U097 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U098 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U099 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U101 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U102 All June 8,
1989.
U103 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U105 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U106 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U107 All June 8,
1989.
U108 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U109 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U110 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U111 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U112 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U113 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U114 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U115 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U116 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U117 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U118 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U119 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U120 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U121 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U122 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U123 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U124 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
U125 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U126 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U127 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U128 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U129 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U130 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U131 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U132 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U133 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U134 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U135 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U136 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
U136 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
U137 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U138 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U140 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U141 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U142 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U143 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U144 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U145 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U146 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U147 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U148 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U149 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U150 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
U151 Wastewater Aug. 8,
1990.
U151 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
U152 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U153 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U154 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U155 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U156 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U157 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U158 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U159 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U160 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U161 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U162 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U163 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U164 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U165 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U166 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U167 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U168 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U169 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U170 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U171 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U172 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U173 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U174 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U176 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
U177 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U178 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U179 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U180 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U181 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U182 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U183 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U184 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U185 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U186 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U187 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U188 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U189 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U190 All June 8,
1989.
U191 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U192 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U193 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U194 All Aug. 8,
1990
June 8,
1989.
U196 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U197 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U200 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U201 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U202 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U203 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U204 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
U205 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U206 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U207 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U208 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U209 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U210 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U211 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U213 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U214 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U215 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U216 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U217 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U218 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U219 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U220 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U221 All June 8,
1989.
U222 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U223 All June 8,
1989.
U225 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U226 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U227 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U228 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U234 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U235 All June 8,
1989.
U236 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U237 All Aug. 8,
???
1990.
U238 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U239 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U240 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U243 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U244 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U246 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U247 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U248 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U249 All Aug. 8,
1990.
U271
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U271
All others
July 8,
1996.
U277
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U277
All others
July 8,
1996.
U278
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U278
All others
July 8,
1996.
U279
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U279
All others
July 8,
1996.
U280
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U280
All others
July 8,
1996.
U328
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
U328
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
U353
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
U353
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
U359
Mixed with radioactive wastes
June 30,
1994.
U359
All others
Nov. 9,
1992.
U364
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
???
1998.
U364
All others
July 8,
1996.
U365
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U365
All others
July 8,
1996.
U366
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U366
All others
July 8,
1996.
U367
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U367
All others
July 8,
1996.
U372
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U372
All others
July 8,
1996.
U373
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U373
All others
July 8,
1996.
U375
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U375
All others
July 8,
1996.
U376
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U376
All others
July 8,
1996.
U377
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U377
All others
July 8,
1996.
U378
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U378
All others
July 8,
1996.
U379
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U379
All others
July 8,
1996.
U381
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U381
All others
July 8,
1996.
U382
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U382
All others
July 8,
1996.
U383
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
???
1998.
U383
All others
July 8,
1996.
U384
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U384
All others
July 8,
1996.
U385
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U385
All others
July 8,
1996.
U386
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U386
All others
July 8,
1996.
U387
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U387
All others
July 8,
1996.
U389
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U389
All others
July 8,
1996.
U390
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U390
All others
July 8,
1996.
U391
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U391
All others
July 8,
1996.
U392
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U392
All others
July 8,
1996.
U393
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U393
All others
July 8,
1996.
U394
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U394
All others
July 8,
1996.
U395
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U395
All others
July 8,
1996.
U396
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U396
All others
July 8,
1996.
U400
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
???
1998.
U400
All others
July 8,
1996.
U401
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U401
All others
July 8,
1996.
U402
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U402
All others
July 8,
1996.
U403
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U403
All others
July 8,
1996.
U404
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U404
All others
July 8,
1996.
U407
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U407
All others
July 8,
1996.
U409
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U409
All others
July 8,
1996.
U410
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U410
All others
July 8,
1996.
U411
Mixed with radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
U411
All others
July 8,
1996.
A
a
This table does not include mixed radioactive wastes (from
the First, Second, and Third rules) which are receiving a
national capacity variance until May 8, 1992, for all
applicable treatment technologies. This table also does not
include contaminated soil and debris wastes.
B
b
The standard has been was revised in the Third Third Final
Rule (adopted by USEPA at 55 Fed. Reg. 22520 (June 1, 1990)
and by the Board in docket R90-11 by orders dated April 11,
May 23, and August 8 and 22, 1991).
C
c
No land disposal USEPA amended the standard has been revised
in the Third Third Final Emergency Rule (at 58 Fed. Reg.
29860 (May 24, 1993), which the Board adopted in docket R93-
16 on March 17, 1994); the original effective date was
August 8, 1990.
???
d
The standard was revised in the Phase II Final Rule (which
USEPA adopted at 59 FR 47982 (Sep. 19, 1994) and the Board
adopted in docket R95-6 by orders dated June 1 & 15, 1995);
the original effective date was August 8, 1990.
e
The standards for selected reactive wastes was revised in
the Phase III Final Rule (which USEPA adopted at 61 FR 15566
(Apr. 8, 1996) and the Board adopted in docket R96-10/R97-
3/R97-5 (consolidated) by an order dated November 6, 1997);
the original effective date was August 8, 1990.
TABLE 2
SUMMARY OF EFFECTIVE DATES OF LAND DISPOSAL
RESTRICTIONS FOR CONTAMINATED SOIL AND DEBRIS (CSD)
Restricted hazardous waste in CSD Effective date
1. Solvent-(F001-F005) and dioxin-(F020-
F023 and F026-F028) containing soil and
debris from CERCLA response of RCRA
corrective actions.
Nov. 8, 1990.
2. Soil and debris not from CERCLA response
or RCRA corrective actions contaminated
with less than 1% total solvents (F001-
F005) or dioxins (F020-F023 and F026-F028).
Nov. 8, 1988.
3. Soil and debris contaminated with
California list HOCs from CERCLA response
or RCRA corrective actions.
Nov. 8, 1990.
4. Soil and debris contaminated with
California list HOCs not from CERCLA
response or RCRA corrective actions.
July 8, 1989.
53. All soil and debris contaminated with
First Third wastes for which treatment
standards are based on incineration.
Aug. 8, 1990.
64. All soil and debris contaminated with
Second Third wastes for which treatment
standards are based on incineration.
June 8, 1991.
75. All soil and debris contaminated with
Third Third wastes or, First or Second
Third “soft hammer” wastes which had
treatment standards promulgated in the
Third Third rule, for which treatment
standards are based on incineration,
vitrification, or mercury retorting, acid
leaching followed by chemical
precipitation, or thermal recovery of
metals, as well as all inorganic solids
debris contaminated with D004-D011 wastes,
and all soil and debris contaminated with
mixed RCRA/radioactive wastes.
May 8, 1992.
6. Soil and debris contaminated with D012-
D043, K141-K145, and K147-151 wastes.
Dec. 19, 1994.
???
7. Debris (only) contaminated with F037,
F038, K107-K112, K117, K118, K123-K126,
K131, K132, K136, U328, U353, U359.
Dec. 19, 1994
8.
Soil and debris contaminated with K156-
K161, P127, P128, P188-P192, P194, P196-
P199, P201-P205, U271, U277-U280, U364-
U367, U372, U373, U375-U379, U381-U387,
U389-U396, U400-U404, U407, and U409-U411
wastes.
July 8, 1996.
9.
Soil and debris contaminated with K088
wastes.
Jan. 8, 1997.
10.
Soil and debris contaminated with
radioactive wastes mixed with K088, K156-
K161, P127, P128, P188-P192, P194, P196-
P199, P201-P205, U271, U277-U280, U364-
U367,U372, U373, U375-U379, U381-U387,
U389-U396, U400-U404, U407, and U409-U411
wastes.
April 8, 1998.
11.
Soil and debris contaminated with F032,
F034, and F035.
May 12, 1997.
BOARD NOTE: This table is provided for the convenience of the
reader.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.Appendix H National Capacity LDR Variances for UIC
Wastes
See Note
a
Waste code Waste category Effective
date
F001-F005
All spent F001-F005 solvent
containing less than 1 percent total
F001-F005 solvent constituents
Aug. 8,
1990.
California list
Liquid hazardous wastes, including
free liquids associated with any
solid or sludge, containing free
cyanides at concentrations greater
than or equal to 1,000 mg/l, or
containing certain metals or
compounds of these metals greater
than or equal to the prohibition
levels
Aug. 8,
1990.
California list
Liquid hazardous waste having a Ph
less than or equal to 2
Aug. 8,
1990.
California list
Hazardous wastes containing HOCs in
total concentrations less than
10,000 mg/l but greater than or
equal to 1,000 mg/l
Aug. 8,
1990.
???
D001 (except
High TOC
Ignitable
Liquids
Subcategory)
c
All
Feb. 10,
1994.
D001 (High TOC
Ignitable
Characteristic
Liquids
Subcategory)
Nonwastewater
Sep. 19,
1995.
D002
b
B
All May 8,
1992.
D002
c
All
Feb. 10,
1994.
D003 (cyanides) All May 8,
1992.
D003 (sulfides) All May 8,
1992.
D003
(explosives,
reactives).
All May 8,
1992.
D007 All May 8,
1992.
D009 Nonwastewater May 8,
1992.
D012
All
Sep. 19,
1995.
D013
All
Sep. 19,
1995.
D014
All
Sep. 19,
1995.
D015
All
Sep. 19,
1995.
D016
All
Sep. 19,
1995.
D017
All
Sep. 19,
1995.
D018
All, including mixed with
radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D019
All, including mixed with
radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D020
All, including mixed with
radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D021
All, including mixed with
radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D022
All, including mixed with
radioactive wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D023
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D024
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D025
All, including mixed radioactive
Apr. 8,
???
wastes
1998.
D026
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D027
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D028
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D029
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D030
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D031
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D032
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D033
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D034
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D035
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D036
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D037
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D038
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D039
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D040
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D041
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D042
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
D043
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
Apr. 8,
1998.
F001-F005
All spent F001-F005 solvent
containing less than 1 percent total
F001-F005 solvent constituents
Aug. 8,
1990.
F007 All June 8,
1991.
F032
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
May 12,
1999.
F034
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
May
12,1999.
F035
All, including mixed radioactive
wastes
May 12,
1999.
F037
All
Nov. 8,
1992.
F038
All
Nov. 8,
1992.
???
F039 Wastewater May 8,
1992.
K009 Wastewater June 8,
1991.
K011
Nonwastewater
June 8,
1991.
K011
Wastewater
May 8,
1992.
K013 Nonwastewater June 8,
1991.
K013 Wastewater May 8,
1992.
K014 All May 8,
1992.
K016 (dilute) All June 8,
1991.
K049 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K050 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K051 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K052 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K062 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K071 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K088
All
Jan. 8,
1997.
K104 All Aug. 8,
1990.
K107
All
Nov. 8,
1992.
K108
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
K109
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
K110
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
K111
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
K112
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
K117
All
June 30,
1995.
K118
All
June 30,
1995.
K123
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
K124
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
???
K125
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
K126
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
K131
All
June 30,
1995.
K132
All
June 30,
1995.
K136
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
K141
All
Dec. 19,
1994.
K142
All
Dec. 19,
1994.
K143
All
Dec. 19,
1994.
K144
All
Dec. 19,
1994.
K145
All
Dec. 19,
1994.
K147
All
Dec. 19,
1994.
K148
All
Dec. 19,
1994.
K149
All
Dec. 19,
1994.
K150
All
Dec. 19,
1994.
K151
All
Dec. 19,
1994.
K156
All
July 8,
1996.
K157
All
July 8,
1996.
K158
All
July 8,
1996.
K159
All
July 8,
1996.
K160
All
July 8,
1996.
K161
All
July 8,
1996.
P127
All
July 8,
1996.
P128
All
July 8,
1996.
P185
All
July 8,
1996.
P188
All
July 8,
1996.
P189
All
July 8,
1996.
???
P190
All
July 8,
1996.
P191
All
July 8,
1996.
P192
All
July 8,
1996.
P194
All
July 8,
1996.
P196
All
July 8,
1996.
P197
All
July 8,
1996.
P198
All
July 8,
1996.
P199
All
July 8,
1996.
P201
All
July 8,
1996.
P202
All
July 8,
1996.
P203
All
July 8,
1996.
P204
All
July 8,
1996.
P205
All
July 8,
1996.
U271
All
July 8,
1996.
U277
All
July 8,
1996.
U278
All
July 8,
1996.
U279
All
July 8,
1996.
U280
All
July 8,
1996.
U328
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
U353
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
U359
All
Nov. 9,
1992.
U364
All
July 8,
1996.
U365
All
July 8,
1996.
U366
All
July 8,
1996.
U367
All
July 8,
1996.
U372
All
July 8,
1996.
???
U373
All
July 8,
1996.
U375
All
July 8,
1996.
U376
All
July 8,
1996.
U377
All
July 8,
1996.
U378
All
July 8,
1996.
U379
All
July 8,
1996.
U381
All
July 8,
1996.
U382
All
July 8,
1996.
U383
All
July 8,
1996.
U384
All
July 8,
1996.
U385
All
July 8,
1996.
U386
All
July 8,
1996.
U387
All
July 8,
1996.
U389
All
July 8,
1996.
U390
All
July 8,
1996.
U391
All
July 8,
1996.
U392
All
July 8,
1996.
U395
All
July 8,
1996.
U396
All
July 8,
1996.
U400
All
July 8,
1996.
U401
All
July 8,
1996.
U402
All
July 8,
1996.
U403
All
July 8,
1996.
U404
All
July 8,
1996.
U407
All
July 8,
1996.
U409
All
July 8,
1996.
???
U410
All
July 8,
1996.
U411
All
July 8,
1996.
A
a
Wastes that are deep well disposed on-site receive a six-
month variance, with restrictions effective in November
1990.
B
b
Deep well injected D002 liquids with a pH less than 2 must
meet the California List treatment standards on August 8,
1990.
c
Managed in systems defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 730.105(e)
as Class V injection wells that do not engage in CWA-
equivalent treatment before injection.
BOARD NOTE: This table is provided for the convenience of
the reader.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.Appendix J Recordkeeping, Notification, and
Certification Requirements Repealed
Entity and
Scenario
Frequency
Recipient of
Notification
Recordkeeping,
Notification,
and Certifica-
tion Require-
ments
I. Generator
A. Waste does
not meet ap-
plicable treat-
ment standards
or exceeds ap-
plicable prohi-
bition levels
(see Section
728.107(a)(1)).
Each shipment
Treatment or
storage
facility.
Notice must
include:
•U.S. EPA
hazardous waste
number.
•Constituents of
concern.
•Treatability
group.
•Manifest
number.
•Waste analysis
data (where
???
available).
B. Waste can be
disposed of
without further
treatment
(meets applic-
able treatment
standards or
does not exceed
prohibition
levels upon
generation)
(see Section
728.107(a)(2)).
Each shipment
Land disposal
facility
Notice and cer-
tification
statement that
waste meets ap-
plicable treat-
ment standards
or applicable
prohibition
levels.
Notice must
include:
•U.S. EPA
hazardous waste
number.
•Constituents of
concern.
•Treatability
group.
•Manifest
number.
•Waste analysis
data (where
available).
Certification
statement
required under
Section
728.107(a)(2)(B)
that waste
complies with
treatment
standards and
prohibitions.
C. Waste is
subject to
exemption from
a prohibition
on the type of
land disposal
utilized for
the waste, such
as a case-by-
Each shipment
Receiving
facility
Notice must
include:
•Statement that
waste is not
prohibited from
land disposal.
•U.S. EPA
???
case extension
under Section
728.105, an ex-
emption under
Section
728.106, or a
nationwide
capacity
variance (see
Section
728.107(a)(3)).
hazardous waste
number.
•Constituents of
concern.
•Treatability
group.
•Manifest
number.
•Waste analysis
data (where
available).
•Date the waste
is subject to
the prohibi-
tions.
D. Waste is
being accum-
ulated in tanks
or containers
regulated under
35 Ill. Adm.
Code 722.134
and is being
treated in such
tanks or con-
tainers to meet
applicable
treatment stan-
dards (see Sec-
tion 728.107
(a)(4)).
Minimum of 30
days prior to
treatment
activity.
Agency.
Delivery must
be verified.
Generator must
develop, keep
on-site, and
follow a written
waste analysis
plan describing
procedures used
to comply with
the treatment
standards.
If waste is
shipped off-
site, generator
also must comply
with notifica-
tion requirement
of Section
728.107(a)(2).
E. Generator is
managing a lab
pack containing
certain wastes
and wishes to
use an alterna-
tive treatment
standard (see
Section
728.107(a)(8)).
Each shipment
Treatment
facility
Notice in accor-
dance with Sec-
tion 728.107(a)-
(1), (a)(5), and
(a)(6), where
applicable.
Certification in
accordance with
Section
728.107(a)(8).
???
F. Small quan-
tity generators
with tolling
agreements
(pursuant to 35
Ill. Adm. Code
722.120(e))
(see Section
728.107(a)(9)).
Initial ship-
ment
Treatment
facility
Must comply with
applicable not-
ification and
certification
requirements in
Section
728.107(a).
Generator also
must retain copy
of the notifica-
tion and certi-
fication to-
gether with tol-
ling agreement
on-site for at
least 3 years
after termina-
tion or expira-
tion of agree-
ment.
G. Generator
has determined
waste is re-
stricted based
solely on his
knowledge of
the waste (see
Section
728.107(a)(5)).
N/A
Generator’s
file
All supporting
data must be
retained on-site
in generator’s
files.
H. Generator
has determined
waste is re-
stricted based
on testing
waste or an ex-
tract (see Sec-
tion
728.107(a)(5)).
N/A
Generator’s
file
All waste anal-
ysis data must
be retained on-
site in gener-
ator’s files.
I. Generator
has determined
that waste is
excluded from
the definition
of hazardous or
solid waste or
exempt from
RCRA Subtitle C
One-time
Generator’s
file
Notice of
generation and
subsequent
exclusion from
the definition
of hazardous or
solid waste, or
exemption from
RCRA Subtitle C
???
(hazardous
waste)
regulation (see
Section
728.107(a)(6)).
(hazardous
waste)
regulation, and
information
regarding the
disposition of
the waste.
J. Generator
(or treater)
claims that
hazardous
debris is
excluded from
the definition
of hazardous
waste under 35
Ill. Adm. Code
721.103(f)(1)
(see Section
728.107(d)).
One-time
Agency.
Notification
must be
updated as
necessary
under Section
728.107(d)-
(2).
Notice must
include:
•Name and
address of RCRA
Subtitle D
(municipal solid
waste landfill)
facility
receiving
treated debris.
•U.S. EPA
hazardous waste
number and
description of
debris as
initially
generated.
•Technology used
to treat the
debris (Table 1
of Section
728.145).
Certification
and recordkeep-
ing in
accordance with
Section
728.107(d)(3).
K. Generator
(or treater)
claims that
characteristic
wastes are no
longer hazard-
ous (see Sec-
tion 728.109
(d)).
One-time
Generator’s
(or treat-
er’s) files
and Agency.
Notification
must be
updated as
necessary
under Section
728.109(d).
Notice must
include:
•Name and
address of RCRA
Subtitle D
(municipal solid
waste landfill)
facility
receiving the
waste.
???
•U.S. EPA
hazardous waste
number and
description of
waste as
initially
generated.
•Treatability
group.
•Underlying
hazardous
constituents.
Certification in
accordance with
Section
728.109(d)(2).
L. Other
recordkeeping
requirements
(see Section
728.107(a)(7)).
N/A
Generator’s
file
Generator must
retain a copy of
all notices,
certifications,
demonstrations,
waste analysis
data, and other
documentation
produced
pursuant to
Section 728.107
on-site for at
least 5 years
from the date
that the waste
was last sent to
on-site or off-
site treatment,
storage, or
disposal. This
period is
automatically
extended during
enforcement
actions or as
requested by the
Agency.
II. Treatment Facility
A. Waste
Each shipment
Land disposal
Notice must
???
shipped from
treatment
facility to
land disposal
facility (see
Sections
728.107(b)(4)
and (b)(5)).
facility
include:
•U.S. EPA
hazardous waste
number.
•Constituents of
concern.
•Treatability
group.
•Manifest
number.
•Waste analysis
data (where
available).
Application
certification,
in accordance
with Section
728.107(b)(5)-
(A), (b)(5)(B)
or (b)(5)(C),
stating that the
waste or treat-
ment residue has
been treated in
compliance with
applicable
treatment
standards and
prohibitions.
B. Waste
treatment
residue from a
treatment or
storage
facility will
be further
managed at a
different
treatment or
storage
facility (see
Section
728.107(b)(6)).
Each shipment
Receiving
facility
Treatment,
storage, or
disposal
facility must
comply with all
notice and
certification
requirements
applicable to
generators.
C. Where wastes
Each shipment
Agency.
No notification
???
are recyclable
materials used
in a manner
constituting
disposal
subject to
Section
726.120(b) (see
Section
728.107(b)(7)).
to receiving
facility
required
pursuant to
Section
728.107(b)(4).
Certification as
described in
Section
728.107(b)(5)
and notice with
information
listed in
Section
728.107(b)(4),
except manifest
number.
Recycling
facility must
keep records of
the name and
location of each
entity receiving
hazardous waste-
derived
products.
III. Land Disposal Facility.
A. Wastes
accepted by
land disposal
facility (see
Section
728.107(c)).
N/A
N/A
Maintain copies
of notice and
certifications
specified in
Section
728.107(a) and
(b).
Certification Statements
A. I certify under penalty of law that I personally have
examined and am familiar with the waste through analysis and
testing or through knowledge of the waste to support this
certification that the waste complies with the treatment
standards specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.Subpart D and
all applicable prohibitions set forth in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
728.132 or RCRA section 3004(d). I believe that the
information I submitted is true, accurate and complete. I am
aware that there are significant penalties for submitting a
false certification, including the possibility of fine and
imprisonment. (Section 728.107(a)(2)(B))
???
B. I certify under penalty of law that I personally have
examined and am familiar with the waste and that the lab pack
does not contain any wastes identified at Section
728.Appendix D. I am aware that there are significant
penalties for submitting a false certification, including
possibility of fine or imprisonment. (Section 728.107(a)(8))
C. I certify under penalty of law that I have personally
examined and am familiar with the treatment technology and
operation of the treatment process used to support this
certification and that, based on my inquiry of those
individuals immediately responsible for obtaining this
information, I believe that the treatment process has been
operated and maintained properly so as to comply with the
performance levels specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.Subpart
D, and all applicable prohibitions set forth in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.132 or RCRA section 3004(d) without impermissible
dilution of the prohibited waste. I am aware that there are
significant penalties for submitting a false certification,
including the possibility of fine and imprisonment. (Section
728.107(b)(5)(A))
D. I certify under penalty of law that the waste has been
treated in accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.142. I am aware that there are significant
penalties for submitting a false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment. (Section 728.107(b)-
(5)(B))
E. I certify under penalty of law that I have personally
examined and am familiar with the treatment technology and
operation of the treatment process used to support this
certification and that, based on my inquiry of those
individuals immediately responsible for obtaining this
information, I believe that the nonwastewater organic
constituents have been treated by incineration in units
operated in accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart O
or 35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.Subpart O or by combustion in fuel
substitution units operating in accordance with applicable
technical requirements, and I have been unable to detect the
nonwastewater organic constituents, despite having used best
good faith efforts to analyze for such constituents. I am
aware that there are significant penalties for submitting a
false certification, including the possibility of fine and
imprisonment. (Section 728.107(b)(5)(C))
F. I certify under penalty of law that the waste has been
treated in accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.140 to remove the hazardous characteristic. This
decharacterized waste contains underlying hazardous
constituents that require further treatment to meet universal
???
treatment standards. I am aware that there are significant
penalties for submitting a false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment. (Section 728.107(b)-
(5)(D))
G. I certify under penalty of law that the debris have been
treated in accordance with the requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 728.145. I am aware that there are significant
penalties for making a false certification, including the
possibility of fine and imprisonment. (Section 728.107(d)-
(3)(C))
(Source: Repealed at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.Table C Technology Codes and Description of
Technology-Based Standards
Technology
code Description of technology-based standard
ADGAS Venting of compressed gases into an absorbing or
reacting media (i.e., solid or liquid)--venting can be
accomplished through physical release utilizing valves
or piping; physical penetration of the container; or
penetration through detonation.
AMLGM Amalgamation of liquid, elemental mercury contaminated
with radioactive materials utilizing inorganic reagents
such as copper, zinc, nickel, gold, and sulfur that
result in a nonliquid, semi-solid amalgam and thereby
reducing potential emissions of elemental mercury
vapors to the air.
BIODG Biodegradation of organics or non-metallic inorganics
(i.e., degradable inorganics that contain the elements
of phosphorus, nitrogen, and sulfur) in units operated
under either aerobic or anaerobic conditions such that
a surrogate compound or indicator parameter has been
substantially reduced in concentration in the residuals
(e.g., total organic carbon (TOC) can often be used as
an indicator parameter for the biodegradation of many
organic constituents that cannot be directly analyzed
in wastewater residues).
CARBN Carbon adsorption (granulated or powdered) of non-
metallic inorganics, organo-metallics, or organic
constituents, operated so that a surrogate compound or
indicator parameter has not undergone breakthrough
(e.g., total organic carbon (TOC) can often be used as
an indicator parameter for the adsorption of many
???
organic constituents that cannot be directly analyzed
in wastewater residues). Breakthrough occurs when the
carbon has become saturated with the constituent (or
indicator parameter) and substantial change in
adsorption rate associated with that constituent
occurs.
CHOXD Chemical or electrolytic oxidation utilizing the
following oxidation reagents (or waste reagents) or
combinations or reagents:
1) hypochlorite (e.g., bleach);
2) chlorine;
3) chlorine dioxide;
4) ozone or UV (ultraviolet light) assisted ozone;
5) peroxides;
6) persulfates;
7) perchlorates;
8) permanganates; or
9) other oxidizing reagents of equivalent efficiency,
performed in units operated so that a surrogate
compound or indicator parameter has been substantially
reduced in concentration in the residuals (e.g., total
organic carbon (TOC) can often be used as an indicator
parameter for the oxidation of many organic constit-
uents that cannot be directly analyzed in wastewater
residues). Chemical oxidation specifically includes
what is commonly referred to as alkaline chlorination.
CHRED Chemical reduction utilizing the following reducing
reagents (or waste reagents) or combinations of
reagents:
1) sulfur dioxide;
2) sodium, potassium, or alkali salts of sulfites,
bisulfites, metabisulfites, and polyethylene glycols
(e.g., NaPEG and KPEG);
3) sodium hydrosulfide;
4) ferrous salts; or
???
5) other reducing reagents of equivalent efficiency,
performed in units operated such that a surrogate
compound or indicator parameter has been substantially
reduced in concentration in the residuals (e.g., total
organic halogens (TOX) can often be used as an
indicator parameter for the reduction of many
halogenated organic constituents that cannot be
directly analyzed in wastewater residues). Chemical
reduction is commonly used for the reduction of
hexavalent chromium to the trivalent state.
CMBST
Combustion High temperature organic destruction
technologies, such as combustion in incinerators,
boilers, or industrial furnaces operated in accordance
with the applicable requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.Subpart O, 725.Subpart O, or 35 Ill. Adm. Code
726.Subpart H, and in other units operated in
accordance with applicable technical operating
requirements; and certain non-combustive technologies,
such as the Catalytic Extraction Process.
DEACT Deactivation to remove the hazardous characteristics of
a waste due to its ignitability, corrosivity, or
reactivity.
FSUBS Fuel substitution in units operated in accordance with
applicable technical operating requirements.
HLVIT Vitrification of high level mixed radioactive wastes in
units in compliance with all applicable radioactive
protection requirements under control of the federal
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
IMERC Incineration of wastes containing organics and mercury
in units operated in accordance with the technical
operating requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart
O or 725.Subpart O. All wastewater and nonwastewater
residues derived from this process must then comply
with the corresponding treatment standards per waste
code with consideration of any applicable subcategories
(e.g., high or low mercury subcategories).
INCIN Incineration in units operated in accordance with
the technical operating requirements of 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 724.Subpart O or 725.Subpart O.
LLEXT Liquid-liquid extraction (often referred to as solvent
extraction) of organics from liquid wastes into an
immiscible solvent for which the hazardous constituents
have a greater solvent affinity, resulting in an
extract high in organics that must undergo either
incineration, reuse as a fuel, or other recovery or
???
reuse and a raffinate (extracted liquid waste)
proportionately low in organics that must undergo
further treatment as specified in the standard.
MACRO Macroencapsulation with surface coating materials such
as polymeric organics (e.g., resins and plastics) or
with a jacket of inert inorganic materials to
substantially reduce surface exposure to potential
leaching media. Macroencapsulation specifically does
not include any material that would be classified as a
tank or container according to 35 Ill. Adm. Code
720.110.
NEUTR Neutralization with the following reagents (or waste
reagents) or combinations of reagents:
1) acids;
2) bases; or
3) water (including wastewaters) resulting in a pH greater
than 2 but less than 12.5 as measured in the aqueous
residuals.
NLDBR No land disposal based on recycling.
POLYM Formation of complex high-molecular weight solids
through polymerization of monomers in high-TOC D001
non-wastewaters which are chemical components in the
manufacture of plastics.
PRECP Chemical precipitation of metals and other inorganics
as insoluble precipitates of oxides, hydroxides,
carbonates, sulfides, sulfates, chlorides, fluorides,
or phosphates. The following reagents (or waste
reagents) are typically used alone or in combination:
1) lime (i.e., containing oxides or hydroxides of calcium
or magnesium);
2) caustic (i.e., sodium or potassium hydroxides);
3) soda ash (i.e., sodium carbonate);
4) sodium sulfide;
5) ferric sulfate or ferric chloride;
6) alum; or
???
7) sodium sulfate. Additional flocculating, coagulation,
or similar reagents or processes that enhance sludge
dewatering characteristics are not precluded from use.
RBERY Thermal recovery of beryllium.
RCGAS Recovery or reuse of compressed gases including
techniques such as reprocessing of the gases for reuse
or resale; filtering or adsorption of impurities;
remixing for direct reuse or resale; and use of the gas
as a fuel source.
RCORR Recovery of acids or bases utilizing one or more of the
following recovery technologies:
1) distillation (i.e., thermal concentration);
2) ion exchange;
3) resin or solid adsorption;
4) reverse osmosis; or
5) incineration for the recovery of acid--
Note: this does not preclude the use of other physical
phase separation or concentration techniques such as
decantation, filtration (including ultrafiltration),
and centrifugation, when used in conjunction with the
above listed recovery technologies.
RLEAD Thermal recovery of lead in secondary lead smelters.
RMERC Retorting or roasting in a thermal processing unit
capable of volatilizing mercury and subsequently
condensing the volatilized mercury for recovery. The
retorting or roasting unit (or facility) must be
subject to one or more of the following:
a) A national emissions standard for hazardous air
pollutants (NESHAP) for mercury (40 CFR 61, Subpart E);
b) A best available control technology (BACT) or a lowest
achievable emission rate (LAER) standard for mercury
imposed pursuant to a prevention of significant
deterioration (PSD) permit (including 35 Ill. Adm. Code
201 through 203); or
c) A state permit that establishes emission limitations
(within meaning of Section 302 of the Clean Air Act)
for mercury, including a permit issued pursuant to 35
Ill. Adm. Code 201. All wastewater and nonwastewater
???
residues derived from this process must then comply
with the corresponding treatment standards per waste
code with consideration of any applicable subcategories
(e.g., high or low mercury subcategories).
RMETL Recovery of metals or inorganics utilizing one or more
of the following direct physical or removal
technologies:
1) ion exchange;
2) resin or solid (i.e., zeolites) adsorption;
3) reverse osmosis;
4) chelation or solvent extraction;
5) freeze crystallization;
6) ultrafiltration; or
7) simple precipitation (i.e., crystallization)
Note: this does not preclude the use of other physical
phase separation or concentration techniques such as
decantation, filtration (including ultrafiltration),
and centrifugation, when used in conjunction with the
above listed recovery technologies.
RORGS Recovery of organics utilizing one or more of the
following technologies:
1) Distillation;
2) thin film evaporation;
3) steam stripping;
4) carbon adsorption;
5) critical fluid extraction;
6) liquid-liquid extraction;
7) precipitation or crystallization (including freeze
crystallization); or
8) chemical phase separation techniques (i.e., addition of
acids, bases, demulsifiers, or similar chemicals).
Note: This does not preclude the use of other physical
phase separation techniques such as decantation,
???
filtration (including ultrafiltration), and
centrifugation, when used in conjunction with the above
listed recovery technologies.
RTHRM Thermal recovery of metals or inorganics from
nonwastewaters in units defined as cement kilns, blast
furnaces, smelting, melting and refining furnaces,
combustion devices used to recover sulfur values from
spent sulfuric acid and “other devices” determined by
the Agency pursuant to 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.110, the
definition of “industrial furnace”.
RZINC Resmelting in high temperature metal recovery units for
the purpose of recovery of zinc.
STABL Stabilization with the following reagents (or waste
reagents) or combinations of reagents:
1) Portland cement; or
2) lime or pozzolans (e.g., fly ash and cement kiln dust)-
-this does not preclude the addition of reagents (e.g.,
iron salts, silicates, and clays) designed to enhance
the set or cure time or compressive strength, or to
overall reduce the leachability of the metal or
inorganic.
SSTRP Steam stripping of organics from liquid wastes
utilizing direct application of steam to the wastes
operated such that liquid and vapor flow rates, as well
as, temperature and pressure ranges have been
optimized, monitored, and maintained. These operating
parameters are dependent upon the design parameters of
the unit such as, the number of separation stages and
the internal column design. Thus, resulting in a
condensed extract high in organics that must undergo
either incineration, reuse as a fuel, or other recovery
or reuse and an extracted wastewater that must undergo
further treatment as specified in the standard.
WETOX Wet air oxidation performed in units operated such that
a surrogate compound or indicator parameter has been
substantially reduced in concentration in the residuals
(e.g., total organic carbon (TOC) can often be used as
an indicator parameter for the oxidation of many
organic constituents that cannot be directly analyzed
in wastewater residues).
WTRRX Controlled reaction with water for highly reactive
inorganic or organic chemicals with precautionary
controls for protection of workers from potential
violent reactions as well as precautionary controls for
???
potential emissions of toxic or ignitable levels of
gases released during the reaction.
Note 1: When a combination of these technologies (i.e., a
treatment train) is specified as a single treatment
standard, the order of application is specified in
Section 728.Table T by indicating the five letter
technology code that must be applied first, then the
designation “fb.” (an abbreviation for “followed by”),
then the five letter technology code for the technology
that must be applied next, and so on.
Note 2: When more than one technology (or treatment train) are
specified as alternative treatment standards, the five
letter technology codes (or the treatment trains) are
separated by a semicolon (;) with the last technology
preceded by the word “OR”. This indicates that any one
of these BDAT technologies or treatment trains can be
used for compliance with the standard.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 268.42, Table 1
(1997).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.Table H Wastes Excluded from CCW Treatment Standards
The following facilities are excluded from the treatment standard
under Section 728.143(a) and Table B, and are subject to the
following constituent concentrations. These facilities have
received a treatability exception by regulatory action from USEPA
pursuant to 40 CFR 268.44 (1991), and have demonstrated that the
Board needs to adopt the treatability exception as part of the
Illinois RCRA program. The Board may also grant an “adjusted
treatment standard” pursuant to Section 728.144.
Facility name
and address
Waste
Code
See
Also
Regulated
hazardous
constitue
nt
Wastewaters
Concentra-
tion (mg/L)
Notes Nonwaste-
waters
Concentra-
tion (mg/L)
Notes
Craftsman
Plating and
Tinning Corp.,
Chicago, IL
F006 Table
A
Sectio
n
728.14
0
Cyanides
(Total)
1.2 B 1800 D
Cyanides
(amenable
)
0.86 B and
C
30 D
Cadmium 1.6 NA
Chromium 0.32 NA
Lead 0.40 NA
Nickel 0.44 NA
???
Northwestern
Plating Works,
Inc., Chicago,
IL
F006 Table
A
Sectio
n
728.14
0
Cyanides
(Total)
1.2 B 970 D
Cyanides
(amenable
)
0.86 B and
C
30 D
Cadmium 1.6 NA
Chromium 0.32 NA
Lead 0.40 NA
Nickel 0.44 NA
Notes:
A An owner or operator may certify compliance with these
treatment standards according to the provisions of Section
728.107.
B Cyanide wastewater standards for F006 are based on analysis
of composite samples.
C These owners and operators shall comply with 0.86 mg/L for
amenable cyanides in the wastewater exiting the alkaline
chlorination system. These owners and operators shall also
comply with Section 728.107(a)(4) for appropriate monitoring
frequency consistent with the facilities’ waste analysis
plan.
D Cyanide nonwastewaters are analyzed using SW-846 Method 9010
or 9012, sample size 10 g, distillation time one hour and
fifteen minutes. SW-846 is incorporated by reference in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 720.111.
NA Not applicable.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from table to 40 CFR 268.44(o) (1997).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.Table I Generator Paperwork Requirements
Subsection of Section 728.107
under Which the Paperwork is
Required:
Required information
(a)(2)
(a)(3)
(a)(4)
(a)(9)
1. EPA Hazardous Waste and
Manifest numbers
9
9
9
9
2. Statement: this waste is not
9
???
prohibited from land disposal
3. The waste is subject to the
LDRs. The constituents of concern
for F001-F005, and F039, and
underlying hazardous constituents
(for wastes that are not managed
in a Clean Water Act (CWA) or CWA-
equivalent facility), unless the
waste will be treated and
monitored for all constituents.
If all constituents will be
treated and monitored, there is no
need to put them all on the LDR
notice
9
9
4. The notice must include the
applicable wastewater/
nonwastewater category (see
Section Section 728.102(d) and
(f)) and subdivisions made within
a waste code based on waste-
specific criteria (such as D003
reactive cyanide)
9
9
5. Waste analysis data (when
available)
9
9
9
6. Date the waste is subject to
the prohibition
9
7. For hazardous debris, when
treating with the alternative
treatment technologies provided by
Section 728.145: the contaminants
subject to treatment, as described
in Section 728.145(b); and an
indication that these contaminants
are being treated to comply with
Section 728.145
9
9
8. A certification is needed (see
applicable subsection for exact
wording)
9
9
BOARD NOTE: Derived from Table 1 to 40 CFR 268.7(a)(4) (1997).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
???
Section 728.Table T Treatment Standards for Hazardous Wastes
Note: The treatment standards that heretofore appeared in tables
in Sections 728.141, 728.142, and 728.143 have been consolidated
into this table.
Waste Code
Waste Description and Treatment or Regulatory Subcategory
1
Regulated Hazardous Constituent Wastewaters Nonwaste-
waters
Common Name CAS
2
Number Concentra-
tion in
mg/l
3
; or
Technology
Code
4
Concentra-
tion in
mg/kg
5
un-
less noted
as “mg/l
TCLP”; or
Technology
Code
4
D001
9
Ignitable Characteristic Wastes, except for the 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.121(a)(1) High TOC Subcategory.
NA NA DEACT and
meet Section
728.148
standards;
8
or RORGS; or
CMBST
DEACT and
meet Section
728.148
standards;
8
or RORGS; or
CMBST
D001
9
High TOC Ignitable Characteristic Liquids Subcategory based on 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.121(a)(1) - Greater than or equal to 10% total
organic carbon.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
NA NA NA RORGS; or
CMBST; or
POLYM
D002
9
Corrosive Characteristic Wastes.
NA NA DEACT and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
DEACT and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
D002, D004, D005, D006, D007, D008, D009, D010, D011
Radioactive high level wastes generated during the reprocessing
of fuel rods.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Corrosivity (pH) NA NA HLVIT
???
Arsenic 7440-38-2 NA HLVIT
Barium 7440-39-3 NA HLVIT
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA HLVIT
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 NA HLVIT
Lead 7439-92-1 NA HLVIT
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA HLVIT
Selenium 7782-49-2 NA HLVIT
Silver 7440-22-4 NA HLVIT
D003
9
Reactive Sulfides Subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.123(a)(5).
NA NA DEACT DEACT
D003
9
Explosive subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)(6),
(a)(7), and (a)(8).
NA NA DEACT and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
DEACT and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
D003
9
Unexploded ordnance and other explosive devices that have been
the subject of an emergency response.
NA NA DEACT DEACT
D003
9
Other Reactives Subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.123(a)(1).
NA NA DEACT and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
DEACT and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
D003
9
Water Reactive Subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.123(a)-
(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4).
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
NA NA NA DEACT and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
D003
9
Reactive Cyanides Subcategory based on 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.123(a)(5).
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 -- 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
D004
???
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the
characteristic of toxicity for arsenic based on the extraction
procedure (EP) in SW-846 Method 1310.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 5.0 5.0 mg/l EP
Arsenic;
alternative
6
standard for
nonwastewaters only.
7440-38-2 NA 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
D005
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the
characteristic of toxicity for barium based on the extraction
procedure (EP) in SW-846 Method 1310.
Barium 7440-39-3 100 100 mg/l
TCLP
D006
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the
characteristic of toxicity for cadmium based on the extraction
procedure (EP) in SW-846 Method 1310.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 1.0 1.0 mg/l
TCLP
D006
Cadmium-Containing Batteries Subcategory
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA RTHRM
D007
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the
characteristic of toxicity for chromium based on the extraction
procedure (EP) in SW-846 Method 1310.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 5.0 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
D008
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the
characteristic of toxicity for lead based on the extraction
procedure (EP) in SW-846 Method 1310.
Lead 7439-92-1 5.0 5.0 mg/l EP
Lead; alternative
6
standard for
nonwastewaters only
7439-92-1 NA 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
D008
Lead Acid Batteries Subcategory
(Note: This standard only applies to lead acid batteries that
are identified as RCRA hazardous wastes and that are not excluded
elsewhere from regulation under the land disposal restrictions of
this Part or exempted under other regulations (see 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 726.180). This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters
only.)
Lead 7439-92-1 NA RLEAD
???
D008
Radioactive Lead Solids Subcategory
(Note: These lead solids include, but are not limited to, all
forms of lead shielding and other elemental forms of lead. These
lead solids do not include treatment residuals such as hydroxide
sludges, other wastewater treatment residuals, or incinerator
ashes that can undergo conventional pozzolanic stabilization, nor
do they include organo-lead materials that can be incinerated and
stabilized as ash. This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters
only.)
Lead 7439-92-1 NA MACRO
D009
Nonwastewaters that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the
characteristic of toxicity for mercury based on the extraction
procedure (EP) in SW-846 Method 1310; and contain greater than or
equal to 260 mg/kg total mercury that also contain organics and
are not incinerator residues. (High Mercury-Organic Subcategory)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA IMERC; or
RMERC
D009
Nonwastewaters that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the
characteristic of toxicity for mercury based on the extraction
procedure (EP) in SW-846 Method 1310; and contain greater than or
equal to 260 mg/kg total mercury that are inorganic, including
incinerator residues and residues from RMERC. (High Mercury-
Inorganic Subcategory)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA RMERC
D009
Nonwastewaters that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the
characteristic of toxicity for mercury based on the extraction
procedure (EP) in SW-846 Method 1310; and contain less than 260
mg/kg total mercury. (Low Mercury Subcategory)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20 mg/l
TCLP
All D009 wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.20 NA
D009
Elemental mercury contaminated with radioactive materials.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA AMLGM
D009
Hydraulic oil contaminated with Mercury Radioactive Materials
Subcategory.
(Note: This subcategory consists of nonwastewaters only.)
???
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA IMERC
D010
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the
characteristic of toxicity for selenium based on the extraction
procedure (EP) in SW-846 Method 1310.
Selenium 7782-49-2 1.0 5.7 mg/l
TCLP
D011
Wastes that exhibit, or are expected to exhibit, the
characteristic of toxicity for silver based on the extraction
procedure (EP) in SW-846 Method 1310.
Silver 7440-22-4 5.0 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
D012
9
Wastes that are TC for Endrin based on the TCLP in SW-846 Method
1311.
Endrin 72-20-8 BIODG; or
CMBST
0.13 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-4 BIODG; or
CMBST
0.13 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
D013
9
Wastes that are TC for Lindane based on the TCLP in SW-846 Method
1311.
alpha
α
-BHC
319-84-6 CARBN; or
CMBST
0.066 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
beta
β
-BHC
319-85-7 CARBN; or
CMBST
0.066 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
delta
δ
-BHC
319-86-8 CARBN; or
CMBST
0.066 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
gamma
χ
-BHC (Lindane)
58-89-9 CARBN; or
CMBST
0.066 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
D014
9
Wastes that are TC for Methoxychlor based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
Methoxychlor 72-43-5 WETOX or 0.18 and
???
CMBST meet Section
728.148
standards
8
D015
9
Wastes that are TC for Toxaphene based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 BIODG or
CMBST
2.6 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D016
9
Wastes that are TC for 2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid)
based on the TCLP in SW-846 Method 1311.
2,4-D (2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid)
94-75-7 CHOXD;
BIODG; or
CMBST
10 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D017
9
Wastes that are TC for 2,4,5-TP (Silvex) based on the TCLP in SW-
846 Method 1311.
2,4,5-TP (Silvex) 93-72-1 CHOXD or
CMBST
7.9 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D018
9
Wastes that are TC for Benzene based on the TCLP in SW-846 Method
1311.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
10 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D019
9
Wastes that are TC for Carbon tetrachloride based on the TCLP in
SW-846 Method 1311.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
6.0 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D020
9
Wastes that are TC for Chlordane based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
Chlordane (alpha
α
and gamma
χ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
0.26 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
???
D021
9
Wastes that are TC for Chlorobenzene based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
6.0 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D022
9
Wastes that are TC for Chloroform based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
6.0 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D023
9
Wastes that are TC for o-Cresol based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
5.6 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D024
9
Wastes that are TC for m-Cresol based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
m-Cresol
(difficult to
distinguish from p-
cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
5.6 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D025
9
Wastes that are TC for p-Cresol based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
p-Cresol
(difficult to
distinguish from m-
cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
5.6 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D026
9
Wastes that are TC for Cresols (Total) based on the TCLP in SW-
846 Method 1311.
Cresol-mixed isomers
(Cresylic acid)
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-cresol concentra-
tions)
1319-77-3 0.88 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
11.2 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
D027
9
Wastes that are TC for p-Dichlorobenzene based on the TCLP in SW-
846 Method 1311.
???
p-Dichlorobenzene
(1,4-Dichloro-
benzene)
106-46-7 0.090 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
6.0 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D028
9
Wastes that are TC for 1,2-Dichloroethane based on the TCLP in
SW-846 Method 1311.
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
6.0 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D029
9
Wastes that are TC for 1,1-Dichloroethylene based on the TCLP in
SW-846 Method 1311.
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
6.0 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D030
9
Wastes that are TC for 2,4-Dinitrotoluene based on the TCLP in
SW-846 Method 1311.
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 0.32 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
140 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D031
9
Wastes that are TC for Heptachlor based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
0.066 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
0.066 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
D032
9
Wastes that are TC for Hexachlorobenzene based on the TCLP in SW-
846 Method 1311.
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
10 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D033
9
Wastes that are TC for Hexachlorobutadiene based on the TCLP in
SW-846 Method 1311.
???
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
5.6 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D034
9
Wastes that are TC for Hexachloroethane based on the TCLP in SW-
846 Method 1311.
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
30 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D035
9
Wastes that are TC for Methyl ethyl ketone based on the TCLP in
SW-846 Method 1311.
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
36 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D036
9
Wastes that are TC for Nitrobenzene based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
14 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D037
9
Wastes that are TC for Pentachlorophenol based on the TCLP in SW-
846 Method 1311.
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
7.4 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D038
9
Wastes that are TC for Pyridine based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
16 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D039
9
Wastes that are TC for Tetrachloroethylene based on the TCLP in
SW-846 Method 1311.
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
6.0 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
???
D040
9
Wastes that are TC for Trichloroethylene based on the TCLP in SW-
846 Method 1311.
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
6.0 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D041
9
Wastes that are TC for 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol based on the TCLP in
SW-846 Method 1311.
2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenol
95-95-4 0.18 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
7.4 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D042
9
Wastes that are TC for 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol based on the TCLP in
SW-846 Method 1311.
2,4,6-Trichloro-
phenol
88-06-2 0.035 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
7.4 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
D043
9
Wastes that are TC for Vinyl chloride based on the TCLP in SW-846
Method 1311.
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 and
meet Section
728.148
standards
8
6.0 and meet
Section
728.148
standards
8
F001, F002, F003, F004 & F005
F001, F002, F003, F004, or F005 solvent wastes that contain any
combination of one or more of the following spent solvents:
acetone, benzene, n-butyl alcohol, carbon disulfide, carbon
tetrachloride, chlorinated fluorocarbons, chlorobenzene, o-
cresol, m-cresol, p-cresol, cyclohexanone, o-dichlorobenzene, 2-
ethoxyethanol, ethyl acetate, ethyl benzene, ethyl ether,
isobutyl alcohol, methanol, methylene chloride, methyl ethyl
ketone, methyl isobutyl ketone, nitrobenzene, 2-nitropropane,
pyridine, tetrachloroethylene, toluene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane,
1,1,2-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane,
trichloroethylene, trichloromonofluoromethane, or xylenes (except
as specifically noted in other subcategories). See further
details of these listings in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131
Acetone 67-64-1 0.28 160
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
n-Butyl alcohol 71-36-3 5.6 2.6
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 NA
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
???
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol
(difficult to
distinguish from p-
cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol
(difficult to
distinguish from m-
cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
Cresol-mixed isomers
(Cresylic acid)
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-cresol concentra-
tions)
1319-77-3 0.88 11.2
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 NA
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 0.34 33
Ethyl benzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Ethyl ether 60-29-7 0.12 160
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 5.6 170
Methanol 67-56-1 5.6 NA
Methylene chloride 75-9-2 0.089 30
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Methyl isobutyl
ketone
108-10-1 0.14 33
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane
71-55-6 0.054 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloro-
ethane
79-00-5 0.054 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloro-
1,2,2-trifluoro-
ethane
76-13-1 0.057 30
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Trichloromonofluoro-
methane
75-69-4 0.020 30
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
F001, F002, F003, F004 & F005
F003 and F005 solvent wastes that contain any combination of one
or more of the following three solvents as the only listed F001
through F005 solvents: carbon disulfide, cyclohexanone, or
methanol. (Formerly Section 728.141(c))
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 4.8 mg/l
???
TCLP
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 0.75 mg/l
TCLP
Methanol 67-56-1 5.6 0.75 mg/l
TCLP
F001, F002, F003, F004 & F005
F005 solvent waste containing 2-Nitropropane as the only listed
F001 through F005 solvent.
2-Nitropropane 79-46-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
F001, F002, F003, F004 & F005
F005 solvent waste containing 2-Ethoxyethanol as the only listed
F001 through F005 solvent.
2-Ethoxyethanol 110-80-5 BIODG; or
CMBST
CMBST
F006
Wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating operations
except from the following processes: (1) Sulfuric acid anodizing
of aluminum; (2) tin plating on carbon steel; (3) zinc plating
(segregated basis) on carbon steel; (4) aluminum or zinc-aluminum
plating on carbon steel; (5) cleaning or stripping associated
with tin, zinc, and aluminum plating on carbon steel; and (6)
chemical etching and milling of aluminum.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
F007
Spent cyanide plating bath solutions from electroplating
operations.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
???
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
F008
Plating bath residues from the bottom of plating baths from
electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
F009
Spent stripping and cleaning bath solutions from electroplating
operations where cyanides are used in the process.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
F010
Quenching bath residues from oil baths from metal heat treating
operations where cyanides are used in the process.
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 NA
F011
Spent cyanide solutions from salt bath pot cleaning from metal
heat treating operations.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
???
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
F012
Quenching wastewater treatment sludges from metal heat treating
operations where cyanides are used in the process.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 NA 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
F019
Wastewater treatment sludges from the chemical conversion coating
of aluminum except from zirconium phosphating in aluminum can
washing when such phosphating is an exclusive conversion coating
process.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
F020, F021, F022, F023, F026
Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride
purification) from the production or manufacturing use (as a
reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating
process) of: (1) tri- or tetrachlorophenol, or of intermediates
used to produce their pesticide derivatives, excluding wastes
from the production of Hexachlorophene from highly purified
2,4,5-trichlorophenol (i.e., F020); (2) pentachlorophenol, or of
intermediates used to produce its derivatives (i.e., F021); (3)
tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline conditions
(i.e., F022) and wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from
hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials
on equipment previously used for the production or manufacturing
use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a
formulating process) of: (1) tri- or tetrachlorophenols,
excluding wastes from equipment used only for the production of
Hexachlorophene from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol (F023)
or (2) tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline
conditions (i.e., F026).
???
HxCDDs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDDs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000035 0.001
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
TCDDs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenol
95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichloro-
phenol
88-06-2 0.035 7.4
2,3,4,6-Tetrachloro-
phenol
58-90-2 0.030 7.4
F024
Process wastes, including but not limited to, distillation
residues, heavy ends, tars, and reactor clean-out wastes, from
the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons by
free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic
hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain lengths ranging from
one to and including five, with varying amounts and positions of
chlorine substitution. (This listing does not include
wastewaters, wastewater treatment sludges, spent catalysts, and
wastes listed in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131 or 721.132.)
All F024 wastes NA CMBST
11
CMBST
11
2-Chloro-1,3-
butadiene
126-99-8 0.057 0.28
3-Chloropropylene 107-05-1 0.036 30
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 0.85 18
cis-1,3-
Dichloropropylene
10061-01-5 0.036 18
trans-1,3-
Dichloropropylene
10061-02-6 0.036 18
bis(2-
Ethylhexyl)phthalate
117-81-7 0.28 28
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
???
F025
Condensed light ends from the production of certain chlorinated
aliphatic hydrocarbons by free radical catalyzed processes.
These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon
chain lengths ranging from one up to and including five, with
varying amounts and positions of chlorine substitution. F025--
Light Ends Subcategory.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 6.0
Methylene chloride 75-9-2 0.089 30
1,1,2-Trichloro-
ethane
79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
F025
Spent filters and filter aids, and spent desiccant wastes from
the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons by
free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic
hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain lengths ranging from
one to and including five, with varying amounts and positions of
chlorine substitution. F025--Spent Filters/Aids and Desiccants
Subcategory.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Methylene chloride 75-9-2 0.089 30
1,1,2-
Trichloroethane
79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
F027
Discarded unused formulations contianing tri-, tetra-, or penta-
chlorophenol or discarded unused formulations containing
compounds derived from these chlorophenols. (This listing does
not include formulations containing hexachlorophene synthesized
from prepurified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol as the sole component.)
HxCDDs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDDs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Penta- NA 0.000035 0.001
???
chlorodibenzofurans)
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
TCDDs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenol
95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichloro-
phenol
88-06-2 0.035 7.4
2,3,4,6-Tetrachloro-
phenol
58-90-2 0.030 7.4
F028
Residues resulting from the incineration or thermal treatment of
soil contaminated with USEPA hazardous waste numbers F020, F021,
F023, F026, and F027.
HxCDDs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDDs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000035 0.001
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
TCDDs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenol
95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichloro-
phenol
88-06-2 0.035 7.4
2,3,4,6-Tetrachloro-
phenol
58-90-2 0.030 7.4
F032
Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with
process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage,
and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated
at plants that currently use or have previously used
chlorophenolic formulations (except potentially cross-
contaminated wastes that have had the F032 waste code deleted in
accordance with 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.135 or potentially cross-
contaminated wastes that are otherwise currently regulated as
hazardous wastes (i.e., F034 or F035), where the generator does
not resume or initiate use of chlorophenolic formulations). This
???
listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the
treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use
creosote and/or penta-chlorophenol.
Acenaphthene
83-32-9
0.059
3.4
Anthracene
120-12-7
0.059
3.4
Benz(a)anthracene
56-55-3
0.059
3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)
fluoranthene).
205-99-2
0.11
6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)
fluoranthene).
207-08-9
0.11
6.8
Benzo(a)pyrene
50-32-8
0.061
3.4
Chrysene
218-01-9
0.059
3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracen
e
53-70-3
0.055
8.2
2-4-Dimethyl phenol
105-67-9
0.036
14
Fluorene
86-73-7
0.059
3.4
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins
NA
0.000063 or
CMBST
11
0.001 or
CMBST
11
Hexachlorodibenzofur
ans
NA
0.000063 or
CMBST
11
0.001 or
CMBST
11
Indeno (1,2,3-c,d)
pyrene
193-39-5
0.0055
3.4
Naphthalene
91-20-3
0.059
5.6
Pentachlorodibenzo-
p-dioxins
NA
0.000063 or
CMBST
11
0.001 or
CMBST
11
Pentachlorodibenzofu
rans
NA
0.000035 or
CMBST
11
0.001 or
CMBST
11
Pentachlorophenol
87-86-5
0.089
7.4
Phenanthrene
85-01-8
0.059
5.6
Phenol
108-95-2
0.039
6.2
Pyrene
129-00-0
0.067
8.2
Tetrachlorodibenzo-
p-dioxins
NA
0.000063 or
CMBST
11
0.001 or
CMBST
11
Tetrachlorodibenzofu
rans
NA
0.000063 or
CMBST
11
0.001 or
CMBST
11
2,3,4,6-
Tetrachlorophenol
58-90-2
0.030
7.4
2,4,6-
Trichlorophenol
88-06-2
0.035
7.4
Arsenic
7440-38-2
1.4
5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total)
7440-47-3
2.77
0.86 mg/l
TCLP
???
F034
Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with
process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage,
and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated
at plants that use creosote formulations. This listing does not
include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of
wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote or
pentachlorophenol.
Acenaphthene
83-32-9
0.059
3.4
Anthracene
120-12-7
0.059
3.4
Benz(a)anthracene
56-55-3
0.059
3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)fluoranthene
).
205-99-2
0.11
6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)fluoranthene
).
207-08-9
0.11
6.8
Benzo(a)pyrene
50-32-8
0.061
3.4
Chrysene
218-01-9
0.059
3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracen
e
53-70-3
0.055
8.2
Fluorene
86-73-7
0.059
3.4
Indeno (1,2,3-c,d)
pyrene
193-39-5
0.0055
3.4
Naphthalene
91-20-3
0.059
5.6
Phenanthrene
85-01-8
0.059
5.6
Pyrene
129-00-0
0.067
8.2
Arsenic
7440-38-2
1.4
5.0 mg/l TCLP
Chromium (Total)
7440-47-3
2.77
0.86 mg/l TCLP
F035
Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with
process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage,
and spent formulations from wood preserving processes that are
generated at plants that use inorganic preservatives containing
arsenic or chromium. This listing does not include K001 bottom
sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood
preserving processes that use creosote or pentachlorophenol.
Arsenic
7440-38-2
1.4
5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total)
7440-47-3
2.77
0.86 mg/l
TCLP
F037
Petroleum refinery primary oil/water/solids separation sludge--
Any sludge generated from the gravitational separation of
???
oil/water/solids during the storage or treatment of process
wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum
refineries. Such sludges include, but are not limited to, those
generated in: oil/water/solids separators; tanks and
impoundments; ditches and other conveyances; sumps; and
stormwater units receiving dry weather flow. Sludge generated in
stormwater units that do not receive dry weather flow, sludges
generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters segregated
for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, sludges
generated in agressive biological treatment units as defined in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.131(b)(2) (including sludges generated in
one or more additional units after wastewaters have been treated
in agressive biological treatment units) and K051 wastes are not
included in this listing.
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 NA
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)
phthalate
117-81-7 0.28 28
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 NA
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
F038
Petroleum refinery secondary (emulsified) oil/water/solids
separation sludge or float generated from the physical or
chemical separation of oil/water/solids in process wastewaters
and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. Such
wastes include, but are not limited to, all sludges and floats
generated in: induced air floatation (IAF) units, tanks and
impoundments, and all sludges generated in DAF units. Sludges
generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather
flow, sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling
???
waters segregated for treatment from other process or oily
cooling waters, sludges and floats generated in agressive
biological treatment units as defined in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.131(b)(2) (including sludges and floats generated in one or
more additional units after wastewaters have been treated in
agressive biological units) and F037, K048, and K051 are not
included in this listing.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)
phthalate
117-81-7 0.28 28
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 NA
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
F039
Leachate (liquids that have percolated through land disposed
wastes) resulting from the disposal of more than one restricted
waste classified as hazardous under Subpart D of this Part.
(Leachate resulting from the disposal of one or more of the
following USEPA hazardous wastes and no other hazardous wastes
retains its USEPA hazardous waste numbers: F020, F021, F022,
F026, F027, or F028.).
Acenaphthylene 208-96-8 0.059 3.4
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 3.4
Acetone 67-64-1 0.28 160
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 NA
Acetophenone 96-86-2 0.010 9.7
2-Acetylamino-
fluorene
53-96-3 0.059 140
Acrolein 107-02-8 0.29 NA
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
Aldrin 309-00-2 0.021 0.066
4-Aminobiphenyl 92-67-1 0.13 NA
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
???
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Aramite 140-57-8 0.36 NA
alpha
α
-BHC
319-84-6 0.00014 0.066
beta
β
-BHC
319-85-7 0.00014 0.066
delta
δ
-BHC
319-86-8 0.023 0.066
gamma
χ
-BHC
58-89-9 0.0017 0.066
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)fluor-
anthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)fluor-
anthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene 191-24-2 0.0055 1.8
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Bromodichloromethane 75-27-4 0.35 15
Methyl bromide
(Bromomethane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
4-Bromophenyl phenyl
ether
101-55-3 0.055 15
n-Butyl alcohol 71-36-3 5.6 2.6
Butyl benzyl
phthalate
85-68-7 0.017 28
2-sec-Butyl-4,6-
dinitrophenol
(Dinoseb)
88-85-7 0.066 2.5
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 NA
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chlordane (alpha
α
and gamma
χ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 0.26
p-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 0.46 16
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
Chlorobenzilate 510-15-6 0.10 NA
2-Chloro-1,3-buta-
diene
126-99-8 0.057 NA
Chlorodibromomethane 124-48-1 0.057 15
Chloroethane 75-00-3 0.27 6.0
bis(2-Chloroethoxy)-
methane
111-91-1 0.036 7.2
bis(2-Chloroethyl)-
ether
111-44-4 0.033 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
bis(2-Chloro-
isopropyl)ether
39638-32-9 0.055 7.2
p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 0.018 14
Chloromethane 74-87-3 0.19 30
???
(Methyl chloride)
2-Chloronaphthalene 91-58-7 0.055 5.6
2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 0.044 5.7
3-Chloropropylene 107-05-1 0.036 30
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol
(difficult to
distinguish from p-
cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol
(difficult to
distinguish from m-
cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 NA
1,2-Dibromo-3-
chloropropane
96-12-8 0.11 15
Ethylene dibromide
(1,2-Dibromoethane)
106-93-4 0.028 15
Dibromomethane 74-95-3 0.11 15
2,4-D (2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid)
94-75-7 0.72 10
o,p’-DDD 53-19-0 0.023 0.087
p,p’-DDD 72-54-8 0.023 0.087
o,p’-DDE 3424-82-6 0.031 0.087
p,p’-DDE 72-55-9 0.031 0.087
o,p’-DDT 789-02-6 0.0039 0.087
p,p’-DDT 50-29-3 0.0039 0.087
Dibenz(a,h)anthra-
cene
53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Dibenz(a,e)pyrene 192-65-4 0.061 NA
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 0.036 6.0
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Dichlorodifluoro-
methane
75-71-8 0.23 7.2
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 6.0
trans-1,2-Dichloro-
ethylene
156-60-5 0.054 30
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 0.044 14
2,6-Dichlorophenol 87-65-0 0.044 14
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 0.85 18
cis-1,3-Dichloro-
propylene
10061-01-5 0.036 18
trans-1,3-Dichloro-
propylene
10061-02-6 0.036 18
Dieldrin 60-57-1 0.017 0.13
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 0.20 28
2-4-Dimethyl phenol 105-67-9 0.036 14
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 0.047 28
???
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
1,4-Dinitrobenzene 100-25-4 0.32 2.3
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 534-52-1 0.28 160
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 0.12 160
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 0.32 140
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 0.55 28
Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 0.017 28
Di-n-propylnitros-
amine
621-64-7 0.40 14
1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 12.0 170
Diphenylamine
(difficult to
distinguish from
diphenylnitrosamine)
122-39-4 0.92 NA
Diphenylnitrosamine
(difficult to
distinguish from
diphenylamine)
86-30-6 0.92 NA
1,2-Diphenyl-
hydrazine
122-66-7 0.087 NA
Disulfoton 298-04-4 0.017 6.2
Endosulfan I 939-98-8 0.023 0.066
Endosulfan II 33213-6-5 0.029 0.13
Endosulfan sulfate 1031-07-8 0.029 0.13
Endrin 72-20-8 0.0028 0.13
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-4 0.025 0.13
Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 0.34 33
Ethyl cyanide
(Propanenitrile)
107-12-0 0.24 360
Ethyl benzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Ethyl ether 60-29-7 0.12 160
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)
phthalate
117-81-7 0.28 28
Ethyl methacrylate 97-63-2 0.14 160
Ethylene oxide 75-21-8 0.12 NA
Famphur 52-85-7 0.017 15
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 3.4
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 0.066
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 0.066
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachlorocyclo-
pentadiene
77-47-4 0.057 2.4
HxCDDs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Hexachloropropylene 1888-71-7 0.035 30
Indeno (1,2,3-c,d) 193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
???
pyrene
Iodomethane 74-88-4 0.19 65
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 5.6 170
Isodrin 465-73-6 0.021 0.066
Isosafrole 120-58-1 0.081 2.6
Kepone 143-50-8 0.0011 0.13
Methacrylonitrile 126-98-7 0.24 84
Methanol 67-56-1 5.6 NA
Methapyrilene 91-80-5 0.081 1.5
Methoxychlor 72-43-5 0.25 0.18
3-Methylcholanthrene 56-49-5 0.0055 15
4,4-Methylene bis(2-
chloroaniline)
101-14-4 0.50 30
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Methyl isobutyl
ketone
108-10-1 0.14 33
Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 0.14 160
Methyl methan-
sulfonate
66-27-3 0.018 NA
Methyl parathion 298-00-0 0.014 4.6
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
2-Naphthylamine 91-59-8 0.52 NA
p-Nitroaniline 100-01-6 0.028 28
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
5-Nitro-o-toluidine 99-55-8 0.32 28
p-Nitrophenol 100-02-7 0.12 29
N-Nitrosodiethyl-
amine
55-18-5 0.40 28
N-Nitrosodimethyl-
amine
62-75-9 0.40 NA
N-Nitroso-di-n-
butylamine
924-16-3 0.40 17
N-Nitrosomethyl-
ethylamine
10595-95-6 0.40 2.3
N-Nitrosomorpholine 59-89-2 0.40 2.3
N-Nitrosopiperidine 100-75-4 0.013 35
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine 930-55-2 0.013 35
Parathion 56-38-2 0.014 4.6
Total PCBs
(sum of all PCB
isomers, or all
Aroclors)
1336-36-3 0.10 10
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
PeCDDs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000035 0.001
Pentachloronitro-
benzene
82-68-8 0.055 4.8
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
???
Phenacetin 62-44-2 0.081 16
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Phorate 298-02-2 0.021 4.6
Phthalic anhydride 85-44-9 0.055 NA
Pronamide 23950-58-5 0.093 1.5
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
Safrole 94-59-7 0.081 22
Silvex (2,4,5-TP) 93-72-1 0.72 7.9
2,4,5-T 93-76-5 0.72 7.9
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 0.055 14
TCDDs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
630-20-6 0.057 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
79-34-6 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
2,3,4,6-Tetrachloro-
phenol
58-90-2 0.030 7.4
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.0095 2.6
Bromoform (Tribromo-
methane)
75-25-2 0.63 15
1,2,4-Trichloro-
benzene
120-82-1 0.055 19
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane
71-55-6 0.054 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloro-
ethane
79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Trichloromonofluoro-
methane
75-69-4 0.020 30
2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenol
95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichloro-
phenol
88-06-2 0.035 7.4
1,2,3-Trichloro-
propane
96-18-4 0.85 30
1,1,2-Trichloro-
1,2,2-trifluoro-
ethane
76-13-1 0.057 30
tris(2,3-Dibromo-
propyl) phosphate
126-72-7 0.11 NA
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
1330-20-7 0.32 30
???
(sum or of o-, m-,
and p-xylene concen-
trations)
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 2.1 mg/l
TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Barium 7440-39-3 1.2 7.6 mg/l
TCLP
Beryllium 7440-41-7 0.82 NA
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 NA
Fluoride 16964-48-8 35 NA
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 0.025 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 0.16 mg/l
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
Sulfide 8496-25-8 14 NA
Thallium 7440-28-0 1.4 NA
Vanadium 7440-62-2 4.3 NA
K001
Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewaters from
wood preserving processes that use creosote or pentachlorophenol.
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K002
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome yellow
and orange pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
???
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K003
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of molybdate
orange pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K004
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of zinc yellow
pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K005
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome green
pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
K006
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide
green pigments (anhydrous).
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K006
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide
green pigments (hydrated).
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
K007
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of iron blue
pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
???
K008
Oven residue from the production of chrome oxide green pigments.
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K009
Distillation bottoms from the production of acetaldehyde from
ethylene.
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
K010
Distillation side cuts from the production of acetaldehyde from
ethylene.
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
K011
Bottom stream from the wastewater stripper in the production of
acrylonitrile.
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 38
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
Acrylamide 79-06-1 19 23
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Cyanide (Total) 57-12-5 1.2 590
K013
Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column in the production of
acrylonitrile.
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 38
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
Acrylamide 79-06-1 19 23
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Cyanide (Total) 57-12-5 1.2 590
K014
Bottoms from the acetonitrile purification column in the
production of acrylonitrile.
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 38
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
Acrylamide 79-06-1 19 23
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Cyanide (Total) 57-12-5 1.2 590
K015
Still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride.
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benzal chloride 98-87-3 0.055 6.0
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)fluor-
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
???
anthene)
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)fluor-
anthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
K016
Heavy ends or distillation residues from the production of carbon
tetrachloride.
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachlorocyclo-
pentadiene
77-47-4 0.057 2.4
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
K017
Heavy ends (still bottoms) from the purification column in the
production of epichlorohydrin.
bis(2-Chloroethyl)-
ether
111-44-4 0.033 6.0
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 0.85 18
1,2,3-Trichloro-
propane
96-18-4 0.85 30
K018
Heavy ends from the fractionation column in ethyl chloride
production.
Chloroethane 75-00-3 0.27 6.0
Chloromethane 74-87-3 0.19 NA
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 NA 6.0
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane
71-55-6 0.054 6.0
K019
Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene dichloride in
ethylene dichloride production.
bis(2-Chloroethyl)-
ether
111-44-4 0.033 6.0
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
???
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 NA
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 NA
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 0.055 NA
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,2,4-Trichloro-
benzene
120-82-1 0.055 19
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane
71-55-6 0.054 6.0
K020
Heavy ends from the distillation of vinyl chloride in vinyl
chloride monomer production.
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
79-34-6 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
K021
Aqueous spent antimony catalyst waste from fluoromethanes
production.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 2.1 mg/l
TCLP
K022
Distillation bottom tars from the production of phenol or acetone
from cumene.
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Acetophenone 96-86-2 0.010 9.7
Diphenylamine
(difficult to
distinguish from
diphenylnitrosamine)
122-39-4 0.92 13
Diphenylnitrosamine
(difficult to
distinguish from
diphenylamine)
86-30-6 0.92 13
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
K023
Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride
from naphthalene.
???
Phthalic anhydride
(measured as
Phthalic acid or
Terephthalic acid)
100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride
(measured as
Phthalic acid or
Terephthalic acid)
85-44-9 0.055 28
K024
Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride
from naphthalene.
Phthalic anhydride
(measured as
Phthalic acid or
Terephthalic acid)
100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride
(measured as
Phthalic acid or
Terephthalic acid)
85-44-9 0.055 28
K025
Distillation bottoms from the production of nitrobenzene by the
nitration of benzene.
NA NA LLEXT fb
SSTRP fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K026
Stripping still tails from the production of methyl ethyl
pyridines.
NA NA CMBST CMBST
K027
Centrifuge and distillation residues from the toluene
diisocyanate production.
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K028
Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator reactor in the
production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane.
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
trans-1,2-Dichloro-
ethylene
156-60-5 0.054 30
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 NA 6.0
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
630-20-6 0.057 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro- 79-34-6 0.057 6.0
???
ethane
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane
71-55-6 0.054 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloro-
ethane
79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 NA
Chromium(Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
K029
Waste from the product steam stripper in the production of 1,1,1-
trichloroethane.
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 6.0
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane
71-55-6 0.054 6.0
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
K030
Column bodies or heavy ends from the combined production of
trichloroethylene and perchloroethylene.
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 NA
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 NA
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Hexachloropropylene 1888-71-7 NA 30
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 NA 10
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 NA 6.0
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 0.055 14
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,2,4-Trichloro-
benzene
120-82-1 0.055 19
K031
By-product salts generated in the production of MSMA and
cacodylic acid.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
K032
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chlordane.
Hexachlorocyclo-
pentadiene
77-47-4 0.057 2.4
Chlordane (alpha
α
57-74-9 0.0033 0.26
???
and gamma
χ
isomers)
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 0.066
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 0.066
K033
Wastewater and scrub water from the chlorination of cyclopenta-
diene in the production of chlordane.
Hexachlorocyclo-
pentadiene
77-47-4 0.057 2.4
K034
Filter solids from the filtration of hexachlorocyclopentadiene in
the production of chlordane.
Hexachlorocyclo-
pentadiene
77-47-4 0.057 2.4
K035
Wastewater treatment sludges generated in the production of
creosote.
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 NA 3.4
Anthracene 120-12-7 NA 3.4
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol
(difficult to
distinguish from p-
cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol
(difficult to
distinguish from m-
cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
Dibenz(a,h)anthra-
cene
53-70-3 NA 8.2
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
Fluorene 86-73-7 NA 3.4
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)-
pyrene
193-39-5 NA 3.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
K036
Still bottoms from toluene reclamation distillaiton in the
production of disulfoton.
Disulfoton 298-04-4 0.017 6.2
K037
Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of disulfoton.
???
Disulfoton 298-04-4 0.017 6.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
K038
Wastewater from the washing and stripping of phorate production.
Phorate 298-02-2 0.021 4.6
K039
Filter cake from the filtration of diethylphosphorodithioic acid
in the production of phorate.
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K040
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of phorate.
Phorate 298-02-2 0.021 4.6
K041
Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of toxaphene.
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.0095 2.6
K042
Heavy ends or distillation residues from the distillation of
tetrachlorobenzene in the production of 2,4,5-T.
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 0.055 14
1,2,4-Trichloro-
benzene
120-82-1 0.055 19
K043
2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the production of 2,4-D.
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 0.044 14
2,6-Dichlorophenol 187-65-0 0.044 14
2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenol
95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichloro-
phenol
88-06-2 0.035 7.4
2,3,4,6-Tetrachloro-
phenol
58-90-2 0.030 7.4
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
HxCDDs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDDs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
???
PeCDFs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000035 0.001
TCDDs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
K044
Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing and
processing of explosives.
NA NA DEACT DEACT
K045
Spent carbon from the treatment of wastewater containing
explosives.
NA NA DEACT DEACT
K046
Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing, formulation
and loading of lead-based initiating compounds.
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K047
Pink or red water from TNT operations.
NA NA DEACT DEACT
K048
Dissolved air flotation (DAF) float from the petroleum refining
industry.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)
phthalate
117-81-7 0.28 28
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 NA
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-33 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
???
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
K049
Slop oil emulsion solids from the petroleum refining industry.
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)
phthalate
117-81-7 0.28 28
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 NA
Chrysene 2218-01-9 0.059 3.4
2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 0.036 NA
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
K050
Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining
industry.
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
K051
API separator sludge from the petroleum refining industry.
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 NA
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
bis(2-Ethylhexyl) 117-81-7 0.28 28
???
phthalate
Chrysene 2218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Di-n-butyl phthalate 105-67-9 0.057 28
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 NA
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.08 10
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
K052
Tank bottoms (leaded) from the petroleum refining industry.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol
(difficult to
distinguish from p-
cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol
(difficult to
distinguish from m-
cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 0.036 NA
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.08 10
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Nickel 7440-02-0 NA 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
???
K060
Ammonia still lime sludge from coking operations.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
K061
Emission control dust or sludge from the primary production of
steel in electric furnaces.
Antimony 7440-36-0 NA 2.1 mg/l
TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 NA 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Barium 7440-39-3 NA 7.6 mg/l
TCLP
Beryllium 7440-41-7 NA 0.014 mg/l
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Selenium 7782-49-2 NA 0.16 mg/l
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 NA 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
Thallium 7440-28-0 NA 0.078 mg/l
TCLP
Zinc 7440-66-6 NA 5.3 mg/l
TCLP
K062
Spent pickle liquor generated by steel finishing operations of
facilities within the iron and steel industry (SIC Codes 331 and
332).
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 NA
K069
Emission control dust or sludge from secondary lead smelting. -
Calcium sulfate (Low Lead) Subcategory
???
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K069
Emission control dust or sludge from secondary lead smelting. -
Non-Calcium sulfate (High Lead) Subcategory
NA NA NA RLEAD
K071
K071 (Brine purification muds from the mercury cell process in
chlorine production, where separately prepurified brine is not
used) nonwastewaters that are residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20 mg/l
TCLP
K071
K071 (Brine purification muds from the mercury cell process in
chlorine production, where separately prepurified brine is not
used) nonwastewaters that are not residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025 mg/l
TCLP
K071
All K071 wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
K073
Chlorinated hydrocarbon waste from the purification step of the
diaphragm cell process using graphite anodes in chlorine
production.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane
71-55-6 0.054 6.0
K083
Distillation bottoms from aniline production.
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 NA
Diphenylamine
(difficult to
distinguish from
diphenylnitrosamine)
122-39-4 0.92 13
Diphenylnitrosamine
(difficult to
distinguish from
diphenylamine)
86-30-6 0.92 13
???
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
K084
Wastewater treatment sludges generated during the production of
veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic
compounds.
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
K085
Distillation or fractionation column bottoms from the production
of chlorobenzenes.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 0.036 6.0
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Total PCBs
(sum of all PCB
isomers, or all
Aroclors)
1336-36-3 0.10 10
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 0.055 14
1,2,4-Trichloro-
benzene
120-82-1 0.055 19
K086
Solvent wastes and sludges, caustic washes and sludges, or water
washes and sludges from cleaning tubs and equipment used in the
formulation of ink from pigments, driers, soaps, and stabilizers
containing chromium and lead.
Acetone 67-64-1 0.28 160
Acetophenone 96-86-2 0.010 9.7
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)
phthalate
117-81-7 0.28 28
n-Butyl alcohol 71-36-3 5.6 2.6
Butylbenzyl
phthalate
85-68-7 0.017 28
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 NA
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 0.20 28
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 0.047 28
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 0.017 28
Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 0.34 33
Ethylbenzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
Methanol 67-56-1 5.6 NA
???
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Methyl isobutyl
ketone
108-10-1 0.14 33
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane
71-55-6 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K087
Decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations.
Acenaphthylene 208-96-8 0.059 3.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)-
pyrene
193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K088
Spent potliners from primary aluminum reduction.
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 3.4
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene 205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene 207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene 191-24-2 0.0055 1.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthracen
e
53-70-3 0.055 8.2
???
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
Indeno(1,2,3-
c,d)pyrene
193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 2.1 mg/l
TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Barium 7440-39-3 1.2 7.6 mg/l
TCLP
Beryllium 7440-41-7 0.82 0.014 mg/l
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 0.025 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 0.16 mg/l
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanide (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanide (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
Fluoride 16984-48-8 35 48 mg/l TCLP
K093
Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride
from ortho-xylene.
Phthalic anhydride
(measured as
Phthalic acid or
Terephthalic acid)
100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride
(measured as
Phthalic acid or
Terephthalic acid)
85-44-9 0.055 28
K094
Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride
from ortho-xylene.
Phthalic anhydride
(measured as
Phthalic acid or
Terephthalic acid)
100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride
(measured as
85-44-9 0.055 28
???
Phthalic acid or
Terephthalic acid)
K095
Distillation bottoms from the production of 1,1,1-trichloro-
ethane.
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 0.055 6.0
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
630-20-6 0.057 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
79-34-6 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloro-
ethane
79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
K096
Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from the production of
1,1,1-trichloroethane.
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 0.036 6.0
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 0.055 6.0
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
630-20-6 0.057 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
79-34-6 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,2,4-Trichloro-
benzene
120-82-1 0.055 19
1,1,2-Trichloro-
ethane
79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
K097
Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane chlorinator in the
production of chlordane.
Chlordane (alpha
α
and gamma
χ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 0.26
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 0.066
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 0.066
Hexachlorocyclo-
pentadiene
77-47-4 0.057 2.4
K098
Untreated process wastewater from the production of toxaphene.
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.0095 2.6
K099
Untreated wastewater from the production of 2,4-D.
2,4-Dichlorophenoxy-
acetic acid
94-75-7 0.72 10
???
HxCDDs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All Hexa-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDDs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All Penta-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000035 0.001
TCDDs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All Tetra-
chlorodibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
K100
Waste leaching solution from acid leaching of emission control
dust or sludge from secondary lead smelting.
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
K101
Distillation tar residues from the distillation of aniline-based
compounds in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from
arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds.
o-Nitroaniline 88-74-4 0.27 14
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 NA
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
K102
Residue from the use of activated carbon for decolorization in
the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or
organo-arsenic compounds.
o-Nitrophenol 88-75-5 0.028 13
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 NA
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 NA
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
K103
Process residues from aniline extraction from the production of
aniline.
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
???
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 0.12 160
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
K104
Combined wastewater streams generated from nitrobenzene or
aniline production.
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 0.12 160
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
K105
Separated aqueous stream from the reactor product washing step in
the production of chlorobenzenes.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 0.044 5.7
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenol
95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichloro-
phenol
88-06-2 0.035 7.4
K106
K106 (wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury cell process
in chlorine production) nonwastewaters that contain greater than
or equal to 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA RMERC
K106
K106 (wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury cell process
in chlorine production) nonwastewaters that contain less than 260
mg/kg total mercury that are residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20 mg/l
TCLP
K106
Other K106 nonwastewaters that contain less than 260 mg/kg total
mercury and are not residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025 mg/l
TCLP
K106
All K106 wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
???
K107
Column bottoms from product separation from the production of
1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
CARBN; or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
K108
Condensed column overheads from product separation and condensed
reactor vent gases from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine
(UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
CARBN; or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
K109
Spent filter cartridges from product purification from the
production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid
hydrazides.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
CARBN; or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
K110
Condensed column overheads from intermediate separation from the
production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid
hydrazides.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
CARBN; or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
K111
Product washwaters from the production of dinitrotoluene via
nitration of toluene
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-1-1 0.32 140
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 0.55 28
K112
Reaction by-product water from the drying column in the
production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
CARBN; or
BIODG fb
CMBST
???
CARBN
K113
Condensed liquid light ends from the purification of
toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydro-
genation of dinitrotoluene.
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K114
Vicinals from the purification of toluenediamine in the
production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K115
Heavy ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the
production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene.
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K116
Organic condensate from the solvent recovery column in the
production of toluene diisocyanate via phosgenation of
toluenediamine.
NA NA CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
K117
Wastewater from the reactor vent gas scrubber in the production
of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene.
Methyl bromide
(Bromomethane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Ethylene dibromide
(1,2-Dibromoethane)
106-93-4 0.028 15
K118
Spent absorbent solids from purification of ethylene dibromide in
the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene.
Methyl bromide
(Bromomethane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Ethylene dibromide
(1,2-Dibromoethane)
106-93-4 0.028 15
K123
Process wastewater (including supernates, filtrates, and
washwaters) from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid
and its salts.
???
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN)
CMBST
K124
Reactor vent scrubber water from the production of ethylenebis-
dithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN)
CMBST
K125
Filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids from the
production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN)
CMBST
K126
Baghouse dust and floor sweepings in milling and packaging
operations from the production or formulation of ethylenebis-
dithiocarbamic acid and its salts.
NA NA CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN)
CMBST
K131
Wastewater from the reactor and spent sulfuric acid from the acid
dryer from the production of methyl bromide.
Methyl bromide
(Bromomethane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
K132
Spent absorbent and wastewater separator solids from the
production of methyl bromide.
Methyl bromide
(Bromomethane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
K136
Still bottoms from the purification of ethylene dibromide in the
production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene.
Methyl bromide
(Bromomethane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Ethylene dibromide
(1,2-Dibromoethane)
106-93-4 0.028 15
K141
???
Process residues from the recovery of coal tar, including, but
not limited to, collecting sump residues from the production of
coke or the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal.
This listing does not include K087 (decanter tank tar sludge from
coking operations).
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-2-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)fluor-
anthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)fluor-
anthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthra-
cene
53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)-
pyrene
193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
K142
Tar storage tank residues from the production of coke from coal
or from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)fluor-
anthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)fluor-
anthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthra-
cene
53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Ideno(1,2,3-cd)-
pyrene
193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
K143
Process residues from the recovery of light oil, including, but
not limited to, those generated in stills, decanters, and wash
oil recovery units from the recovery of coke by-products produced
from coal.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
???
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)fluor-
anthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)fluor-
anthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
K144
Wastewater sump residues from light oil refining, including, but
not limited to, intercepting or contamination sump sludges from
the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)fluor-
anthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)fluor-
anthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthra-
cene
53-70-3 0.055 8.2
K145
Residues from naphthalene collection and recovery operations from
the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthra-
cene
53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
K147
Tar storage tank residues from coal tar refining.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene 205-99-2 0.11 6.8
???
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)fluor-
anthene)
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)fluor-
anthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthra-
cene
53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)-
pyrene
193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
K148
Residues from coal tar distillation, including, but not limited
to, still bottoms.
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)fluor-
anthene)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)fluor-
anthene)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
Dibenz(a,h)anthra-
cene
53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)-
pyrene
193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
K149
Distillation bottoms from the production of alpha
α
- (or methyl-)
chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl
chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional
groups. (This waste does not include still bottoms from the
distillations of benzyl chloride.)
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Chloromethane 74-87-3 0.19 30
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 0.055 14
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
???
K150
Organic residuals, excluding spent carbon adsorbent, from the
spent chlorine gas and hydrochloric acid recovery processes
associated with the production of alpha
α
- (or methyl-)
chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl
chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional
groups.
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Chloromethane 74-87-3 0.19 30
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 0.055 14
1,1,2,2- Tetra-
chloroethane
79-34-5 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
1,2,4-Trichloro-
benzene
120-82-1 0.055 19
K151
Wastewater treatment sludges, excluding neutralization and
biological sludges, generated during the treatment of wastewaters
from the production of alpha
α
- (or methyl-) chlorinated
toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and
compounds with mixtures of these functional groups.
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 0.055 14
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
K156
Organic waste (including heavy ends, still bottoms, light ends,
spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates) from the production of
carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to
wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propyl-n-
butylcarbamate.)
10
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 38
Acetophenone 96-86-2 0.010 9.7
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
Benomyl 17804-35-2 0.056 1.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Carbaryl 63-25-21 0.006 0.14
Carbenzadim 10605-21-7 0.056 1.4
???
Carbofuran 1563-66-2 0.006 0.14
Carbosulfan 55285-14-8 0.028 1.4
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
Methomyl 16752-77-5 0.028 0.14
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Triethylamine 121-44-8 0.081 1.5
K157
Wastewaters (including scrubber waters, condenser waters,
washwaters, and separation waters) from the production of
carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to
wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propyl-n-
butylcarbamate.)
10
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Chloromethane 74-87-3 0.19 30
Methomyl 16752-77-5 0.028 0.14
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
o-Phenylenediamine 95-54-5 0.056 5.6
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
Triethylamine 121-44-8 0.081 1.5
K158
Baghouse dusts and filter/separation solids from the production
of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply
to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propyl-n-
butylcarbamate.)
10
Benomyl 17804-35-2 0.056 1.4
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Carbenzadim 10605-21-7 0.056 1.4
Carbofuran 1563-66-2 0.006 0.14
Carbosulfan 55285-14-8 0.028 1.4
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
K159
Organics from the treatment of thiocarbamate wastes.
10
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Butylate 2008-41-5 0.042 1.4
EPTC (Eptam) 759-94-4 0.042 1.4
Molinate 2212-67-1 0.042 1.4
Pebulate 1114-71-2 0.042 1.4
Vernolate 1929-77-7 0.042 1.4
???
K161
Purification solids (including filtration, evaporation, and
centrifugation solids), baghouse dust and floor sweepings from
the production of dithiocarbamate acids and their salts.
10
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 2.1 mg/l
TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.9 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 4.8 mg/l
TCLP
Dithiocarbamates
(total)
NA 0.028 28
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 0.16 mg/l
TCLP
P001
Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than
0.3%
Warfarin 81-81-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P002
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea 591-08-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P003
Acrolein
Acrolein 107-02-8 0.29 CMBST
P004
Aldrin
Aldrin 309-00-2 0.021 0.066
P005
Allyl alcohol
Allyl alcohol 107-18-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P006
Aluminum phosphide
Aluminum phosphide 20859-73-8 CHOXD; CHOXD;
???
CHRED; or
CMBST
CHRED; or
CMBST
P007
5-Aminomethyl-3-isoxazolol
5-Aminomethyl-3-
isoxazolol
2763-96-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P008
4-Aminopyridine
4-Aminopyridine 504-24-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P009
Ammonium picrate
Ammonium picrate 131-74-8 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
P010
Arsenic acid
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
P011
Arsenic pentoxide
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
P012
Arsenic trioxide
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
P013
Barium cyanide
Barium 7440-39-3 NA 7.6 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
P014
Thiophenol (Benzene thiol)
Thiophenol (Benzene
thiol)
108-98-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
???
CMBST
P015
Beryllium dust
Beryllium 7440-41-7 RMETL;or
RTHRM
RMETL; or
RTHRM
P016
Dichloromethyl ether (Bis(chloromethyl)ether)
Dichloromethyl ether 542-88-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P017
Bromoacetone
Bromoacetone 598-31-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P018
Brucine
Brucine 357-57-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P020
2-sec-Butyl-4,6-dinitrophenol (Dinoseb)
2-sec-Butyl-4,6-
dinitrophenol
(Dinoseb)
88-85-7 0.066 2.5
P021
Calcium cyanide
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
P022
Carbon disulfide
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 CMBST
Carbon disulfide;
alternate
6
standard
for nonwastewaters
only
75-15-0 NA 4.8 mg/l
TCLP
P023
Chloroacetaldehyde
Chloroacetaldehyde 107-20-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
???
CMBST
P024
p-Chloroaniline
p-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 0.46 16
P026
1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea
1-(o-Chlorophenyl)-
thiourea
5344-82-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P027
3-Chloropropionitrile
3-Chloropropio-
nitrile
542-76-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P028
Benzyl chloride
Benzyl chloride 100-44-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P029
Copper cyanide
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
P030
Cyanides (soluble salts and complexes)
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
P031
Cyanogen
Cyanogen 460-19-5 CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
P033
Cyanogen chloride
Cyanogen chloride 506-77-4 CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
P034
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6- 131-89-5 (WETOX or CMBST
???
dinitrophenol CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
P036
Dichlorophenylarsine
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
P037
Dieldrin
Dieldrin 60-57-1 0.017 0.13
P038
Diethylarsine
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
P039
Disulfoton
Disulfoton 298-04-4 0.017 6.2
P040
O,O-Diethyl-O-pyrazinyl-phosphorothioate
O,O-Diethyl-O-
pyrazinylphosphoro-
thioate
297-97-2 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P041
Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate
Diethyl-p-
nitrophenyl
phosphate
311-45-5 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P042
Epinephrine
Epinephrine 51-43-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P043
Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP)
Diisopropylfluoro-
phosphate (DFP)
55-91-4 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P044
Dimethoate
Dimethoate 60-51-5 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P045
???
Thiofanox
Thiofanox 39196-18-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P046
alpha
α
,alpha
α
-Dimethylphenethylamine
alpha
α
,alpha
α
-Di-
methylphenethylamine
122-09-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P047
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 543-52-1 0.28 160
P047
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol salts
NA NA (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P048
2,4-Dinitrophenol
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 0.12 160
P049
Dithiobiuret
Dithiobiuret 541-53-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P050
Endosulfan
Endosulfan I 939-98-8 0.023 0.066
Endosulfan II 33213-6-5 0.029 0.13
Endosulfan sulfate 1031-07-8 0.029 0.13
P051
Endrin
Endrin 72-20-8 0.0028 0.13
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-4 0.025 0.13
P054
Aziridine
Aziridine 151-56-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
???
CMBST
P056
Fluorine
Fluoride (measured
in wastewaters only)
16964-48-8 35 ADGAS fb
NEUTR
P057
Fluoroacetamide
Fluoroacetamide 640-19-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P058
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt
Fluoroacetic acid,
sodium salt
62-74-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P059
Heptachlor
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 0.066
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 0.066
P060
Isodrin
Isodrin 465-73-6 0.021 0.066
P062
Hexaethyl tetraphosphate
Hexaethyl tetra-
phosphate
757-58-4 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P063
Hydrogen cyanide
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
P064
Isocyanic acid, ethyl ester
Isocyanic acid,
ethyl ester
624-83-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P065
P065 (mercury fulminate) nonwastewaters, regardless of their
total mercury content, that are not incinerator residues or are
not residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA IMERC
???
P065
P065 (mercury fulminate) nonwastewaters that are either
incinerator residues or are residues from RMERC; and contain
greater than or equal to 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7339-97-6 NA RMERC
P065
P065 (mercury fulminate) nonwastewaters that are residues from
RMERC and contain less than 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20 mg/l
TCLP
P065
P065 (mercury fulminate) nonwastewaters that are incinerator
residues and contain less than 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025 mg/l
TCLP
P065
All P065 (mercury fulminate) wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
P066
Methomyl
Methomyl 16752-77-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P067
2-Methyl-aziridine
2-Methyl-aziridine 75-55-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P068
Methyl hydrazine
Methyl hydrazine 60-34-4 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED, or
CMBST
P069
2-Methyllactonitrile
2-Methyllactonitrile 75-86-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
???
P070
Aldicarb
Aldicarb 116-06-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P071
Methyl parathion
Methyl parathion 298-00-0 0.014 4.6
P072
1-Naphthyl-2-thiourea
1-Naphthyl-2-thio-
urea
86-88-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P073
Nickel carbonyl
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
P074
Nickel cyanide
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
P075
Nicotine and salts
Nicotine and salts 54-11-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P076
Nitric oxide
Nitric oxide 10102-43-9 ADGAS ADGAS
P077
p-Nitroaniline
p-Nitroaniline 100-01-6 0.028 28
P078
Nitrogen dioxide
Nitrogen dioxide 10102-44-0 ADGAS ADGAS
P081
Nitroglycerin
Nitroglycerin 55-63-0 CHOXD; CHOXD;
???
CHRED;
CARBN; BIODG
or CMBST
CHRED; or
CMBST
P082
N-Nitrosodimethylamine
N-Nitrosodimethyl-
amine
62-75-9 0.40 2.3
P084
N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine
N-Nitrosomethyl-
vinylamine
4549-40-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P085
Octamethylpyrophosphoramide
Octamethylpyro-
phosphoramide
152-16-9 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P087
Osmium tetroxide
Osmium tetroxide 20816-12-0 RMETL; or
RTHRM
RMETL; or
RTHRM
P088
Endothall
Endothall 145-73-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P089
Parathion
Parathion 56-38-2 0.014 4.6
P092
P092 (phenyl mercuric acetate) nonwastewaters, regardless of
their total mercury content, that are not incinerator residues or
are not residues from RMERC.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA IMERC; or
RMERC
P092
P092 (phenyl mercuric acetate) nonwastewaters that are either
incinerator residues or are residues from RMERC; and still
contain greater than or equal to 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA RMERC
P092
???
P092 (phenyl mercuric acetate) nonwastewaters that are residues
from RMERC and contain less than 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20 mg/l
TCLP
P092
P092 (phenyl mercuric acetate) nonwastewaters that are
incinerator residues and contain less than 260 mg/kg total
mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025 mg/l
TCLP
P092
All P092 (phenyl mercuric acetate) wastewaters.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
P093
Phenylthiourea
Phenylthiourea 103-85-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P094
Phorate
Phorate 298-02-2 0.021 4.6
P095
Phosgene
Phosgene 75-44-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P096
Phosphine
Phosphine 7803-51-2 CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
P097
Famphur
Famphur 52-85-7 0.017 15
P098
Potassium cyanide.
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
P099
Potassium silver cyanide
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
???
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
P101
Ethyl cyanide (Propanenitrile)
Ethyl cyanide
(Propanenitrile)
107-12-0 0.24 360
P102
Propargyl alcohol
Propargyl alcohol 107-19-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P103
Selenourea
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 0.16 mg/l
TCLP
P104
Silver cyanide
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
P105
Sodium azide
Sodium azide 26628-22-8 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
P106
Sodium cyanide
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
P108
Strychnine and salts
Strychnine and salts 57-24-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P109
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate
Tetraethyldithio-
pyrophosphate
3689-24-5 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
???
P110
Tetraethyl lead
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
P111
Tetraethylpyrophosphate
Tetraethylpyro-
phosphate
107-49-3 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P112
Tetranitromethane
Tetranitromethane 509-14-8 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
P113
Thallic oxide
Thallium (measured
in wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
P114
Thallium selenite
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 0.16 mg/l
TCLP
P115
Thallium (I) sulfate
Thallium (measured
in wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
P116
Thiosemicarbazide
Thiosemicarbazide 79-19-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P118
Trichloromethanethiol
Trichloromethane-
thiol
75-70-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
P119
Ammonium vanadate
Vanadium (measured
in wastewaters only)
7440-62-2 4.3 STABL
???
P120
Vanadium pentoxide
Vanadium (measured
in wastewaters only)
7440-62-2 4.3 STABL
P121
Zinc cyanide
Cyanides (Total)
7
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
7
57-12-5 0.86 30
P122
Zinc phosphide Zn
3P
2, when present at concentrations greater than
10%
Zinc Phosphide 1314-84-7 CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
P123
Toxaphene
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.0095 2.6
P127
Carbofuran
10
Carbofuran 1563-66-2 0.006 0.14
P128
Mexacarbate
10
Mexacarbate 315-18-4 0.056 1.4
P185
Tirpate
10
Tirpate 26419-73-8 0.056 0.28
P188
Physostigimine salicylate
10
Physostigmine
salicylate
57-64-7 0.056 1.4
P189
Carbosulfan
10
Carbosulfan 55285-14-8 0.028 1.4
P190
Metolcarb
10
Metolcarb 1129-41-5 0.056 1.4
P191
Dimetilan
10
Dimetilan 644-64-4 0.056 1.4
P192
Isolan
10
???
Isolan 119-38-0 0.056 1.4
P194
Oxamyl
10
Oxamyl 23135-22-0 0.056 0.28
P196
Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamates (total)
10
Dithiocarbamates
(total)
NA 0.028 28
P197
Formparanate
10
Formparanate 17702-57-7 0.056 1.4
P198
Formetanate hydrochloride
10
Formetanate hydro-
chloride
23422-53-9 0.056 1.4
P199
Methiocarb
10
Methiocarb 2032-65-7 0.056 1.4
P201
Promecarb
10
Promecarb 2631-37-0 0.056 1.4
P202
m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate
10
m-Cumenyl methyl-
carbamate
64-00-6 0.056 1.4
P203
Aldicarb sulfone
10
Aldicarb sulfone 1646-88-4 0.056 0.28
P204
Physostigmine
10
Physostigmine 57-47-6 0.056 1.4
P205
Ziram
10
Dithiocarbamates
(total)
NA 0.028 28
U001
Acetaldehyde
Acetaldehyde 75-07-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
???
U002
Acetone
Acetone 67-64-1 0.28 160
U003
Acetonitrile
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 CMBST
Acetonitrile;
alternate
6
standard
for nonwastewaters
only
75-05-8 NA 38
U004
Acetophenone
Acetophenone 98-86-2 0.010 9.7
U005
2-Acetylaminofluorene
2-
Acetylaminofluorene
53-96-3 0.059 140
U006
Acetyl chloride
Acetyl chloride 75-36-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U007
Acrylamide
Acrylamide 79-06-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U008
Acrylic acid
Acrylic acid 79-10-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U009
Acrylonitrile
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
U010
Mitomycin C
Mitomycin C 50-07-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
???
CMBST
U011
Amitrole
Amitrole 61-82-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U012
Aniline
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
U014
Auramine
Auramine 492-80-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U015
Azaserine
Azaserine 115-02-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U016
Benz(c)acridine
Benz(c)acridine 225-51-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U017
Benzal chloride
Benzal chloride 98-87-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U018
Benz(a)anthracene
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
U019
Benzene
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
U020
Benzenesulfonyl chloride
Benzenesulfonyl 98-09-9 (WETOX or CMBST
???
chloride CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
U021
Benzidine
Benzidine 92-87-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U022
Benzo(a)pyrene
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
U023
Benzotrichloride
Benzotrichloride 98-07-7 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
U024
bis(2-Chloroethoxy)methane
bis(2-Chloroethoxy)-
methane
111-91-1 0.036 7.2
U025
bis(2-Chloroethyl)ether
bis(2-Chloroethyl)-
ether
111-44-4 0.033 6.0
U026
Chlornaphazine
Chlornaphazine 494-03-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U027
bis(2-Chloroisopropyl)ether
bis(2-Chloro-
isopropyl)ether
39638-32-9 0.055 7.2
U028
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)phthalate
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)-
phthalate
117-81-7 0.28 28
U029
Methyl bromide (Bromomethane)
???
Methyl bromide
(Bromomethane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
U030
4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether
4-Bromophenyl phenyl
ether
101-55-3 0.055 15
U031
n-Butyl alcohol
n-Butyl alcohol 71-36-3 5.6 2.6
U032
Calcium chromate
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
U033
Carbon oxyfluoride
Carbon oxyfluoride 353-50-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U034
Trichloroacetaldehyde (Chloral)
Trichloroacet-
aldehyde (Chloral)
75-87-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U035
Chlorambucil
Chlorambucil 305-03-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U036
Chlordane
Chlordane (alpha
α
and gamma
χ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 0.26
U037
Chlorobenzene
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
U038
Chlorobenzilate
Chlorobenzilate 510-15-6 0.10 CMBST
U039
???
p-Chloro-m-cresol
p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 0.018 14
U041
Epichlorohydrin (1-Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane)
Epichlorohydrin (1-
Chloro-2,3-
epoxypropane)
106-89-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U042
2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether
2-Chloroethyl vinyl
ether
110-75-8 0.062 CMBST
U043
Vinyl chloride
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
U044
Chloroform
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
U045
Chloromethane (Methyl chloride)
Chloromethane
(Methyl chloride)
74-87-3 0.19 30
U046
Chloromethyl methyl ether
Chloromethyl methyl
ether
107-30-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U047
2-Chloronaphthalene
2-Chloronaphthalene 91-58-7 0.055 5.6
U048
2-Chlorophenol
2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 0.044 5.7
U049
4-Chloro-o-toluidine hydrochloride
4-Chloro-o-toluidine
hydrochloride
3165-93-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U050
Chrysene
???
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
U051
Creosote
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
U052
Cresols (Cresylic acid)
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol (difficult
to distinguish from
p-cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol (difficult
to distinguish from
m-cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
Cresol-mixed isomers
(Cresylic acid)
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-cresol concentra-
tions)
1319-77-3 0.88 11.2
U053
Crotonaldehyde
Crotonaldehyde 4170-30-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U055
Cumene
Cumene 98-82-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U056
Cyclohexane
Cyclohexane 110-82-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
???
U057
Cyclohexanone
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 CMBST
Cyclohexanone;
alternate
6
standard
for nonwastewaters
only
108-94-1 NA 0.75 mg/l
TCLP
U058
Cyclophosphamide
Cyclophosphamide 50-18-0 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U059
Daunomycin
Daunomycin 20830-81-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U060
DDD
o,p’-DDD 53-19-0 0.023 0.087
p,p’-DDD 72-54-8 0.023 0.087
U061
DDT
o,p’-DDT 789-02-6 0.0039 0.087
p,p’-DDT 50-29-3 0.0039 0.087
o,p’-DDD 53-19-0 0.023 0.087
p,p’-DDD 72-54-8 0.023 0.087
o,p’-DDE 3424-82-6 0.031 0.087
p,p’-DDE 72-55-9 0.031 0.087
U062
Diallate
Diallate 2303-16-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U063
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene
Dibenz(a,h)anthracen
e
53-70-3 0.055 8.2
U064
Dibenz(a,i)pyrene
Dibenz(a,i)pyrene 189-55-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
???
U066
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane
1,2-Dibromo-3-
chloropropane
96-12-8 0.11 15
U067
Ethylene dibromide (1,2-Dibromoethane)
Ethylene dibromide
(1,2-Dibromoethane)
106-93-4 0.028 15
U068
Dibromomethane
Dibromomethane 74-95-3 0.11 15
U069
Di-n-butyl phthalate
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
U070
o-Dichlorobenzene
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
U071
m-Dichlorobenzene
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 0.036 6.0
U072
p-Dichlorobenzene
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
U073
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine
3,3'-Dichloro-
benzidine
91-94-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U074
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene
cis-1,4-Dichloro-2-
butene
1476-11-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
trans-1,4-Dichloro-
2-butene
764-41-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U075
Dichlorodifluoromethane
Dichlorodifluoro- 75-71-8 0.23 7.2
???
methane
U076
1,1-Dichloroethane
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
U077
1,2-Dichloroethane
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
U078
1,1-Dichloroethylene
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 6.0
U079
1,2-Dichloroethylene
trans-1,2-Dichloro-
ethylene
156-60-5 0.054 30
U080
Methylene chloride
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
U081
2,4-Dichlorophenol
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 0.044 14
U082
2,6-Dichlorophenol
2,6-Dichlorophenol 87-65-0 0.044 14
U083
1,2-Dichloropropane
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 0.85 18
U084
1,3-Dichloropropylene
cis-1,3-Dichloro-
propylene
10061-01-5 0.036 18
trans-1,3-Dichloro-
propylene
10061-02-6 0.036 18
U085
1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane
1,2:3,4-
Diepoxybutane
1464-53-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U086
N,N’-Diethylhydrazine
N,N’-Diethyl-
hydrazine
1615-80-1 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
???
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CMBST
U087
O,O-Diethyl-S-methyldithiophosphate
O,O-Diethyl-S-
methyldithio-
phosphate
3288-58-2 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U088
Diethyl phthalate
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 0.20 28
U089
Diethyl stilbestrol
Diethyl stilbestrol 56-53-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U090
Dihydrosafrole
Dihydrosafrole 94-58-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U091
3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine
3,3'-
Dimethoxybenzidine
119-90-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U092
Dimethylamine
Dimethylamine 124-40-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U093
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene
p-Dimethyl-
aminoazobenzene
60-11-7 0.13 CMBST
U094
7,12-Dimethylbenz(a)anthracene
7,12-Dimethyl-
benz(a)anthracene
57-97-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
???
CMBST
U095
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine
3,3'-Dimethyl-
benzidine
119-93-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U096
alpha
α
, alpha
α
-Dimethyl benzyl hydroperoxide
alpha
α
, alpha
α
-
Dimethyl benzyl
hydroperoxide
80-15-9 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
U097
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride
Dimethylcarbamoyl
chloride
79-44-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U098
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine
1,1-Dimethyl-
hydrazine
57-14-7 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
U099
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine
1,2-Dimethyl-
hydrazine
540-73-8 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
U101
2,4-Dimethylphenol
2,4-Dimethylphenol 105-67-9 0.036 14
U102
Dimethyl phthalate
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 0.047 28
U103
Dimethyl sulfate
Dimethyl sulfate 77-78-1 CHOXD; CHOXD;
???
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHRED; or
CMBST
U105
2,4-Dinitrotoluene
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 0.32 140
U106
2,6-Dinitrotoluene
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 0.55 28
U107
Di-n-octyl phthalate
Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 0.017 28
U108
1,4-Dioxane
1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
1,4-Dioxane;
alternate
6
standard
for nonwastewaters
only
123-91-1 NA 170
U109
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine
1,2-Diphenyl-
hydrazine
122-66-7 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
1,2-Diphenyl-
hydrazine;
alternate
6
standard
for wastewaters only
122-66-7 0.087 NA
U110
Dipropylamine
Dipropylamine 142-84-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U111
Di-n-propylnitrosamine
Di-n-propylnitros-
amine
621-64-7 0.40 14
???
U112
Ethyl acetate
Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 0.34 33
U113
Ethyl acrylate
Ethyl acrylate 140-88-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U114
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid salts and esters
Ethylenebisdithio-
carbamic acid
111-54-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U115
Ethylene oxide
Ethylene oxide 75-21-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CHOXD; or
CMBST
Ethylene oxide;
alternate
6
standard
for wastewaters only
75-21-8 0.12 NA
U116
Ethylene thiourea
Ethylene thiourea 96-45-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U117
Ethyl ether
Ethyl ether 60-29-7 0.12 160
U118
Ethyl methacrylate
Ethyl methacrylate 97-63-2 0.14 160
U119
Ethyl methane sulfonate
Ethyl methane
sulfonate
62-50-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U120
Fluoranthene
???
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
U121
Trichloromonofluoromethane
Trichloromonofluoro-
methane
75-69-4 0.020 30
U122
Formaldehyde
Formaldehyde 50-00-0 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U123
Formic acid
Formic acid 64-18-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U124
Furan
Furan 110-00-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U125
Furfural
Furfural 98-01-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U126
Glycidylaldehyde
Glycidylaldehyde 765-34-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U127
Hexachlorobenzene
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
U128
Hexachlorobutadiene
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
U129
Lindane
???
alpha
α
-BHC
319-84-6 0.00014 0.066
beta
β
-BHC
319-85-7 0.00014 0.066
delta
δ
-BHC
319-86-8 0.023 0.066
gamma
χ
-BHC (Lindane)
58-89-9 0.0017 0.066
U130
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene
Hexachlorocyclo-
pentadiene
77-47-4 0.057 2.4
U131
Hexachloroethane
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
U132
Hexachlorophene
Hexachlorophene 70-30-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U133
Hydrazine
Hydrazine 302-01-2 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
U134
Hydrogen fluoride
Fluoride (measured
in wastewaters only)
16964-48-8 35 ADGAS fb
NEUTR; or
NEUTR
U135
Hydrogen sulfide
Hydrogen sulfide 7783-06-4 CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
U136
Cacodylic acid
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l
TCLP
U137
Indeno(1,2,3-c,d)pyrene
Indeno(1,2,3-
c,d)pyrene
193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
???
U138
Iodomethane
Iodomethane 74-88-4 0.19 65
U140
Isobutyl alcohol
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 5.6 170
U141
Isosafrole
Isosafrole 120-58-1 0.081 2.6
U142
Kepone
Kepone 143-50-8 0.0011 0.13
U143
Lasiocarpine
Lasiocarpine 303-34-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U144
Lead acetate
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
U145
Lead phosphate
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
U146
Lead subacetate
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
U147
Maleic anhydride
Maleic anhydride 108-31-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U148
Maleic hydrazide
Maleic hydrazide 123-33-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
???
U149
Malononitrile
Malononitrile 109-77-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U150
Melphalan
Melphalan 148-82-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U151
U151 (mercury) nonwastewaters that contain greater than or equal
to 260 mg/kg total mercury.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA RMERC
U151
U151 (mercury) nonwastewaters that contain less than 260 mg/kg
total mercury and that are residues from RMERC only.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.20 mg/l
TCLP
U151
U151 (mercury) nonwastewaters that contain less than 260 mg/kg
total mercury and that are not residues from RMERC only.
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA 0.025 mg/l
TCLP
U151
All U151 (mercury) wastewater.
Mercury 7439-97-6 0.15 NA
U151
Element Mercury Contaminated with Radioactive Materials
Mercury 7439-97-6 NA AMLGM
U152
Methacrylonitrile
Methacrylonitrile 126-98-7 0.24 84
U153
Methanethiol
Methanethiol 74-93-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U154
Methanol
???
Methanol 67-56-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
Methanol; alternate
6
set of standards for
both wastewaters and
nonwastewaters
67-56-1 5.6 0.75 mg/l
TCLP
U155
Methapyrilene
Methapyrilene 91-80-5 0.081 1.5
U156
Methyl chlorocarbonate
Methyl chloro-
carbonate
79-22-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U157
3-Methylcholanthrene
3-Methylcholanthrene 56-49-5 0.0055 15
U158
4,4'-Methylene bis(2-chloroaniline)
4,4'-Methylene
bis(2-chloroaniline)
101-14-4 0.50 30
U159
Methyl ethyl ketone
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
U160
Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide
Methyl ethyl ketone
peroxide
1338-23-4 CHOXD;
CHRED;
CARBN;
BIODG; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
U161
Methyl isobutyl ketone
Methyl isobutyl
ketone
108-10-1 0.14 33
U162
Methyl methacrylate
Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 0.14 160
U163
N-Methyl-N’-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine
???
N-Methyl-N’-nitro-N-
nitrosoguanidine
70-25-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U164
Methylthiouracil
Methylthiouracil 56-04-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U165
Naphthalene
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
U166
1,4-Naphthoquinone
1,4-Naphthoquinone 130-15-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U167
1-Naphthylamine
1-Naphthylamine 134-32-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U168
2-Naphthylamine
2-Naphthylamine 91-59-8 0.52 CMBST
U169
Nitrobenzene
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
U170
p-Nitrophenol
p-Nitrophenol 100-02-7 0.12 29
U171
2-Nitropropane
2-Nitropropane 79-46-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U172
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine
N-Nitrosodi-n-butyl- 924-16-3 0.40 17
???
amine
U173
N-Nitrosodiethanolamine
N-Nitroso-
diethanolamine
1116-54-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U174
N-Nitrosodiethylamine
N-Nitrosodiethyl-
amine
55-18-5 0.40 28
U176
N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea
N-Nitroso-N-ethyl-
urea
759-73-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U177
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea
N-Nitroso-N-methyl-
urea
684-93-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U178
N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane
N-Nitroso-N-methyl-
urethane
615-53-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U179
N-Nitrosopiperidine
N-Nitrosopiperidine 100-75-4 0.013 35
U180
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine 930-55-2 0.013 35
U181
5-Nitro-o-toluidine
5-Nitro-o-toluidine 99-55-8 0.32 28
U182
Paraldehyde
Paraldehyde 123-63-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
???
CMBST
U183
Pentachlorobenzene
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
U184
Pentachloroethane
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
Pentachloroethane;
alternate
6
standards
for both wastewaters
and nonwastewaters
76-01-7 0.055 6.0
U185
Pentachloronitrobenzene
Pentachloronitro-
benzene
82-68-8 0.055 4.8
U186
1,3-Pentadiene
1,3-Pentadiene 504-60-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U187
Phenacetin
Phenacetin 62-44-2 0.081 16
U188
Phenol
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
U189
Phosphorus sulfide
Phosphorus sulfide 1314-80-3 CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
U190
Phthalic anhydride
Phthalic anhydride
(measured as
Phthalic acid or
Terephthalic acid)
100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride
(measured as
Phthalic acid or
85-44-9 0.055 28
???
Terephthalic acid)
U191
2-Picoline
2-Picoline 109-06-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U192
Pronamide
Pronamide 23950-58-5 0.093 1.5
U193
1,3-Propane sultone
1,3-Propane sultone 1120-71-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U194
n-Propylamine
n-Propylamine 107-10-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U196
Pyridine
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
U197
p-Benzoquinone
p-Benzoquinone 106-51-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U200
Reserpine
Reserpine 50-55-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U201
Resorcinol
Resorcinol 108-46-3 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
???
U202
Saccharin and salts
Saccharin 81-07-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U203
Safrole
Safrole 94-59-7 0.081 22
U204
Selenium dioxide
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 0.16 mg/l
TCLP
U205
Selenium sulfide
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 0.16 mg/l
TCLP
U206
Streptozotocin
Streptozotocin 18883-66-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U207
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 0.055 14
U208
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
630-20-6 0.057 6.0
U209
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
79-34-5 0.057 6.0
U210
Tetrachloroethylene
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
U211
Carbon tetrachloride
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
U213
???
Tetrahydrofuran
Tetrahydrofuran 109-99-9 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U214
Thallium (I) acetate
Thallium (measured
in wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
U215
Thallium (I) carbonate
Thallium (measured
in wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
U216
Thallium (I) chloride
Thallium (measured
in wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
U217
Thallium (I) nitrate
Thallium (measured
in wastewaters only)
7440-28-0 1.4 RTHRM; or
STABL
U218
Thioacetamide
Thioacetamide 62-55-5 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U219
Thiourea
Thiourea 62-56-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U220
Toluene
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
U221
Toluenediamine
Toluenediamine 25376-45-8 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U222
o-Toluidine hydrochloride
o-Toluidine hydro- 636-21-5 (WETOX or CMBST
???
chloride CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
U223
Toluene diisocyanate
Toluene diisocyanate 26471-62-5 CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U225
Bromoform (Tribromomethane)
Bromoform (Tribromo-
methane)
75-25-2 0.63 15
U226
1,1,1-Trichloroethane
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane
71-55-6 0.054 6.0
U227
1,1,2-Trichloroethane
1,1,2-
Trichloroethane
79-00-5 0.054 6.0
U228
Trichloroethylene
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
U234
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene
1,3,5-Trinitro-
benzene
99-35-4 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U235
tris-(2,3-Dibromopropyl)-phosphate
tris-(2,3-Dibromo-
propyl)-phosphate
126-72-7 0.11 0.10
U236
Trypan Blue
Trypan Blue 72-57-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U237
Uracil mustard
Uracil mustard 66-75-1 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
???
CMBST
U238
Urethane (Ethyl carbamate)
Urethane (Ethyl
carbamate)
51-79-6 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U239
Xylenes
Xylenes-mixed
isomers
(sum of o-, m-, and
p-xylene concentra-
tions)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
U240
2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid)
2,4-D (2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid)
94-75-7 0.72 10
2,4-D (2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic acid)
salts and esters
NA (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U243
Hexachloropropylene
Hexachloropropylene 1888-71-7 0.035 30
U244
Thiram
Thiram 137-26-8 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
CMBST
U246
Cyanogen bromide
Cyanogen bromide 506-68-3 CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
WETOX; or
CMBST
U247
Methoxychlor
Methoxychlor 72-43-5 0.25 0.18
U248
Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less
Warfarin 81-81-2 (WETOX or
CHOXD) fb
CARBN; or
CMBST
???
CMBST
U249
Zinc phosphide, Zn
3P
2, when present at concentrations of 10% or
less
Zinc Phosphide 1314-84-7 CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
CHOXD;
CHRED; or
CMBST
U271
Benomyl
10
Benomyl 17804-35-2 0.056 1.4
U278
Bendiocarb
10
Bendiocarb 22781-23-3 0.056 1.4
U279
Carbaryl
10
Carbaryl 63-25-2 0.006 0.14
U280
Barban
10
Barban 101-27-9 0.056 1.4
U328
o-Toluidine
o-Toluidine 95-53-4 CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN); or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
U353
p-Toluidine
p-Toluidine 106-49-0 CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN); or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
U359
2-Ethoxyethanol
2-Ethoxyethanol 110-80-5 CMBST; or
CHOXD fb
(BIODG or
CARBN); or
BIODG fb
CARBN
CMBST
???
U364
Bendiocarb phenol
10
Bendiocarb phenol 22961-82-6 0.056 1.4
U367
Carbofuran phenol
10
Carbofuran phenol 1563-38-8 0.056 1.4
U372
Carbendazim
10
Carbendazim 10605-21-7 0.056 1.4
U373
Propham
10
Propham 122-42-9 0.056 1.4
U387
Prosulfocarb
10
Prosulfocarb 52888-80-9 0.042 1.4
U389
Triallate
10
Triallate 2303-17-5 0.042 1.4
U394
A2213
10
A2213 30558-43-1 0.042 1.4
U395
Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate
10
Diethylene glycol,
dicarbamate
5952-26-1 0.056 1.4
U404
Triethylamine
10
Triethylamine 101-44-8 0.081 1.5
U409
Thiophanate-methyl
10
Thiophanate-methyl 23564-05-8 0.056 1.4
U410
Thiodicarb
10
Thiodicarb 59669-26-0 0.019 1.4
U411
Propoxur
10
Propoxur 114-26-1 0.056 1.4
Notes:
???
1 The waste descriptions provided in this table do not replace
waste descriptions in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721. Descriptions
of Treatment or Regulatory Subcategories are provided, as
needed, to distinguish between applicability of different
standards.
2 CAS means Chemical Abstract Services. When the waste code
or regulated constituents are described as a combination of
a chemical with its salts or esters, the CAS number is given
for the parent compound only.
3 Concentration standards for wastewaters are expressed in
mg/l and are based on analysis of composite samples.
4 All treatment standards expressed as a Technology Code or
combination of Technology Codes are explained in detail in
35 Ill. Adm. Code 728.Table C, “Technology Codes and
Descriptions of Technology-Based Standards”. “fb” inserted
between waste codes denotes “followed by”,” so that the
first-listed treatment is followed by the second-listed
treatment. “;” separates alternative treatement treatment
schemes.
5 Except for Metals (EP or TCLP) and Cyanides (Total and
Amenable) the nonwastewater treatment standards expressed as
a concentration were established, in part, based upon
incineration in units operated in accordance with the
technical requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart O or
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.Subpart O or based upon combustion in
fuel substitution units operating in accordance with
applicable technical requirements. A facility may comply
with these treatment standards according to provisions in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 728.140(d). All concentration standards for
nonwastewaters are based on analysis of grab samples.
6 Where an alternate treatment standard or set of alternate
standards has been indicated, a facility may comply with
this alternate standard, but only for the Treatment or
Regulatory Subcategory or physical form (i.e., wastewater or
nonwastewater) specified for that alternate standard.
7 Both Cyanides (Total) and Cyanides (Amenable) for
nonwastewaters are to be analyzed using Method 9010 or 9012,
found in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical
or Chemical Methods”, USEPA Publication SW-846, as
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, with
a sample size of 10 grams and a distillation time of one
hour and 15 minutes.
8 These wastes, when rendered nonhazardous and then
subsequently managed in CWA or CWA-equivalent systems, are
???
not subject to treatment standards. (See Section
728.101(c)(3) and (c)(4).)
9 These wastes, when rendered nonhazardous and then
subsequently injected in a Class I SDWA well, are not
subject to treatment standards. (See 35 Ill. Adm. Code
738.101(d).)
10 This footnote corresponds with note 10 to the table to 40
CFR 268.40, which has already expired by its own terms.
This statement maintains structural consistency with the
federal regulations.
11 For these wastes, the definition of CMBST is limited to any
of the following that have obtained a determination of
equivalent treatment under Section 728.142(b): (1)
combustion units operating under 35 Ill. Adm. Code 726, (2)
combustion units permitted under 35 Ill. Adm. Code
724.Subpart O, or (3) combustion units operating under 35
Ill. Adm. Code 725.Subpart O.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from table to 40 CFR 268.40 (1997).
NA means not applicable.
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
Section 728.Table U Universal Treatment Standards (UTS)
Regulated Con-
stituent-Common Name CAS
1
No.
Wastewater
Standard
Concentration
(in mg/l
2
)
Nonwastewater
Standard
Concentration
(in mg/kg
3
unless noted
as “mg/l
TCLP”)
A2213
6
30558-43-1 0.042 1.4
Acenaphthylene 208-96-8 0.059 3.4
Acenaphthene 83-32-9 0.059 3.4
Acetone 67-64-1 0.28 160
Acetonitrile 75-05-8 5.6 38
Acetophenone 96-86-2 0.010 9.7
2-Acetylaminofluor-
ene
53-96-3 0.059 140
Acrolein 107-02-8 0.29 NA
Acrylamide 79-06-1 19 23
Acrylonitrile 107-13-1 0.24 84
Aldicarb sulfone
6
1646-88-4 0.056 0.28
Aldrin 309-00-2 0.021 0.066
4-Aminobiphenyl 92-67-1 0.13 NA
Aniline 62-53-3 0.81 14
???
Anthracene 120-12-7 0.059 3.4
Aramite 140-57-8 0.36 NA
alpha
α
-BHC
319-84-6 0.00014 0.066
beta
β
-BHC
319-85-7 0.00014 0.066
delta
δ
-BHC
319-86-8 0.023 0.066
gamma
χ
-BHC
58-89-9 0.0017 0.066
Barban
6
101-27-9 0.056 1.4
Bendiocarb
6
22781-23-3 0.056 1.4
Bendiocarb phenol
6
22961-82-6 0.056 1.4
Benomyl
6
17804-35-2 0.056 1.4
Benz(a)anthracene 56-55-3 0.059 3.4
Benzal chloride 98-87-3 0.055 6.0
Benzene 71-43-2 0.14 10
Benzo(b)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(k)fluoranthene
)
205-99-2 0.11 6.8
Benzo(k)fluoranthene
(difficult to
distinguish from
benzo(b)fluoranthene
)
207-08-9 0.11 6.8
Benzo(g,h,i)perylene 191-24-2 0.0055 1.8
Benzo(a)pyrene 50-32-8 0.061 3.4
Bromodichloromethane 75-27-4 0.35 15
Methyl bromide
(Bromomethane)
74-83-9 0.11 15
4-Bromophenyl phenyl
ether
101-55-3 0.055 15
n-Butyl alcohol 71-36-3 5.6 2.6
Butylate
6
2008-41-5 0.042 1.4
Butyl benzyl
phthalate
85-68-7 0.017 28
2-sec-Butyl-4,6-
dinitrophenol
(Dinoseb)
88-85-7 0.066 2.5
Carbaryl
6
63-25-2 0.006 0.14
Carbenzadim
6
10605-21-7 0.056 1.4
Carbofuran
6
1563-66-2 0.006 0.14
Carbofuran phenol
6
1563-38-8 0.056 1.4
Carbon disulfide 75-15-0 3.8 4.8 mg/l TCLP
Carbon tetrachloride 56-23-5 0.057 6.0
Carbosulfan
6
55285-14-8 0.028 1.4
Chlordane (alpha
α
and gamma
χ
isomers)
57-74-9 0.0033 0.26
p-Chloroaniline 106-47-8 0.46 16
Chlorobenzene 108-90-7 0.057 6.0
Chlorobenzilate 510-15-6 0.10 NA
2-Chloro-1,3-
butadiene
126-99-8 0.057 0.28
???
Chlorodibromomethane 124-48-1 0.057 15
Chloroethane 75-00-3 0.27 6.0
bis(2-Chloro-
ethoxy)methane
111-91-1 0.036 7.2
bis(2-Chloro-
ethyl)ether
111-44-4 0.033 6.0
2-Chloroethyl vinyl
ether
110-75-8 0.062 NA
Chloroform 67-66-3 0.046 6.0
bis(2-Chloro-
isopropyl)ether
39638-32-9 0.055 7.2
p-Chloro-m-cresol 59-50-7 0.018 14
Chloromethane
(Methyl chloride)
74-87-3 0.19 30
2-Chloronaphthalene 91-58-7 0.055 5.6
2-Chlorophenol 95-57-8 0.044 5.7
3-Chloropropylene 107-05-1 0.036 30
Chrysene 218-01-9 0.059 3.4
o-Cresol 95-48-7 0.11 5.6
m-Cresol (difficult
to distinguish from
p-cresol)
108-39-4 0.77 5.6
p-Cresol (difficult
to distinguish from
m-cresol)
106-44-5 0.77 5.6
m-Cumenyl methyl-
carbamate
6
64-00-6 0.056 1.4
Cyclohexanone 108-94-1 0.36 0.75 mg/l
TCLP
o,p’-DDD 53-19-0 0.023 0.087
p,p’-DDD 72-54-8 0.023 0.087
o,p’-DDE 3424-82-6 0.031 0.087
p,p’-DDE 72-55-9 0.031 0.087
o,p’-DDT 789-02-6 0.0039 0.087
p,p’-DDT 50-29-3 0.0039 0.087
Dibenz(a,h)anthra-
cene
53-70-3 0.055 8.2
Dibenz(a,e)pyrene 192-65-4 0.061 NA
1,2-Dibromo-3-
chloropropane
96-12-8 0.11 15
1,2-Dibromo-
ethane/Ethylene
dibromide
106-93-4 0.028 15
Dibromomethane 74-95-3 0.11 15
m-Dichlorobenzene 541-73-1 0.036 6.0
o-Dichlorobenzene 95-50-1 0.088 6.0
p-Dichlorobenzene 106-46-7 0.090 6.0
Dichlorodifluoro-
methane
75-71-8 0.23 7.2
1,1-Dichloroethane 75-34-3 0.059 6.0
1,2-Dichloroethane 107-06-2 0.21 6.0
1,1-Dichloroethylene 75-35-4 0.025 6.0
???
trans-1,2-Dichloro-
ethylene
156-60-5 0.054 30
2,4-Dichlorophenol 120-83-2 0.044 14
2,6-Dichlorophenol 87-65-0 0.044 14
2,4-Dichloro-
phenoxyacetic
acid/2,4-D
94-75-7 0.72 10
1,2-Dichloropropane 78-87-5 0.85 18
cis-1,3-Dichloro-
propylene
10061-01-5 0.036 18
trans-1,3-Dichloro-
propylene
10061-02-6 0.036 18
Dieldrin 60-57-1 0.017 0.13
Diethylene glycol,
dicarbamate
6
5952-26-1 0.056 1.4
Diethyl phthalate 84-66-2 0.20 28
p-Dimethylaminoazo-
benzene
60-11-7 0.13 NA
2,4-Dimethyl phenol 105-67-9 0.036 14
Dimethyl phthalate 131-11-3 0.047 28
Dimetilan
6
644-64-4 0.056 1.4
Di-n-butyl phthalate 84-74-2 0.057 28
1,4-Dinitrobenzene 100-25-4 0.32 2.3
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol 534-52-1 0.28 160
2,4-Dinitrophenol 51-28-5 0.12 160
2,4-Dinitrotoluene 121-14-2 0.32 140
2,6-Dinitrotoluene 606-20-2 0.55 28
Di-n-octyl phthalate 117-84-0 0.017 28
Di-n-propylnitros-
amine
621-64-7 0.40 14
1,4-Dioxane 123-91-1 12.0 170
Diphenylamine
(difficult to
distinguish from
diphenylnitrosamine)
122-39-4 0.92 13
Diphenylnitrosamine
(difficult to
distinguish from
diphenylamine)
86-30-6 0.92 13
1,2-
Diphenylhydrazine
122-66-7 0.087 NA
Disulfoton 298-04-4 0.017 6.2
Dithiocarbamates
(total)
6
137-30-4 0.028 28
Endosulfan I 959-98-8 0.023 0.066
Endosulfan II 33213-65-9 0.029 0.13
Endosulfan sulfate 1031-07-8 0.029 0.13
Endrin 72-20-8 0.0028 0.13
Endrin aldehyde 7421-93-4 0.025 0.13
EPTC
6
759-94-4 0.042 1.4
Ethyl acetate 141-78-6 0.34 33
Ethyl benzene 100-41-4 0.057 10
???
Ethyl cyanide
(Propanenitrile)
107-12-0 0.24 360
Ethyl ether 60-29-7 0.12 160
Ethyl methacrylate 97-63-2 0.14 160
Ethylene oxide 75-21-8 0.12 NA
bis(2-Ethylhexyl)
phthalate
117-81-7 0.28 28
Famphur 52-85-7 0.017 15
Fluoranthene 206-44-0 0.068 3.4
Fluorene 86-73-7 0.059 3.4
Formetanate hydro-
chloride
6
23422-53-9 0.056 1.4
Formparanate
6
17702-57-7 0.056 1.4
Heptachlor 76-44-8 0.0012 0.066
Heptachlor epoxide 1024-57-3 0.016 0.066
Hexachlorobenzene 118-74-1 0.055 10
Hexachlorobutadiene 87-68-3 0.055 5.6
Hexachloro-
cyclopentadiene
77-47-4 0.057 2.4
HxCDDs (All
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-
dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
HxCDFs (All
Hexachloro-
dibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
Hexachloroethane 67-72-1 0.055 30
Hexachloropropylene 1888-71-7 0.035 30
Indeno (1,2,3-c,d)
pyrene
193-39-5 0.0055 3.4
Iodomethane 74-88-4 0.19 65
Isobutyl alcohol 78-83-1 5.6 170
Isodrin 465-73-6 0.021 0.066
Isolan
6
119-38-0 0.056 1.4
Isosafrole 120-58-1 0.081 2.6
Kepone 143-50-0 0.0011 0.13
Methacrylonitrile 126-98-7 0.24 84
Methanol 67-56-1 5.6 0.75 mg/l
TCLP
Methapyrilene 91-80-5 0.081 1.5
Methiocarb
6
2032-65-7 0.056 1.4
Methomyl
6
16752-77-5 0.028 0.14
Methoxychlor 72-43-5 0.25 0.18
3-Methylcholanthrene 56-49-5 0.0055 15
4,4-Methylene bis(2-
chloroaniline)
101-14-4 0.50 30
Methylene chloride 75-09-2 0.089 30
Methyl ethyl ketone 78-93-3 0.28 36
Methyl isobutyl
ketone
108-10-1 0.14 33
Methyl methacrylate 80-62-6 0.14 160
Methyl
methansulfonate
66-27-3 0.018 NA
???
Methyl parathion 298-00-0 0.014 4.6
Metolcarb
6
1129-41-5 0.056 1.4
Mexacarbate
6
315-18-4 0.056 1.4
Molinate
6
2212-67-1 0.042 1.4
Naphthalene 91-20-3 0.059 5.6
2-Naphthylamine 91-59-8 0.52 NA
o-Nitroaniline 88-74-4 0.27 14
p-Nitroaniline 100-01-6 0.028 28
Nitrobenzene 98-95-3 0.068 14
5-Nitro-o-toluidine 99-55-8 0.32 28
o-Nitrophenol 88-75-5 0.028 13
p-Nitrophenol 100-02-7 0.12 29
N-Nitrosodiethyl-
amine
55-18-5 0.40 28
N-Nitrosodimethyl-
amine
62-75-9 0.40 2.3
N-Nitroso-di-n-
butylamine
924-16-3 0.40 17
N-Nitrosomethyl-
ethylamine
10595-95-6 0.40 2.3
N-Nitrosomorpholine 59-89-2 0.40 2.3
N-Nitrosopiperidine 100-75-4 0.013 35
N-Nitrosopyrrolidine 930-55-2 0.013 35
Oxamyl
6
23135-22-0 0.056 0.28
Parathion 56-38-2 0.014 4.6
Total PCBs (sum of
all PCB isomers, or
all Aroclors)
1336-36-3 0.10 10
Pebulate
6
1114-71-2 0.042 1.4
Pentachlorobenzene 608-93-5 0.055 10
PeCDDs (All
Pentachlorodibenzo-
p-dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
PeCDFs (All
Pentachloro-
dibenzofurans)
NA 0.000035 0.001
Pentachloroethane 76-01-7 0.055 6.0
Pentachloro-
nitrobenzene
82-68-8 0.055 4.8
Pentachlorophenol 87-86-5 0.089 7.4
Phenacetin 62-44-2 0.081 16
Phenanthrene 85-01-8 0.059 5.6
Phenol 108-95-2 0.039 6.2
o-Phenylenediamine
6
95-54-5 0.056 5.6
Phorate 298-02-2 0.021 4.6
Phthalic acid 100-21-0 0.055 28
Phthalic anhydride 85-44-9 0.055 28
Physostigmine
6
57-47-6 0.056 1.4
Physostigmine
salicylate
6
57-64-7 0.056 1.4
Promecarb
6
2631-37-0 0.056 1.4
Pronamide 23950-58-5 0.093 1.5
???
Propham
6
122-42-9 0.056 1.4
Propoxur
6
114-26-1 0.056 1.4
Prosulfocarb
6
52888-80-9 0.042 1.4
Pyrene 129-00-0 0.067 8.2
Pyridine 110-86-1 0.014 16
Safrole 94-59-7 0.081 22
Silvex (2,4,5-TP) 93-72-1 0.72 7.9
1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-
benzene
95-94-3 0.055 14
TCDDs (All
Tetrachlorodibenzo-
p-dioxins)
NA 0.000063 0.001
TCDFs (All
Tetrachloro-
dibenzofurans)
NA 0.000063 0.001
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
630-20-6 0.057 6.0
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro-
ethane
79-34-5 0.057 6.0
Tetrachloroethylene 127-18-4 0.056 6.0
2,3,4,6-Tetrachloro-
phenol
58-90-2 0.030 7.4
Thiodicarb
6
59669-26-0 0.019 1.4
Thiophanate-methyl
6
23564-05-8 0.056 1.4
Tirpate
6
26419-73-8 0.056 0.28
Toluene 108-88-3 0.080 10
Toxaphene 8001-35-2 0.0095 2.6
Triallate
6
2303-17-5 0.042 1.4
Tribromomethane
(Bromoform)
75-25-2 0.63 15
1,2,4-Trichloro-
benzene
120-82-1 0.055 19
1,1,1-Trichloro-
ethane
71-55-6 0.054 6.0
1,1,2-Trichloro-
ethane
79-00-5 0.054 6.0
Trichloroethylene 79-01-6 0.054 6.0
Trichloromonofluoro-
methane
75-69-4 0.020 30
2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenol
95-95-4 0.18 7.4
2,4,6-Trichloro-
phenol
88-06-2 0.035 7.4
2,4,5-Trichloro-
phenoxyacetic
acid/2,4,5-T
93-76-5 0.72 7.9
1,2,3-Trichloro-
propane
96-18-4 0.85 30
1,1,2-Trichloro-
1,2,2-trifluoro-
ethane
76-13-1 0.057 30
Triethylamine
6
101-44-8 0.081 1.5
???
tris-(2,3-Dibromo-
propyl) phosphate
126-72-7 0.11 0.10
Vernolate
6
1929-77-7 0.042 1.4
Vinyl chloride 75-01-4 0.27 6.0
Xylenes-mixed
isomers (sum of o-,
m-, and p-xylene
concentrations)
1330-20-7 0.32 30
Antimony 7440-36-0 1.9 2.1 mg/l TCLP
Arsenic 7440-38-2 1.4 5.0 mg/l TCLP
Barium 7440-39-3 1.2 7.6 mg/l TCLP
Beryllium 7440-41-7 0.82 0.014 mg/l
TCLP
Cadmium 7440-43-9 0.69 0.19 mg/l
TCLP
Chromium (Total) 7440-47-3 2.77 0.86 mg/l
TCLP
Cyanides (Total)
4
57-12-5 1.2 590
Cyanides (Amenable)
4
57-12-5 0.86 30
Fluoride
5
16984-48-8 35 NA
Lead 7439-92-1 0.69 0.37 mg/l
TCLP
Mercury-
Nonwastewater from
Retort
7439-97-6 NA 0.20 mg/l
TCLP
Mercury-All Others 7439-97-6 0.15 0.025 mg/l
TCLP
Nickel 7440-02-0 3.98 5.0 mg/l TCLP
Selenium 7782-49-2 0.82 0.16 mg/l
TCLP
Silver 7440-22-4 0.43 0.30 mg/l
TCLP
Sulfide 18496-25-8 14 NA
Thallium 7440-28-0 1.4 0.078 mg/l
TCLP
Vanadium
5
7440-62-2 4.3 0.23 mg/l
TCLP
Zinc
5
7440-66-6 2.61 5.3 mg/l TCLP
1 CAS means Chemical Abstract Services. When the waste code
or regulated constituents are described as a combination of
a chemical with its salts or esters, the CAS number is given
for the parent compound only.
2 Concentration standards for wastewaters are expressed in
mg/l are based on analysis of composite samples.
3 Except for metals (EP or TCLP) and cyanides (total and
amenable), the nonwastewater treatment standards expressed
as a concentration were established, in part, based on
incineration in units operated in accordance with the
technical requirements of 35 Ill. Adm. Code 724.Subpart O or
???
35 Ill. Adm. Code 725.Subpart O or on combustion in fuel
substitution units operating in accordance with applicable
technical requirements. A facility may comply with these
treatment standards according to provisions in 40 CFR
268.40(d). All concentration standards for nonwastewaters
are based on analysis of grab samples.
4 Both Cyanides (Total) and Cyanides (Amenable) for
nonwastewaters are to be analyzed using Method 9010 or 9012,
found in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste,
Physical/Chemical Methods”, USEPA Publication SW-846,
incorporated by reference in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 720.111, with
a sample size of 10 grams and a distillation time of one
hour and 15 minutes.
5 These constituents are not “underlying hazardous
constituents” in characteristic wastes, according to the
definition at Section 728.102(i).
6 This footnote corresponds with note 6 to the table to 40 CFR
268.48(a), which has already expired by its own terms. This
statement maintains structural consistency with the federal
regulations.
Note: NA means not applicable.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from table to 40 CFR 268.48(a) (1997).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
TITLE 35: ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
SUBTITLE G: WASTE DISPOSAL
CHAPTER I: POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD
SUBCHAPTER d: UNDERGROUND INJECTION CONTROL AND
UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK PROGRAMS
PART 738
HAZARDOUS WASTE INJECTION RESTRICTIONS
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section
738.101 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
738.102 Definitions
738.103 Dilution Prohibited as a Substitute for Treatment
738.104 Case-by-Case Extensions of an Effective Date
738.105 Waste Analysis
SUBPART B: PROHIBITIONS ON INJECTION
Section
738.110 Waste Specific Prohibitions - Solvent Wastes
???
738.111 Waste Specific Prohibitions - Dioxin-Containing Wastes
738.112 Waste Specific Prohibitions - California List Wastes
738.114 Waste Specific Prohibitions - First Third Wastes
738.115 Waste Specific Prohibitions - Second Third Wastes
738.116 Waste Specific Prohibitions - Third Third Wastes
738.117 Waste-Specific Prohibitions - Newly-Listed Wastes
738.118 Waste-Specific Prohibitions - Newly-Listed and
Identified Wastes
SUBPART C: PETITION STANDARDS AND PROCEDURES
Section
738.120 Petitions to Allow Injection of a Prohibited Waste
738.121 Required Information to Support Petitions
738.122 Submission, Review and Approval or Denial of Petitions
738.123 Review of Adjusted Standards
738.124 Termination of Adjusted Standards
AUTHORITY: Implementing Sections 13 and 22.4 and authorized by
Section 27 of the Environmental Protection Act [415 ILCS 5/13,
22.4 and 27].
SOURCE: Adopted in R89-2 at 14 Ill. Reg. 3059, effective
February 20, 1990; amended in R89-11 at 14 Ill. Reg. 11948,
effective July 9, 1990; amended in R90-14 at 15 Ill. Reg. 11425,
effective July 24, 1991; amended in R92-13 at 17 Ill. Reg. 6190,
effective April 5, 1993; amended in R93-6 at 17 Ill. Reg. 15641,
effective September 14, 1993; amended in R95-4 at 19 Ill. Reg.
9501, effective June 27, 1995; amended in R96-10/R97-3/R97-5 at
22 Ill. Reg. 238, effective December 16, 1997; amended in R97-
21/R98-3/R98-5 at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________.
SUBPART A: GENERAL
Section 738.101 Purpose, Scope, and Applicability
a) This Part identifies hazardous wastes that are
restricted from disposal into Class I wells and defines
those circumstances under which a waste, otherwise
prohibited from injection, may be injected.
b) The requirements of this Part apply to owners or
operators of the following Class I wells:
1) Hazardous waste injection wells that are used to
inject hazardous waste; and
2) Injection wells that are used to inject wastes
which once exhibited a prohibited characteristic
of hazardous waste identified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Subpart C, at the point of generation, and
???
which no longer exhibit the characteristic at the
point of injection.
c) Wastes otherwise prohibited from injection may continue
to be injected:
1) If an extension from the effective date of a
prohibition has been granted pursuant to Section
738.104; or
2) If an adjusted standard has been granted in
response to a petition filed under Section
738.120; or
3) If the waste is generated by a conditionally
exempt small quantity generator, as defined in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721.105.
d) A waste that is hazardous only because it exhibits a
characteristic of hazardous waste and which is
otherwise prohibited from injection under this Part or
35 Ill. Adm. Code 728 is not prohibited from injection
if the following is true of the waste:
1) It is disposed into a non-hazardous or hazardous
waste injection well, as defined under 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 730.106(a); and
2) It does not exhibit any prohibited characteristic
of hazardous waste identified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code
721.Subpart C at the point of injection.
BOARD NOTE: Derived from 40 CFR 148.1 (1996).
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
SUBPART B: PROHIBITIONS ON INJECTION
Section 738.118 Waste-Specific Prohibitions - Newly-Listed
and Identified Wastes
a) Effective August 11, 1997, the wastes specified in 35
Ill. Adm. Code 721 as USEPA hazardous waste numbers
F032, F034, F035 are prohibited from underground
injection.
b) Effective May 12, 1999, the wastes specified in 35 Ill.
Adm. Code 721 as USEPA hazardous waste numbers F032,
F034, F035 that are mixed with radioactive wastes are
prohibited from underground injection.
???
ac) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as
having the following USEPA hazardous waste numbers are
prohibited from underground injection:
K156
K157
K158
K159
K160
K161
P127
P128
P185
P188
P189
P190
P191
P192
P194
P196
P197
P198
P199
P201
P202
P203
P204
P205
U271
U277
U278
U279
U280
U364
U365
U366
U367
U372
U373
U375
U376
U377
U378
U379
U381
U382
U383
U384
U385
U386
U387
???
U389
U390
U391
U392
U393
U394
U395
U396
U400
U401
U402
U403
U404
U407
U409
U410
U411
bd) The wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 721.132 as
USEPA hazardous waste number K088 is prohibited from
underground injection.
ce)
On April 8, 1998, tThe wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721 as having the following USEPA hazardous waste
numbers and Mixed TC/Radioactive wastes are prohibited
from underground injection:
D018
D019
D020
D021
D022
D023
D024
D025
D026
D027
D028
D029
D030
D031
D032
D033
D034
D035
D036
D037
D038
D039
D040
D041
D042
???
D043
df)
On April 8, 1998, tThe wastes specified in 35 Ill. Adm.
Code 721 as having the following USEPA hazardous waste
numbers are prohibited from underground injection:
D001
D002
D003
(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. ________, effective
______________________)
